SSC GD Constable Previous Year Paper (Held on: 18th February 2019 Shift 1)

The pattern followed is,

The place value of S from reverse is 8

The place value of A from reverse is 26

The place value of W from reverse is 4

SAW = 8 + 26 + 4 = 38

Similarly,

For FEED,

The place value of F from reverse is 21

The place value of E from reverse is 22

The place value of E from reverse is 22

The place value of D from reverse is 23

FEED = 21 + 22 + 22 + 23 = 88

Hence, “88” is the correct answer.

The figure which will complete the given pattern is,

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is,

Hence, “111” is the correct answer.

Ichthyology is a branch of Zoology for the study of fishes.

Similarly,

Pedology is a discipline in soil science that focuses on understanding soil formation.

Soil is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Hence, “soil” is the correct answer.

The pattern that will appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line is,

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

Arranging them according to the given information,

J teaches Science on Wednesday.

O teaches Math second day after J.

K teaches on the first day of the week, but teaches neither Hindi nor English.

 

M teaches English before N and L teaches Arts before J.

K does not teach Hindi, so N teaches Hindi.

The only subject left is Social Science which is taught by K.

 

L teaches on Thursday.

Hence, “L” is the correct answer.

The figure is embedded in,

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is,

The alphabets are arranged in ascending order in the given word.

POTATO → AOOPTT

Similarly,

BARBER → ABBERR

Hence, “ABBERR” is the correct answer.

Yellow, Violet and Orange are the colors present in the Rainbow.

Pink is not present in the Rainbow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Pink".

Important Points

There are 7 colors in the Rainbow namely,

Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, and Red, abbreviated as VIBGYOR, in the same order from top to bottom.

Confusion Points Three Primary Colors (Ps): Red, Yellow, Blue.

Three Secondary Colors (S'): Orange, Green, Violet.

The least possible Venn diagram is,

Conclusion I: Some owls are hares → False (There is no direct given between owls and hares so it can be possible but not definite, hence, false)

Conclusion II: Some hares are horses → True (as some horses are hares given so some hares is also horses it is definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows".

Additional Information

The mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at the right side is,

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Arranging them according the given information,

A is opposite D and third to the right of B.

E is between C and D.

G is between A and F.

H is to the right of A.

D is sitting between B and E.

Hence, “D” is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is,

Hence, “MNL” is the correct answer.

Arranging them according the given information,

P is sitting at one extreme end.

P is sitting second to the right of T.

O is sitting exactly between R and T.

Case 1: Facing North

Case 2: Facing South

Q is sitting to the immediate left of S.

U is not sitting at any extreme end.

Case 1: Facing North

Case 2: Facing South

S is sitting between Q and R.

Hence, “S” is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is,

For 22: 88,

22 × (2 + 2) = 88

Similarly,

For 37: ?

37 × (3 + 7) = 370

370 is related to the third number in the same ways the second number is related to the first number.

Hence, “370” is the correct answer.

97, 89 and 83 are prime numbers.

Whereas,

63 is not a prime number.

Hence, “63” is the odd number.

Wheat is a kind of crop.

And,

Farmers is represented separately.

The correct a Venn diagram is,

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is,

Hence, “- 8” is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is,

2³ = 8

3³ = 27

4³ = 64

5³ = 125

6³ = 216

7³ = 343

Hence, “343” is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is,

Option 1: CEK → C + E + K = 3 + 5 + 11 = 19

Option 2: AHI → A + H + I = 1 + 8 + 9 = 18 

Option 3: DFH → D + F + H = 4 + 6 + 8 = 18

Option 4: CFI → C + F + I = 3 + 6 + 9 = 18

Thus, option 1 is different from other options.

Hence, “CEK” is the odd one out.

The pattern followed is,

The figure is rotating in one place in a clockwise direction.

The figure which will come next in the pattern is,

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram is,

Conclusion I: No pen is a crow → False (as shown in the diagram it is a possibility but not definite)

Conclusion II: Some pens are crows → False (as shown in the diagram it is a possibility but not definite)

The two conclusions form a complimentary pair.

Hence, either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

Achieve and fail are antonyms.

Similarly,

The antonym of gloomy is cheerful.

Cheerful is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Hence, “cheerful” is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is,

Similarly,

IMO is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Hence, “IMO” is the correct answer.

Interchanging the signs and using BODMAS rule,

Option A → – and ×

The original equation is,

10 + 10 × 10 – 10 ÷ 10 = -89

Interchanging the signs,

10 + 10 – 10 × 10 ÷ 10 = -89

Using BODMAS rule,

10 + 10 – 10 × 1 = - 89

10 + 10 – 10 = - 89

20 – 10 is not equal to – 89

Option B → × and ÷

The original equation is,

10 + 10 × 10 – 10 ÷ 10 = -89

Interchanging the signs,

10 + 10 ÷ 10 – 10 × 10 = - 89

Using BODMAS rule,

10 + 1 – 10 × 10 = - 89

10 + 1 – 100 = - 89

11 – 100 = - 89

-89 = - 89

Option C → + and ×

The original equation is,

10 + 10 × 10 – 10 ÷ 10 = -89

Interchanging the signs,

10 × 10 + 10 – 10 ÷ 10 = -89

Using BODMAS rule,

10 × 10 + 10 – 1 = - 89

100 + 10 – 1 = - 89

110 – 1 is not equal to – 89

Option D → – and ÷

The original equation is,

10 + 10 × 10 – 10 ÷ 10 = -89

Interchanging the signs,

10 + 10 × 10 ÷ 10 – 10 = - 89

Using BODMAS rule,

10 + 10 × 1 – 10 = - 89

10 + 10 – 10 is not equal to – 89

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Jammu & Kashmir.

• The Kani Shawl handicraft variety belongs to Jammu & Kashmir.
• The Kani Shawl is considered one of the oldest handicraft items of Jammu & Kashmir.
• It was originated in 3000 B.C.
• It is famous since the time of the Mughals.
• It is mainly crafted in the Kanihama area in Jammu & Kashmir.
• The name ‘Kani’ was derived from the place Kanihama.
• Kani shawl is a geographical indication tag product in Jammu and Kashmir.

The correct answer is Kaveri river, Tamilnadu.

Important Points:

The Mettur dam is situated in Tamil Nadu.

• It is built across the Kaveri river.
• The Mettur Project was completed and opened in 1934.
• Mettur dam is the largest in Tamil Nadu.
• The United Kingdom helps in the construction by providing funds for the dam.

Additional Information

• The Tungabhadra dam is constructed across the Tungabhadra river in Karnataka.
• Supa dam is built across the Kali river in Karnataka.
• The Indira Sagar dam is constructed across the Narmada river in Madhya Pradesh.

The correct answer is Equal to 7

Key Points

• The neutral value of the pH scale is equal to 7.
• The pH scale is the scale used to express the acidity or alkalinity of a substance based on the concentration of hydrogen ions in its solution.
• The pH scale was discovered by Søren Sørensen.
• The range of the pH scale is 0 to 14.
• If pH < 7, then the solution is acidic.
• If pH > 7, then the solution is basic.
• If pH = 7, then the solution is neutral.

Additional Information

• pH means the potential of Hydrogen.
• The strength of acids and bases depends on the number of H+ ions and OH- ions produced, respectively.
• The human body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8.
• When the pH of rainwater is less than 5.6, it is called acid rain.

The correct answer is International Tropical Timber Organization.

Important Points 

• International Tropical Timber Organization is an organization that promotes sustainable management and conservation of tropical forests.
• International Tropical Timber Organization was formed in 1986.
• Its headquarters is located at Yokohama in Japan.
• Its members represent about 80% of the world’s tropical forests and 90% of the global tropical timber trade.
• The most recent international tropical timber agreement 2006 entered into force on 7^th December 2011.
• The main objectives of the International Tropical Timber Organization are:
• Develops internationally agreed with policy guidelines and norms to encourage sustainable forest management (SFM) and sustainable tropical timber industries and trade.
• Assists tropical member countries through projects and other activities.
• Collects analyze and disseminates data on the production and trade of tropical timber.
• Promotes sustainable tropical timber supply chains.
• Helps develop capacity in tropical forestry.

Additional Information

• United Nations Forum on Forests is a subsidiary body of the Economic and Social Council of the United Nations (ECOSOC) with the main objective to promote the management, conservation, and sustainable development of all types of forests.
• Greenpeace is a non-governmental environmental organization founded in 1971.
• World Wide Fund for Nature is a science-based organization that addresses issues such as the conservation of species and its habitats, climate change, water, and environmental education, among many others.

The correct answer is the air reacts with the enzymes in the banana.

• Bananas turn brown in color because the air reacts with the enzymes in the banana.
• The life cycle of a banana starts with a deep green color.
• The deep green color of bananas changes to a delicious yellow and ends with a brown color.
• The unripened bananas are a light green color that begins to yellow as they ripen.
• Bananas contain an enzyme called polyphenol oxidase that reacts with oxygen in the atmosphere and coats the banana with a sort of rust that accounts for the dark brown color.
• Ethylene hormone helps for the ripening process.
• Large amounts of ethylene leads to the decaying of yellow pigments in bananas and it will change into brown color.
• The processes of formation of brown spots on a banana is called enzymatic browning.

Stamp by the finance minister is NOT correct.

• Credit refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods, or services in return for the promise of future payment.
• The terms associated with credit are:
• Interest rate.
• Collateral.
• Necessary documents.
• Every loan(credit) agreement specifies an interest rate which the borrower must pay to the lender along with the repayment of the principal.
• Lenders may demand collateral (security) against loans.
• Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns such as land, vehicle, building, or deposits with banks, and uses this as a guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid.
• The lender has the right to sell the asset or collateral to obtain payment If the borrower fails to repay the loan.
• One had to submit necessary valid documents to the bank for the approval of loans.

The correct answer is Assam.

Important Points

• Kaziranga national park is situated in Assam.
• It is the oldest park in Assam.
• It has been declared a national park in 1974.
• Kaziranga national park is famous for its great Indian one-horned rhinoceroses.
• It hosts two-thirds of the world's great one-horned rhinoceroses.
• It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site in India
• Kaziranga national park was declared a world heritage Site by UNESCO in 1985.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Dadasaheb Phalke.

Important Points 

• Dadasaheb Phalke was an Indian producer, director, and screenwriter.
• Dadasaheb Phalke is popularly known as the ‘father of the Indian film industry'.
• He was credited with making India’s first indigenous feature film.
• The first full-length Indian feature film 'Raja Harishchandra' was directed by Dadasaheb Phalke.
• Dadasaheb Phalke's debut film 'Raja Harishchandra' was released in 1913.
• Notable works of Dadasaheb Phalke are:
• Mohini Bhasmasur.
• Satyavan Savitri.
• Lanka Dahan.
• Shri Krishna Janma.
• Kaliya Mardan.

Additional Information 

• India's highest award in cinema Dadasaheb Phalke award is named after him.
• Amitabh Bachchan is an Indian film actor and film producer in Hindi cinema.
• Dev Anand was an Indian film actor, writer, director, and producer in Hindi cinema.
• Rajesh Khanna was an Indian actor, film producer in Hindi cinema.

The correct answer is Rupiya.

Important Points

• Sher Shah Suri was the founder of the Suri dynasty.
• The silver coin introduced by Sher Shah Suri was called Rupiya.
• Sher Shah Suri issued the Rupiya coin and fixed standard weights and measures all over the empire.
• This coin introduced by Sher Shah Suri weighed 178 grains and was the precursor of the modern rupee.
• Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun in the battle of Chausa and assumed the title of Farid al-Din Sher Shah as emperor in 1539.
• He again defeated the Humayun in the battle of Kannauj and annexed Kannauj in 1540.
• The grand trunk road that turns from Calcutta to Peshawar was built by Sher Shah Suri.

Additional Information

• The silver Tankah coin was introduced by Iltutmish.
• The mohur coin was introduced by Sher Shah Suri.
• Gold coins called Dinar was introduced by Muhammad bin Tughluq.

The correct answer is Goods manufactured.

• Excise duty is a tax imposed on goods for their production, licensing, and sale.
• Excise duty is an indirect tax.
• Central excise duty is a tax that is charged on such excisable goods that are manufactured in India and are meant for domestic consumption.
• It is mandatory to pay Central Excise duty payable on the goods manufactured unless exempted.
• Excise duty is the opposite of Customs duty.
• The Goods and Services Tax (GST) subsumed many types of excise duty.
• At present, excise duty applies only to petroleum and liquor.
• The union excise duties form the most significant part of the central taxes.

The correct answer is Gul Makai.

• Gul Makai is a  biographical drama of Malala Yousafzai.
• It was directed by H.E. Amjad Khan.
• It is the first Malala Yousafzai biopic to be made.​
• Reem Shaikh is performing as Malala Yousafzai
• Malala Yousafzai is a girl-education activist from Pakistan.
• She was honoured with the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014.
• She is the youngest Nobel Prize laureate.
• We Are Displaced: True Stories of Refugee Lives is a notable work of Malala Yousafzai.
• She was awarded Pakistan's first National Youth Peace Prize.

The correct answer is Nagaland.

Important Points

• Hornbill festival is a famous festival celebrated in Nagaland.
• Hornbill Festival is held at Naga village.
• It is held every year from 1^st December to 10^th December,
• The festival is named after the hornbill bird.
• All tribes of Nagaland state are taking part in this festival.
• It is also called the "festival of festivals".
• Hornbill Festival was celebrated for the first time in 2000.

Additional Information

• Yaoshang and Chavang Kut are famous festivals in Manipur.
• Losar and Saga Dawa are famous festivals in Sikkim.
• Kharchi Puja is a famous festival in Tripura.

The correct answer is Anti-defection law was included.

Important Points 

• Anti-defection law was included in the Indian Constitution by the 52^nd amendment.
• The 52^nd amendment was passed in the year 1985.
• It also added the tenth schedule to the Indian constitution.
• The tenth schedule deals with the disqualification of members of Parliament and State legislature on the ground of defection.
• The Anti-defection law was passed by Lok Sabha on 30^th January 1985.
• Anti-defection law was by Rajya Sabha on 31^st January 1985.

Additional Information 

• The sixth amendment of the Indian constitution amended the Union List and State List with respect to raising taxes.
• The 42^nd amendment added the words ‘socialist secular’ added to the preamble.
• The 36^th amendment deals with the formation of Sikkim as a state within the Indian Union.

Ranji Trophy is NOT correct.

Key Points

• Among the options, only Ranji Trophy is not associated with Indian football.
• Ranji Trophy is associated with cricket.
• The Ranji Trophy is a domestic first-class cricket tournament played between multiple teams from state cricket associations in India.
• The tournament is named after former India cricketer Ranjitsinhji.
• The first edition of the Ranji Trophy tournament was held in 1934–35.
• Mumbai is the most successful team in the Ranji Trophy tournament history with 41 titles.
• Important competitions associated with Indian football are:
• Federation cup.
• Santosh trophy.
• Durand cup.
• Subroto Mukherjee cup.
• Sanjay gold cup.
• Nizam gold cup.

The correct answer is Articles 23-24.

Important Points:

• Articles 23-24 of the Indian Constitution cover the fundamental right against exploitation.
• Articles 23 prohibits human beings and other similar forms of forced labour.
• Nothing in article 23 shall prevent the State from imposing compulsory service for public purpose, and in imposing such service the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them.
• Articles 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or other hazardous activities.

Additional Information:

• Articles 14 says that all persons are equal before the law and entitled to equal protection of the laws.
• Articles 18 abolishes titles except military and academic.
• Articles 19 guarantees six fundamental freedoms to all citizens.
• Articles 22 provides protection against arbitrary arrest and detention.
• Articles 29 provides the protection of the interests of minorities.
• Articles 30 provides the right of minorities to establish and administer the educational institutes.

The correct answer is Shere Bangla stadium, against Bangladesh.

Important Points 

• Sachin Tendulkar is an international cricket player from India.
• He scored his 100th century in international cricket on 16^th March 2012.
• He scored his 100th century in Shere Bangla stadium, against Bangladesh.
• It was his first one-day international hundred against Bangladesh.
• He is the first person in history to achieve 100 centuries in international cricket.

Additional Information 

• Sachin scored his first century in Old Trafford, Manchester against England in 1990.
• Sachin is the highest run-scorer in international cricket.
• Playing It My Way is the autobiography book of Sachin.

The correct answer is Manmohan Singh.

Important Points 

• Manmohan Singh served as the 13th Prime Minister of India from 2004 to 2014.
• 'India's Export Trends and Prospects for Self-Sustained Growth' is the book authored by Manmohan Singh.
• He served as the governor of the reserve bank during the period of 1982 to 1985.
• He was the deputy chairman of the planning commission during the period 1985 to 1987.
• He was the finance commissioner in the Narasimha Rao government.
• He is the first prime minister to visit the Siachin glacier.

Additional Information 

• Notable works of Manmohan Singh are:
• Changing India.
• Leverage: A Broader View.
• The Quest for Equity in Development.
• Notable works of Shashi Tharoor are:
• An Era of Darkness: The British Empire in India.
• The Paradoxical Prime Minister.
• Inglorious Empire.
• Why I Am a Hindu.
• Notable works of Narendra Modi are:
• Exam Warriors.
• Abode of Love.
• Jyotipunj.
• Social Harmony.
• Notable works of Atal Bihari Vajpayee are:
• Meri Ekyavan Kavitayen.
• Four decades in parliament.
• Decisive days.

The correct answer is 1-3-2-4.

Important Points

• Champaran Satyagraha against indigo plantation was in 1917.
• Champaran Satyagraha was Mahathma Gandhi's first satyagraha in India.
• It took place at Champaran in Bihar.
• Demand for high rent and illegal dues by European planters leads to Champaran Satyagraha.
• British agreed to the demands of the farmers at the end of this satyagraha.
• Rowlatt Satyagraha was in 1919.
• It was against the anarchical and revolutionary crimes act(Rowlett act) passed by the British.
• The Rowlett act was passed on 6^th February 1919.
• Gandhiji called this act as "black act'".
• The act empowered the British government to arrest any person without reason, search any place without warrant and imprison anyone without trial.
• The Non-cooperation Khilafat movement was started in 1920.
• The non-cooperation movement is the first mass political movement under Gandhiji in India.
• The attainment of swaraj by peaceful means was the main goal of this movement.
• The non-cooperation movement was called off by Gandhiji due to the Chauri Chaura incident.
• The Simon commission arrived in India in 1928.
• It was formed to study constitutional reforms and make recommendations to the government in India.
• Simon commission was an all-white commission without any Indian members.
• It was formed on 26^th November 1927.
• Simon commission arrived in India on 3^rd February 1928.
• Simon commission submitted its reports on 27^th May 1930.

The correct answer is Impeachment Motion.

• An impeachment motion is passed in the parliament to remove the President of India.
• The impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure.
• Article 61 of the Indian constitution deals with the processes of impeachment of the president.
• The only ground for the impeachment of the president is "violation of the constitution".
• The impeachment procedure can be initiated by either house of the parliament.
• The charges are contained in a notice that should be signed by one-fourth of the total members of the initiating house.
• A 14 days advance notice should be given to the president after initiating the procedure.
• The president can defend himself by taking the service of the attorney general of India or any other law officer of his choice.
• The impeachment procedure requires a special majority.
• If the other house also passes a resolution by 2/3 majority of the total members of the house, then the president will be removed from his office from the date on which the bill is so passed.
• No president has so far impeached in India.

The correct answer is RBI.

Important Points

• RBI is the acronym of the Reserve Bank of India.
• Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes in India.
• Reserve Bank of India issues all currency notes above one rupee.

Additional Information

• The Reserve Bank of India Act was passed in the year 1934.
• It was established on 1^st April 1935.
• It was set up on the recommendation of the Hilton Young Commission
• Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on 1^st January 1949.
• It is well known as "bankers bank" in India.
• PNB stands for Punjab National Bank.
• SBI stands for State Bank of India.

The correct answer is Mughals and Marathas.

Key Points

• The Treaty of Purandar was signed between the Mughals and Marathas.
• The treaty was signed on 11^th June 1665.
• It was signed between Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and Raja Jai Singh.
• Raja Jai Singh was signed on behalf of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb.
• The main highlights of the Purandar treaty are:
• Many forts were relinquished to the Mughals
• Agreed that Shivaji would meet Aurangzeb at Agra.
• Shivaji agreed to send his son Sambhaji as well.
• Shivaji was required to help the Mughals in any situation.

The correct answer is Vitamin C.

Important Points

• Scurvy is a nutritional disorder of humankind.
• Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin C
• Ascorbic acid is the chemical name of vitamin C.
• Vitamin C is the first artificially synthesized vitamin.
• Vitamin C is essential for the healing of wounds, repair, and maintenance of cartilage, bone, and teeth.
• Vitamin C deteriorated through cooking and canning of food.

Additional Information 

• Xerophthalmia and night blindness are the deficiency diseases of Vitamin A.
• Rickets is the deficiency diseases of Vitamin D.
• Hemorrhage is the deficiency diseases of Vitamin K.

The correct answer is Meghalaya.

Key Points

• Bamboo drip irrigation system a very old practice seen in Indian state Meghalaya
• Bamboo drip irrigation system is a 200-year-old system in Meghalaya.
• It is a system of tapping stream and spring water by using bamboo pipes.
• In a bamboo drip irrigation system bout 18-20 litres of water enters the bamboo pipe system, gets transported over hundreds of metres, and finally reduces to 20-80 drops per minute at the site of the plant.
• The word Meghalaya means "adobe of clouds.
• The longest natural cave in India 'Krem Liat Prah' is in Meghalaya.
• Khasi, Garo, Jaintia hills are situated in Meghalaya.
• Rajiv Gandhi Indian Institute of Management is situated in Meghalaya.

The correct answer is Anthracite.

Important Points

• Anthracite is the highest quality of hard coal.
• Anthracite is the most highly metamorphosed form of coal.
• It contains around 86% fixed carbon and 14% volatile matter.
• Anthracite considered the least plentiful form of coal.
• Coal is considered the most abundantly available fossil fuel.
• It provides a substantial part of the nation’s energy needs.
• Coal is formed due to the compression of plant material over a long period of time.

Additional Information

• Lignite is low-grade brown coal.
• Lignite is soft with high moisture content.
• The principal lignite reserves are in Neyveli in Tamil Nadu.
• Bituminous coal is the coal that has been buried deep and subjected to increased temperatures.
• Bituminous coal is the most popular coal in commercial use.
• Decaying plants in swamps produce peat coal.
• Peat has low carbon and high moisture content and low heating capacity.

The correct answer is Odia.

• Among the options, Odia is a language declared ‘classical’ by the Government of India in 2014.

Important Points

• India currently has 11 classical languages, after five new languages—Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali—were granted the status in October 2024.
• Odia was given the status of the classical language in 2014.
• At present, there are 11 languages that enjoy the 'Classical' status in India.
• All six classical languages are listed in the eighth schedule of the constitution.

Additional Information

The 11 Classical Languages of India 

• Tamil: (2004)
• Sanskrit: (2005)
• Telugu: (2008)
• Kannada: (2008)
• Malayalam: (2013)
• Odia: (2014)
• Marathi: (2024)
• Pali: (2024)
• Prakrit: (2024)
• Assamese: (2024)
• Bengali: (2024)

Formula used:

The volume of cuboid = L × B × H

Total surface area of cuboid = 2 (LB + BH + HL)

Calculation:

L × B × H = 1536

Let the length breadth and height of a cuboid be in the ratio 4x: 3x: 2x

⇒ 24 x³ = 1536

⇒ 1536/24 = x³ 

⇒ x³ = 64

⇒ x = 4

Total surface area of cuboid = 2 × (12x² + 6x² + 8x²) = 52x²

∴ Total surface area of cuboid = 52 × 16 = 832 cm²

Given:

The average age of students is A and the average age of teachers is B.

The number of students is 45 times the number of teachers.

Concept used:

Total = Mean × number of entities

Calculation:

The average age of students is A and the average age of teachers is B

Let total teachers be x

Number student = 45 × x

The average age of student = A

Total age of student = 45A × x

The average age of teachers = B

Total age of teachers = B × x

 Average = (45Ax + Bx)/(x + 45x)

⇒ (45A + B)/46

∴ The average age of students and teachers together is (45A + B)/46.

Formula used:

Profit = investment × time

Calculation:

Total profit = Rs. 26600

Profit of Ram = 16000 × 12

Profit of Sita = 22000 × 12

Profit of Salma = 18000 × 12

Share of Ram = [(16000 × 12)/(12 × (16000 + 22000 + 18000))] × 26600 

⇒ [16000/56000] × 26600

∴ Share of Ram = Rs. 7600

Shortcut Trick

Arrange the data in ascending order: 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.

Count the number of terms (n): n = 8 (which is even).

For even n, the median is the average of the two middle terms.

Middle terms are the 4^th (3) and 5^th (4) values.

Median = (3 + 4) ÷ 2 = 3.5.

∴ The correct answer is 3.5.

Alternate Method

Given: Data set = 2, 3, 2, 3, 6, 5, 4, 7

Formula Used: If n is even, Median = [(n/2)^th term + (n/2 + 1)^th term] ÷ 2

⇒ Arrange data in ascending order: 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

⇒ Total number of observations (n) = 8

⇒ Median = (4^th term + 5^th term) ÷ 2

⇒ Median = (3 + 4) ÷ 2

⇒ Median = 7 ÷ 2 = 3.5

∴ The correct answer is 3.5.

Additional Information

Median for Odd n

If the number of observations n is odd, the median is the middle-most value, calculated as the ((n + 1) ÷ 2)^th term.

Mean (Average)

The arithmetic mean is the sum of all observations divided by the total number of observations: Mean = (Σx) ÷ n.

Empirical Relationship

For a moderately skewed distribution, the relationship between mean, median, and mode is: Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean.

Given:

The sum becomes five times itself

Time = 8 years

Formula Used:

Simple interest = (P × R × T)/100

P → Principal

R →Rate of interest

T →Time 

Calculation:

Let the sum of money be P

After 8 years it becomes 5 times.

The simple interest = 5P – P = 4P

4P = (P × R × 8)/100

R = 400/8 = 50%

∴The Rate of interest per annum is 50%

Cost price of each article = 3150/75 = Rs. 42

Cost price of 15 article = Rs. 42 × 15 = Rs. 630 = Profit

Total CP = Rs. 3150

Total SP = 3150 + 630 = Rs. 3780

∴ SP of each article = 3780/75 = Rs 50.4

Let the passing marks be P and Maximum marks be M

The student got 24% marks in an exam and he failed by 56 marks

∴ P - 24% of M = 56       ---- (1)

And, 60% of M - P = 70       ---- (2)

Adding equation 1 and 2

36% of M = 126

⇒ M = 12600/36 = 350

∴ The maximum marks for the exam = 350

Given:

Raju travels half of his speed so that he was late for 24 minutes.

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Time ∝ (1/Speed)

Calculation:

Let his speed be x and time is t

As per the question, it says he travels half of his usual speed

So, his speed will be (x/2)

Now, according to the formula, we can say, when speed will become half then time will be doubled

So, the new time will be 2t

Now, again according to the question, we can say

2t - t = 24

⇒ t = 24

∴ His usual time to reach the office is 24 minutes.

Shortcut Trick

Formula used:

 Usual time = [Late time/{1 ÷ (x/y) - 1}]

Here, Late time = 24 minutes, (x/y) = 1/2

Usual time = [24/{1 ÷ (1/2)} - 1]

⇒ Usual time = [24/{2 - 1}]

⇒ Usual time = 24/1 = 24

∴ His usual time to reach the office is 24 minutes.

Formula used:

Profit = SP - CP

Profit % = (Profit/CP) × 100

Here, SP → Selling price, CP → Cost price

Calculation:

Cost price of 35 eggs = 35 × 3 = Rs. 105

Selling price of 35 eggs = 35 × 5 = Rs. 175

Profit = 175 - 105 = 70

Profit % = (Profit/CP) × 100

⇒ (70/105) × 100 = 66.66%

GIVEN:

CI = Rs. 1200

Rate = 22.5%

FORMULAE USED:

CI = P{(1 + r/100)ⁿ - 1}

CALCULATION:

According to question

1200 = P × 22.5/100

P = 16000/3

CI at the end of 6 years

CI = 16000/3{(122.5/100)⁶ - 1} = 12689

CI at the end of 5 years

CI = 16000/3{(122.5/100)⁵ - 1} = 9379

Compound interest for the 6th year = CI at the end of 6 years - CI at the end of 5 years = 3310

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket -

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Calculation:

75 ÷ 25 of {(8 - 3 + 1)/6}

⇒ 75 ÷ 25 of 1

⇒ 75 ÷ 25 = 3

Shortcut Trick

LCM of 24 and 32 = 96 units (Total Work).

Efficiency: F = 4, G = 3.

When a person leaves n days before completion, add their potential work (Efficiency × n) to the total work.

Modified Work = 96 + (3 × 8) = 120 units.

Total time = Modified Work ÷ (Efficiency of F + G) = 120 ÷ 7 days.

∴ The correct answer is 120/7 days.

Alternate Method

Given: F can do work in 24 days, G in 32 days. G leaves 8 days before the completion of work.

Formula Used: Total Work = Efficiency × Time

⇒ Total Work = 96 units (LCM of 24 and 32)

⇒ Let the total number of days to complete the work be T.

⇒ F works for T days and G works for (T − 8) days.

⇒ (4 × T) + 3 × (T − 8) = 96

⇒ 4T + 3T − 24 = 96

⇒ 7T = 96 + 24

⇒ 7T = 120

⇒ T = 120/7 days

∴ The correct answer is 120/7 days.

Additional Information

Work and Efficiency

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task (Efficiency = 1 ÷ Time).

Leaving Before vs Leaving After

If a person leaves 'n' days before completion, add their potential work (Efficiency × n) to the total. If they leave 'n' days after starting, subtract the work they already finished.

Combined Efficiency

When multiple people work together, their combined efficiency is the sum of their individual efficiencies (E_total = E₁ + E₂ + ... + E_n).

Given:

$(3 × 1500 ÷ 40 + 5 ÷ \frac{2}{7}; of ;70)$

Concept:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

$(3 × 1500 ÷ 40 + 5 ÷ \frac{2}{7}; of ;70)$

⇒ (3 × 1500 × $1\over40$ + 5 ÷ $2\over7$ × 70)

⇒ ($225\over2$ + 5 ÷ 20)

⇒ ($225\over2$ + 5 × $1\over20$)

⇒ ($225\over2$ + $1\over4$) = ${450+1}\over4$

⇒ $451\over4$ 

∴ The correct answer is $451\over4$.

Rice production in year Y3 = 680000 kg

The area under cultivation in year Y3 = 150 hundred square meters = 15000 square meter

Yield per square meter for the year Y3 = 680000/15000 = 45.33 kg

Calculation:

Total time taken by P to complete the work = 2 × 10 = 20 hours

Total time taken by Q to complete the work = 5 × 6 = 30 hours

Let the total work be LCM of 20 and 30 i.e. 60 unit

One days work of P = 60/20 = 3 unit

One day work of Q = 60/30 = 2 unit

Time taken to complete the work by both P and Q working 3 hours a day = 60/{3 × (3 + 2)} = 4 days

Shortcut Trick Deviation of removed boxes from original average = 70 − 63 = 7 kg. Total weight deficit from 4 removed boxes = 4 × 7 = 28 kg. This deficit is distributed among the remaining 8 boxes. Reduction in average = 28 ÷ 8 = 3.5 kg. New Average = 63 − 3.5 = 59.5 kg. ∴ The correct answer is 59.5 kg.

Alternate Method Given: Total boxes = 12, Initial average = 63 kg, Removed boxes = 4, Removed average = 70 kg. Formula: Average = Sum of values ÷ Number of values

Remaining (8 Boxes) Removed (4) New Avg: ? Avg: 70 kg

Total: 12 Boxes (Avg: 63 kg)

⇒ Total weight of 12 boxes = 12 × 63 = 756 kg ⇒ Total weight of 4 removed boxes = 4 × 70 = 280 kg ⇒ Total weight of remaining boxes = 756 − 280 = 476 kg ⇒ Number of remaining boxes = 12 − 4 = 8 boxes ⇒ New average weight = 476 ÷ 8 = 59.5 kg ∴ The correct answer is 59.5 kg.

Additional Information Weighted Average Formula Combined Average = (n1A1 ± n2A2) ÷ (n1 ± n2), where n is the quantity and A is the average. Net Deviation Rule The sum of deviations of all observations from their arithmetic mean is always zero. This is used to find missing values or new averages quickly. Inclusion vs Exclusion When a person with weight 'W' is removed and average decreases, then W > Old Average. If average increases, then W < Old Average.

White and yellow balls is in the ratio = 7: 11

Total ball = 108

Number of yellow balls = [11/(11 + 7)] × 108 = 66

Given:

Speed of the bike = 56 km/hr 

Time = 16 hours

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

Distance covered at 56 km/hour = 56 × 16 = 896 km

New speed = 64 km/hour

Distance is same as previous,

 Time = 896/64 = 14 hour

∴ 14 hours it will take to cover the same distance at the speed of 64 km/hr

Given:

The length of a solid cuboid = 20 cm

The breadth of a solid cuboid = 16 cm

The height of a solid cuboid = 12 cm 

The Side of cube = 4 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of cuboid = l × b × h

Volume of cube = (side)3 

Calculation:

 

Volume of cuboid = l × b × h = 3840 cm³

 Volume of cube = (side)³ = 4³ =  64 cm³

The identical cubes = 3840/64 = 60

∴ The number of identical cubes is 60

Formula used:

Average = Sum of observation/Number of observation

Calculation:

Total marks of subject S5 = 85 + 70 + 66 + 62 = 283

Average marks = 283/4

Total marks of subject S2 = 62 + 52 + 72 + 37 = 223

Average marks = 223/4

∴ Required difference = 283/4 - 223/4 = 60/4 = 15

HCF is defined as the largest positive integer that divides the numbers without leaving a remainder.

Using prime factorization method:

20 = 2 × 2 × 5

10 = 2 × 5

5 = 1 × 5

∴ Common factors of 5, 10 and 20 = 5

Hence HCF of 5, 10 and 20 = 5

Formula used:

Profit = investment × Time period

Calculation:

Let T1 and T2 be time periods of Mohit and Sumit respectively

5 = 74000 × T1

T1 = 5/74000

8 = 96000 × T2

T2 = 8/96000

Ratio of T1/T2 = (5/74000)/(8/96000) = 30: 37

The total number of students enrolled in colleges C3 = 72 + 54 + 88 + 125 = 339

The total number of students enrolled in colleges C4 = 76 + 52 + 75 + 120 = 323

∴ Difference = 339 - 323 = 16

Given:

The value of the discount of 18% on first article is equal to the value of discount of 13% on second article.

Calculation:

The discount is calculated on the marked price.

According to question:

18% discount on MP of article 1 = 13% discount on MP of article 2

Ratio of MP of two articles = 13%/18% = 13: 18

Given:

The curved surface area of the cylinder = 110 cm2

Height = 5 cm

Formula Used:

The curved surface area of the cylinder = 2πrh

r → radius 

h → height

Calculation:

Curved surface area of cylinder = 2πr × h = 110 cm²

⇒ 2πr × 5 = 110 

⇒ 22/7 × r = 11 

⇒ r = 7/2

⇒ d = 2r = 2 × 7/2 = 7

∴ Diameter of its base is 7 cm

The correct answer is 'create'.

Key Points

• The meaning of the given words:
• affect: to have an effect on
• undertake: to engage in
• inflict: to force someone to experience something unpleasant
• create: to give rise to something
• Both the words, i.e. 'affect' and 'undertake' are inappropriate for the given sentence.
• Hence, options 1) and 2) should be eliminated.
• The meaning of the word 'inflict' shows that we cannot choose it for this sentence.
• One may give rise to a problem. Therefore, 'create' is the only word which fits here well.
• Hence, option 4) is the answer.

The correct answer is 'After you return from'.

Key Points

• The given is a conditional sentence as the principal clause(I will come and meet you.) is written in simple future tense.
• Therefore, simple present tense should be used in the subordinate clause(After you will return from Bangalore,).
• Hence, 'will' should be removed from the subordinate clause.
• So, 'After you return from' can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

<br>

Correct sentence: After you return from Bangalore, I will come and meet you.

Additional Information

The sentence which expresses a condition is called a conditional sentence.

• Example: She will not go to meet you if you don't invite her.

The correct answer is 'Convenient.'

Key Points

• Let us see the meaning of Awkward:
• Awkward: causing difficulty; hard to do or deal with. (कठिनाई पैदा करना; या व्यवहार करना कठिन।)
• Example: Some of the questions were rather awkward.
• Let us see the meanings of the given options:
• Problematic: full of problems or difficulties. (समस्याओं या कठिनाइयों से भरा हुआ।)
• Convenient: suitable for your purposes and needs and causing the least difficulty. (आपके उद्देश्यों और जरूरतों के लिए उपयुक्त और कम से कम कठिनाई पैदा करने वाला।)
• Difficult: needing skill or effort. (कौशल या प्रयास की आवश्यकता।)
• Matchless: of a very high standard or quality and better than everything else. (बहुत उच्च स्तर या गुणवत्ता का और बाकी सब चीजों से बेहतर।)
• From the meanings of the given words, we can say that the word 'Convenient' is the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word 'awkward.'
• Hence, the correct answer is 'Convenient.'

Additional Information

• Let us see the synonyms of the given options:

The correct answer is 'from this financial year'.

Key Points

• The segment 'from this financial year' is grammatically incorrect.
• 'Budgets' are planned 'for' a certain period.
• Hence, the preposition 'from' is incorrect and it should be replaced with the preposition 'for'.
• So, option 1) is the answer.

<br>

Correct sentence: The government’s interim budget for this financial year contained several measures which have the forthcoming elections in mind.

Additional Information

 A preposition shows the relationship of a noun or a pronoun to another word.

• Example: He is sitting on the chair.
  

                I was standing before the judge.

The correct answer is 'No improvement'.

Key Points

• The underlined segment is absolutely free from grammatical errors. Hence, no improvement is required here.
• While means 'during', 'when', or 'at the same time'.
• While can also be a noun that would be translated as 'a short period of time' (this is not the case with 'whilst').
• Note that while must be followed by a verb.
• So, option 1), i.e. 'No improvement' is the answer.

The correct answer is 'transfer five officers'.

Key Points

• The segment 'transfer five officers' is grammatically incorrect.
• A past event is mentioned here as it has informed 'what did the officer do after returning to office'.
• Therefore, this segment should be written in simple past tense.
• The word 'transferred' should replace the word 'transfer'.
• Hence, option 3) is the answer.

<br>

Correct sentence: Soon after returning to office, the CBI chief transferred five officers.

The correct answer is 'Substitution'.

Key Points

• The correctly spelt word is 'Substitution'.
• The meaning of the word 'substitution' is 'exchange or replacing'.
• So, option 2) is the answer.

The correct answer is 'To argue against both sides of an issue'

Key Points

• "Cut both ends" implies not supporting either side of an argument, but rather countering both positions.
• Involves a critical approach where flaws in both sides' arguments are identified and challenged.
• This approach maintains an objective standpoint, focusing on the weaknesses in both arguments.
• Rather than supporting, it finds reasons to critique and argue against both extremes.
• Demonstrates strong debate skills as it requires detailed understanding and ability to counter both viewpoints.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Additional Information

• To reject all arguments - Means to refuse or dismiss all presented arguments.
• To argue in support of both sides - Means providing arguments that support both opposing sides of an issue.
• To consider the truth and untruth - Implies evaluating both true and false aspects of an argument or situation.

The correct answer is 'Lethargy'.

Key Points

• The meaning of the word 'Euphoria' is 'a feeling of happiness.'
• The meaning of the given words:
• Folklore: folk tradition or folk story
• Lethargy: lack of energy
• Song: a short poem which is meant to be sung
• Music: vocal or instrumental sounds
• Hence, the word 'lethargy' is the antonym of the word 'Euphoria'.
• So, option 2) is the answer.

The correct answer is 'Magnanimous'.

Key Points

• The correctly spelt word is 'Magnanimous'.
• The meaning of the word 'Magnanimous' is 'charitable or generous'.
• Hence, option 3) is the answer.

The correct answer is 'which have already proposed.'

Key Points

• The segment 'which have already proposed' is grammatically incorrect.
• The subject of the verb 'proposed' is 'government projects' and it is clear that the subject is acted upon by the verb.
• So, it should be written in passive voice.
• The word 'been' should be added before the word 'proposed'.
• Hence, option 1) is the answer.

<br>

Correct sentence: The Builders’ Associations want GST exemption for government projects which have already been proposed.

Important Points

 Present perfect tense is used in the sentence. So, the passive form of a sentence in present perfect tense is:

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'are arriving'.

Key Points

• The blank in the given sentence is to be filled with the present continuous tense as it describes an action that is planned for the near future.
• The subject in the sentence "students" is plural, which means the verb should also be in a plural form.
• Therefore, the correct form of the verb here is "are arriving".
• Example: The guests are arriving at the party in the evening.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: Is it true that the students from the Space Research Centre are arriving this evening?

<br>

Additional Information

• Is arriving : The incorrect form as "students" is a plural subject.
• Example: The train is arriving at the station in a few minutes.
• Has arriving: Incorrect as "has" does not properly combine with "arriving".
• Example: He has arrived at the airport. (Correct usage would be "has arrived")
• Have arriving: Incorrect combination of auxiliary 'have' with 'arriving'.
• Example: The guests have arrived. (Correct usage would be "have arrived")

The correct answer is 'These flowers smell sweet'.

Key Points

• The word 'sweetly' is inappropriate.
• Here, the smell of the flowers are being described. So, an adjective should be used instead of an adverb.
• The word 'sweet' should replace 'sweetly'.
• Hence, option 4) is the answer.

<br>

Correct sentence: These flowers smell sweet and are sold at high prices in the market.

Additional Information

An adjective modifies a noun or a pronoun.

• Example: Testbook is an amazing online learning platform.

The correct answer is 'Antiquarian'.

Key Points

• The meaning of the given words:
• Historian: an expert in history
• Sociologist: an expert in the development of human society
• Archaeologist: one who studies human history and prehistory through excavation of sites
• Antiquarian: a person who studies antique things
• Hence, option 4) is the answer.

The correct answer is 'Unalterable'.

Key Points

• The meaning of the word 'Incorrigible' is 'not able to be changed'.
• The meaning of the given words:
• Reliable: dependable
• Unwise: foolish
• Intelligible: easy to understand
• Unalterable: not able to be changed
• Hence, 'unalterable' is the synonym of the word 'Incorrigible'
• So, option 4) is the answer.

The correct answer is 'skeptical'.

Key Points

• The meaning of the given words:
• persuaded: to win someone over
• committed: engaged in
• convinced: to satisfy
• skeptical: doubtful
• The word 'although' means 'in spite of the fact'. Clearly, the given clauses are contrasting with each other.
• From the meaning of the words we can say that options 1, 2 and 3 should be eliminated.
• Hence, 'skeptical' is the only word which fit here well.
• So, option 4) is the answer.

The correct answer is 'Volunteer'.

Key Points

• The meaning of the given words:
• Volunteer: a person who helps others or an organization without being paid
• Entrepreneur: a person who sets up a new business
• Businessman: a business person
• Investor: a person who invests money into different schemes
• Hence, the word 'volunteer' is the correct word.
• So, option 1) is the answer.

The correct answer is 'Untidy'.

Key Points

• The meaning of the word 'dishevelled' is 'untidy or in a mess'.
• The meaning of the given words:
• Unsafe: dangerous
• Unclean: dirty
• Uncertain: unsure or not known
• Untidy: not arranged
• Clearly, the word 'untidy' is the synonym of the word 'dishevelled'.