Previous Year Paper

SSC GD Constable Previous Year Paper (Held on: 14th February 2019 Shift 2)

Held in 2019

100 questions90 minutes
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General Intelligence and Reasoning (25 questions)

Question 1

Choose the odd one out of the given options.

  1. AOption (a)

    EKO

  2. BOption (b)

    JIU

  3. COption (c)

    KVG

  4. DOption (d)

    QMJ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

EKO

Why this answer is correct

Logic: For all the other option sum of place value is 40 e×cept “EKO”

EKO5 + 11 + 15 = 31
JIU10 + 9 + 21 = 40
KVG11 + 22 + 7 = 40
QMJ17 + 13 + 10 = 40

 

Hence, “EKO” is the correct answer.

Question 2

Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct.

30 + 28 × 3 – 16 ÷ 4 = - 50

  1. AOption (a)

    × and ÷ 

  2. BOption (b)
    • and –
  3. COption (c)

    – and × 

  4. DOption (d)

    – and ÷ 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.
  • and –

Why this answer is correct

Interchanging the signs and using BODMAS rule,

Option 1: × and ÷

The original equation is,

30 + 28 × 3 – 16 ÷ 4 = - 50

Interchanging the signs,

30 + 28 ÷ 3 – 16 × 4 = - 50

Using BODMAS rule,

30 + 28/ 3 – 16 × 4 = - 50

30 + 9. 33 – 64 = - 50

  1. 33 – 64 is not equal to – 50

Option 2: + and –

The original equation is,

30 + 28 × 3 – 16 ÷ 4 = - 50

Interchanging the signs,

30 - 28 × 3 + 16 ÷ 4 = - 50

Using BODMAS rule,

30 - 28 × 3 + 4 = - 50

30 – 84 + 4 = - 50

34 – 84 = - 50

- 50 = - 50

Option 3: – and ×

The original equation is,

30 + 28 × 3 – 16 ÷ 4 = - 50

Interchanging the signs,

30 + 28 - 3 × 16 ÷ 4 = - 50

Using BODMAS rule,

30 + 28 – 3 × 4 = - 50

30 + 28 – 12 = - 50

58 – 12 is not equal to – 50

Option 4: – and ÷

The original equation is,

30 + 28 × 3 – 16 ÷ 4 = - 50

Interchanging the signs,

30 + 28 × 3 ÷ 16 - 4 = - 50

Using BODMAS rule,

30 + 28 × 3/ 16 – 4 = - 50

30 + 21/ 4 – 4 = - 50

30 + 5. 25 – 4 = - 50

  1. 25 – 4 is not equal to – 50

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Question 3

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Aeroplane : Hangar :: Gun : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shoot

  2. BOption (b)

    Armoury

  3. COption (c)

    Human

  4. DOption (d)

    Fire

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Armoury

Why this answer is correct

A hangar is a large building used for housing aircrafts.

Similarly, Armoury is a place where military equipment is stored, so guns are stored in an armoury.

‘Armoury’ is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Hence, “Armoury” is the correct answer.

Question 4

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

22 : 242 :: 18 : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    275

  2. BOption (b)

    169

  3. COption (c)

    162

  4. DOption (d)

    221

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

162

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is,

For 22: 242

22/ 2 = 11

22 × 11 = 242

Similarly,

For 18: ?

18/ 2 = 9

18 × 9 = 162

‘162’ that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

Hence, “162” is the correct answer.

Question 5

Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed).

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The figure which will complete the given pattern is,

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Question 6

A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The pattern which will appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line is,

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

Question 7

J, K, L, M, N and O are six teachers. Each one teaches a different subject out of Hindi, English, Math, Science, Social Science and Arts, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them teaches on only one day, from Monday to Saturday, not necessarily in the same order. J teaches Arts on Saturday. L teaches neither English nor Social Science, but he teaches on Thursday. Wednesday is reserved for Maths taught by K. O teaches Science a day before N. Social Science is taught a day before Arts.

Which subject is taught on the day between Social Science and Math?

  1. AOption (a)

    Science

  2. BOption (b)

    Hindi

  3. COption (c)

    English

  4. DOption (d)

    Arts

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hindi

Why this answer is correct

Arranging them according to the given information,

J teaches Arts on Saturday.

L teaches neither English nor Social Science, but he teaches on Thursday.

Wednesday is reserved for Maths taught by K.

Social Science is taught a day before Arts.

DayTeacherSubject
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayKMaths
ThursdayL
FridaySocial Science
SaturdayJArts

 

L does not teach Social science or English, the two remaining subjects are Science and  Hindi, but O teaches Science, so L teaches Hindi.

O teaches Science a day before N.

Only Social science is left, which is taught by M.

DayTeacherSubject
MondayOScience
TuesdayNEnglish
WednesdayKMaths
ThursdayLHindi
FridayMSocial Science
SaturdayJArts

 

Hindi subject is taught on the day between Social Science and Math.

Hence, “Hindi” is the correct answer.

Question 8

In a certain code, CIRCLE is written as 50. How will ALGAE be written in that code?

  1. AOption (a)

    57

  2. BOption (b)

    26

  3. COption (c)

    23

  4. DOption (d)

    59

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

26

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is,

WordCIRCLE
Place Value39183125
Code3 + 9 + 18 + 3 + 12 + 5 = 50

 

<br>

Similarly,

WordALGAE
Place Value112715
Code1 + 12 + 7 + 1 + 5 = 26
<br>

Hence, “26” is the correct answer.

Question 9

Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is placed at right side.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The mirror image of the given word when mirror is placed at right side is,

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Question 10

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Chef : Knife:: Surgeon:?

  1. AOption (a)

    Scalpel

  2. BOption (b)

    Grip

  3. COption (c)

    Chisel

  4. DOption (d)

    Spade

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Scalpel

Why this answer is correct

The knife is used by a chef for cutting vegetables or fruits.

Similarly, Scalpel is a sharp bladed instrument used for surgery and used by surgeons.

‘Scalpel’ is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Hence, “scalpel” is the correct answer

Question 11

Choose the odd one out of the given options.

  1. AOption (a)

    Colombia

  2. BOption (b)

    Canada

  3. COption (c)

    Asia

  4. DOption (d)

    China

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Asia

Why this answer is correct

Colombia, Canada and China are countries.

And,

Asia is a continent.

Hence, “Asia” is the odd one.

Question 12

Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series.

9, 20, 42, 75, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    99

  2. BOption (b)

    129

  3. COption (c)

    109

  4. DOption (d)

    119

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

119

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is,

Hence, “119” is the correct answer.

Question 13

In a certain code, WORKER is written as OKROKR. How will ASSUME be written in that code?

  1. AOption (a)

    SUESUE

  2. BOption (b)

    SUESVE

  3. COption (c)

    SUMSUM

  4. DOption (d)

    SSESSE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

SUESUE

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

2nd, 4th, and 6th letters are repeating sequentially.

WORKER is written as OKROKR.

Thus, ASSUME → SUESUE.

Hence, “SUESUE” is the correct answer.

Question 14

The statements below are followed by two conclusions labelled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.

  1. Some mouses are whales.

  2. All whales are dogs.

Conclusion:

I. Some mouses are dogs.

II. No mouse is dog.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both conclusions follow.

  3. COption (c)

    Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion II follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only conclusion I follows.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram is,

Conclusion I: Some mouses are dogs → True (This is definitely true)

Conclusion II: No mouse is dog → False (This is definitely false)

Hence, “only conclusion I follows".

Additional Information

Question 15

Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a movie sitting in a row. S is sitting at one extreme end. Q is sitting second to the right of S. P is sitting between O and Q.U is not sitting at any extreme end. R is sitting to the immediate left of T. Who is sitting between P and R?

  1. AOption (a)

    U

  2. BOption (b)

    R

  3. COption (c)

    Q

  4. DOption (d)

    O

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

O

Why this answer is correct

Arranging them according to the given information,

S is sitting at one extreme end. Q is sitting second to the right of S. P is sitting between O and Q.U is not sitting at any extreme end. R is sitting to the immediate left of T.

Case 1: Facing North

Case 2: Facing South

O is sitting between P and R.

Hence, “O” is the correct answer.

Question 16

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing each other for a lunch. A is opposite F and third to the right of B. G is between F and D. H is to the left of D. E is between C and A.

Who is sitting opposite H?

  1. AOption (a)

    B

  2. BOption (b)

    C

  3. COption (c)

    D

  4. DOption (d)

    G

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B

Why this answer is correct

Arranging them according to the given information,

A is opposite F and third to the right of B.

G is between F and D.

H is to the left of D.

E is between C and A.

B is sitting opposite to H.

Hence, “B” is the correct answer.

Question 17

The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the

Statements:

All knights are nuns.

All nuns are men.

Conclusion:

I. All men are knights.

II. All knights are men.

  1. AOption (a)

    Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both conclusions follow.

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion II follows.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion I follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only conclusion II follows.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram is,

Conclusion I: All men are knights → False (This is definitely false as the possible derivation is some men are knights)

Conclusion II: All knights are men → True (This is definitely true as all knights are inside men)

Question 18

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

DEH : HIL :: GHL : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    KJP

  2. BOption (b)

    KPL

  3. COption (c)

    KLP

  4. DOption (d)

    KLO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

KLP

Why this answer is correct

<br>

 

The pattern followed is,

Similarly,

‘KLP’ is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Hence, “KLP” is the correct answer.

Question 19

Select the option that will correctly replace the q. mark (?) in the series.

SNC, QPA, ORY, MTW, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    KUU

  2. BOption (b)

    KVV

  3. COption (c)

    KUV

  4. DOption (d)

    KVU

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

KVU

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is,

Hence, “KVU” is the correct answer.

Question 20

Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series.

20, 24, 40, 76, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    130

  2. BOption (b)

    120

  3. COption (c)

    145

  4. DOption (d)

    140

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

140

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is,

Hence, “140” is the correct answer.

Question 21

Choose the odd number out of the given options.

  1. AOption (a)

    27

  2. BOption (b)

    625

  3. COption (c)

    343

  4. DOption (d)

    125

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

625

Why this answer is correct

27, 343 and 125 are the cubes of 3, 7 and 5 respectively.

Whereas, 625 is the square of 25.

Hence, “625” is the odd number.

Question 22

Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed)

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The option in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded is,

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Question 23

Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series.

<br>

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is,

The figure is rotating in anti-clockwise direction by one position.

The figure which will come next in the pattern is,

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Question 24

Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes.

Units, Watt, Volt

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

Watt and Volts are units of power and electric potential respectively.

The correct Venn diagram is,

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Question 25

Select the option that will correctly replace the q mark (?) in the given pattern.

  1. AOption (a)

    729

  2. BOption (b)

    125

  3. COption (c)

    256

  4. DOption (d)

    225

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

225

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is,

Row wise:

The numbers given are squares of odd numbers, with a gap of 6 between each number.

First row:

92 = 81

9 + 6 = 15, 152 = 225

Second row:

112 = 121

11 + 6 = 17, 172 = 289

Third row:

132 = 169

13 + 6 = 19, 192 = 361

Hence, “225” is the correct answer.

General Knowledge and General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 26

Which of the following statements about the National Human Rights Commission is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It consists of 10 members.

  2. BOption (b)

    Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.

  3. COption (c)

    Mumbai serves as its Headquarters.

  4. DOption (d)

    Its chairman must be sitting judge in the Supreme Court.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e., Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.

  • National Human Right Commission  (NHRC)
  • It is a statutory body which was established on 12 October 1993.
  • Its headquarter is in New Delhi.
  • The statute under which it is established is the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993 as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006.
  • It was established in accordance with the Paris Principles.
  • ​Composition
  • Multi-member body with a Chairman and seven other members.
  • The Chairperson and the members of the NHRC are appointed for 5 years or till the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
  • NHRC consists of a Chairperson, who has been a Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  • Functions
  • Investigate Human right violation.
  • power to interfere in any judicial proceeding involving any allegations of violations o human rights.
  • it can visit any jail.
  • Power 
  • It has the power of civil court.
  • It suggestion is recommendary in nature.
  • It submits its annual report to the president of India who causee it to laid before each house of the parliament.
  • Limitations
  • NHRC  can only make recommendations, without the power to enforce decisions.

Question 27

Rapid integration between countries is known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    Globalisation

  2. BOption (b)

    Liberalization

  3. COption (c)

    Modernisation

  4. DOption (d)

    Privatisation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Globalisation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer Globalisation.

  • Globalisation as a concept fundamentally deals with flows. These flows could be of various kinds:
  • Ideas moving from one part of the world to another,
  • Capital shunted between two or more places,
  • Commodities being traded across borders,
  • People moving in search of better livelihoods to different parts of the world.
  • Rapid integration between countries is known as Globalisation.
  • Liberalization: It is any method of how a state raises limitations or when government laws are loosened.
  • Privatization: It means a transfer of ownership, management, and control of public sector enterprises to the private sector.
  • Modernization: It refers to the transitional process of moving from "traditional" or "primitive" communities to modern societies.

Question 28

The term “double fault” is used in:

  1. AOption (a)

    Volleyball

  2. BOption (b)

    Tennis

  3. COption (c)

    Snooker

  4. DOption (d)

    Kabbadi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tennis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tennis.

  • Double fault means hitting a fault on the second service.
  • Tennis or Lawn tennis is a racket sport that can be played individually or between two teams of two teams of two-player each.
  • International Tennis Federation: 
  • It was founded on 1st March 1913.
  • ​It is a governing body of world tennis.
  • Headquarters are located in London, United Kingdom.
  • David Haggerty is the current president of ITF.
  • Grand Slam Tournament
  • Australia Open
  • French Open
  • Wimbledon
  • US Open

Some of the sports terminologies of different sports are: 

GameTerminology
Lawn Tennis- Volley, Smash, Service, Backhand drive, Advantage, Deuce, Double Fault.
Volleyball- Attack, Ace, Approach, Attack block, Block, Doubling, Smash, Volley
Snooker- Pot, Break, Century, Cue, Fluke
Kabbadi- Cant, Raider, Raid, Struggle, All out

Question 29

________ is widely used as a fuel and is a major component of compressed natural gas.

  1. AOption (a)

    Propane

  2. BOption (b)

    Octane

  3. COption (c)

    Methane

  4. DOption (d)

    Butane

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Methane

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e., Methane.

Key Points

  • Compressed natural gas, or CNG, is natural gas under pressure which remains clear, odourless, and non-corrosive and can be used as a cheaper, greener, and more efficient alternative to the traditional petrol and diesel fuels for vehicles.
  • The largest component of natural gas is methane, a compound with one carbon and four hydrogen atoms(CH4).

Additional Information

Important points about different gases are: 

GasDescription
Propane- It is a three-carbon alkane with the molecular formula C3H8. - Propane is typically used as a fuel is a co-product of crude oil refining and natural gas processing.
Octane- Octane is a hydrocarbon and an alkane with the formula C8H18.
Butane- Butane is an alkane with the formula C4H10. - It is highly flammable.

Question 30

The term ‘mutation’ primarily refers to:

  1. AOption (a)

    genetic migration

  2. BOption (b)

    genetic line

  3. COption (c)

    genetic correction

  4. DOption (d)

    genetic mistake

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

genetic mistake

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Genetic Mistake.

 Key Points

A mutation is a change that occurs in our DNA sequence, either due to mistakes when the DNA is copied or as the result of environmental factors such as UV light or alcoholic/smoking activities.

  • The mutation is a phenomenon which results in alteration of DNA sequences and consequently results in changes in the genotype and the phenotype of an organism.
  • In addition to recombination, the mutation is another phenomenon that leads to variation in DNA
  • One DNA helix runs continuously from one end to the other in each chromatid, in a highly supercoiled form.
  • Therefore loss (deletions) or gain (insertion/duplication) of a segment of DNA, resulting in an alteration in chromosomes.
  • Since genes are known to be located on chromosomes, alteration in chromosomes results in abnormalities or aberrations.
  • Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.
  • In addition to the above, the mutation also arises due to change in a single base pair of DNA. This is known as a point mutation.
  • A classical example of such a mutation is sickle cell anemia.
  • Deletions and insertions of base pairs of DNA cause frame-shift mutations.
  • The mechanism of mutation is beyond the scope of this discussion, at this level.
  • However, there are many chemical and physical factors that induce mutations.
  • These are referred to as mutagens.
  • UV radiations can cause mutations in organisms – it is a mutagen.

Question 31

Who among the following was nominated for the prestigious Laureus World Sports Awards in 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    Anirban Chatterji

  2. BOption (b)

    Pankaj Advani

  3. COption (c)

    Dutee Chand

  4. DOption (d)

    Vinesh Phogat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vinesh Phogat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vinesh Phogat.

Important Points

  • She became the first Indian athlete to be nominated for the Laureus world sports Awards.
  • The Laureus World Sports Award
  • It is an annual award ceremony honoring individuals and teams from the world of sports along with sporting achievements throughout the year.
  • Established in 1999.
  • Vinesh Phogat
  • She is an Indian woman wrestler.
  • The first Indian woman wrestler to win gold in Commonwealth and Asian games.

Question 32

Who among the following introduced the practice of Sijda (prostration) and Paibos (kissing the feet of monarch) in the court?

  1. AOption (a)

    Allauddin Khalji

  2. BOption (b)

    Firoz Shah Tughluq

  3. COption (c)

    Muhammad bin Tughluq

  4. DOption (d)

    Ghiyasuddin Balban

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ghiyasuddin Balban

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ​Ghiyasuddin Balban.

  • Ghiyasuddin Balban (1266-1287)
  • He was the first Sultan of Delhi to introduce the practice of 'Sijda'.
  • He started Sijda (prostration) and Paibos as the normal form of Salutation of the king.
  • In Sijda people had to Kneel down and touch the ground with their head to greet the Sultan.

Additional Information

  • Allauddin Khalji
  • He followed the divine right theory of Kinship.
  • He introduced a permanent standing army.
  • He started the system of branding of horses and the descriptive roster of the individual soldiers to inhibit corruption.
  • He imposed Jizya, grazing tax and house tax on the Hindu community.
  • Tughlaq Dynasty(1320-1414)
  • Founded by Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, laid the foundation of Tughlaqabad near Delhi.
  • Muhammad-Bin-tughlaq
  • founded 2nd capital at Devagiri to control south India under the name of Daultabad.
  • Introduced copper coins.
  • Introduced "Takkavi loans" - Loan for cultivation.
  • Diwan-i- kohi - department of agriculture was established.
  • Firoz-shah tughlaq
  • Revived the Iqta system and made it hereditary.
  • Introduced "Diwane-e- bandgan" - department of slaves.
  • Introduced irrigation tax.

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT a sustainable development goal targeted to be achieved by 2030?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gender Equality

  2. BOption (b)

    Zero Hunger

  3. COption (c)

    Good Health and Wellbeing

  4. DOption (d)

    Space Research

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Space Research

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Space Research.

Important Points

  • In September 2015, the General Assembly of the United Nation adopted the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development that includes 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
  • Building on the principle of “leaving no one behind”, the new Agenda emphasizes a holistic approach to achieving sustainable development for all
  • The 17 sustainable development goals (SDGs) to transform our world:
  • GOAL 1: No Poverty
  • GOAL 2: Zero Hunger
  • GOAL 3: Good Health and Well-being
  • GOAL 4: Quality Education
  • GOAL 5: Gender Equality
  • GOAL 6: Clean Water and Sanitation
  • GOAL 7: Affordable and Clean Energy
  • GOAL 8: Decent Work and Economic Growth
  • GOAL 9: Industry, Innovation, and Infrastructure
  • GOAL 10: Reduced Inequality
  • GOAL 11: Sustainable Cities and Communities
  • GOAL 12: Responsible Consumption and Production
  • GOAL 13: Climate Action
  • GOAL 14: Life Below Water
  • GOAL 15: Life on Land
  • GOAL 16: Peace and Justice Strong Institutions
  • GOAL 17: Partnerships to Achieve the Goal

Question 34

Which Indian city is the first to make it to the UNESCO World Heritage List?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhubaneswar

  2. BOption (b)

    Indore

  3. COption (c)

    Bengaluru

  4. DOption (d)

    Ahmedabad

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ahmedabad

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e Ahmedabad.

Key Points

  • There are 30 Cultural, 7 Natural and 1 mixed site in India that is in the World Heritage list of UNESCO.
  • ​Historic City of Ahmedabad (2017):
  • Declared as World Heritage site in 2017 by UNESCO is the first Indian city to make it to the UNESCO World Heritage List
  • Located on the eastern bank of Sabarmati river, this city was founded by Sultan Ahmad Shah in the 15th century.
  • It also served as the capital of the state of Gujarat for centuries.
  • This city is a testimony to the harmonious existence of diverse religions on this land, exhibited by its architecture which includes the famous Bhadra citadel accompanied by various mosques, tombs as well as numerous Hindu and Jain temples.
  • The urban fabric consists of densely-packed traditional houses (pols) in gated traditional streets (Puras).

Additional Information

  • The United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO):
  • UNESCO’s Headquarters are located in Paris.
  • United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN). It seeks to build peace through international cooperation in Education, the Sciences and Culture.
  • In an international treaty called the Convention concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage, adopted by UNESCO in 1972.

Question 35

Dodabetta is the highest peak of which of the following mountain ranges?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vindhya

  2. BOption (b)

    Satpura

  3. COption (c)

    Aravalli

  4. DOption (d)

    Nilgiri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Nilgiri

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e., Nilgiri.

  • Doddabetta is the highest mountain in the Nilgiri Mountains with a height of approximately 2637 m.
  • Dodabetta is located approximately 10 km away from Ooty in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu, India.
  • Anaimudi is the highest peak in the whole of southern India - 2695m.

Some of the mountain ranges in India are: 

Mountain rangesHighest Peak
Vindhya rangeSadbhawana-Shikhar or 'Goodwill' peak - 752 m
Satpura RangeDhupgarh -  1350 m
Aravali RangeGuru Shikhar- 1722 m

Question 36

The King Khalid International Airport serves which country?

  1. AOption (a)

    Syria

  2. BOption (b)

    Iraq

  3. COption (c)

    Bahrain

  4. DOption (d)

    Saudi Arabia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Saudi Arabia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e., Saudi Arabia.

  • King Khalid International airport is located in Riyadh (Saudi Arabia).
  • Unitary Islamic absolute monarchy form of government.
  • Crown prince of Saudi Arab is Mohammed bin Salman.
  • Riyadh is the capital and Saudi Riyal is the currency of Saudi Arabia.

Capital and currency of the other countries are: 

CountryCapitalCurrency
SyriaDamascusSyrian pound
IraqBaghdadIraqi Dinar
BahrainManamaBahraini Dinar

Question 37

Which IUCN document lists endangered species of flora and fauna?

  1. AOption (a)

    Blue List

  2. BOption (b)

    Green List

  3. COption (c)

    Red List

  4. DOption (d)

    Black List

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Red List

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Red List.

  • International Union for Conservation of Nature(IUCN), is an international organization (NGO) working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.
  • Headquarters: Gland, Switzerland.
  • Red List
  • The IUCN compiled and published the IUCN Red List which assesses the conservation status of species worldwide.
  • Grouping of three categories
  1. Lower Risk
  2. Threatened
  • Vulnerable
  • Endangered
  • Critically Endangered
  1. Extinct
  • Nine groups of IUCN Red List
  • Extinct: No known individuals remaining.
  • Extinct in the wild: Known only to survive in captivity
  • Critically endangered: Extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
  • Endangered: High risk of extinction in the wild.
  • Vulnerable: High risk of endangerment in the wild.
  • Near threatened: Likely to become endangered in the near future
  • Least concern:  Lowest risk
  • Data deficient: Not enough data to assess its risk
  • Not evaluated: has not yet been evaluated against the criteria.
  • Some Critically endangered species of India
  • Pygmy Hog
  • White-backed Vulture
  • Gharial

Important Points

  • The IUCN Green List offers locally relevant expert guidance to help achieve fair and effective nature conservation results in protected and conserved areas.
  • The IUCN Blue List is a list of indigenous species or subspecies that are vulnerable in their local area. The purpose of the Blue List is to provide early warning to regional and federal governments.

Question 38

Which of the following is one of the criteria to represent the standard of living in a country?

  1. AOption (a)

    Industrial growth

  2. BOption (b)

    Poverty ratio

  3. COption (c)

    National income

  4. DOption (d)

    Per capita income

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Per capita income

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e Per capita income.

  • The Human Development Index is the composite measure of every country's attainment in three basic dimensions:
  • Standard of living measured by the gross national income (GNI) per capita.
  • Health measured by life expectancy at birth.
  • Education levels calculated by mean years of education among the adult population and the expected years of schooling for children.

Question 39

A ________ measures the humidity of the air.

  1. AOption (a)

    hygrometer

  2. BOption (b)

    micrometer

  3. COption (c)

    thermometer

  4. DOption (d)

    hydrometer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

hygrometer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hygrometer.

Key Points

  • A hygrometer is a weather instrument used to measure the amount of humidity in the atmosphere.
  • There are two main types of hygrometers
  • A dry and wet bulb hygrometer
  • Mechanical hygrometer
  • What is Humidity?
  • Humidity is the amount of water vapor in the atmosphere caused by condensation and evaporation.
  • It can be measured as absolute humidity or relative humidity.
  • Some other measuring devices info.
Measuring DeviceSignificance
Hydrometer- A hydrometer is a device that measures the relative densities of two liquids. - They are typically calibrated to measure the specific gravity of a liquid.
Thermometer- A thermometer is a medical device that helps to measure the temperature, which is the temperature of the heart, brain, and other organs.
Micrometer- The micrometer is an instrument for making precise linear measurements of dimensions such as diameters, thicknesses, and lengths of solid bodies - It consists of a C-shaped frame with a movable jaw operated by an integral screw

Question 40

World Energy Out look is released by the:

  1. AOption (a)

    International Energy Tribunal

  2. BOption (b)

    International Energy Agency

  3. COption (c)

    World Economic Forum

  4. DOption (d)

    International Energy Organisation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

International Energy Agency

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the International Energy Agency.

  • The World Energy Outlook is a leading source of strategic insight on the future of energy and energy-related emissions.
  • International Energy Agency
  • It is a Paris-based autonomous intergovernmental organization established in the framework of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development in 1974.
  • World Economic Forum
  • It is an NGO, based in Geneva(Switzerland).
  • founded in 1971
  • Agenda
  • To improve the state of the world by engaging, business, political, academic, and other leaders of society to shape global, regional, and industry agenda.
  • The report issued by the World Economic Forum
  • Global Gender Gap Report
  • Social Mobility Index
  • Global Competitiveness Report

Question 41

‘Do or Die’ was the slogan of which famous movement in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Quit India Movement

  2. BOption (b)

    Civil Disobedience Movement

  3. COption (c)

    Non-cooperation Movement

  4. DOption (d)

    Rowlatt Movement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Quit India Movement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e Quit India Movement.

Key Points

  • On 8th August 1942, Mahatma Gandhi gave a call to end the British rule and launched the Quit India Movement at the session of the All India Congress Committee in Mumbai.
  • Gandhiji started the 'Quit India Movement' and decided to launch a mass civil disobedience movement 'Do or Die' call to force the British to leave India.
  • The movement began from Gawalia Tank Maidan in Mumbai.

Some of the National movements are: 

MovementsFacts
Civil Disobedience Movement- It started with Gandhiji's historic 'Dandi March' which started on 12 March 1930 and ended on 6 April 1930.
Non-cooperation Movement- It was launched on 5th September 1920 by the Indian National Congress under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
Rowlatt Movement- Rowlatt Act or Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, passed by the Imperial Legislative council authorized the government to detain anybody suspect of terrorist activity for two years without trial. - In response to this act, a national wise hartal was called by Gandhiji on 6th April called Rowlett satyagraha.

Question 42

Which temples are well-known for their Nagara-style of architecture having erotic sculptures?

  1. AOption (a)

    Khajuraho

  2. BOption (b)

    Somnath

  3. COption (c)

    Hampi

  4. DOption (d)

    Meenakshi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Khajuraho

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e Khajuraho.

  • The Khajuraho Group of Monuments is a group of Hindu temples and Jain temples in Chhatarpur district, Madhya Pradesh, India.
  • They are a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • These temples are famous for their nagara-style architectural symbolism and their erotic sculptures.
  • Hampi
  • Referred to as the Group of Monuments at Hampi, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in Karnataka.
  • Famous for its Dravidian Architectural style.
  • Temple Type in India-
  • According to the Shilpa Shastra, the temples of India can be classified into three types,
  • Nagara Style (North Indian Style)
  • Dravidian Style (South Indian Style)
  • Vesara Style (a hybrid of Northern & southern Style)
  • The basic element of Hindu temple - 
  • Garbhagriha
  • Mandapa
  • Shikhara or vimana
  • Kalasha
TempleArchitectural Style
Hampi (Karnataka)Dravida style
Somnath (Gujarat)Nagara style
Meenakshi Temple (Tamil Nadu)Dravida style
  • Facts about UNESCO: ​United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations aimed at contributing 
  • To the building of peace,
  • Eradication of poverty,
  • Sustainable development and intercultural dialogue through education, science, culture, communication, and information.
  • Founded on 4 November 1945, London.
  • Headquarter: Paris (France)

Question 43

Which of the following countries won the Men’s Hockey World Cup 2018?

  1. AOption (a)

    Belgium

  2. BOption (b)

    New Zealand

  3. COption (c)

    Argentina

  4. DOption (d)

    Pakistan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Belgium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Belgium.

  • The 2018 Men's Hockey World Cup was the 14th edition of the Hockey World Cup.
  • It was held from 28 November to 16 December 2018 at Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar, India.
  • Belgium won the tournament for the first time after defeating the Netherlands.
  • Field Hockey or hockey
  • It is an outdoor game played by two teams of 11 players each using stick and ball.
  • Major Dhyan Chanda was an iconic Indian hockey player.
  • He was the greatest hockey player in the history of hockey, won the Olympic gold medal for hockey in 1928, 1932, 1936.

Additional Information

YearWinnerRunner-upVenue
1971PakistanSpainBarcelona, Spain
1973NetherlandsIndiaAmstelveen, Netherlands
1975IndiaPakistanKuala Lumpur, Malaysia
1978PakistanNetherlandsBuenos Aires, Argentina
1982PakistanWest GermanyBombay, India
1986AustraliaEnglandLondon, England
1990NetherlandsPakistanLahore, Pakistan
1994PakistanNetherlandsSydney, Australia
1998NetherlandsSpainUtrecht, Netherlands
2002GermanyAustraliaKuala Lumpur, Malaysia
2006GermanyAustraliaMönchengladbach, Germany
2010AustraliaGermanyNew Delhi, India
2014AustraliaNetherlandsThe Hague, Netherlands
2018BelgiumNetherlandsBhubaneswar, India

Question 44

Panchayati Raj institutions came into existence under the:

  1. AOption (a)

    42nd and 43rd Amendment Acts

  2. BOption (b)

    86th and 87th Amendment Acts

  3. COption (c)

    63rd and 64th Amendment Acts

  4. DOption (d)

    73rd and 74th Amendment Acts

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

73rd and 74th Amendment Acts

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ​73rd and 74th Amendment Acts.

  • Panchayati Raj Institution was constitutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 to build democracy at the grassroots level and was entrusted with the task of rural development in the country.
  • 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments were passed by Parliament in December 1992.
  • The Acts came into force as the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 on April 24, 1993.

Key Points

  • Article 243 - 243O
  • the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992 on June 1, 1993.
  • Article 243P-243ZG
  • Salient Features of the Constitution 73rd and 74th amendments.
  • Added two new parts in the constitution
  • Part- IX - The Panchayats
  • Part - IXA - The Municipalities
  • Article - 40 has a provision regarding organizing panchayat at the village level, attaining self-government.
  • Basic democratic unit- Gram sabha

Additional Information

The three-tier system of PRI

Gram Panchayatvillage level
Panchayat Samitiblock-level
Zila Parishaddistrict level

Urban Local bodies

Municipal corporationNagar Nigam
MunicipalityNagar Palika
Nagar PanchayatNagar Panchayat

Committee related to PRI

Balwant rai Mehta committee1957
Ashok Mehta committee1977
Hanumantha Rao committee1983
G.V.K.Rao committee1985
L.M.Singhvi committee1986
Sarkaria Commission on center-state relation1988
P.K Thungan Committee1989
Harlal Singh Kharra committee1990

Hint

  • Trick to remember committee in chronological order
  • "B.A HoGayaLekinSarkarP.K Kharra hai".

Question 45

The temperate grasslands of South Africa are called:

  1. AOption (a)

    Downs

  2. BOption (b)

    Praries

  3. COption (c)

    Pampas

  4. DOption (d)

    Velds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Velds

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e Velds.

  • Grasslands are characterized as lands dominated by grasses rather than large shrubs or trees.
  • Two Main division of Grasslands
  • Tropical grasslands or Savannas
  • Temperate grasslands

Key Points

Tropical GrasslandsRegion/country
LlanosColombia
CamposBrazilian highlands
PrairiesCentral North America
PampasArgentina
DownsAustralia
VeldsSouth Africa

Question 46

Which household waste has an excellent recycling potential?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vegetable scraps

  2. BOption (b)

    Metal

  3. COption (c)

    Plastic

  4. DOption (d)

    Rubber

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Metal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Metal'

Key Points

  • Metal:
  • Metals such as aluminum, steel, and iron have one of the highest recycling potentials among household waste materials.
  • The recycling process for metals involves melting down the metal objects and reforming them into new products.
  • This process can be repeated numerous times without degrading the quality of the metal, making it a highly sustainable option.
  • Recycling metals saves significant amounts of energy and reduces the need for mining new raw materials.

Additional Information

  • Vegetable scraps:
  • Vegetable scraps are excellent for composting but not suitable for traditional recycling processes.
  • Composting involves biological decomposition which turns vegetable waste into nutrient-rich soil, benefiting gardening and farming.
  • While beneficial, this does not fall into the same category as recycling materials like metals, which can be used repeatedly in manufacturing new products.
  • Plastic:
  • Plastics have diverse recycling potentials, but not all plastics are recyclable, and the quality often degrades after each recycling cycle.
  • The recycling process for plastics can be complex and varies depending on the type of plastic.
  • Issues like contamination and the presence of different polymers in plastics make recycling less efficient compared to metals.
  • Rubber:
  • Rubber, such as used tires, can be recycled, but the process is challenging and less common than metal recycling.
  • Recycled rubber is often ground into crumbs to be used in new rubber products, asphalt, or artificial turf.
  • While useful, the recycling potential of rubber is limited compared to metals and is not as environmentally efficient.

Important Points

  • Recycling metals is crucial for reducing environmental impact and conserving energy resources
  • Aluminum recycling saves up to 95% of the energy required to produce aluminum from raw materials.
  • Steel is the most recycled material globally, significantly reducing the ecological footprint of steel production.
  • Consumers are encouraged to separate metal waste from other types and dispose of it in designated recycling bins.

Question 47

Which one of the following products received the first geographical indication (GI) in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mizo Chilli

  2. BOption (b)

    Ratlami Sev

  3. COption (c)

    Joha Rice

  4. DOption (d)

    Darjeeling Tea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Darjeeling Tea

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Darjeeling Tea.

  • GI tag is the abbreviation of Geographical Indications tags in India.
  • It came into force with effect on 15 September 2003.
  • Regulated by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
  • The first geographical Indication in India was given in 2004
  • Darjeeling Tea (word and logo) - Agricultural (West Bengal).
  • Aranmula Kannadi Handicraft (Kerala).
  • Pochampalli Ikat Handicraft (Telangana).

Additional Information

Facts about other products: 

Mizo Chilli2014-2015 Agriculture (Mizoram)
Ratlami Sev2014-2015 Foodstuff (Madhya Pradesh)
Joha Rice2016-2017 Agriculture (Assam)

Question 48

________ is a microfinance organisation and community development bank founded in Bangladesh which makes small loans to the impoverished without requiring collateral.

  1. AOption (a)

    Reserve bank

  2. BOption (b)

    Federal bank

  3. COption (c)

    Cooperative bank

  4. DOption (d)

    Grameen bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Grameen bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Grameen Bank.

  • The Grameen Bank is a microfinance organization and community development bank founded in Bangladesh.
  • It makes small loans to the needy without any collateral.
  • Bank
  • It is a financial institution that performs the deposit and lending functions.
  • Function of bank
  • Accepting Deposits
  • Lending Money
  • Financial Intermediation
  • Easy payment and withdrawals
  • risk management
  • Economic development
  • Structure of Bank in India
  • Reserve Bank of India
  • Scheduled Bank: Any bank which is listed in the 2nd schedule of the Reserve bank of India Act, 1934.
  • Commercial bank.
  • Public Commercial bank
  • Private Commercial bank
  • Regional rural bank
  • Co-operative bank
  • Non-scheduled Bank
  • Those banks which are not listed in the 2nd scheduled of the RBI act, 1934.

Question 49

According to the 2011 census, the total percentage of Muslims in India is:

  1. AOption (a)

    10.2

  2. BOption (b)

    12.4

  3. COption (c)

    16.6

  4. DOption (d)

    14.2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

14.2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 14.2.

  • According to Census-2011, religious census of various religion are :
ReligionNumber%
All religious communities1028610328100
Hindu82757868679.8
Muslims13818824014.2
Christians240800162.3
Sikhs192157301.7
Buddhists79552070.84
Jains42250530.45
Others66396260.79
religion not stated7275880.29
  • Census in India is conducted by the Census Commissioner.
  • The responsibility of conducting the decennial Census rests with the office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
CensusNo. of Question asked in Census
188112
189114
190116
191116
192116
193118
194122
195114
196113
197117
198116
199121
200123
201129

Question 50

Where did Babur defeat Ibrahim Lodhi in 1526?

  1. AOption (a)

    Haldighati

  2. BOption (b)

    Kalinjar

  3. COption (c)

    Chausa

  4. DOption (d)

    Panipat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Panipat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Panipat.

  • The First Battle of Panipat was fought between the Babur and the Lodi Empire, which took place on 21st April 1526 in the small village of Panipat of the present-day Indian state of Haryana in North India.
  • It marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire. This was one of the earliest battles involving gun powder firearms and field artillery.

Additional Information

Some of the battles fought are: 

BattleYearDescription
Haldighati18 June 1576- It was fought between Maharana Pratap and Mughal emperor Akbar
Kalinjar1531- It was primarily to check the growing influence of Bahadur Shah that Humayun decided to capture Kalinjar and therefore, attacked it in 1531 A.D. - Humayun first besieges the fortress.
Chausa26 June 1539- The battle fought between Mughar emperor Humayun and Afghan Sher Shah Suri. - Humayun escaped from the battlefield to save his life.

Elementary Mathematics (25 questions)

Question 51

The diagonal of a square is 14 cm. What will be the length of the diagonal of the square whose area is double of the area of first square?

  1. AOption (a)

    26√2 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    14√2 cm

  3. COption (c)

    28 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    21√2 cm 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

14√2 cm

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Diagonal of square = 14 cm

FORMULA USED:

Area of square = ½ (diagonal)2

CALCULATION:

Let area of 1st square = A, diagonal = d = 14

Area of 2nd square = 2A, diagonal = x

⇒ A = (1/2) d2      ----(1)

According to the question,

⇒ 2A = (1/2) x2      ----(2)

Divide equation 2 by equation 1

⇒ x2/142 = 2

⇒ x2 = 196 × 2

⇒ x = 14√2

∴ The length of the diagonal of second square is 14√2. 

Alternate MethodArea of square = (1/2)Diagonal2

Area of first square = (1/2)142

⇒ 98 cm2

According to the question,

2 times of area of first square = (1/2)x2

x = diagonal of second sqaure

⇒ 2 × 98 = (1/2)x2

⇒ x = 14√2 cm 

∴ The length of the diagonal of second square is 14√2.

Question 52

The Least Common Multiple and Highest Common Factor of two numbers are 60 and 3 respectively. If their difference is 3, then what will be the sum of these two numbers?

  1. AOption (a)

    24

  2. BOption (b)

    35

  3. COption (c)

    27

  4. DOption (d)

    21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

27

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

L.C.M. = 60

H.C.F. = 3

Difference in numbers = 3

FORMULA USED:

L.C.M. × H.C.F. = product of numbers

CALCULATION:

Product of numbers = 60 × 3 = 180

Difference = 3

→ Numbers are 12 and 15 (Since 12 × 15 = 180, satisfies the condition)

→ Sum of numbers = 12 + 15 = 27

Question 53

Four numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 5 : 3 : 8 respectively. If the sum of these four numbers is 432, then what is the sum of first and fourth number?

  1. AOption (a)

    192

  2. BOption (b)

    216

  3. COption (c)

    240

  4. DOption (d)

    232

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

240

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Four numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 5 : 3 : 8

Sum of these four numbers is 432

CALCULATION:

Let the four numbers be 2x, 5x, 3x, 8x

Sum of four numbers = 18x = 432

⇒ x = 432/18 = 24

Sum of 1st and 4th number = 10x

⇒ 240

∴ The sum of first and fourth number is 240.

Question 54

The bar chart given below shows the annual production (in 1000 tonnes) of coffee of a country for years 2009 to 2013.

The production for the year 2011 is what percent of the production for the year 2009?

  1. AOption (a)

    157.5%

  2. BOption (b)

    175.25%

  3. COption (c)

    187.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    205.25%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

187.5%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A bar chart which shows the annual production (in 1000 tonnes) of coffee of a country for years 2009 to 2013.

Formula used:

Percentage = (quantity1/quantity2) × 100

Calculation:

Production in year 2011= 1500

Production in year 2009= 800

Production in year 2011/ Production in year 2009 = 1500/800 = 15/8

Percentage = (15/8) × 100 = 187.5%

Question 55

The total weight of 12 boys and 8 girls is 1080 kg. If the average weight of boys is 50 kg, then what will be average weight of girls?

  1. AOption (a)

    55 kg

  2. BOption (b)

    50 kg

  3. COption (c)

    60 kg

  4. DOption (d)

    45 kg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

60 kg

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Total weight of 12 boys and girls is 1080 kg.

Average weight of boys is 50

FORMULA USED:

Weighted avg = (n1 × average of n1 quantity + n2 × average of n2 quantity + ----)/(n1 + n2 +------)

CALCULATION:

Total weight of boys and girls = 1080 kg

Average weight of boys = 50 kg

Let avg weight of girls be y

50 × 12 + 8 × y = 1080

⇒ 8y = 1080 - 600

⇒ 8y = 480 

⇒ y = 60 

∴ Average weight of girls is 60 kg

Question 56

The length of platform is double of the length of train. Speed of the train is 144 km/hr. If train crosses the platform in 30 seconds, then what is the length of the platform?

  1. AOption (a)

    600 metres

  2. BOption (b)

    800 metres

  3. COption (c)

    500 metres

  4. DOption (d)

    400 metres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

800 metres

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Length of platform = Length of train × 2

Speed of train = 144 km/hr

Time taken to cross the platform = 30 sec

CONCEPT:

The time taken to cross the platform is equal to sum of length of train and length of platform divided by speed of train.

FORMULA USED:

Distance = Speed × Time

CALCULATION:

Speed of train = 144 km/hr = 144 × 5/18 = 40 m/sec

Distance covered in 30 sec = 40 × 30 = 1200 m

Let length of train = x m

⇒ Length of platform = 2x

⇒ 3x = 1200 Þ x = 400

⇒ Length of platform = 2x = 800m

∴ The length of the platform is 800 m

Question 57

The ratio of number of children, women and men in colony is 6 : 4 : 3 respectively and the colony has at least 200 members. What will be minimum number of children in the colony?

  1. AOption (a)

    48

  2. BOption (b)

    72

  3. COption (c)

    64

  4. DOption (d)

    96

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

96

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

The ratio of the number of children, women, and men in a colony is 6: 4: 3 respectively.

The colony has at least 200 members

CALCULATION:

Ratio = 6 : 4 : 3

Let children, women, and men be 6x, 4x, and 3x respectively.

Total member = 13x

So, members should be multiple of 13.

∴ We have to find the least multiple of 13 greater than 200. (∵ minimum number of children in the colony is asked)

As 13 × 16 = 208 there are a total of 208 members

⇒  13x = 208 or x = 16

⇒  minimum number of Children = 6 × 16 = 96

∴ 96 will be minimum number of children in the colony.

Question 58

The selling price of the first article is ₹ 470 and the cost price of the second article is ₹ 470. If there is a loss of 20% on the first article and a profit of 20% on the second article, then what will be the overall profit or loss percentage?

  1. AOption (a)

    2.22% loss

  2. BOption (b)

    4% profit

  3. COption (c)

    No profit no loss

  4. DOption (d)

    1.80% loss

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2.22% loss

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Selling price of first article is ₹ 470.

Cost price of second article is ₹ 470.

Loss of 20% on first article

Profit of 20% on second article

CONCEPT:

Total loss/gain = (C.P. of all article – S.P. of all article)

FORMULA USED:

S.P. = C.P. (1 + gain%/100)

S.P. = C.P. (1 - loss%/100)

CALCULATION:

There is loss of 20% on first article

S.P. of 1st = Rs. 470

C.P. of 1st = 470/.8 = 587.5

Similarly, S.P. of 2nd = 470 × 1.2 = 564

Total C.P. = 587.5 + 470 = 1057.5

Total S.P. = 470 + 564 =1034

Loss = 1057.5 – 1034 = 23.5

Loss% 23.5/1057.5 = 2.2%

Alternate MethodSelling price(SP) of the first article is ₹ 470, loss 20%

The cost price(CP) of first article = SP × 100/(100 - 20)

⇒ CP of first article = 470 × 100/80 = Rs. 587.5

The cost price of the second article is ₹ 470, Sell at 20% profit

⇒ SP = CP(100 + profit)/100

⇒ 470 × (100 + 20)/100

⇒ Rs. 564

Total CP = 587.5 + 470 = 1057.5

Total SP = 470 + 564 = 1034

Loss % = (CP - SP)100/CP = (1057.5 - 1034)100/1057.5

⇒ 2350/1057.5

⇒ 2.22%

Question 59

P and Q together can complete a work in 20 days. If P alone can complete the same work in 36 days, then in how many days Q alone can complete the same work?

  1. AOption (a)

    48 days

  2. BOption (b)

    42 days

  3. COption (c)

    45 days

  4. DOption (d)

    51 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

45 days

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

P and Q together can complete a work in 20 days

P alone can complete same work in 36 days.

CONCEPT:

We will use L.C.M. approach

CALCULATION:

Let work be L.C.M. of 20 and 36 i.e. 180 units

P and Q together work in one day = 180/20 = 9 units

P work in one day = 180/36 = 5 units

→ Q work in one day = (9 – 5) = 4 units

→ So, time taken by Q to complete work = 180/4 = 45 days.

Question 60

Teena, Reena and Sheena start a business with investment of respectively ₹ 24000, ₹ 28000 and ₹ 20000. Teena invests for 8 months, Reena invest for 10 months and Sheena invests for one year. If the total profit at the end of year is ₹ 25810, then what is the share of Teena?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹6960

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹10150

  3. COption (c)

    ₹7940

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹8700

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹6960

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Teena, Reena and Sheena start a business with investment of respectively ₹ 24000, ₹ 28000 and ₹ 20000

Teena invests for 8 months, Reena invest for 10 months and Sheena invests for one year.

Total Profit = 25810

Concept:

Ratio in which profit divides = Sum of money invested by individual × Duration for which money is invested.

Calculation:

Ratio in which profit divides = 24000 × 8 : 28000 × 10 : 20000 × 12

⇒ Ratio = 24 × 8 : 28 × 10 : 20 × 12

⇒ Ratio = 24 : 35 : 30

Share of Teena 

⇒ 25810 × 24/(24 + 35 + 30)

⇒ 25810 × 24/89

⇒ 290 × 24

⇒ Rs. 6960

∴ The share of teena is Rs. 6960.

Question 61

What is the median of the given data?

1, 3, 6, 2, 5, 8, 3, 8, 2

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    2.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

A data having numbers: 1, 3, 6, 2, 5, 8, 3, 8, 2

CONCEPT:

Median is in the middle of series if arranged in ascending or descending order.

FORMULA USED:

Middle term in case total terms(n) are odd = (n +1)/2

Median = ((n + 1)/2)th term

Middle term in case total terms are even = n/2, n/2 +1

Median = ((n/2)th term + (n/2 +1)th )/2

CALCULATION:

Arranging in ascending order

1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 5, 6, 8, 8

Total no of terms = 9 (odd)

⇒ Median = (9 + 1)/2 = 5th term = 3

∴ The median is 3.

Question 62

Pipe C can fill a tank in 12 hours and pipe D can fill the same tank in 40 hours. In how many hours both pipe C and D together can fill the same tank?

  1. AOption (a)

    607;hours\frac{{60}}{7};hours

  2. BOption (b)

    6011;hours\frac{{60}}{{11}};hours

  3. COption (c)

    12013;hours\frac{{120}}{{13}};hours

  4. DOption (d)

    12011;hours\frac{{120}}{{11}};hours

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

12013;hours\frac{{120}}{{13}};hours

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Pipe C can fill a tank in 12 hours

Pipe D can fill the same tank in 40 hours

CONCEPT:

We will assume total work as L.C.M. of both the time and then calculate further.

CALCULATION:

L.C.M. of 40 and 12 = 120

So, let total work = 120 units

→ Work done by C in one hour = 120/12 = 10 units

→ Work done by D in one hour = 120/40 = 3 units

→ If they both work then work done by them = 13 units in one hour.

So, time taken if both of them work simultaneously = 120/13 hours.

Question 63

Selling price and cost price of an article are in the ratio of 7 : 5. What will be the profit/loss percentage?

  1. AOption (a)

    40% profit

  2. BOption (b)

    28.5% profit

  3. COption (c)

    20% loss

  4. DOption (d)

    14.28% loss

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

40% profit

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Selling price and cost price of an article are in the ratio of 7 : 5.

FORMULA USED:

Profit/Loss% = (Profit/C.P.) × 100

CALCULATION:

Let S.P. and C.P. is 7x and 5x

→  Profit = 7x – 5x = 2x

→ Profit% = (2x/5x) × 100 = 40%

Question 64

What is the value of [88 – 44 ÷ (22 × 4) of  (12−14÷18)(\frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{4} \div \frac{1}{8}) ]?

  1. AOption (a)

    265/3

  2. BOption (b)

    703/9

  3. COption (c)

    514/9

  4. DOption (d)

    711/3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

265/3

Why this answer is correct

Follow the BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

⇒ [88 – 44 ÷ (22 × 4) of (1/2 - 1/4 ÷ 1/8)]

⇒ [88 – 44 ÷ (88) of (1/2 - 2)]

⇒ [88 – 44 ÷ (88) of (-3/2)]

⇒ [88 – 44 ÷ (-132)]

⇒ [88 – 44/(-132)]

⇒ [88 + 1/3]

⇒ 265/3

Question 65

The bar chart given below shows the annual production (in 1000 tonnes) of coffee of a country for years 2009 to 2013.

What is the average production (in 1000 tonnes) of coffee from year 2009 to 2011?

  1. AOption (a)

    1366.67

  2. BOption (b)

    1166.67

  3. COption (c)

    1233.33

  4. DOption (d)

    1466.67

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1166.67

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

A bar chart which shows the annual production (in 1000 tonnes) of coffee of a country for years 2009 to 2013.

FORMULA USED:

Average = Sum of quantity/Number of quantities

CALCULATION:

Production in 2009 = 800

Production in 2010 = 1200

Production in 2011 = 1500

Average = (800 + 1200 + 1500)/3 = 3500/3 = 1166.67

Question 66

The length of a rectangle is 16 cm. If the length of diagonal is 20 cm, then what will be the breadth of the rectangle?

  1. AOption (a)

    8 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    12 cm

  3. COption (c)

    10 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    14 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12 cm

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

A rectangle with length = 16cm and diagonal length = 20 cm

CONCEPT :

Pythagoras theorem

FORMULA USED:

Diagonal2 = length2 + breadth2

CALCULATION:

As length breadth and diagonal will form a right-angled triangle

⇒ 162 + breadth2 = 202

⇒ breadth2 = 400 - 256 

⇒ breadth2 = 144

⇒ breadth = 12 cm

∴ The breadth of the rectangle is 12 cm.

Question 67

A sum of ₹ 11700 becomes ₹ 16848 in 2 years at the rate of compound interest. If the interest is compounded annually, then what will be the rate of interest?

  1. AOption (a)

    20%

  2. BOption (b)

    15%

  3. COption (c)

    17.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    25%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20%

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Principal = 11700

Amount after 2 years = 16848

CONCEPT:

As, interest is compounded annually for 2 years, we have to square root both principal and amount and compare them to find the interest.

FORMULA USED:

Amount = Principal (1 +rate/100) t

CALCULATION:

Ratio of principal and amount = 16848/11700

Square root of ratio = 129.8/108.16 = 1.2

⇒ After 1-year amount is 1.2 times that of principal

⇒ Percentage change = (1.2 -1) × 100 = 20%.

∴ The rate of interest will be 20%.

According to the question,

Amount = Principal (1 +rate/100) t

⇒ 16848/11700 = (1 + R/100)2

⇒ 1 + R/100 = √1.44

⇒ 1 + R/100 = 1.2 

⇒ R/100 = 1.2 - 1

⇒ R = 0.2 × 100 = 20%

∴ The rate of interest will be 20%.

Question 68

Manish goes to his hometown at the speed of 40 km/hr and returns to his home at the speed of Y km/hr. Distance between his home and hometown is 360 km. If he takes total 21 hours, then what is the value of Y?

  1. AOption (a)

    25 km/hr

  2. BOption (b)

    28 km/hr

  3. COption (c)

    30 km/hr

  4. DOption (d)

    33 km/hr

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

30 km/hr

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Distance between home and hometown = 360km

Speed going = 40 km/hr

Speed coming = Y km/hr                                                 

CONCEPT:

Average Speed = Total Distance/Total time

FORMULA USED:

Distance = Speed × Time

CALCULATION:

Time taken in going = 360/40 = 9 hours

∵Total time = 21 hours → Time taken in coming = 21 – 9 = 12 hours

Speed while returning =  360/12 = 30 km/hr

Question 69

If the length of a rectangle increases by 50% and the breadth decreases by 25%, then what will be the percent increase in its area?

  1. AOption (a)

    15%

  2. BOption (b)

    17.5%

  3. COption (c)

    12.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    25%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

12.5%

Why this answer is correct

Alternate Method a + b + ab\100

a = + 50% and b = -25%

⇒ 50 - 25 - 1250/100

⇒ 25 - 12.5 = 12.5%

∴ The percent increase in its area is 12.5%.

GIVEN:

Length of a rectangle increases by 50%

Breadth decreases by 25%

CONCEPT:

Taking both length and breath as 100 will help in calculation.

FORMULA USED:

Area = length × breath

CALCULATION:

Let length and breadth be 100 each.

Area = 10000

After a change in length and breadth

→ Length = 150, Breadth = 75

Area = 150 × 75 = 11,250

→ % increase in area = ((11,250 – 10,000)/10,000) × 100

→ % increase in area = 12.5%

Question 70

The length, breadth and height of a solid cuboid is 14 cm, 12 cm and 8 cm respectively. If cuboid is melted to form identical cubes of side 2 cm, then what will be the number of identical cubes?

  1. AOption (a)

    168

  2. BOption (b)

    144

  3. COption (c)

    156

  4. DOption (d)

    128

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

168

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Sides of cuboid = 14 cm, 12 cm and 8 cm.

Side of cube = 2 cm

CONCEPT USED:

After melting and reformation volume remains the same.

FORMULA:

Volume of cuboid = l × b × h

Volume of cube = side3

CALCULATION:

 

Volume of cuboid = 14 × 12 × 8

Volume of cube = 2 × 2 × 2

Number of cubes = (14 × 12 × 8)/( 2 × 2 × 2) = 7 × 6 × 4 = 168.

∴ The number of identical cubes is 168

Question 71

The marked price of an article is ₹ 1200 and discount offered is 31%. If profit is 15%, then what will be the cost price?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹640

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹704

  3. COption (c)

    ₹748

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹720

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹720

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Marked Price = 1200

Discount = 31%

Profit = 15%

FORMULA USED:

Selling Price = Marked Price (1 – discount%/100)

Selling Price = Cost Price (1 + Profit%/100)

CALCULATION:

∵ M.P. = 1200 and discount% = 31%

Þ S.P. = 1200(1 – 31/100) = 828

S.P. = C.P. (1 + 15/100)

Þ C.P. = 828/1.15 = 720.

Question 72

The average weight of all the vehicles in a parking is 4000 kg. The average weight of 12 vehicles is 6000 kg. Average weight of the remaining vehicles is 3000 kg. What is the total number of vehicles in the parking?

  1. AOption (a)

    40 

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    20

  4. DOption (d)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

36

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Average weight of all the vehicles in a parking is 4000 kg

Average weight of 12 vehicles is 6000 kg

Average weight of the remaining vehicles is 3000 kg.

FORMULA USED:

Weighted avg = (n1 × average of n1 quantity + n2 × average of n2 quantity + ----)/(n1 + n2 +------)

CALCULATION:

Weighted average = 4000kg.

Let remaining vehicle = x.

Using formula, we get 4000=12;×6000+x;×300012+x4000 = \frac{{12; × 6000 + x; × 3000}}{{12 + x}}

→ 48000 + 4000x = 72000 + 3000x

→ 1000x = 24000

→ x = 24

Total number of vehicles = 24 + 12 = 36

  

Let number of remaining vehicle be x

Total number of vehicle = x + 12

⇒ 4000 (x + 12) = (6000 × 12) + (x × 3000)

⇒ 4000x + 48000 = 72000 + 3000x

⇒ 1000x = 24000

⇒ x = 24

Total number of vehicles = 24 + 12 = 36

Question 73

A sum of ₹ 4650 is lent at simple interest. If the rate of interest is 7.5% per annum, then what will be the simple interest for 4 years?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹ 1395

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹ 1295

  3. COption (c)

    ₹ 1495

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹ 1300

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹ 1395

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Effective Interest Rate = Rate × Time

⇒ 7.5% × 4 years = 30%

Simple Interest = 30% of Principal (₹ 4650)

⇒ 0.3 × 4650 = ₹ 1395

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 1395.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹ 4650

Rate of Interest (R) = 7.5% per annum

Time Period (T) = 4 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ SI = (4650 × 7.5 × 4) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (4650 × 30) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 46.5 × 30

⇒ SI = 465 × 3

⇒ SI = ₹ 1395

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 1395.

Additional Information

Total Amount Formula

The total amount (A) to be paid back is the sum of the Principal and Simple Interest: A = P + SI = P(1 + RT/100).

Relationship between SI and Time

Simple Interest is directly proportional to the time period if the Principal and Rate remain constant. Doubling the time doubles the interest.

Rate and Time Calculation

If SI, P, and R are known, Time (T) = (100 × SI) ÷ (P × R). Similarly, Rate (R) = (100 × SI) ÷ (P × T).

Question 74

What is the value of 80 ÷ 40 − 10 − 5 × 4 of (1/3 ÷ 10/3)?

  1. AOption (a)

    -12

  2. BOption (b)

    403\frac{{40}}{3}

  3. COption (c)

    225\frac{{22}}{5}

  4. DOption (d)

    -10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

-10

Why this answer is correct

Given:

80 ÷ 40 − 10 − 5 × 4 of (1/3 ÷ 10/3)

Concept:

Calculation:

80 ÷ 40 − 10 − 5 × 4 of (1/3 ÷ 10/3) 

⇒ 80 ÷ 40 - 10 - 5 × 4 of 1/10

⇒ 80 ÷ 40 - 10 - 5 × 4/10

⇒ 80 ÷ 40 - 10 - 2

⇒ 2 - 12

⇒ - 10

∴ The value of 80 ÷ 40 − 10 − 5 × 4 of (1/3 ÷ 10/3) is - 10.

Question 75

The line chart given below shows the production (in 10000 s) of cars in 7 different months.

Production of cars in month M4 is what percent of the production of cars in month M2?

  1. AOption (a)

    125%

  2. BOption (b)

    75%

  3. COption (c)

    66.66%

  4. DOption (d)

    83.33%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

75%

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

A line chart which shows the production (in 10000 s) of cars in 7 different months.

FORMULA USED:

Percentage = (quantity1/quantity2) × 100

CALCULATION:

Production of car in Months M4 = 24

Production of car in Months M2 = 32

Percentage = (24/32) ×100 = 75%

English (25 questions)

Question 76

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”.

Tourists visiting Leh take home photos and memories but leave back a mountain of waste.

  1. AOption (a)

    leave away

  2. BOption (b)

    left back

  3. COption (c)

    No improvement

  4. DOption (d)

    leave behind

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

leave behind

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e leave behind.

 Some verbs are followed by a particular preposition, which changes its meaning, known as phrasal verbs.

  • But not all prepositions form meaningful phrasal verbs.

  • For example:

  • My parents were let over by me. 

  • My parents were let down by me. 

  • In the example given above, 'let over' isn't a phrasal verb whereas 'let down' means to disappoint someone.

  • ​In the given question, only 'leave behind' is a phrasal verb which means to go away and not take something or someone with you.

  • The rest of the options don't add up.

Correct Sentence: "Tourists visiting Leh take home photos and memories but leave behind a mountain of waste."

Question 77

Direction: Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Gratefull

  2. BOption (b)

    Greatfull

  3. COption (c)

    Greatful

  4. DOption (d)

    Grateful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Grateful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4) i.e Grateful.

Key Points

  • The correct spelling out of the given options is 'Grateful' which means feeling or showing an appreciation for something done or received. (आभारी)
  • For example:
  • After the earthquake, we felt grateful to be alive.

Question 78

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part among the sentences has an error and click the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click option 4 i.e. 'No error'.

Ram always tries to do things (A)/ very carefully and made sure (B)/ he does them correctly. (C)/ No error (D)

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2)

 ​The simple present tense is used when an action is happening right now, or when it happens regularly or unceasingly.

  • The structure is given below:
  • Subject + V1 + object.
  • The verb will take 's/es' if the given person or noun is singular.
  • For example:
  • ​He plays badminton daily.
  • Since the first half of the sentence is in simple present, the same tense will be used in the latter part too.
  • Hence, makes will be used instead of made to make the sentence grammatically correct.

Correct Sentence: "Ram always tries to do things very carefully and makes sure he does them correctly."

Question 79

Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Occation

  2. BOption (b)

    Occassion

  3. COption (c)

    Occasion

  4. DOption (d)

    Ocassion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Occasion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Occasion".

 Key Points

  • The correct spelt word out of the given options is 'Occasion'.
  • It means a particular event, or the time at which it takes place.
  • For example: We met on several occasions to discuss the issue.
  • All the remaining options are incorrectly spelt.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 80

Directions

From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.

If they had a playground here, they can play after school is over.

  1. AOption (a)

    after 

  2. BOption (b)

    If they had

  3. COption (c)

    school is over

  4. DOption (d)

    they can play

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

they can play

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e 'they can play'.

 

​Conditional sentences are statements discussing known factors or hypothetical situations and their consequences.

  • One of the structures is mentioned below:

  • This particular type is followed when we talk about something in the past which is purely imaginary.

  • If + Simple Past, Subject + Would + V1 + Object.

  • For example:

  • If I had wings, I will fly like a bird. 

  • If I had wings, I would fly like a bird. 

  • In the 4th part of the given question, 'could/would' will be used as per the rule given above.

Correct sentence: "If they had a playground here, they could/would play after school is over."

In case of imaginary sentences, 'were' is used with all subjects irrespective of their number.

  • Some imaginary phrases are given below:
  • ​As though, if/as if, I wish, would that, etc.
  • ​For example:
  • ​**He shouted at me as if he were my coach.

Question 81

Directions

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Just are the ..... of God.

  1. AOption (a)

    ways

  2. BOption (b)

    deeds

  3. COption (c)

    plans

  4. DOption (d)

    tricks

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ways

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e ways.

 ​There are certain statements/phrases in various religious books which are used without any alteration.

  • One of them and its meaning are given below:
  • Just are the ways of God.
  • ​The given statement is taken from the Bible.
  • It means that the almighty does what is morally right and fair.

Correct sentence: *"*Just are the ways of God."

 

Aspirants may get confused between ways and plans, but the statement is used as it is i.e without any change.

Question 82

Directions

From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.

I said you to prepare the article yesterday but you didn’t.

  1. AOption (a)

    the article

  2. BOption (b)

    I said you

  3. COption (c)

    you didn't

  4. DOption (d)

    to prepare

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I said you

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2) i.e I said you.

The verb 'said' is used in the following forms given below:

  • It's used in case of direct speech in the narration.
  • 'said to' is always followed by another subject or object.
  • In the indirect speech of narration, 'said to' is converted into 'told'.
  • If any object is not given in the sentence, the verb 'said' is followed by the conjunction 'that'.
  • For example:
  • Indirect speech- ​He said to me, "You are a fool."
  • Direct speech- He told me that I was a fool.
  • The given sentence is in the indirect speech of narration, hence the verb 'said' will be replaced by 'told'.

Correct sentence: "I told you to prepare the article yesterday but you didn’t."

Question 83

Directions

Select the synonym of the given word.

MELODIOUS

  1. AOption (a)

    Rhythmic

  2. BOption (b)

    Rattling

  3. COption (c)

    Tuneful

  4. DOption (d)

    Doleful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tuneful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e tuneful.

Key Points:-

  • The given word 'melodious' means relating to or characterized by melody. (राग से संबंधित या विशेषता)
  • ​Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:
  • rhythmic- having or relating to the rhythm. (लय से संबंधित या होना)
  • rattling- making a series of knocking sounds. (खटखटाने की आवाज़ की एक श्रृंखला बनाना)
  • tuneful- having a pleasing tune; melodious. (मनभावन धुन होना; मधुर)
  • doleful- expressing sorrow; mournful. (दुख व्यक्त करना; शोकाकुल)
  • The most appropriate synonym of the out of the given options is 'tuneful' i.e 3rd option.

Question 84

Directions

Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.

A red letter day

  1. AOption (a)

    A sad day

  2. BOption (b)

    A boring day

  3. COption (c)

    A memorable day

  4. DOption (d)

    A painful day

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A memorable day

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e A memorable day.

Key Points:-

  • The given idiom 'A red-letter day' means a day that is pleasantly noteworthy or memorable. (एक ऐसा दिन जो सुखद रूप से उल्लेखनीय या यादगार हो)
  • ​For example:
  • The day I first set foot in America was a red-letter day for me.

Question 85

Directions

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

You can visit me on .......... at 7 o’clock.

  1. AOption (a)

    tomorrow

  2. BOption (b)

    next month

  3. COption (c)

    today

  4. DOption (d)

    Sunday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sunday

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e Sunday.

 ​There are certain phrases/nouns which are not preceded by a preposition, especially 'on'.

  • Some of them are given below:

  • today, tomorrow, yesterday, the next day/month/year, tonight, last night, etc.

  • Though there are some nouns/phrases which can be preceded by the preposition 'on':

  • ​Exact time in terms of a day or a particular date.

  • Monday, 7th May, Thursday, 12th July, etc.

  • For example:​

  • I met her on last Saturday. 

  • I met her last Saturday. 

  • Since the given blank is preceded by the preposition 'on', only 'Sunday' will fulfill the desired purpose.

Correct Sentence: "You can visit me on Sunday at 7 o’clock."

Question 86

Directions

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement.

Yesterday eleven coaches of a train headed for Delhi was derailed at Vaishali district of Bihar.

  1. AOption (a)

    was derailed in

  2. BOption (b)

    were derailed in

  3. COption (c)

    No improvement

  4. DOption (d)

    were derail at

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

were derailed in

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e were derailed in.

Key Points

 There are certain phrases/nouns which are not preceded by a preposition, especially 'in'

  • Some of them are given below:

  • ​Exact time in terms of a month/year, a relatively bigger place/location, etc.

  • In August, in 2020, in Mumbai, in Hyderabad, etc.

  • For example:​

  • She was born on 2002. 

  • She was born in 2002. 

  • Since the exact location isn't given in the question, 'in' will be the most appropriate preposition here.

  • The simple past is a verb tense that is used to talk about things that happened or existed before now.

  • The structure is: Subject + V2 + object.

  • For example:

  • ​He won a car race.

  • In the simple past tense, we make passive verb forms by putting 'was/were' before the past participle form of the verb.

  • 'were' will be used as an auxiliary verb as the subject 'eleven coaches' is plural.

  • Since the given sentence is in the passive form of voice, 'were derailed in' will be the most appropriate choice.

Correct Sentence: "Yesterday eleven coaches of a train headed for Delhi were derailed in Vaishali district of Bihar."

Question 87

Directions

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

________ are to be avoided: they lead to conflict.

  1. AOption (a)

    Questions

  2. BOption (b)

    Statements

  3. COption (c)

    Arguments

  4. DOption (d)

    Decisions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Arguments

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e arguments.

​Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:

  • question- a sentence worded or expressed so as to elicit information.
  • statement- a definite or clear expression of something in speech or writing.
  • argument- an exchange of diverging or opposite views, typically a heated or angry one.
  • decision- a conclusion or resolution reached after consideration.
  • A possible scenario of conflict has been mentioned in the latter part of the sentence.
  • This indicates that there must have been statements and counter-statements from both sides.
  • Hence, 'arguments' is the most appropriate choice here.

Correct sentence: "Arguments are to be avoided: they lead to conflict."

Question 88

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”

On inspection, a hundred-year-old bridge was find being too weak to take a load of lakhs of vehicles every day.

  1. AOption (a)

    was being found

  2. BOption (b)

    No improvement

  3. COption (c)

    was found to be

  4. DOption (d)

    has to be found

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

was found to be

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e was found to be.

Key PointsThe simple past is a verb tense that is used to talk about things that happened or existed before now.

  • The structure is given below:
  • Subject + V2 + object.
  • For example:
  • ​He won a car race.
  • In the simple past tense, we make passive verb forms by putting 'was/were' before the past participle form of the verb.
  • Since the given sentence is in the passive form of voice, 'was found to be' will be the most appropriate choice. 

Correct Sentence: "On inspection, a hundred-year-old bridge was found to be too weak to take a load of lakhs of vehicles every day."

Question 89

Direction: Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

One who is present everywhere

  1. AOption (a)

    Omnipotent

  2. BOption (b)

    Omniscient

  3. COption (c)

    Omnipresent

  4. DOption (d)

    Omnivorous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Omnipresent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Omnipresent.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the marked option.
  • Omnipresent: widely or constantly encountered; widespread. (व्यापक रूप से या लगातार सामना करना पड़ा; व्यापक)
  • Example: ​The singer became an omnipresent icon of style and beauty.

​Hence from the given meaning and example, we find that the correct answer is: Omnipresent.

  • Let's look at the meaning of the other given options. 
  • Omnipotent- (of a deity) having unlimited power. ((एक देवता का) असीमित शक्ति वाला)
  • Omniscient- knowing everything. (सब कुछ जानने वाला)
  • Omnivorous- eating both animal and plant foods. (पशु और पौधे दोनों खाद्य पदार्थ खाना)

Question 90

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

BLESS

  1. AOption (a)

    Purify

  2. BOption (b)

    Sanctify

  3. COption (c)

    Wish

  4. DOption (d)

    Curse

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Curse

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is curse

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given word and correct option-
  • Bless- to pronounce words in a religious rite in order to confer or invoke divine favour upon; ask God to look favourably on.
  • Curse- a solemn utterance intended to invoke a supernatural power to inflict harm or punishment on someone or something.
  • Hence from the given meanings, we find that both the words express the opposite meanings

​

Additional Information

  • ​Let's have a look at the meanings of the other given words:
  • purify- remove contaminants from.
  • sanctify- set apart as or declare holy; consecrate.
  • wish- a desire or hope for something to happen.

Question 91

Directions

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.**

Gita won’t pass the examination and _______ will Rita.

  1. AOption (a)

    nor

  2. BOption (b)

    or

  3. COption (c)

    either

  4. DOption (d)

    neither

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

neither

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e neither.

<br>

Key Points 

 Conjunction is a word used to connect clauses or sentences or to coordinate words in the same clause.

  • Let's look at the context of the sentence given below:
  • The given sentence tries to convey that both Gita and Rita will fail.
  • In the given blank, we need a conjunction with negative meaning.
  • Only two options are suitable for the purpose: 1st and 4th.
  • 'Nor' is used when 'neither' has already been used in the beginning.
  • ​For example: Rajesh can't come to the party and neither can Arijit.
  • Hence we are now left with 'neither' which is the most appropriate choice here.

Correct sentence: "Gita won’t pass the examination and neither will Rita."

Question 92

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

AGILE

  1. AOption (a)

    Aggressive

  2. BOption (b)

    Active

  3. COption (c)

    Dull

  4. DOption (d)

    Lazy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Active

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e active.

Key Points:-

  • The given word 'agile' means the ability to move quickly and easily. (जल्दी और आसानी से चलने की क्षमता)
  • ​Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:
  • Aggressive- ready or likely to attack or confront; characterized by or resulting from aggression. (हमला करने या सामना करने के लिए तैयार या संभावित; आक्रामकता के कारण या उसके परिणामस्वरूप विशेषता)
  • Active- engaging or ready to engage in physically energetic pursuits. (आकर्षक या शारीरिक रूप से ऊर्जावान गतिविधियों में संलग्न होने के लिए तैयार)
  • Dull- lacking interest or excitement. (रुचि या उत्साह की कमी)
  • Lazy- unwilling to work or use energy. (काम करने या ऊर्जा का उपयोग करने के लिए अनिच्छुक)
  • The most appropriate synonym of the out of the given options is 'active' i.e 2nd option.

Question 93

Directions

Select the antonym of the given word.

HIDEOUS

  1. AOption (a)

    Beautiful

  2. BOption (b)

    Secretive

  3. COption (c)

    Detestable

  4. DOption (d)

    Ugly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Beautiful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e beautiful.

 The given word 'hideous' means extremely ugly.

  • ​Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:
  • beautiful- pleasing the senses or mind aesthetically.
  • secretive- characterized by the concealment of intentions and information.
  • detestable- deserving intense dislike.
  • ugly- unpleasant or repulsive, especially in appearance.
  • The most appropriate antonym out of the given options is 'beautiful' i.e 1st option.

Question 94

Directions

Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

Someone who leaves one’s country to settle in another country.

  1. AOption (a)

    Tourist

  2. BOption (b)

    Emigrant

  3. COption (c)

    Foreigner

  4. DOption (d)

    Explorer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Emigrant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e Emigrant.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the marked option.
  • Emigrant: a person who leaves their own country in order to settle permanently in another. (वह व्यक्ति जो स्थायी रूप से दूसरे देश में बसने के लिए अपना देश छोड़ देता है)
  • Example: ​S**he was a Polish emigrant who came to Scotland during the Second World War.

​Hence from the given meaning and example, we find that the correct answer is: Emigrant.

Let's look at the meanings of the other given options. 

  • Tourist- a person who is travelling or visiting a place for pleasure. (वह व्यक्ति जो यात्रा कर रहा हो या आनंद के लिए किसी स्थान पर जा रहा हो)
  • Foreigner- a person born in or coming from a country other than one's own. (अपने देश के अलावा किसी अन्य देश में पैदा हुआ या आने वाला व्यक्ति)
  • Explorer- a person who explores a new or unfamiliar area. (एक व्यक्ति जो एक नए या अपरिचित क्षेत्र की खोज करता है)

Question 95

Directions

Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.

To eat humble pie

  1. AOption (a)

    To deny desperately

  2. BOption (b)

    To defend oneself

  3. COption (c)

    To accept error

  4. DOption (d)

    To be aggressive

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To accept error

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e To accept error​.

Key Points:-

  • The given idiom 'to eat humble pie' means to admit that you were wrong. (यह स्वीकार करने के लिए कि आप गलत थे)
  • F​or example:
  • After boasting that his company could outperform the industry's best, he's been forced to eat humble pie.

Direction: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

The Second Anglo-Maratha War had shattered the (1)......... of the Maratha chiefs, but not their spirit. The loss of their freedom caused them deep (2)......... They made a last (3)........... attempt to regain their independence in 1817. The lead-in organising a united front of the Maratha chiefs (4)........ by the Peshwa who was smarting under the (5)........... control exercised by the British Resident.

Question 96

Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    patience

  2. BOption (b)

    dignity

  3. COption (c)

    power

  4. DOption (d)

    time

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

power

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e power.

Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:

  • patience- the ability to wait, or to continue doing something despite difficulties.
  • dignity- the state or quality of being worthy of honour or respect.
  • power- the ability or capacity to do something or act in a particular way.
  • time- a point of time as measured in hours and minutes past midnight or noon.
  • The first line of the cloze test talks about a war scenario and the devastation of the Maratha chiefs.
  • Hence the most appropriate of the given options is 'power' i.e 3rd option.

Question 97

Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    agony

  2. BOption (b)

    distress

  3. COption (c)

    fear

  4. DOption (d)

    depression

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

agony

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e 'agony'.

Key Points

  • Agony- extreme physical or mental suffering.
  • The term 'Agony' accurately conveys the extreme mental and emotional suffering that the Maratha chiefs would have experienced due to the loss of their freedom.
  • 'Agony' indicates a greater intensity of suffering compared to 'Distress', reflecting the profound impact of losing independence, which aligns with their desperation to regain it.
  • Understanding the depth of suffering experienced by the Maratha chiefs, 'Agony' is indeed an appropriate choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Agony'.

Additional Information

  • distress- extreme anxiety, sorrow, or pain.
  • fear- an unpleasant emotion caused by the threat of danger, pain, or harm.
  • depression- feelings of severe despondency and dejection.
  • While 'Fear' and 'Depression' are emotions, they do not specifically highlight the severity of the stress caused by loss of freedom as 'Agony' does.

Question 98

Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    violent

  2. BOption (b)

    massive

  3. COption (c)

    desperate

  4. DOption (d)

    feeble

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

desperate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e desperate.

Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:

  • violent- using or involving physical force intended to hurt, damage, or kill someone or something.
  • massive- large and heavy or solid.
  • desperate- feeling or showing a hopeless sense that a situation is so bad as to be impossible to deal with.
  • feeble- lacking physical strength, especially as a result of age or illness.
  • The first two lines of the cloze test suggest the Maratha chiefs wanted to make all out efforts to get the freedom back.
  • Hence the most appropriate of the given options is 'desperate' i.e 3rd option.

Question 99

Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    was taking

  2. BOption (b)

    was taken

  3. COption (c)

    had taken

  4. DOption (d)

    were taken

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

was taken

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e was taken.

 ​The simple past is a verb tense that is used to talk about things that happened or existed before now.

  • For example:
  • ​He won a car race.
  • In the simple past tense, we make passive verb forms by putting 'was/were' before the past participle form of the verb.
  • Since the given sentence is in the passive form of voice, 'was taken' will be the most appropriate choice.

Question 100

Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    cruel

  2. BOption (b)

    orthodox

  3. COption (c)

    pleasant

  4. DOption (d)

    rigid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

rigid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e rigid.

Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:

  • cruel- wilfully causing pain or suffering to others, or feeling no concern about it.
  • orthodox- following or conforming to the traditional or generally accepted rules or beliefs of a religion, philosophy, or practice.
  • pleasant- giving a sense of happy satisfaction or enjoyment.
  • rigid- not able to be changed or persuaded.
  • In the given blank, we need an adjective to qualify the noun 'control'.
  • The Marathas and the British were adversaries as per the cloze test.
  • Hence the most appropriate of the given options is 'rigid' i.e 4th option.

100 questions in the full paper