SSC GD Constable (2024) Official Paper (Held On: 28 Feb, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

'WHOM' is coded as 'SCKH'.

 

Similarly, the code for 'BAKE'

Hence, the correct answer is "XVGZ".

The logic followed here is:

GE : HH

Similarly, BA : ? 

Hence, the correct answer is "CD".

The correct Dictionary order is:

3. Slug
4. Slump
5. Slung
6. Slur
7. Suit

So, the word 'Slur' will come at 'Fourth' position.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: Five persons A, B, C, D and E.

1. C is not an immediate neighbour of D and A.

2. B is sitting second to the left of E.

3. A is sitting second to the right of E.

So, A is sitting on the immediate right of D.

Hence, the correct answer is "A".

Given: Eight athletes Sunil, Abhishek, Mohit, Cheenu, Rahul, Tanu, Koyal and Ankit.

1. Koyal is third to the left of Rahul.

2. Tanu is third to the right of Cheenu.

3. Mohit is second to the right of Sunil.

4. Abhishek is second to the left of Cheenu.

5. Tanu is second to the left of Sunil.

Final arrangement:

So, Rahul is sitting second to the right of Ankit.

Hence, the correct answer is "Rahul".

The logic followed here is:

• In the 1^st step, an arc(outward facing) is added at the end of the element.
• In the 2^nd step, the element(line with outward facing arc) is added. The 1^st step and 2^nd step is again followed until the final image is obtained.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "139".

The logic followed here is:

 

 

Hence, the correct answer is "P".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "680".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: A means +, B means -, C means ÷.

30 A 10 B 30 C 10 = 37

30 + 10 - 30 ÷ 10 = 40 - 3 = 37

45 A 15 B 18 C 9 = 58,

45 + 15 - 18 ÷ 9 = 60 - 2 = 58

Then 64 A 34 B 50 C 5 = ?

64 + 34 - 50 ÷ 5 = 98 - 10 = 88

Hence, the correct answer is "88".

The logic followed here is:

'DRAGON' is coded as 'CQZEML'.

Similarly, the code for 'WHEELS'

Hence, the correct answer is "VGDCJQ".

Given numbers: 9 and 2

= 2 ÷ 3 + 9 - 4 = 6

= 0.66 + 9 - 4 = 6

= 9.66 - 4 = 6

= 5.66 ≠ 6

After interchange the numbers we get:

= 2 ÷ 3 + 9 - 4 = 6

= 0.66 + 9 - 4 = 6

= 9.66 - 4 = 6

= 5.66 ≠ 6

Thus, this will not be correct.

2) 9 + 4 × 2 - 6 = 32

After interchange the numbers we get:

= 2 + 4 × 9 - 6 = 32

= 2 + 36 - 6 = 32

= 38 - 6 = 32

= 32 = 32

3) 9 - 2 + 7 = 0

After interchange the numbers we get:

= 2 - 9 + 7 = 0

= 9 - 9 = 0

= 0 = 0

4) 2 + 9 × 3 - 4 = 11

After interchange the numbers we get:

= 9 + 2 × 3 - 4 = 11

= 9 + 6 - 4 = 11

= 11 = 11

Hence, the correct answer is "9 ÷ 3 + 2 - 4 = 6".

According to the given information:

From the dice we can see,

J is opposite to G,

F is opposite to H,

E is opposite to I

And, two opposite sides can not be the adjacent surfaces, so it can't be shows in a dice.

Option 1) 

→ Can not be made, because G and J is the opposite sides.

Option 2) 

→ Can not be made, because I and E is the opposite sides.

Option 3) 

→ Can be made, because all the surfaces are adjacent sides.

Option 4) 

→ Can not be made, because F and H is the opposite sides.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Given Sequence: cddfcd_ _c_df_ddfcd

Now, putting the letters in the blank spaces given in the option one by one:

Option 1) ddcd → cddf / cddd / ccdf / dddf / cd

Option 2) dfcd → cddf / cddf / ccdf / dddf / cd

Option 3) dfdc → cddf / cddf / cddf / cddf / cd

Here, 'cddf' followed a pattern.

Option 4) ddfc  → cddf / cddd / cfdf / cddf / cd

Hence, the correct answer is "dfdc".

The logic followed here is:

• All letters shift in corner to corner inside the square.
• Dark circle gets revert in empty (alternatively)

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Statements:

I. Some T are S.

II. No R is S.

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. No S is R. - True (Because, No R is S, So, No S is also R)

II. No R is T. - False (Because, there is no relation between R and T, So it can be possible only)

III. No S is T. - False (Because, Some T are S, so some S is T but No S can never be T)

So, Only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion I follows".

Family Chart: 

Decoding the Symbols:

 

Given: P × Q + I - R ÷ S

It means: P is the wife of Q, Q is the brother of I, I is the son of R and R is the husband of S.

 

So, P is the 'Son's wife' of R.

Hence, the correct answer is "Wife's brother".

The logic followed here is:

QRN : UVR

Similarly, SWL : WAP

Hence, the correct answer is "SWL : WAP".

The correct answer is Major Dhyan Chand.

Key Points

• Major Dhyan Chand
• Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is the highest sporting honour given in India.
• The award is named after Rajiv Gandhi.
• He was the Prime Minister of India who served from 1984 to 1989.
• Chess Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand was the first recipient of this award.
• The other Sports Awards include the Arjuna Award, Dronacharya Award and the Dhyan Chand Award, which are conferred every year by the President of India at the Rashtrapati Bhavan on August 29.
• The National Sports Day is celebrated on August 29.
• It is the birth anniversary of hockey wizard Dhyan Chand.

The correct answer is Amarpreet Singh.

Key Points

• The current VCAS is Air Marshal Sujeet Pushpakar Dharkar.
• He succeeded Air Marshal Amar Preet Singh to the post on 3 October 2024.
• He was commissioned into the fighter stream of the IAF in December 1984.
• He is an alumnus of the National Defence Academy, Defence Services Staff College, and National Defence College.
• He is a Qualified Flying Instructor and an Experimental Test Pilot with more than 4,900 hours of service flying on a variety of fixed-wing and rotary-wing aircraft.
• He also led the MiG 29 Upgrade Project Management Team in Moscow, Russia.

Additional Information

• Indian Air Force:
• IAF was established in 1932 during World War II to support the Royal Air Force of the United Kingdom in its war against Japan.
• The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces.
• IAF is the 4^th-largest air force in the world.
• Headquarters: New Delhi
• Motto: Touch the sky with Glory.
• Chief of Air Staff, an air chief marshal is responsible for operational command of the air force.
• Indian Army:
• It was established in 1895 and is the largest branch of the Indian Armed Forces.
• The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Army.
• Its primary role is to ensure national security and defense on land.
• Headquarters: New Delhi.
• Motto: "Service Before Self."
• The Chief of Army Staff, a general, is responsible for its operational command.
• Indian Navy:
• It was established in 1612 as the maritime branch of the Indian Armed Forces.
• The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Navy.
• Its primary role is to secure India's maritime borders and interests.
• Headquarters: New Delhi.
• Motto: "May the Lord of Water be auspicious unto us."
• The Chief of Naval Staff, an admiral, is responsible for its operational command.

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

According to the Constitution of India, there are three organs of government.

• These are the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary.
• The legislature refers to our elected representatives.
• The executive is a smaller group of people who are responsible for implementing laws and running the government.
• The judiciary refers to the system of courts in this country.
• To prevent the misuse of power by any one branch of government, the Constitution says that each of these organs should exercise different powers.

Additional InformationDifferent countries and their main organs of government:

The correct answer is 18,7.

Key Points

• Henry Moseley is the father of the modern periodic table.
• In 1913, Henry Moseley proved that an element's atomic number (abbreviated as Z) is a more fundamental property than its atomic mass.
• In the modern periodic table, elements are organised into 18 vertical columns.
• Modern Periodic Law can be stated as the physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.
• Modern Periodic Table arranges the elements in the order of their atomic numbers in:
• Seven horizontal rows (periods).
• Eighteen vertical columns (groups or families).

Additional Information

• Each period begins with the filling of a new energy shell.
• In the modern periodic table, the first period is the shortest.
• Hydrogen and Helium are the elements in the first period.
• Elements are grouped in the modern periodic table in order of increasing atomic numbers, which is connected to their electrical configuration.
• The chemical reactivity of an element is determined by its location in the Periodic Table.
• Elements of group 18 of the modern periodic table are considered 'noble gas'.
• 

The correct answer is 2001.

Key Points

• India Census 2001
• The 2001 Census of India was the 14^th in a series of censuses held in India every decade since 1871.
• The population of India was counted as 1,028,737,436 consisting of 532,223,090 males and 496,514,346 females.
• The total population increased by 182,310,397, 21.5% more than the 846,427,039 people counted during the 1991 census.
• In 2001 the density of the Population (per sq. km.) was 324.
• The sex Ratio (females per 1,000 males) was 933.

Additional InformationTable between the 2001 and 2011 Census of India:

The correct answer is Red Fort.

Key Points

• The Red Fort was constructed by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in 1638 as part of his new capital, Shahjahanabad (now Old Delhi).
• The fort is built in red sandstone and is a fine example of Mughal architecture, blending Persian, Timurid, and Indian styles.
• In 2007, the Red Fort was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site for its historical and architectural significance.
• It served as the residence of Mughal emperors and is the site where the Prime Minister of India hoists the national flag on Independence Day (August 15) every year.

Additional Information

• Taj Mahal
• The Taj Mahal was commissioned by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in 1632 as a mausoleum for his wife Mumtaz Mahal, completed in 1648.
• It is an outstanding example of Mughal architecture, combining elements of Persian, Indian, and Islamic styles, primarily built in white marble.
• The Taj Mahal was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1983 and is recognized as one of the Seven Wonders of the World.
• The Taj Mahal is often referred to as a symbol of eternal love, as it was built to honor Shah Jahan’s beloved wife.
• India Gate
• India Gate was designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens and inaugurated in 1931 as a war memorial to honor the Indian soldiers who died during World War I and the Third Anglo-Afghan War.
• The structure is 42 meters tall, built in sandstone, and resembles the Arc de Triomphe in Paris.
• In 1971, the Amar Jawan Jyoti (Flame of the Immortal Soldier) was added under the arch to commemorate the soldiers who died in the 1971 Indo-Pak War.
• India Gate is situated in New Delhi and forms a key part of the ceremonial avenue Rajpath, which hosts the Republic Day Parade every year.
• Gateway of India
• The Gateway of India was built in 1924 to commemorate the visit of King George V and Queen Mary to India in 1911.
• It is designed in the Indo-Saracenic architectural style, combining elements of Hindu and Muslim architecture, and is made primarily of basalt.
• The Gateway of India is located in Mumbai, overlooking the Arabian Sea, and has historically served as a symbolic entrance to India for important dignitaries.
• The monument also marks the symbolic point where the last British troops left India in 1948, signifying the end of British rule after India's independence.

The correct answer is Ajit Agarkar.

Key Points

• Ajit Agarkar, a former Indian cricketer, was appointed as the Chairman of the Senior Men's Cricket Selection Committee by the BCCI in 2023.
• As Chairman, Agarkar oversees the selection of the Indian men's cricket team for international tournaments and matches, making key decisions regarding player selections.
• Ajit Agarkar brings valuable experience to the role, having represented India in 191 ODIs, 26 Tests, and 4 T20 Internationals, making him a seasoned figure in Indian cricket.
• He succeeded Chetan Sharma, who held the position before him but resigned earlier in 2023.
• Agarkar’s appointment comes at a crucial time, ahead of major cricket tournaments like the ICC Cricket World Cup 2023, highlighting the importance of strong leadership in team selection.

Additional Information

• M.S. Dhoni
• M.S. Dhoni is the only captain in cricket history to have won all three major ICC trophies: the T20 World Cup (2007), the ODI World Cup (2011), and the Champions Trophy (2013).
• He led India to the number one position in the ICC Test rankings for the first time in 2009, cementing his legacy as a successful Test captain.
• Known as one of the best finishers in cricket, Dhoni has played numerous match-winning innings, particularly in limited-overs cricket, including the famous 2011 World Cup final, where he scored the winning runs.
• Dhoni has received several prestigious awards, including the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in 2007, and the Padma Bhushan in 2018, recognizing his contribution to Indian cricket.
• Sachin Tendulkar
• Sachin Tendulkar is the highest run-scorer in the history of both Test and ODI cricket, with over 15,000 Test runs and 18,000 ODI runs.
• He is the only cricketer to have scored 100 international centuries, a unique record that sets him apart in both Tests and ODIs.
• Tendulkar was part of the Indian team that won the ICC Cricket World Cup in 2011, fulfilling a lifelong dream after representing India in six World Cups.
• He has been honored with several prestigious awards, including the Bharat Ratna in 2014, making him the first sportsperson to receive India's highest civilian award.
• Kapil Dev
• Kapil Dev captained India to its first-ever ICC Cricket World Cup victory in 1983, defeating the West Indies, marking a historic moment in Indian cricket.
• He is regarded as one of the greatest all-rounders in cricket history, becoming the first player to achieve the double of 5,000 runs and 400 wickets in Test cricket.
• Kapil Dev was India’s premier fast bowler in the 1980s and held the record for the most Test wickets (434) when he retired, surpassing Sir Richard Hadlee's record in 1994.
• He has been honored with the Padma Shri (1982) and Padma Bhushan (1991) and was inducted into the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame in 2010 for his contributions to cricket.

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

• Under the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956, industries were classified into three categories: Schedule A, Schedule B, and Schedule C, based on the level of government involvement in each sector.
• Industries under Schedule A were considered critical for the national economy and were reserved for the exclusive responsibility of the state. This included sectors like defense, atomic energy, and railways.
• Schedule B industries were those where the state would play a dominant role, but private sector participation was also allowed. Examples included chemicals, fertilizers, and machine tools.
• Industries under Schedule C were left primarily to the private sector, with the state stepping in only when necessary. This category included consumer goods industries.
• The 1956 Industrial Policy was a key document in laying the foundation for India’s socialist pattern of development, aiming for public sector dominance in key industries while allowing private participation in non-core sectors.

Additional Information

• The IPR of 1956 was introduced in the backdrop of India’s post-independence economic scenario, focusing on industrial development and self-reliance.
• The policy was aligned with the goals of the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961), which emphasized rapid industrialization through public sector investment.
• The IPR encouraged the establishment of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) to operate in key industries and promote economic growth.
• Role of Planning Commission: The Planning Commission played a crucial role in formulating the IPR, and setting guidelines for industrial development.
• The policy introduced a licensing system for setting up industries, requiring businesses to obtain licenses to regulate entry and ensure compliance with government goals.
• The IPR imposed restrictions on foreign investment and technology transfer to promote domestic industries and protect local interests.
• The policy prioritized the development of heavy industries, such as steel and machinery, to support overall industrial growth.
• The IPR recognized the importance of small-scale industries and encouraged their development through policies, loans, and financial support.
• The Industrial Policy aimed to generate employment opportunities through industrial expansion and promote balanced regional development.
• The IPR of 1956 underwent several amendments and updates over the years, culminating in new industrial policies in the 1980s and 1990s to liberalize and modernize the Indian economy.

The correct answer is Tertiary Sector.

Key Points

• ATM booths fall under the tertiary sector as they provide essential financial services to customers, facilitating banking transactions without the need for physical bank branches.
• They support the banking industry by offering convenience and accessibility, allowing customers to withdraw cash, check balances, and perform other banking operations 24/7.
• The operation and maintenance of ATM booths contribute to employment generation within the service sector, including roles in technology support, security, and customer service.
• By enhancing financial inclusion and promoting digital transactions, ATM booths play a significant role in the overall growth and efficiency of the economy, particularly in urban and semi-urban areas.

Additional Information

• Primary sector
• The primary sector involves the extraction and production of natural resources, including activities such as agriculture, forestry, fishing, mining, and quarrying.
• It serves as the foundation of the economy by providing raw materials for other sectors, particularly the secondary (manufacturing) and tertiary (services) sectors.
• The primary sector is a significant source of employment, especially in developing countries, where a large portion of the workforce is engaged in agriculture and related activities.
• Activities in the primary sector are heavily dependent on natural conditions, such as climate, soil fertility, and water availability, making it vulnerable to environmental changes and climate-related challenges.
• Secondary sector
• The secondary sector involves transforming raw materials from the primary sector into finished goods, such as textiles and automobiles.
• It contributes to the economy by adding value to raw materials, significantly boosting GDP.
• The sector provides substantial employment opportunities, often leading to urban migration and infrastructure development.
• It drives industrialization, enhancing productivity, innovation, and trade, thereby supporting overall economic growth.
• Quaternary Sector
• The quaternary sector focuses on knowledge-based services, including research and development (R&D), information technology, consulting, education, and financial services.
• It emphasizes the creation and management of intellectual capital, utilizing specialized knowledge and expertise to drive innovation and technological advancements.
• The sector plays a significant role in the economy by contributing to GDP growth, particularly in developed countries where service industries dominate.
• It generates high-skilled employment opportunities, often requiring advanced education and training, thereby supporting a skilled workforce and fostering economic development.

The correct answer is Spain.

Key Points

• The FIFA U-17 Women's World Cup is a biennial international women's football tournament for players under the age of 17 organized by the Fundefineddundefinedration Internationale de Football Association (FIFA).
• New Zealand has never won the FIFA U-17 Women's World Cup. They have participated in the tournament six times but have never made it past the quarter-finals.
• Colombia has also never won the FIFA U-17 Women's World Cup. They have participated in the tournament five times and their best performance was reaching the quarter-finals in 2014 and 2016.
• Japan has won the FIFA U-17 Women's World Cup twice, in 2014 and 2018. They were the defending champions but lost to Spain in the quarter-finals in the 2022 edition of the tournament.

Additional Information

• Spain is a nation that lies in southwest Europe and has portions of its land in Africa, the Mediterranean Sea, and the Atlantic Ocean.
• It is the fourth most populous member state of the European Union and the largest nation in Southern Europe.
• Its territory included most of the Iberian Peninsula, as well as the Canary Islands in the Atlantic, the Balearic Islands in the Mediterranean, and the African autonomous cities of Melilla and Ceuta.
• Peninsular Spain is bounded to the north by the Bay of Biscay, France, and Andorra; to the east and south by Gibraltar and the Mediterranean Sea; and to the west by Portugal and the Atlantic Ocean. Madrid is the capital and biggest city of Spain.

The correct answer is 919.

Key Points

• The child sex ratio in India, according to the 2011 Census, was 919females per 1000 males.
• This ratio is a noteworthy demographic indicator that reflects the societal condition and status of females in the country.
• The ratio is calculated among children aged 0-6 years, considered to be a crucial age group due to the particular attention required for their growth and development.
• The data from the 2011 census has been utilized in setting up and implementing various child welfare, gender equality and female empowerment measures within the country.
• Low sex ratio in India is a subject of concern for policymakers, as it may suggest gender-based discrimination. Therefore, measures are continuously undertaken to improve this scenario.

Additional Information

• Census in India:
• It was done for the first time in 1872 under the British Viceroy Lord Mayo.
• After that, it is conducted at intervals every 10 years.
• However, the first complete census of India was conducted in 1881.
• Since 1949, it is conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• All censuses after 1951 were conducted under the 1948 Census Act.
• As of 2011, the Census of India has been conducted 15 times.

The correct answer is third.

Key Points

• Green Revolution
• The Green revolution started in the year 1965 and the 3^rd five-year plan was between 1961-66.
• The green revolution started Under the Ministery of Food and Agriculture C. Subramaniam.
• In 1965, Lal Bahadur Shastri was the prime minister of India.
• Father of the Green revolution(India)M.S.Swaminathan
• The word Green revolution was first used by William S. Gaud, Administrator of the U.S Agency for International Development(USAID).
• World Father of the Green revolution Norman Borlaug.
• It's referring to the great increase in the production of wheat and rice Due to the introduction of high yielding seeds. Mainly  Mexican wheat seeds.
• The green revolution aims to make the country self-sufficient in food grains.
• It was introduced in North-India especially in Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.​

Additional Information

• Five-year Plan
• It was launched by The first Indian prime minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, In 1951.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• Green Revolution
• The Green revolution started in the year 1965 and the 3^rd five-year plan was between 1961-66.
• The green revolution started Under the Ministery of Food and Agriculture C. Subramaniam.
• In 1965, Lal Bahadur Shastri was the prime minister of India.
• Father of the Green revolution(India)M.S.Swaminathan
• The word Green revolution was first used by William S. Gaud, Administrator of the U.S Agency for International Development(USAID).
• World Father of the Green revolution Norman Borlaug.
• It's referring to the great increase in the production of wheat and rice Due to the introduction of high yielding seeds. Mainly  Mexican wheat seeds.
• The green revolution aims to make the country self-sufficient in food grains.
• It was introduced in North-India especially in Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.

The correct answer is did not involve.

Key Points

• Ashoka’s dhamma was a code of conduct and a set of principles on how to live a life.
• It said that everyone should practice the principle of ahimsa, i.e. non-violence and non-injury to all living beings.
• The Edicts of Ashoka are in total 33 inscriptions written on the Pillars, boulders, and cave walls of the Mauryan Period.
• Rummindei Pillar Inscription (also known as Lumbini Pillar Edict) is in Nepal. It depicts that Ashoka travelled to the Buddha’s birthplace.
• He reduced the taxes of the people living in that area. Nigali Sagar is also in Nepal.
• The edict ascertains the fact that Emperor Asoka enlarged the Kanakamuni Buddha's stupa and worshipped it.
• Konagamana stupa is also known as Kanakamuni stupa.
• Minor Rock Edict 1 Indicates that Ashoka turned towards Buddhism gradually, after 2.5 years in power. Therefore, It does not gives evidence of a sudden change in Ashoka's faith in Buddhism.

Additional Information 

• ​Buddhism
• It is a faith that was founded by Siddhartha Gautama("the Buddha").
• Siddhartha Gautam, the Lord Buddha was born in 563 B.C at Lumbini in Nepal.
• Attained Nirvana under a Pipal tree at Bodh Gaya & henceforth known as Buddha(The enlightened one).
• Delivered his first sermon at Sarnath (Banaras) known called the Dhammacakkappavattana.
• Died at the age of 80 at Kushinagar (U.P).

The correct answer is Periyar.

Key Points

• Periyar
• Ramasamy joined the In dian National Congress in 1919.
• Left the organization in 1925 because he believed it was solely representing Brahmin interests.
• He revolted against caste, gender, and Brahminical domination in Tamil Nadu.
• Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy argued in favour of Human dignity.
• Brahmins accepted gifts and donations from non-Brahmins yet opposed and discriminated against non-Brahmins in cultural and religious concerns.
• Ramasamy became the leader of the Justice Party in 1939, and he changed its name to Dravidar Kazhagam in 1944.

Thus, Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy a rgued in favour of Human dignity.

Additional Information

• Jyotiba Phule
• He was one of the earliest leaders of the non-Brahmin movement born in Maharashtra.
• He was also called Mahatma Jyotiba Phule.
• He started Satyashodhak samaj in 1873.
• It opposed the caste system, child marriage, and idolatry.
• He made efforts for the upliftment of women and depressed classes by starting the first school for "untouchables" at Poona in 1852. Also opened a home for widows.
• His wife Savitribai Phule also worked as a teacher for depressed class students in schools.
• The word "Dalit" for depressed classes was first used by him.
• He wrote books namely, Gulamgiri which is also called slavery. It summarizes the sufferings of lower caste people, is written in the Marathi language.
• He also wrote Shetkaryacha Asud which tells about the sufferings of shudra peasants. It is written in the Marathi language.
• Satyashodhak Samaj
• Satyasodhak Samaj was founded with the purpose to give education to the lower castes, scheduled castes, and scheduled tribes and make them aware of the exploiting tradition of the society.
• It was founded by Jyotitrao Phule in 1873 in Pune.
• Satyashodhak Samaj rejected all kinds of Brahman domination and exploitation based on religion and all religious sources of inequality.

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

Key Points

• Madras Kadiravelu Saroja, is an Indian classical dancer, known for her expertise, as an exponent and as a teacher, in the classical dance form of Bharatanatyam.
• The Government of India honored her, in 2011, with the Padma Shri, the fourth highest civilian award, for her services to the field of art and culture.
• Bharatanatyam is a major form of Indian classical dance that originated in Tamil Nadu.
• The dance form is also briefly mentioned in Kannada text Manasollasa written by Someshwara III.

Additional Information

• Dance forms & their States
• Bharatanatyam, from Tamil Nadu.
• Kathak, from Uttar Pradesh.
• Kathakali, from Kerala.
• Kuchipudi, from Andhra Pradesh.
• Odissi, from Odisha.
• Sattriya, from Assam.
• Manipuri, from Manipur.
• Mohiniyattam, from Kerala.
• Chhau dance of Eastern India - Orissa, Jharkhand, and West Bengal

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

The decathlon consists of 10 events which shall be held on two consecutive days in the following order -

• First day:

1. 100 metre races
2. Long jump
3. Shot-put
4. High jump
5. 400 metre races

• Second day:

1. 110 hurdles
2. Discus
3. Pole vault
4. Javelin
5. 1500 metre race

So, there are 4 track events and 6 field events in a Decathlon.

• The track events are 100 meters, 400 meters, 110 meters hurdle, 1500 meters
• The field events are Long jump, Shot put, High Jump, Discus Throw, Pole vault, Javelin Throw

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• Tippani is a form of folk dance that originated from the Chorwad and Veraval region of Saurashtra in Gujarat, India.
• It is also known as ‘Malta Dance’ or ‘Tippani Nritya’.
• This dance form is practised during the time of Hindu festivals such as Holi and Diwali or during the wedding ceremonies in the Gujarati community.
• Tippani dance holds an esteemed position during the contemporary times of India.
• Gujaratis all over the world performs this dance form as part of their family wedding ritual.

Additional Information

• About Gujarat:
• Chief Minister: Bhupendra Rajnikant Patel
• Governor: Acharya Devvrat
• Capital: Gandhinagar
• Area: 1,96,024 sq km
• Population: 60,383,628
• Image of Trippani:

The correct answer is Santoor.

Key Points

• Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma is an Indian music composer and Santoor player from the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
• He also composed music for many Hindi films in collaboration with Hariprasad Chaurasia (Famous Falutist).
• He was awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in the year 1985.
• He received the 'Padma Shri Award' in 1991. He also received the Padma Vibhusan in 2001.​

Additional Information

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Rajasthan Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot will launch the Mukhyamantri Nishulk Annapurna Food Packet Scheme on the occasion of Independence Day.
• Under the scheme, families covered under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) will get the Annapurna food packets every month from the fair price shops (FPS) for free.
• Each packet will contain one kg each of gram pulses, sugar and iodized salt, one litre soybean refined edible oil, 100 gram each of chili powder and coriander powder, and 50 grams turmeric powder

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 80,000

Time (T) = 2 years

Difference between CI and SI = Rs. 288

Formula Used:

Compound Interest (CI) = P(1 + r)^T - P

Simple Interest (SI) = P × r × T

Difference between CI and SI for 2 years = P × r²

Calculation:

Given: Difference between CI and SI = 288

We know, Difference = P × r²

⇒ 288 = 80,000 × r²

⇒ r² = 288 / 80,000

⇒ r² = 0.0036

⇒ r = √0.0036

⇒ r = 0.06 = 6%

The rate of interest per annum is (6%).

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = Rs. 500

Loss Percentage = 17%

Further reduction = 20%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) - Loss

Further Reduced Price = SP - (20% of SP)

Calculation:

Loss = 17% of CP

⇒ Loss = 17/100 × 500

⇒ Loss = 85

Selling Price (SP) = CP - Loss

⇒ SP = 500 - 85

⇒ SP = 415

Further Reduction = 20% of SP

⇒ Further Reduction = 20/100 × 415

⇒ Further Reduction = 83

Further Reduced Price = SP - Further Reduction

⇒ Further Reduced Price = 415 - 83

⇒ Further Reduced Price = 332

The selling price after further reduction is Rs. 332.

Given:

Radius (r) = 24 cm

Height (h) = 10 cm

Formula Used:

Total Surface Area of a Cone = πr(r + l)

where l = slant height = $\sqrt{r^2 + h^2}$

Calculation:

First, calculate the slant height (l):

l = $\sqrt{24^2 + 10^2}$

⇒ l = $\sqrt{576 + 100}$

⇒ l = $\sqrt{676}$

⇒ l = 26 cm

Now, calculate the total surface area:

Total Surface Area = π × 24 × (24 + 26)

⇒ Total Surface Area = π × 24 × 50

⇒ Total Surface Area = 1200π

Using π ≈ 3.1416:

⇒ Total Surface Area ≈ 1200 × 3.1416

⇒ Total Surface Area ≈ 3771.43 cm²

The total surface area of the cone is approximately 3771.43 cm².

Given:

Revenue increase in the first quarter = 10%

Revenue decrease in the second quarter = 5%

Formula Used:

Net percentage change = $(1 + \frac{a}{100}) × (1 - \frac{b}{100}) - 1 × 100$

Calculation:

Let the initial revenue be R.

Revenue after first quarter = $R × (1 + \frac{10}{100})$

Revenue after first quarter = R × 1.10

Revenue after second-quarter = $R × 1.10 × (1 - \frac{5}{100})$

Revenue after second-quarter = R × 1.10 × 0.95

Revenue after second-quarter = R × 1.045

Net percentage change = (1.045 - 1) × 100

Net percentage change = 0.045 × 100

Net percentage change = 4.5%

Positive sign showed percentage increase.

The net percentage increase in revenue over these two quarters is 4.5%.

Given:

C pays Rs. 3744 for the bottle.

A sells to B at a profit of 30%.

B sells to C at a loss of 20%.

Calculation:

Let the cost price of the bottle for A be x Rs.

Selling price for B = x + 0.30x = 1.30x

Cost price for C = Selling price for B - 20% of Selling price for B

Cost price for C = 1.30x - 0.20 × 1.30x = 1.30x × (1 - 0.20) = 1.30x × 0.80

Cost price for C = 1.04x

Given cost price for C is Rs. 3744.

Therefore, 1.04x = 3744

⇒ x = $\frac{3744}{1.04}$

⇒ x = 3600

The cost price of the bottle for A is Rs. 3600.

Given:

Two numbers are in the ratio of 6 ∶ 5.

Their sum is 22.

Formula Used:

Sum of the squares of two numbers = x² + y²

Calculation:

Let the two numbers be 6k and 5k.

According to the given ratio:

6k + 5k = 22

⇒ 11k = 22

⇒ k = 22 / 11

⇒ k = 2

The two numbers are:

x = 6k = 6 × 2 = 12

y = 5k = 5 × 2 = 10

Sum of the squares of the two numbers:

x² + y² = 12² + 10²

⇒ 144 + 100

⇒ 244

The sum of the squares of the two numbers is 244.

Given:

Marked price of the ring = ₹20,000

First discount = 10%

Second discount = 20%

Third discount = 30%

Formula Used:

Net Selling Price = Marked Price × (1 - First Discount) × (1 - Second Discount) × (1 - Third Discount)

Calculation:

First discount factor = 1 - 10/100 = 0.90

Second discount factor = 1 - 20/100 = 0.80

Third discount factor = 1 - 30/100 = 0.70

Net Selling Price = ₹20,000 × 0.90 × 0.80 × 0.70

⇒ Net Selling Price = ₹20,000 × 0.90 = ₹18,000

⇒ Net Selling Price = ₹18,000 × 0.80 = ₹14,400

⇒ Net Selling Price = ₹14,400 × 0.70 = ₹10,080

The correct answer is option 3, ₹10,080.

Given:

A ∶ B ∶ C = 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 5

Formula Used:

(A + B) ∶ (B + C) ∶ (C + A)

Calculation:

Let A = 2k, B = 3k, C = 5k

(A + B) = 2k + 3k = 5k

(B + C) = 3k + 5k = 8k

(C + A) = 5k + 2k = 7k

Therefore:

(A + B) ∶ (B + C) ∶ (C + A) = 5k ∶ 8k ∶ 7k

⇒ 5 ∶ 8 ∶ 7

The correct answer is option 3.

Given:

A person borrows some money for 5 years.

Ratio of principal and total interest = 5:1.

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100

Calculation:

Let the principal be P.

Total interest for 5 years = SI.

According to the problem, P/SI = 5/1 .

⇒ SI = P/5 .

We know, SI = (P × R × T) / 100 .

⇒ P/5 = (P × R × 5) / 100 .

⇒ P/5 = (5PR) / 100 .

⇒ 100P = 25PR .

⇒ R = 4% .

The annual rate of interest is 4 percent.

Given:

Expression: 13[216 ÷ 3 of {48 ÷ 24 × (42 - 38)}]

Formula Used:

Order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS): Parentheses/Brackets, Exponents/Orders, Multiplication and Division (from left to right), Addition and Subtraction (from left to right).

Calculation:

Step 1: Solve inside the parentheses (42 - 38)

⇒ (42 - 38) = 4

Step 2: Solve inside the braces {48 ÷ 24 × 4}

⇒ 48 ÷ 24 = 2

⇒ 2 × 4 = 8

Step 3: Solve inside the brackets [216 ÷ 3 of 8]

Note: "of" means multiplication

⇒ 3 of 8 = 3 × 8 = 24

⇒ 216 ÷ 24 = 9

Step 4: Multiply by 13

⇒ 13 × 9 = 117

The correct answer is option 3.

Given:

Mohan, Aman, and Sohan together can complete a work in 18 days.

Mohan works thrice as fast as Aman.

Aman works twice as fast as Sohan.

Formula Used:

Work rate of individuals and combined work rate.

Calculation:

Let Sohan's work rate be S units/day.

Aman's work rate = 2S units/day.

Mohan's work rate = 3 × 2S = 6S units/day.

Combined work rate of Mohan, Aman, and Sohan = S + 2S + 6S = 9S units/day.

They complete the work in 18 days, so:

Work completed = 18 days × 9S units/day = 162S units.

Sohan's time to complete the work alone:

Time = Total work / Sohan's work rate

Time = 162S / S

Time = 162 days

The correct answer is option 2.

Given:

Deepak marks the price of his table 50% above the cost price.

He gives some discount on it and earns a profit of 10%.

Formula Used:

Let Cost Price (CP) = ₹100 (for simplicity).

Marked Price (MP) = CP + 50% of CP

Selling Price (SP) = CP + 10% of CP

Discount Percentage = ((MP - SP) / MP) × 100%

Calculation:

Let CP = ₹100

MP = 100 + 50% of 100

MP = 100 + 50

MP = ₹150

SP = 100 + 10% of 100

SP = 100 + 10

SP = ₹110

Discount = MP - SP

Discount = 150 - 110

Discount = ₹40

Discount Percentage = (Discount / MP) × 100%

⇒ Discount Percentage = (40 / 150) × 100%

⇒ Discount Percentage = (4 / 15) × 100%

⇒ Discount Percentage = 26.67%

The discount percentage is 26.67%.

Given:

Average of 8 numbers = 47

Average of first three numbers = 53

Average of next two numbers = 55

Sixth number = 7

Sixth number is 7 and 10 less than seventh and eighth numbers respectively.

Formula Used:

Sum of numbers = Average × Number of terms

Calculation:

Sum of 8 numbers = 47 × 8

Sum of 8 numbers = 376

Sum of first 3 numbers = 53 × 3

Sum of first 3 numbers = 159

Sum of next 2 numbers = 55 × 2

Sum of next 2 numbers = 110

Let sixth number be x,

According to the given information:

Sixth number = Seventh number - 7

Seventh number = x + 7

Sixth number = Eighth number - 10

Eighth number = x + 10

Sum of all numbers = Sum of first 3 numbers + Sum of next 2 numbers + Sixth number + Seventh number + Eighth number

376 = 159 + 110 + x + x + 7 + x + 10

376 = 269 + 3x + 17

376 = 286 + 3x

3x = 90

x = 30

Eighth number = x + 10 = 30 + 10 = 40

Therefore, the value of eighth number is 40.

Shortcut Trick

Speed of the 1^st train = 442 ÷ 13 = 34 m/s

Total distance when crossing each other = 442 + 442 = 884 m

Relative speed (opposite direction) = 884 ÷ 17 = 52 m/s

Speed of the 2^nd train = Relative speed − Speed of 1^st train

⇒ 52 − 34 = 18 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 18 m/s.

Alternate Method

Scenario 1: Crossing an Electric Pole

Pole

Train 1 (442m) Cross Time = 13s | Speed = S1

Scenario 2: Crossing Train in Opposite Direction

Train 1 (442m)

Train 2 (442m)

Relative Speed = S1 + S2 | Total Distance = 884m | Time = 17s

Given:

Length of the 1^st train (L₁) = 442 m

Length of the 2^nd train (L₂) = 442 m

Time to cross the electric pole (t₁) = 13 s

Time to cross the second train (t₂) = 17 s

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Relative Speed (Opposite Directions) = S₁ + S₂

Calculations:

⇒ Speed of 1^st train (S₁) = L₁ ÷ t₁

⇒ S₁ = 442 ÷ 13 = 34 m/s

When the two trains cross each other in opposite directions:

⇒ Total Distance = L₁ + L₂ = 442 + 442 = 884 m

⇒ Relative Speed = Total Distance ÷ t₂

⇒ S₁ + S₂ = 884 ÷ 17

⇒ 34 + S₂ = 52

⇒ S₂ = 52 − 34

⇒ S₂ = 18 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 18 m/s.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Opposite Directions

When two objects move towards each other, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds (S₁ + S₂) because they are covering the total distance together.

Relative Speed in Same Direction

When two objects move in the same direction, the faster object covers extra distance to overtake the slower one, making their relative speed the difference of their speeds (S₁ − S₂).

Train Crossing a Point Object

When a train crosses a stationary pole, standing man, or a tree, the total distance traveled is simply equal to the length of the train itself (Distance = L).

Train Crossing a Lengthy Object

When a train crosses a platform, a bridge, or another train, the total distance covered to clear it completely is the sum of their lengths (Distance = L₁ + L₂).

Given:

T can complete the work in 20 days.

U can complete the work in 10 days.

Formula Used:

Work done by T in 1 day = 1/20

Work done by U in 1 day = 1/10

Work done by both in 1 day = Work done by T in 1 day + Work done by U in 1 day

Total work done in given days = Work done by both in 1 day × number of days

Percentage of total work completed = (Total work done in given days / Total work) × 100

Calculation:

Work done by T in 1 day = 1/20

Work done by U in 1 day = 1/10

Work done by both in 1 day = 1/20 + 1/10

⇒ Work done by both in 1 day = $\frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{10}$

⇒ Work done by both in 1 day = $\frac{1 + 2}{20}$

⇒ Work done by both in 1 day = $\frac{3}{20}$

Total work done in 4 days = $\frac{3}{20} \times 4$

⇒ Total work done in 4 days = $\frac{12}{20}$

Percentage of total work completed = $\left(\frac{12}{20}\right) \times 100$

⇒ Percentage of total work completed = 60%

The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

Student A scores 60% and got 24 marks less than Student B who scored 80%.

Formula Used:

Let the maximum marks be x .

Marks obtained by Student A = 60% of x

Marks obtained by Student B = 80% of x

Difference in marks = Marks obtained by Student B - Marks obtained by Student A

Calculation:

Marks obtained by Student A = 0.60 x

Marks obtained by Student B = 0.80 x

Difference in marks = 0.80 x - 0.60 x

Given that the difference in marks is 24:

⇒ 0.80 x - 0.60 x = 24

⇒ 0.20 x = 24

⇒ x = 24 / 0.20

⇒ x = 120

The maximum marks in the exam is 120.

Given:

Prime numbers between 30 and 50 are: 31, 37, 41, 43, 47.

Formula Used:

Sum of prime numbers = Sum of all the prime numbers between 30 and 50.

Calculation:

Prime numbers: 31, 37, 41, 43, 47

Sum = 31 + 37 + 41 + 43 + 47

⇒ Sum = 199

The sum of all prime numbers between 30 and 50 is 199.

Given:

Decimal number: $0.51\bar6$

Calculation:

Let x = $0.51\bar6$

Multiply both sides by 10 to shift the decimal point: 10x = $5.1\bar6$

Multiply both sides by 10 again to shift the repeating part: 100x = $51.\bar6$

Subtract the first equation from the second:

⇒ 100x - 10x = $51.\bar6$ - $5.1\bar6$

⇒ 90x = 46.50

Simplify:

⇒ x = $\frac{46.5}{90}$

Convert the fraction to its simplest form:

⇒ x = $\frac{465}{900}$

⇒ x = 31/60

The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

Numbers: 5, 8, 15

Formula Used:

LCM (Least Common Multiple) is the smallest number that is a multiple of given numbers.

Calculation:

Prime factorization:

5 = 5¹

8 = 2³

15 = 3¹ × 5¹

LCM = Highest power of all prime factors involved

LCM = 2³ × 3¹ × 5¹

LCM = 8 × 3 × 5

LCM = 24 × 5

LCM = 120

The smallest number that is a multiple of 5, 8, and 15 is 120.

Given:

Average age of 17 students = 20 years.

Age of new student = 38 years.

Formula Used:

New average age = (Total age of all students including new student) / (Total number of students including new student)

Calculation:

Total age of 17 students = 17 × 20 = 340 years

Total age with new student = 340 + 38 = 378 years

Total number of students = 18

New average age = 378 / 18

New average age = 21 years

The new average age of these 18 students is 21 years.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect tense of the verb "sand."
• The correct past tense form of "sand" is "sanded."
• The correct phrase should be "sanded the wood," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
• Thus, the error is located in the verb form.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "He sanded the wood with coarse sandpaper."

 

Additional Information

• Past Tense Usage: In this context, the action has already been completed, hence the past tense "sanded" is appropriate.
• Verb Agreement: The verb should agree with the subject and correctly convey the time of action.
• Context Clarity: Using the correct tense helps in conveying the intended meaning clearly and accurately.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of the comparative form "more weaker."
• The word "weaker" is already a comparative adjective, and using "more" is redundant.
• The correct phrase should be "when I was weaker."
• Thus, the error is located in Option 1 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "I'm unable to contact my friend, who deceived me when I was weaker."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "who deceived me when" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 3: "No error" – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in Option 1.
• Option 4: "I'm unable to contact my friend," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The word "irritated" means to feel annoyed or provoked, often leading to a state of discomfort or anger. (चिढ़ाना)
• Example: The constant buzzing of the mosquito irritated him throughout the night.
• "Displeased" refers to a feeling of annoyance or dissatisfaction, which is a synonym for irritated. (असंतुष्ट)
• Example: She was displeased with the service at the restaurant and decided not to leave a tip.

Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'irritated' is 'displeased'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Pacified (शांत): To calm someone down or make them less angry.
• Example: The mother pacified her crying baby by gently rocking him.
• Obliged (आभारी): To feel thankful or indebted for a favor or kindness.
• Example: I am obliged to you for your assistance during my difficult times.
• Appeased (संतुष्ट): To bring peace or calm to a situation by meeting demands or requests.
• Example: The manager appeased the angry customer by offering a full refund.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "excrsions" is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "excursions".
• Explanation: The word "excrsions" is a misspelling of the word "excursions", which means a short journey or trip, especially one taken for leisure or pleasure. (यात्रा)
• Hindi Meaning: यात्रा
• Example: They went on several excursions during their vacation.
• Correct Word: "Excursions" refers to short trips or journeys, usually for leisure or pleasure. (यात्राएं)
• Hindi Meaning: यात्राएं
• Example: The school organized multiple excursions for the students throughout the year.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Habitats (आवास): The natural home or environment of an animal, plant, or other organism.
• Example: The forest is a natural habitat for many wildlife species.
• Tribal (जनजातीय): Relating to a tribe or tribes.
• Example: The tribal communities have their own unique customs and traditions.
• Several (कई): More than two but not many.
• Example: She made several attempts to solve the puzzle.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The sentence "Studies suggest that well-designed e-books can support early literacy in kids." is grammatically correct.
• There are no errors in the sentence related to subject-verb agreement, punctuation, or word choice.
• All parts of the sentence are correctly constructed, making the statement clear and coherent.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "Studies suggest that well-designed e-books can support early literacy in kids."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "literacy in kids." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 2: "e-books can support early" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 4: "Studies suggest that well-designed," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "comparatively" means to a moderate degree as compared to something else; relatively. (तुलनात्मक रूप से)
• Example: The task was comparatively easy for someone with his experience.
• "Resistant" refers to having the ability to resist something; being unaffected or less affected by something. (प्रतिरोधी)
• Example: These plants are resistant to drought conditions.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: comparitively (तुलनात्मक रूप से): Incorrect spelling of "comparatively."
• Example: Incorrect: The weather was comparitively cooler this year.
• Option 2: ecosysteams (पारिस्थितिक तंत्र): Incorrect spelling of "ecosystems."
• Example: Incorrect: Ecosysteams are important for maintaining ecological balance.
• Option 3: resistaent (प्रतिरोधी): Incorrect spelling of "resistant."
• Example: Incorrect: These plants are resistaent to pests.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "allegations" means claims or assertions that someone has done something illegal or wrong, typically made without proof. (आरोप)
• Example: The politician faced multiple allegations of corruption.
• "Allegation" refers to a single claim or assertion that someone has done something illegal or wrong, typically made without proof. (आरोप)
• Example: She made an allegation of theft against her colleague.
• Hence, we can infer that the plural form of 'allegation' is 'allegations', which fits the context of the sentence better.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Allegation (आरोप): A single claim or assertion that someone has done something illegal or wrong, typically made without proof.
• Example: She made an allegation of theft against her colleague.
• Corrosion (क्षरण): The process of corroding metal, stone, or other materials.
• Example: The corrosion of the pipes was due to the acidic water.
• Allegedly (कथित तौर पर): Used to convey that something is claimed to be the case or have taken place, although there is no proof.
• Example: He allegedly stole the money from the office.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of "peaks" instead of the singular form "peak."
• The phrase "at its peaks" should be corrected to "at its peak" for grammatical correctness and clarity.
• The word "peak" is a singular noun, matching the subject "the software revolution."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "The software revolution is at its peak in India."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: No improvement – This would be correct if the original sentence was already grammatically correct, but it is not.
• Option 3: its peaked – This is grammatically incorrect as "peaked" is not the correct form to use in this context.
• Option 4: it's peaking – This changes the meaning of the sentence and is not the best fit for the given context.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect verb form and lack of the article "a" before "pear tree."
• The verb "is" should be replaced with "has" to correctly convey ownership.
• The correct phrase should be "has a pear tree," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "The house has a pear tree in the backyard."

 

Additional Information

• No improvement – This option is incorrect because the sentence as given is not grammatically correct.
• has a pears – This option is incorrect because "pears" should be singular to match with the article "a."
• has a pear – This is the correct option as it accurately conveys the intended meaning.
• have a pears – This option is incorrect due to subject-verb disagreement and incorrect plurality.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "facade" means a deceptive outward appearance or the front of a building. (मुखौटा, बाहरी आवरण)
• Example: Despite her cheerful facade, she was actually feeling very lonely.
• "Truth" refers to the state of being true or in accordance with fact or reality; it is the opposite of a facade. (सत्य)
• Example: He finally revealed the truth about what happened that night.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'facade' is 'truth'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Truth.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Hidden (छुपा हुआ): Something that is not visible or not meant to be seen.
• Example: The treasure was hidden deep within the cave.
• Opening (खुलना): An open space through which things can pass.
• Example: There was a small opening in the fence where the dog escaped.
• Closure (समापन): The act of closing or bringing to an end.
• Example: The closure of the factory resulted in many job losses.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• "Fold" means to bend something flexible and lay it over itself, often for the purpose of making it more compact. (मोड़ना)
• Example: Please fold your clothes and put them away.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct word to fill in the blank is "Fold".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Fold.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Faux (नकली): Artificial or imitation; not genuine.
• Example: She wore a faux fur coat to the party.
• Foaled (घोड़ी का बच्चा जनना): The act of a mare giving birth to a foal.
• Example: The mare foaled in the early hours of the morning.
• Fouled (गंदा करना): To make something dirty or polluted.
• Example: The river was fouled by industrial waste.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The idiom "Drastic times call for drastic measures" means that during extreme situations, extreme actions are necessary. (अत्यधिक समयों में कठोर कदम उठाने की आवश्यकता होती है)
• Example: When the company was on the verge of bankruptcy, the CEO decided to lay off half of the workforce. Drastic times call for drastic measures.
• Extreme situations refer to conditions that are severe and unprecedented, requiring unusual actions. (अत्यधिक परिस्थितियाँ)
• Example: During the flood, the government had to evacuate entire towns to save lives. Extreme situations require extreme actions.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: Something that ends at the last minute or last few seconds (अंतिम मिनट या अंतिम कुछ सेकंड में समाप्त होना)
• Example: The game was a nail-biter, ending in a tie in the last few seconds.
• Option 3: Don't rely on it until you are sure of it (इस पर तब तक भरोसा न करें जब तक कि आप इसके बारे में निश्चित नहीं हों)
• Example: The deal looks promising, but don't rely on it until the contract is signed.
• Option 4: Do not pull all your resources in one possibility (सभी संसाधनों को एक ही संभावना में न डालें)
• Example: Diversify your investments; do not pull all your resources in one possibility.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "construe" means to interpret or understand the meaning of something, often in a particular way. (व्याख्या करना)
• Example: She tried to construe his ambiguous statement as a compliment.
• "Misunderstood" refers to failing to interpret or understand something correctly. (गलत समझना)
• Example: His intentions were misunderstood by everyone at the meeting.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'construe' is 'misunderstood'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Engrossed (तल्लीन): Deeply involved or absorbed in something.
• Example: He was so engrossed in his book that he didn't hear the phone ring.
• Interest (रुचि): The feeling of wanting to know or learn about something or someone.
• Example: She has a great interest in classical music.
• Silence (मौन): The absence of sound or noise.
• Example: The silence in the library was calming.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The idiom "had a ball" means to thoroughly enjoy oneself.
• In the context of the sentence, "had a ball" is the most suitable idiom to replace "thoroughly enjoyed".
• The other options do not fit meaningfully in the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "The party was great and we had a ball."

 

Additional Information

• In the dark: This idiom means to be uninformed or unaware about something. It does not fit in this context.
• Beat around the bush: This idiom means to avoid the main topic. It is not suitable in the given context.
• Cut corners: This idiom means to do something in the easiest or cheapest way, often compromising quality. It is not relevant here.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the verb agreement with the subject. When using "neither...nor," the verb should agree with the subject closer to it.
• In this case, "Vishaka" is singular, so the verb should be "understands" instead of "understand."
• The correct phrase should be "Neither Prerna nor Vishaka understands the meaning of friendship."
• Thus, the error is located in Option 1 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "Neither Prerna nor Vishaka understands the meaning of friendship."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "Neither Prerna nor" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 3: "No error" – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in Option 1.
• Option 4: "meaning of friendship." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The word "were" is the past tense plural form of the verb "to be" and is used here because it refers to the past situation of the initial two Russian PWR types at the Kudankulam site. (थे)
• The subject "initial two Russian PWR types" is plural, which requires the plural past tense verb "were".
• The other options: "are," "is," and "was" do not fit the context as appropriately. "Are" and "is" are present tense, and "was" is singular past tense.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: The initial two Russian PWR types at the Kudankulam site were apart from India's three-stage plan for nuclear power and were simply to increase generating capacity rapidly.

Additional Information

• Are (हैं): Present tense plural, not suitable for past actions.
• Is (है): Present tense singular, not suitable for both plurality and past action.
• Was (था): Past tense singular, not suitable for plural subjects.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The word "for" is used to indicate purpose or intended result. In this context, it implies that the plan is intended for nuclear power. (के लिए)
• The other options: "to," "with," and "from" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: The initial two Russian PWR types at the Kudankulam site were apart from India's three-stage plan for nuclear power and were simply to increase generating capacity rapidly.

Additional Information

• To (को): Generally indicates movement toward something, not suitable for expressing purpose in this context.
• With (के साथ): Indicates accompaniment, but doesn't fit the context of expressing a plan intended for a specific purpose.
• From (से): Indicates origin or separation, not suitable for expressing the intended plan or purpose.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The word "more" is often used in comparisons to indicate a greater degree. In this context, it implies increasing generating capacity to a greater extent. (अधिक)
• The other options: "enough," "most," and "so" do not fit the context of describing the extent to which generating capacity was to be increased.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: The initial two Russian PWR types at the Kudankulam site were apart from India's three-stage plan for nuclear power and were simply to increase generating capacity more rapidly.

Additional Information

• Enough (पर्याप्त): Indicates a sufficient amount, which does not fit the context of increasing capacity to a greater degree.
• Most (अधिकांश): Indicates the greatest amount, but does not fit the context of increasing or the comparison being made.
• So (इतना): Usually used as an adverb to describe the degree of something, but does not fit the required comparative context here.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The word "plans" fits the context as it indicates an intention or plan to build eight 1000 MWe units. (योजनाएं)
• The other options: "structures," "amends," and "idea" do not fit the context of indicating future developmental intentions as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: The initial two Russian PWR types at the Kudankulam site were apart from India's three-stage plan for nuclear power and were simply to increase generating capacity more rapidly. Now there are plans for eight 1000 MWe units at that site, and in January 2007 a memorandum of understanding was signed for Russia.

Additional Information

• Structures (संरचनाएँ): Indicates physical buildings or constructions, not suitable for indicating future projects or intentions.
• Amends (संशोधन): Means to make changes or corrections, which does not fit the context of indicating future developments.
• Idea (विचार): Means a thought or suggestion, but lacks the concreteness of a specific plan referred to in this context.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The word "signed" fits the context as it refers to the official formalization of the memorandum of understanding. (हस्ताक्षरित)
• The other options: "draft," "placed," and "marked" do not accurately convey the legal act of formalizing an agreement.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: The initial two Russian PWR types at the Kudankulam site were apart from India's three-stage plan for nuclear power and were simply to increase generating capacity more rapidly. Now there are plans for eight 1000 MWe units at that site, and in January 2007 a memorandum of understanding was signed for Russia.

Additional Information

• Draft (मसौदा): Refers to creating an initial version, but not to formalizing an official agreement.
• Placed (रखा हुआ): Indicates positioning something, but does not fit the context of formalizing an agreement.
• Marked (चिन्हित): Indicates identifying or designating, but does not fit the context of signing an agreement.

वाक्य में मात्राओं से संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ हैं - लघुतम व्यक्ती समभाव को मील सकता था तो

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - राष्ट्र के महानतम व्यक्ति से देश का लघुतम व्यक्ती समभाव को मील सकता था तो यह इनके हृदय की विशालता थी।
• दिए गये वाक्य में वर्तनी व कारक प्रयोग की त्रुटि है, ​
• यहाँ 'व्यक्ती, को, मील' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।​
• अत: सार्थक शब्द 'व्यक्ति, से, मिल' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - राष्ट्र के महानतम व्यक्ति से देश का लघुतम व्यक्ति समभाव से मिल सकता था तो यह इनके हृदय की विशालता थी।
• वर्तनी - भाषा के किसी शब्द को को लिखने में प्रयुक्त वर्णों के सही क्रम को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

Additional Information वर्तनी व कारक संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ- 

वाक्य में से गलत वर्तनी होगा - टिप्पड़ी

Key Points

• त्रुटिपूर्ण वाक्य- इस बात पर टिप्पड़ी करना क्षमा योग्य नहीं होगा।
• दिए गये वाक्य में 'वर्तनी प्रयोग' की त्रुटि है।
• यहाँ 'टिप्पड़ी' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• अत: सार्थक शब्द 'टिप्पणी' होना चाहिए।
• त्रुटिरहित वाक्य- इस बात पर टिप्पणी करना क्षमा योग्य नहीं होगा।
• वर्तनी - भाषा के किसी शब्द को को लिखने में प्रयुक्त वर्णों के सही क्रम को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

Additional Informationकुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -