SSC GD Constable (2024) Official Paper (Held On: 28 Feb, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Inner arrow type shape is rotating 45° in clockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Five colleagues Alok, Bhavana, Chetan, Divya, and Ekta.

Chetan, who is sitting to the immediate left of Ekta, is also second to the right of Divya.

Bhavana is not sitting next to Chetan.

So, Alok is sitting second to the right of Bhavana.

Hence, the correct answer is "Alok".

The logic followed here is:

KX : LZ 

⇒ K + 1 = L; X + 2 = Z

Option 1) PS : QU 

⇒ P + 1 = Q; S + 2 = U

Hence, the correct answer is "PS : QU".

Given: 12 × 3 + 11 ÷ 4 - 32 = 16

Option 1) × and +

After interchanging signs we get:

⇒ 12 + 3 × 11 ÷ 4 - 32 = 16

⇒ 12 + 8.25 - 32 = 16

⇒ 20.25 - 32 = 16

⇒ 11.75 = 16

Option 2) × and ÷

After interchanging signs we get:

⇒ 12 ÷ 3 + 11 × 4 - 32 = 16

⇒ 4 + 11 × 4 - 32 = 16

⇒ 4 + 44 - 32 = 16

⇒ 48 - 32 = 16

⇒ 16 = 16

Option 3) × and -

After interchanging signs we get:

⇒ 12 - 3 + 11 ÷ 4 × 32 = 16

⇒ 12 - 3 + 88 = 16

⇒ 100 - 3 = 16

⇒ 97 = 16

Option 4) + and ÷

After interchanging signs we get:

⇒ 12 × 3 ÷ 11 + 4 - 32 = 16

⇒ 3.27 + 4 - 32 = 16

⇒ 7.27 - 32 = 16

⇒ 24.73 = 16

Hence, the correct answer is "× and ÷".

Given: Five persons A, B, C, D and E.

1. Only one person is sitting between C and D (when counted from one side only).

2. B is sitting second to the left of D.

3. A is sitting to the immediate right of B.

Final arrangement:

Thus, B is sitting on the immediate right of C.

Hence, the correct answer is "B".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "FQQ".

The logic followed here is:

• Numbers decrease by 5, 6, 7, and 8.
• Figure's side decrease by 1 in next figure and gets darkened alternatively.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct Dictionary order is:

2. Await
3. Awake
4. Award
5. Aware
6. Away

So, the correct order are: '2, 4, 1, 5, 3'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Family tree:

Decoding the Symbols:

Given: A + D - C × B

It means: A is the son of D, D is the husband of C and C is the mother of B.

So, A is the 'Brother' of B.

Hence, the correct answer is "Brother".

Figure will complete the pattern in the question figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given equation: 25 - 28 + 21 × 10 ÷ 5 = 43

Option 1) 5 and 28

After interchanging the numbers we get:

⇒ 25 - 5 + 21 × 10 ÷ 28 = 43

⇒ 25 - 5 + 7.5 = 43

⇒ 32.5 - 5 = 43

⇒ 27.5 = 43

Option 2) 21 and 25

After interchanging the numbers we get:

⇒ 21 - 28 + 25 × 10 ÷ 5 = 43

⇒ 21 - 28 + 50 = 43

⇒ 71 - 28 = 43

⇒ 43 = 43

Option 3) 10 and 43

After interchanging the signs we get:

⇒ 25 - 28 + 21 × 43 ÷ 5 = 10

⇒ 25 - 28 + 180.6 = 10

⇒ 205.6 - 28 = 10

⇒ 177.6 = 10

Option 4) 21 and 28

After interchanging the signs we get:

⇒ 25 - 21 + 28 × 10 ÷ 5 = 43

⇒ 25 - 21 + 56 = 43

⇒ 81 - 21 = 43

⇒ 60 = 43

Hence, the correct answer is "21 and 25".

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

'SLOT' is coded as 'PHLP'.

Similarly, the code for 'YOGA':

Hence, the correct answer is "VKDW".

The logic followed here is:

AZC : VUX 

Similarly, SUS : ? 

Hence, the correct answer is "NPN".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "44".

Given Statements:

Some phones are laptops.

Some laptops are tablets.

Some tablets are desktops.

The least possible Venn diagram:

Conclusion:

I: Some phones are desktops. - False (Because, there is no direct relation given between phones and desktops, so it can be possible)

II: All tablets are phones. - False (Because, there is no direct relation given between phones and tablets, so it can be possible)

So, Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion I nor II follows".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "ZS".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "500".

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

PANTRY is coded as '274365',

STEADY is coded as '931785',

Similarly, 'DATES' will be coded:

Hence, the correct answer is "87319".

The correct answer is 3^rd.

Key Points

• Newton's 3^rd Law of Motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
• This means that when one object applies a force on a second object, the second object applies an equal and opposite force back on the first.
• The law is commonly observed in scenarios such as a rocket launch, where the action of gas expelling downwards results in the rocket moving upwards.
• The forces always occur in pairs, and they act on different bodies.
• The third law emphasizes the concept of mutual interactions between objects in motion.

 Additional Information

• 2^nd Law of Newton:
• Newton's 2^nd Law of Motion explains the relationship between force, mass, and acceleration.
• It is expressed as F = ma, where force is the product of mass and acceleration.
• This law shows how the net force on an object results in its acceleration.
• The second law does not describe action-reaction forces but focuses on how forces affect the motion of objects.
• 1^st Law of Newton:
• Newton's 1^st Law of Motion, also known as the Law of Inertia, states that an object at rest stays at rest, and an object in motion stays in motion unless acted upon by a net external force.
• This law describes the tendency of objects to maintain their state of motion or rest.
• It does not explain action and reaction forces but emphasizes the importance of balanced and unbalanced forces.

Important Points

• Isaac Newton:
• Newton is most famous for his Three Laws of Motion, which laid the foundation for classical mechanics and revolutionized the understanding of motion and force.
• Newton proposed the Law of Universal Gravitation, explaining that every particle of matter attracts every other particle with a force proportional to their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
• He is credited with developing the field of calculus (independently discovered by Leibniz), which is essential for modern physics and mathematics.
• Newton made groundbreaking discoveries in optics, demonstrating that white light is composed of the colors of the visible spectrum, which he proved through his famous prism experiment.
• Newton's most significant work, commonly known as the Principia, laid the mathematical foundations of physics and described the principles of gravity and motion.

The correct answer is Agriculture.

Key Points

• APEDA stands for the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority.
• The Government of India established it to promote the export of agricultural and processed food products.
• APEDA is responsible for providing financial assistance, conducting training, and helping with the development of agricultural export standards.
• It plays a significant role in enhancing the global reach of Indian agricultural produce.
• APEDA is involved in promoting products such as fruits, vegetables, meat, poultry, and various processed foods.

 Additional Information

• Arms and Ammunition:
• The sector related to arms and ammunition is regulated by the Ministry of Home Affairs and Defense in India.
• Agencies like the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB) and Defense Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) focus on arms manufacturing and research.
• IT Services:
• The IT services sector in India is overseen by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
• It includes major players in software development, IT outsourcing, and digital services.
• Highways:
• The development and maintenance of highways in India fall under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
• Agencies like the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) are involved in the construction of roads and highways.

The correct answer is Naveen Patnaik.

Key Points

• Naveen Patnaik, the Chief Minister of Odisha, became the second-longest serving Chief Minister of an Indian state as of July 2023.
• He has been serving as the Chief Minister since March 2000, consistently winning elections and leading the Biju Janata Dal (BJD).
• Patnaik is known for his focus on social welfare schemes and disaster management, which have garnered him widespread popularity.
• His tenure has seen significant development in infrastructure, education, and healthcare in Odisha.
• He is also recognized for maintaining a clean and corruption-free image throughout his political career.

 Additional Information

• Shivraj Singh Chauhan:
• Shivraj Singh Chauhan is the Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh.
• He has served multiple terms as CM, with his first term starting in 2005, but his total tenure is not as long as Naveen Patnaik’s.
• He is known for implementing various agriculture and rural development programs.
• Yogi Adityanath:
• Yogi Adityanath is the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh since 2017.
• He is notable for his strong stance on law and order and promoting development projects in the state.
• His tenure is far shorter compared to Naveen Patnaik's.
• Pawan Kumar Chamling:
• Pawan Kumar Chamling was the longest-serving Chief Minister of Sikkim, having served from 1994 to 2019.
• He held the record as the longest-serving CM before Naveen Patnaik moved up to second place in terms of service length.
• Chamling is known for his work in environmental preservation and social welfare in Sikkim.

The correct answer is Narthaki Nataraj.

Key Points

• Narthaki Nataraj is the first Indian dancer from the transgender community to be honored with the Padma Shri.
• She is renowned for her expertise in Bharatanatyam, specifically the Tanjore style.
• Narthaki has broken significant barriers, becoming a trailblazer for the transgender community in the field of classical dance.
• She has performed globally and has been recognized for her contributions to Indian classical dance and culture.
• Her Padma Shri award highlights her efforts in bringing both artistic excellence and social change.

 Additional Information

• Protima Bedi:
• Protima Bedi was a renowned Indian Odissi dancer.
• She is famous for founding the Nrityagram dance village near Bengaluru.
• Alarmel Valli:
• Alarmel Valli is a celebrated Bharatanatyam dancer.
• She is known for her graceful and lyrical dance style.
• Yamini Krishnamurthy:
• Yamini Krishnamurthy is a highly respected dancer of Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi.
• She has received numerous accolades for her contributions to Indian classical dance.

The correct answer is 12%.

Key Points

• When the British rule ended in India in the year 1947, the literacy rate was just around 12%.
• The British rule in India refers to the period during which the Indian Subcontinent was under the colonial rule of the British Empire.
• It began in 1757, following the Battle of Plassey, and continued until India gained independence on August 15, 1947.
• The British East India Company initially established a strong presence in India for trade, but over time, they gradually expanded their control over various regions and Territories.

Additional Information

• According to the 2011 Census of India, the overall rate of literacy is 73 percent. But breaking up the national average reveals that while the rate of literacy for men is 80.9 percent, for women it is 65.46 percent. This means that more than one-fourth of the country's population is still illiterate.
• Literacy forms an important input in the overall development of individuals enabling them to comprehend their social, political, and cultural environment better and respond to it appropriately.
• Higher levels of education and literacy lead to greater awareness and also contribute to the improvement of economic and social conditions.
• It acts as a catalyst for social upliftment enhancing the returns on investment made in almost every aspect of development effort, be it population control, health, hygiene, environmental degradation control, or employment of weaker sections of the society.

Important Points

• The following are some of the important factors that could affect the low literacy rate of women in India- 
• Poor school environment for girls
• The lower enrolment
• Dowry system
• Early marriage
• Priority to the son’s education compared to the daughter’s education
• Poverty

The correct answer is Abdel Fattah EL-Sisi.

Key Points

• Egypt's President Abdel Fattah El-Sisi was invited as the chief guest for India's 2023 Republic Day celebrations.
• It was the first time that an Egyptian President had been invited as the chief guest for this significant event.
• The invitation signifies the strengthening of India-Egypt diplomatic relations, particularly in the fields of defense, security, and trade.
• Inviting foreign dignitaries as chief guests on Republic Day is a tradition in India, symbolizing bilateral ties with the guest's country.

Additional Information

• Russian President Vladimir Putin has a longstanding relationship with India, and Russia-India relations are particularly strong in the defense and energy sectors.
• Former German Chancellor Angela Merkel has been a key figure in EU-India relations, particularly in trade and technology.
• Xi Jinping is the General Secretary of the Communist Party of China and the President of the People's Republic of China, leading the country since 2013
• The selection of the Republic Day chief guest often reflects India's strategic priorities, focusing on fostering stronger ties in defense, trade, and diplomacy.
• Inviting foreign leaders also showcases India's emphasis on cultural diplomacy, highlighting historical and contemporary links between India and the guest's country.

The correct answer is Lawn Tennis.

Key Points

• The Wimbledon Championships, commonly known simply as Wimbledon, is the oldest lawn tennis tournament in the world.
• It is held every year at All England Lawn Tennis and Croquet Club in Wimbledon, London, the United Kingdom.
• The All England Lawn Tennis and Croquet Club is a private club founded on 23 July 1868, originally as "The All England Croquet Club". In 1877, the club was renamed "The All England Croquet and Lawn Tennis Club".
• Wimbledon is played on outdoor "Grass courts", with retractable roofs over the two main courts since 2019. During The Championships the height of the grass will be 8mm.
• The Centre Court at Wimbledon is also known by the famous postcode SW19.
• In the Wimbledon tournament players follow a strict all-white dress code. Strawberries and cream are traditionally consumed at the tournament by all the players.

Additional Information

• Wimbledon is one of the four Grand Slam tennis tournaments.
• Wimbledon is the only Grand Slam that does not conduct night matches, it conducts only day matches imposing a night curfew instead.
• There are four Grand Slam tennis tournaments:

The correct answer is 1946.

Key Points

• The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 first proposed the constituent assembly.
• Members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
• It held its first meeting on December 9, 1946, and reassembled on August 14, 1947, as the sovereign Constituent Assembly for the dominion of India.
• The Constituent Assembly finalized the Constitution in two years, eleven months, and eighteen days.
• Objective Resolution was moved in the first session of the Constituent Assembly i.e. on 13 December 1946 by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.

Additional Information

• ​After the partition of India, the number of members of the Constituent Assembly came to 299, of whom 284 were present on 26 November 1949 and signed the final approved Constitution of India Assembly, which had been elected for undivided India.
• | Name | Role in the Constituent Assembly | | --- | --- | | Dr. Sachidanand Sinha | First (Temporary) President of the Constituent Assembly | | Dr. Rajendra Prasad | Elected as the Permanent President of the Assembly | | B.N. Rau | Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly | | Jawaharlal Nehru | Introduced the Objective Resolution | | Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel | Played a key role in integrating princely states | | B.R. Ambedkar | Chairman of the Drafting Committee | | K.M. Munshi | Member of the Drafting Committee contributed to the Preamble | | Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer | Member of the Drafting Committee, legal expert | | H.C. Mookerjee | Vice-President of the Constituent Assembly | | S.N. Mukherjee | Chief Draftsman of the Constitution |

The correct answer is 2013.

Key Points

• The Sixth Economic Census was conducted between January 2013 and April 2014 across the country. This census follows a series of economic censuses conducted since 1977.
• The census was conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) in collaboration with state governments and union territories.
• The census collected comprehensive data from all non-agricultural enterprises involved in various sectors such as manufacturing, trade, services, and others.
• The main objective was to collect information on the distribution of economic establishments, including data on their nature of activity, employment, and ownership patterns.
• The Sixth Economic Census was crucial for understanding changes in the economic structure, including the growth of small businesses, employment trends, and the contribution of the informal sector.

Additional Information

• First Economic Census: Conducted in 1977, marking the beginning of comprehensive data collection on India's non-agricultural sector.
• Second Economic Census: Held in 1980, focusing on the growth and expansion of enterprises.
• Third Economic Census: Conducted in 1990, further refining data on establishments and employment.
• Fourth Economic Census: This took place in 1998, showing significant changes in the economic landscape post-liberalization.
• Fifth Economic Census: Conducted in 2005, focusing on the formal and informal sectors across urban and rural areas.
• Seventh Economic Census: Conducted in 2019, the latest in the series, focusing on digital data collection through mobile applications.

Important Points

• Economic Census Importance: Provides a comprehensive database for understanding economic activities, particularly in the informal sector, which employs a large portion of India’s workforce.
• Key Data Collected: Types of enterprises, employment numbers, ownership details, and enterprise activity classifications.
• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) leads the Economic Census, coordinating with state governments.
• The data aids in policy formulation for economic development programs like Make in India, Startup India, and Skill India.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Maharashtra emerged as the overall champion at the National Games 2023, winning a total of 228 medals: 80 gold, 69 silver, and 79 bronze.
• The Services team, which had won the last four editions of the Games finished second with 126 medals: 66 gold, 27 silver, and 33 bronze.
• Haryana secured the third position with 192 medals, including 62 gold, 55 silver, and 75 bronze.
• Srihari Nataraj, an Olympic swimmer, was named the best male athlete, with a haul of 8 gold, 1 silver, and 1 bronze.

Additional Information

• First National Games: Held in 1924 in Lahore, British India, originally called the Indian Olympic Games.
• The National Games are held every few years, though they have faced several delays due to logistical and other challenges.
• Hosted by Goa from October 26 to November 9, 2023, marking the first time the state hosted the event
• The National Games feature a wide variety of sports, including athletics, swimming, wrestling, shooting, gymnastics, and more, covering both Olympic and non-Olympic sports.
• Maharashtra won the highest number of medals (228), topping the medal tally after a gap of 29 years
• The Services team dominated the National Games for four consecutive editions before losing the top spot in 2023
• Srihari Nataraj (swimmer) and Sanyukta Prasen Kale (gymnast) were standout performers at the 2023 Games​
• The modern version of the Games restructured and named the National Games, began in 1985 in New Delhi.
• Goa, the host state in 2023, performed well, finishing 9^th with 27 gold, 27 silver, and 38 bronze medals
• The National Games serve as a platform for talent identification, promoting sportsmanship and preparing athletes for international competitions like the Olympics.

The correct answer is Peepal.

Key Points

• Gautama Buddha meditated under a Bodhi tree (Ficus religiosa), also known as Peepal, which is now a sacred symbol in Buddhism.
• This event took place at Bodh Gaya, located in the state of Bihar, India.
• Under this tree, Buddha attained enlightenment or nirvana, which marked a key turning point in his spiritual journey.
• Buddha meditated for days on end, showing his commitment to finding the path to self-realization and truth.
• The site, Bodh Gaya, is now one of the most important pilgrimage destinations for Buddhists worldwide.

Additional Information

• Gautama Buddha
• Gautama Buddha was born as Siddhartha Gautama around 563 BCE in Lumbini, present-day Nepal, into a royal family of the Shakya clan.
• Renunciation: At the age of 29, after witnessing suffering in the form of old age, sickness, and death (the Four Sights), he renounced his princely life to seek a solution to human suffering.
• Buddha attained enlightenment (nirvana) under the Bodhi tree at Bodh Gaya, Bihar, after meditating for 49 days. This event is central to Buddhist teachings.
• After attaining enlightenment, Buddha delivered his first sermon at Sarnath (also known as the Dhammacakkappavattana Sutta), where he taught the Four Noble Truths and the Eightfold Path.
• Buddha's key teachings include the Four Noble Truths (existence of suffering, cause of suffering, end of suffering, and the path to the end of suffering) and the Eightfold Path (a guide to ethical and mental development).
• He emphasized the Middle Path, avoiding extremes of asceticism and indulgence, advocating a balanced approach to life.
• Buddha taught in Pali and Magadhi, the languages of the common people, to make his teachings accessible.
• Buddha established a community of monks and nuns, known as the Sangha, which played a crucial role in spreading Buddhism.
• Buddha passed away around 483 BCE in Kushinagar, Uttar Pradesh, at the age of 80, attaining Parinirvana.
• His teachings led to the rise of Buddhism, which spread across Asia, particularly in countries like Sri Lanka, China, Japan, and Southeast Asia.

The correct answer is Manipur.

Key Points

• Yaoshang lasts for about six days, typically coinciding with the full moon of the Lai Haraoba month, which falls in March, marking the arrival of spring.
• The festival celebrates the arrival of spring and is deeply rooted in the agricultural traditions of the Meitei tribe, symbolizing new beginnings and prosperity.
• During Yaoshang, various traditional activities take place, including singing, dancing, and playing traditional sports like Mukna (a form of wrestling). The community comes together for cultural performances, reinforcing social bonds.
• Yaoshang is akin to the Holi festival celebrated across India, where colors are thrown, but in Manipur, it also includes unique local practices, such as the 'Wangala' dance and the 'Chavang Kut' ritual.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Rowalatt Act.

Key Points

• The Rowlatt Act, officially known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919.
• The primary purpose of the Rowlatt Act was to curb revolutionary activities and suppress political dissent in India.
• It allowed for detention without trial for up to two years.
• During the enactment of the Rowlatt Act in 1919, the Governor-General of India was Lord Chelmsford.

Additional Information

• The Arms Act of 1959 in India is a significant piece of legislation governing the possession, use, and control of firearms and ammunition.
• The Arms Act was enacted on September 28, 1959.
• The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was a significant piece of legislation enacted by the British government in India.
• The Act was enacted on March 14, 1878, during the tenure of Lord Lytton, who was the Viceroy of India at that time.
• The Government of India Act of 1935 was a landmark piece of legislation enacted by the British Parliament to define the governance of India.
• The Act is comprised of 303 sections and 10 schedules.

The correct answer is MS Subbulakshmi.

Key Points

• The renowned Indian Carnatic singer who was the first artist to receive both the Bharat Ratna and the Ramon Magsaysay Award is M. S. Subbulakshmi.
• Born on September 16, 1916, in Madurai, Tamil Nadu, India.
• She was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1998, which is India's highest civilian award.
• She received the Ramon Magsaysay Award for her contribution to the arts in 1974.

Additional Information

• Lata Mangeshkar was Born on September 28, 1929, in Indore, Madhya Pradesh, India.
• Bharat Ratna (2001) - India's highest civilian award and Padma Bhushan (1969) and Padma Vibhushan (1999).
• Asha Bhosle was Born on September 8, 1933, in Sangli, Maharashtra, India.
• Dadasaheb Phalke Award (2000) - India's highest award in cinema, Padma Bhushan (2008) and Padma Vibhushan (2011).
• Mangalampalli Balamuralikrishna was Born on July 6, 1930, in Sankaraguptam, Andhra Pradesh, India.
• Padma Bhushan (1985), Padma Vibhushan (2005) Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, and several other state and national awards.

The correct answer is Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor.

Key Points

• Article 74: Council of Ministers to Aid and Advise the President.
• Article 76: Attorney General for India
• Article 77: Conduct of Business of the Government of India.
• Article 78: Duties of Prime Minister as a Head of the Government.

Additional Information

• Article 168 Provides for the establishment of a Legislature in each State, which may be unicameral or bicameral.
• Article 169 Empowers Parliament to create or abolish a State Legislature, which may be either a Legislative Council or Legislative Assembly.
• Article 170 Specifies the composition of the State Legislative Assembly, which consists of representatives elected by the people.
• Article 171 Details the composition of the State Legislative Council, including the method of election and appointment of its members.
• Article 172 States the duration of the State Legislative Assembly, which is five years from the date of its first meeting unless dissolved earlier.
• Article 173 Specifies the qualifications for membership in the State Legislatures.
• Article 174 Grants the Governor the power to summon and prorogue the State Legislature and to dissolve the Legislative Assembly.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Flamingo Festival is a significant event celebrated in India, particularly in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
• The Flamingo Festival is primarily celebrated at Pulicat Lake, which is located near the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
• The festival is primarily focused on the Greater Flamingo (Phoenicopterus roseus) and the Lesser Flamingo (Phoenicopterus minor).
• The festival is typically held in January each year, coinciding with the migratory season when flamingos.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Both A and B.

Key Points

• The Green Revolution refers to a period of agricultural transformation that occurred in the 1960s and 1970s.
• High-Yielding Varieties (HYVs) Developed through selective breeding and hybridization.
• Increased use of chemical fertilizers, particularly nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K).
• The Father of the Green Revolution in India is Dr. M. S. Swaminathan.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Fiscal Deficit.

Key Points

• The measure that captures the difference between the government's total expenditure and total receipts, excluding borrowing, is known as the Fiscal Deficit.
• Fiscal deficit occurs when a government's total expenditures exceed its total revenues (excluding borrowing).
• Fiscal Deficit=Total Expenditure−Total Receipts (excluding borrowing).
• Revenue Deficit: This is a subset of the fiscal deficit that focuses specifically on the gap between revenue expenditure and revenue receipts.

Additional Information

• Primary deficit refers to the difference between the government's total expenditure (excluding interest payments) and its total revenue (excluding borrowing).
• Primary Deficit=Fiscal Deficit−Interest Payments.
• Gross Fiscal Deficit is the difference between the total expenditure of the government and its total receipts (excluding borrowings)
• Gross Fiscal Deficit=Total Expenditure−Total Receipts (excluding borrowing).
• Revenue deficit refers to the excess of the government's revenue expenditure over its revenue receipts in a given fiscal period.
• Revenue Deficit=Revenue Expenditure−Revenue Receipts.

The correct answer is Let.

Key Points

• A standard table tennis table measures 2.74 meters long, 1.525 meters wide, and is 76 cm high.
• The game uses a lightweight plastic ball with a diameter of 40 mm, weighing 2.7 grams.
• Players use paddles (also known as bats or rackets) made of wood covered with rubber on one or both sides.
• Table tennis became an Olympic sport in 1988.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Ghoomar.

 Key Points

• Ghoomar is a traditional folk dance of state of Rajasthan.
• The name Ghoomar is derived from the word ghoomna, which means spinning or twirling.
• Ghoomar is performed on traditional Rajasthani folk music, with its rhythmic beats.
• Common instruments include: the Dhol (drum), Nagada, Shehnai, and Harmonium.
• It is performed on occasions such as weddings, festivals like Teej, Gangaur, and Diwali, as well as other celebrations.
• The dance symbolizes joy and togetherness, communal harmony and social unity, with women of all ages participating together.

Additional Information

• some important cultural dances of states are:

Given:

M is two times as efficient as N.

M can complete a work in 66 days less than N.

Formula Used:

If M's efficiency is 2 units/day, then N's efficiency is 1 unit/day.

Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculation:

Let the time taken by N to complete the work be T days.

Time taken by M to complete the work = T - 66 days.

Work done by M = Work done by N

2(T - 66) = T

⇒ 2T - 132 = T

⇒ 2T - T = 132

⇒ T = 132 days

Time taken by M = 132 - 66 = 66 days

Combined efficiency of M and N = 2 + 1 = 3 units/day

Total work = Efficiency of M × Time taken by M

Total work = 2 × 66 = 132 units

Time taken by M and N together = Total work / Combined efficiency

Time taken = 132 / 3

Time taken = 44 days

The correct answer is option 2.

Given:

Speed for the first part = 24 km/hr.

Speed for the second part = 36 km/hr.

Speed for the third part = 60 km/hr.

Formula Used:

Average speed = Total distance travelled / Total Time

Calculation:

Let the total distance be d km.

Distance for the first part = d / 3 km

Distance for the second part = d / 4 km

Distance for the third part = d - (d/3 + d/4) = d - 7d/12 = 5d/12 km

Time taken for the first part = (d / 3) / 24 = d / 72 hr

Time taken for the second part = (d / 4) / 36 = d / 144 hr

Time taken for the third part = (5d / 12) / 60 = d / 144 hr

Total Time = d / 72 + d / 144 + d / 144

Total Time = d (1/72 + 1/144 + 1/144)

Total Time = d (2/144 + 1/72)

Total Time = d (4/144)

Average Speed = d / (d / 36)

Average Speed = 36 km/hr

The correct answer is option 2: 36 km/hr.

Given:

Average age of a group of 9 members = 42 years.

Age of the eldest member = 58 years.

Formula Used:

Average age = (Sum of ages) / (Number of members)

Calculation:

Sum of ages of 9 members = Average age × Number of members

Sum of ages of 9 members = 42 × 9

Sum of ages of 9 members = 378 years

Sum of ages of remaining 8 members = Total sum of ages - Age of the eldest member

Sum of ages of remaining 8 members = 378 - 58

Sum of ages of remaining 8 members = 320 years

Average age of remaining 8 members = (Sum of ages of remaining 8 members) / (Number of remaining members)

Average age of remaining 8 members = 320 / 8

Average age of remaining 8 members = 40 years

The average age of the remaining members is 40 years.

Given:

Initial radius of the circle = r

Increased radius = r + 35% of r = r + 0.35r = 1.35r

Formula Used:

Area of a circle = πr²

Calculation:

Initial Area = πr²

New Area = π(1.35r)²

New Area = π(1.35²r²)

$1.35^2 = 1.8225$

New Area = π(1.8225r²)

Percentage Increase in Area = [(New Area - Initial Area) / Initial Area] × 100

Percentage Increase = [(π(1.8225r²) - πr²) / πr²] × 100

Percentage Increase = [(1.8225πr² - πr²) / πr²] × 100

Percentage Increase = (0.8225πr² / πr²) × 100

Percentage Increase = 0.8225 × 100

Percentage Increase = 82.25%

The percentage increase in the area is 82.25%.

Given:

42 ÷ 3 × [7 + (42 ÷ 6)] ÷ 2 of 7

Formula Used:

Order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS): Parentheses/Brackets, Exponents/Orders, Multiplication and Division (from left to right), Addition and Subtraction (from left to right)

Calculation:

Simplify inside the parentheses first:

⇒ 42 ÷ 3 × [7 + (42 ÷ 6)] ÷ 2 of 7

⇒ 42 ÷ 3 × [7 + 7] ÷ 2 of 7

⇒ 42 ÷ 3 × 14 ÷ 2 of 7

⇒ 14 × 14 ÷ 2 of 7

⇒ 14 × 14/14

⇒ 14 × 1

⇒ 14

The correct answer is option 2: 14

Given:

Height of the triangle = 35.7 cm.

Base of the triangle = 1/7^th of the height.

Formula Used:

Area of a triangle = 1/2 × base × height

Calculation:

Base = 35.7 / 7

⇒ Base = 5.1 cm

Area = 1/2 × 5.1 × 35.7

⇒ Area = 0.5 × 5.1 × 35.7

⇒ Area = 91.035 cm²

The correct answer is option 4: 91.035 cm².

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = $30

Selling Price (SP) = $40

We need to find the profit percentage.

Formula used:

Profit % = $\dfrac{SP - CP}{CP} \times 100$

Calculations:

Profit = SP - CP = 40 - 30 = $10

Profit % = $\dfrac{10}{30} \times 100 = \dfrac{1000}{30} = 33.33\%$

∴ The profit percentage is 33.33%.$

Given:

40 percent of the cost price of an article is equal to the 30 percent of its selling price.

Formula Used:

Profit percentag$e = \frac{Selling Price - Cost Price}{Cost Price} \times 100$ %

Calculation:

Let Cost Price (C.P.) = C

Let Selling Price (S.P.) = S

According to the question:

40% of C.P. = 30% of S.P.

⇒ 0.4C = 0.3S

⇒ S = 0.4C/0.3

⇒ S = 4C/3

Profit = S - C = 4C/3 - C

⇒ Profit = C/2

Profit percentage = $\frac{Profit}{C.P.} \times 100 \%$

⇒ Profit percentage = $\frac{\frac{C}{3}}{C} \times 100 \%$

⇒ Profit percentage = 100/3 %

⇒ Profit percentage = 33.33%

The correct answer is option 2: 33.33 percent.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the Componendo and Dividendo rule: If a/b = c/d, then (a+b)/(a-b) = (c+d)/(c-d).

Here, [(5m + n) + (5m − n)] / [(5m + n) − (5m − n)] = (5 + 2) / (5 − 2)

⇒ 10m / 2n = 7 / 3

⇒ 5m / n = 7 / 3

⇒ m / n = 7 / (3 × 5) = 7 / 15

∴ The correct answer is 7 : 15.

Alternate Method

Given: The ratio of (5m + n) and (5m − n) is 5 : 2.

Formula Used: Cross-multiplication method for Linear Equations.

⇒ (5m + n) / (5m − n) = 5 / 2

⇒ 2 × (5m + n) = 5 × (5m − n)

⇒ 10m + 2n = 25m − 5n

⇒ 2n + 5n = 25m − 10m

⇒ 7n = 15m

⇒ m / n = 7 / 15

∴ The correct answer is 7 : 15.

Additional Information

Componendo and Dividendo

This rule states that if a/b = c/d, then (a+b)/(a-b) = (c+d)/(c-d). It is highly useful for simplifying ratios involving sums and differences of variables.

Duplicate and Sub-duplicate Ratio

The duplicate ratio of a : b is a² : b², while the sub-duplicate ratio is √a : √b.

Mean Proportion

The mean proportion between two numbers a and b is calculated as √(a × b).

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹ 25,500

Discount = 15%

Formula Used:

Marked Price (MP) = SP / (1 - Discount/100)

Calculation:

Discount = 15%

⇒ Discount Fraction = 15/100 = 0.15

1 - Discount Fraction = 1 - 0.15 = 0.85

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = ₹ 25,500 / 0.85

⇒ MP = ₹ 30,000

The marked price of the electronic gadget is ₹ 30,000.

Given:

13 [45 + 4 {257 - 3 (29 + 33)}]

Formula Used:

Order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS): Parentheses/Brackets, Exponents/Orders, Multiplication and Division (from left to right), Addition and Subtraction (from left to right).

Calculation:

Start with the innermost parentheses:

29 + 33

⇒ 62

Now substitute this back into the equation:

257 - 3 (62)

⇒ 257 - 186

⇒ 71

Next, substitute this back into the equation:

4 {71}

⇒ 4 × 71

⇒ 284

Now substitute this back into the equation:

45 + 284

⇒ 329

Finally, substitute this back into the equation:

13 [329]

⇒ 13 × 329

⇒ 4277

The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

Compound Interest for the first year = Rs. 600

Compound Interest for the second year = Rs. 660

Time = 2 years

Formula used:

Simple Interest for the first year = $\dfrac{P \times r}{100}$

Simple Interest for the second year = $\dfrac{(P + CI_1) \times r}{100}$

Where, CI₁ = Compound Interest for the first year

Calculations:

⇒ From the first year:

$\dfrac{P \times r}{100} = 600$

⇒ $P \times r = 600 \times 100 = 60000$

⇒ P = 60000/r

From the second year:

$\dfrac{(P + 600) \times r}{100} = 660$

⇒ $(P + 600) \times r = 660 \times 100 = 66000$

⇒ Substitute P = 60000/r:

⇒ $\left(\dfrac{60000}{r} + 600\right) \times r = 66000$

⇒ 60000 + 600r = 66000

⇒ 600r = 66000 - 60000 = 6000

⇒ r = 6000/600 = 10%

∴ The annual rate of interest is 10%.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the successive percentage formula: Net % Change = x + y + (xy ÷ 100).

Here, Sonu is 30% more than Monu (x = 30) and Sunny is 15% more than Sonu (y = 15).

Net percentage increase = 30 + 15 + (30 × 15 ÷ 100)

Net percentage increase = 45 + 4.5 = 49.5%.

∴ The correct answer is 49.5 percent.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sunny’s income = Sonu’s income + 15%

Sonu’s income = Monu’s income + 30%

Let the income of Monu be 100.

⇒ Sonu’s income = 100 + (30% of 100)

⇒ Sonu’s income = 100 + 30 = 130

⇒ Sunny’s income = 130 + (15% of 130)

⇒ Sunny’s income = 130 + (15 × 130 ÷ 100) = 130 + 19.5

⇒ Sunny’s income = 149.5

⇒ Required Percentage = Sunny’s income − Monu’s income

⇒ Required Percentage = 149.5 − 100 = 49.5%

∴ The correct answer is 49.5 percent.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value is increased by x% and then again by y%, the net percentage change is given by the formula [x + y + (xy ÷ 100)]%.

Base Selection Rule

In comparative percentage problems, it is always easier to assume the base value (the value being compared to) as 100 to simplify calculations.

Percentage Difference

The formula for % more is [(Higher Value − Lower Value) ÷ Lower Value] × 100, where the 'Lower Value' is the reference point (Monu in this case).

Given:

Manish can complete 3/5 of a work in 48 days.

Formula Used:

Time taken to complete 1/5 of the work = (Time taken to complete 3/5 of the work) / 3

Calculation:

Let the time taken to complete 3/5 of the work be 48 days.

We need to find the time taken to complete 1/5 of the work.

⇒ Time taken to complete 1/5 of the work = 48 / 3

⇒ Time taken to complete 1/5 of the work = 16 days

The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

Numbers: 12, 46, 11, 43

Formula Used:

For numbers to be in proportion, $\frac{a+x}{b+x} = \frac{c+x}{d+x}$

Calculation:

Let the number to be added be x .

Then, $\frac{12+x}{46+x} = \frac{11+x}{43+x}$

Cross-multiplying:

⇒ (12+x)(43+x) = (11+x)(46+x)

Expanding both sides:

⇒ 516 + 55x + x² = 506 + 57x + x²

Subtracting x² from both sides:

⇒ 516 + 55x = 506 + 57x

Rearranging the equation:

⇒ 516 - 506 = 57x - 55x

⇒ 10 = 2x

⇒ x = 5

The correct answer is option 2.

Given:

Principal (P) = P

Time (T) = 19/5 years

Amount (A) = 69/50 of Principal = (69/50)P

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = PRT / 100

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI)

Calculation:

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI)

(69/50)P = P + SI

⇒ SI = (69/50)P - P

⇒ SI = (69/50)P - (50/50)P

⇒ SI = (19/50)P

Simple Interest (SI) = P × R× T / 100

⇒ (19/50)P = P × R × (19/5) / 100

⇒ (19/50)P = (19PR / 500)

⇒ 19/50 = 19R / 500

⇒ 500 = 50R

⇒ R = 500 / 50

⇒ R = 10

The rate of interest per annum is 10 percent.

Given:

The value to be calculated is 6.5 × 6.5 - 2.5 × 2.5

Formula Used:

(a × a) - (b × b) = (a² - b²)

This can be simplified using the difference of squares formula: a² - b² = (a + b)(a - b)

Calculation:

Let a = 6.5 and b = 2.5

⇒ 6.5 × 6.5 - 2.5 × 2.5

⇒ (6.5)² - (2.5)²

⇒ (6.5 + 2.5)(6.5 - 2.5)

⇒ 9 × 4

⇒ 36

The value of 6.5 × 6.5 - 2.5 × 2.5 is 36.

Given:

20 - 3 × (4 + 1) ÷ 2

Formula Used:

Order of Operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS): Parentheses, Exponents, Multiplication and Division (left to right), Addition and Subtraction (left to right).

Calculation:

First, solve the expression inside the parentheses:

4 + 1

⇒ 5

Then divide by 2:

5/2 = 2.5

Next, perform the multiplication and division from left to right:

3 × 2.5

⇒ 7.5

Finally, perform the subtraction:

20 - 7.5

⇒ 12.5

The correct answer is option 3 (12.5).

Given:

Marked price of the crockery = Rs 15400

First discount = 12%

Final price after successive discounts = Rs 10164

Formula Used:

Price after first discount = Marked price × (1 - First discount percentage)

Price after second discount = Price after first discount × (1 - Second discount percentage)

Calculation:

Price after first discount = 15400 × (1 - 0.12)

Price after first discount = 15400 × 0.88

Price after first discount = 13552

Final price after second discount = 13552 × (1 - Second discount percentage)

10164 = 13552 × (1 - Second discount percentage)

Second discount percentage = 1 - (10164 / 13552)

Second discount percentage = 1 - 0.75

Second discount percentage = 0.25

Second discount percentage = 25%

The second discount offered by the shopkeeper is 25%.

Given:

The first five odd multiples of 9 are:

9 × 1, 9 × 3, 9 × 5, 9 × 7, 9 × 9

Formula Used:

Average of n numbers = Sum of the numbers / n

Calculation:

First five odd multiples of 9:

9 × 1 = 9

9 × 3 = 27

9 × 5 = 45

9 × 7 = 63

9 × 9 = 81

Sum of the numbers:

9 + 27 + 45 + 63 + 81

Sum = 225

Average = Sum / 5

Average = 225 / 5

⇒ 45

The average of the first five odd multiples of 9 is 45.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect form of the verb "producing".
• The correct form should be "produces" to agree with the subject "a virus".
• The correct phrase should be "a virus that produces upper respiratory infections," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
• Thus, the error is located in Option 4 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: "One of the most common causes of anosmia and hyposmia is a virus that produces upper respiratory infections."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "anosmia and hyposmia is a virus," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 2: "One of the most common causes of," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 3: "No error" – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in Option 4.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The phrase "Smell blood" means to sense a weakness in your opponent and to be ready to exploit it. (कमजोरी महसूस करना)
• Example: The competitors began to smell blood when they noticed the leader of the race was limping.
• "To sense a weakness in your opponent" means to detect a vulnerability or a flaw in an adversary that can be taken advantage of. (अपने प्रतिद्वंद्वी की कमजोरी का पता लगाना)
• Example: The boxer sensed a weakness in his opponent's defense and quickly took advantage.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Restart a work (काम फिर से शुरू करना): To begin a task or project again.
• Example: After the holidays, we need to restart the work on our new project.
• To sense malpractice (धोखाधड़ी का आभास होना): To detect or suspect unethical behavior or wrongdoing.
• Example: The auditor could sense malpractice in the company's financial statements.
• To be suspicious about something (किसी चीज़ के बारे में संदेह होना): To have doubts or mistrust about a particular matter.
• Example: She was suspicious about the sudden change in his behavior.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The word "Abrasive" means something that is harsh, rough, or causing irritation. (रूक्ष या कठोर)
• Example: His abrasive manner often offends people.
• "Delightful" refers to something that is very pleasant or enjoyable. (आनंददायक)
• Example: Her delightful smile brightened everyone's day.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Abrasive' is 'Delightful'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Mourn (शोक मनाना): To feel or express sorrow or grief.
• Example: The community gathered to mourn the loss of their beloved leader.
• Reprimand (फटकार): To scold or criticize someone, usually officially.
• Example: The manager reprimanded the employee for being late.
• Slavish (दासवत): Showing no originality; blindly imitative.
• Example: His slavish adherence to the rules stifled creativity.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "of" is a preposition used to show possession, belonging, or a connection between things. (का, की, के)
• Example: The cover of the book is blue.
• "Aware" means having knowledge or perception of a situation or fact. (सचेत)
• Example: She is aware of the rules and regulations.
• Hence, "aware of" is the correct combination to use in the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• With (के साथ): Used to indicate being together or being involved.
• Example: She came with her friends.
• From (से): Used to indicate the point in space at which a journey, motion, or action starts.
• Example: He came from the market.
• By (द्वारा): Used to indicate the agent performing the action.
• Example: The book was written by him.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the awkward phrasing of "the better thing I could do was to slip off."
• A more grammatically correct and natural phrasing would be "the best thing I could do was to slip away."
• Thus, the error is located in Option 4 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: "I told him I must go, but he took no notice, so I thought the best thing I could do was to slip away."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "but he took no notice," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 2: "I told him I must go," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 3: "No error" – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in Option 4.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "dibacle" is incorrectly spelt.
• English Meaning: The correct spelling is "debacle," which means a sudden and ignominious failure; a fiasco. (अचानक और शर्मनाक विफलता; एक आपदा)
• Hindi Meaning: (आपदा)
• Example: The company's new product launch turned out to be a complete debacle.
• The correct word is "debacle".
• Hindi Meaning: (आपदा)
• Example: The German advance that ended in this debacle has been the costliest defeat in point of materials that they have yet suffered.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Materials (सामग्री): The substance or substances out of which a thing is or can be made.
• Example: The construction materials were delivered to the site on time.
• Advance (आगे बढ़ना): Move forward, typically in a purposeful way.
• Example: The troops were ordered to advance towards the enemy lines.
• Costliest (महंगा): Involving a lot of loss or sacrifice; very expensive.
• Example: The project turned out to be the costliest endeavor the company had ever undertaken.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "experiment" means a scientific procedure undertaken to make a discovery, test a hypothesis, or demonstrate a known fact. (प्रयोग)
• Example: The students conducted an experiment to test the effect of sunlight on plant growth.
• "Spreadsheet" refers to an electronic document in which data is arranged in rows and columns, often used for calculations. (स्प्रेडशीट)
• Example: She used a spreadsheet to organize her monthly budget.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Spredsheet (स्प्रेडशीट): This is a misspelling of "spreadsheet."
• Example: Incorrect: He used a spredsheet to keep track of his expenses. Correct: He used a spreadsheet to keep track of his expenses.
• Experement (प्रयोग): This is a misspelling of "experiment."
• Example: Incorrect: They conducted an experement in the laboratory. Correct: They conducted an experiment in the laboratory.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The sentence "The flower had bright red petals." is grammatically correct and does not require any improvement.
• The verb "had" is correctly used to indicate possession in the past tense.
• The adjective "bright red" properly modifies the noun "petals".

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "The flower had bright red petals."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "has bright redder" – This is incorrect because "redder" is not a valid comparative form in this context.
• Option 3: "has brighter red" – This is incorrect because the original sentence is in the past tense.
• Option 4: "have bright red" – This is incorrect because "flower" is singular and should be matched with "had" or "has".
• No improvement – This is the correct option as the sentence is already grammatically correct.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The original sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• "Insure" is the correct term to use when referring to obtaining insurance for a vehicle.
• The structure of the sentence is clear and precise, conveying the intended meaning effectively.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: "Remember to insure your vehicle before you drive it."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "driving it" – This option changes the structure of the sentence and is not necessary.
• Option 2: "drove it" – This option changes the tense and meaning of the sentence, making it incorrect.
• Option 3: "driven it" – This option is also grammatically incorrect in the context of the sentence.
• Option 4: "No improvement" – This is the correct option as the original sentence is already correct.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "The" is a definite article used before singular and plural nouns when the noun is specific or particular. (विशेष)
• Example: The book on the table is mine.
• "Studies" refers to the act of learning and acquiring knowledge, especially through reading and research. (अध्ययन)
• Example: His studies in biology helped him understand the complexities of the human body.
• Hence, we can infer that using "The" before "studies" specifies the particular studies being referred to.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• An (एक): An indefinite article used before words that begin with a vowel sound.
• Example: An apple a day keeps the doctor away.
• Them (उन्हें): A pronoun used to refer to a group of people or things previously mentioned.
• Example: I saw them at the park yesterday.
• A (एक): An indefinite article used before words that begin with a consonant sound.
• Example: A cat is sitting on the fence.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The idiom "On the rocks" means being in a state of financial ruin or difficulty. (वित्तीय रूप से बर्बाद)
• Example: After the company lost its major client, it has been on the rocks financially.
• "Financially Ruined" refers to a state where an individual or organization has lost all their money and is unable to recover financially. (वित्तीय रूप से बर्बाद)
• Example: Many families were financially ruined after the economic downturn.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• The specific matter of heart (दिल का विशेष मामला): Refers to issues or matters related to emotions and relationships.
• Example: Matters of the heart are always complicated and difficult to understand.
• Totally unexpected (पूरी तरह से अप्रत्याशित): Refers to something that happens without any prior indication or warning.
• Example: The sudden storm was totally unexpected and caught everyone by surprise.
• Past one's prime (अपनी चरम सीमा से परे): Refers to a time when someone or something is no longer in their best condition or period.
• Example: The athlete is past his prime and can no longer compete at the same level.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect plural form "waters" used after "no."
• The word "water" is an uncountable noun and should not be pluralized.
• The correct phrase should be "no water."
• Thus, the error is located in the underlined part of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "There's no water in the swimming pool."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "No improvement" – This would be the correct option if the sentence were already correct, but it contains an error.
• Option 3: "no watering" – This phrase is incorrect in this context as it changes the meaning of the sentence.
• Option 4: "none water" – This phrase is grammatically incorrect.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "Clashed" means to come into conflict or engage in a fight; it can refer to a disagreement or a physical encounter. (टकराना)
• Example: The two football teams clashed on the field, leading to an intense game.
• "Conflicted" refers to being in a state of emotional or mental struggle due to opposing needs, desires, or interests. (विरोधाभासी)
• Example: She felt conflicted about accepting the job offer because it required her to move to a new city.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Conflicted.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Calculative (गणनात्मक): Involving careful and strategic planning or thinking.
• Example: His calculative approach to investments always yields high returns.
• Concurred (सहमत): To agree or have the same opinion.
• Example: The committee members concurred with the proposed changes to the policy.
• Consented (सहमति दी): To give permission or agree to something.
• Example: She consented to the surgery after discussing it with her doctor.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "bestow" means to confer or present (an honor, right, or gift). (प्रदान करना)
• Example: The committee will bestow the award upon the most deserving candidate.
• "Preserve" refers to maintaining something in its original or existing state. (संरक्षित करना)
• Example: Efforts are being made to preserve the ancient manuscripts.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'bestow' is 'preserve'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Confer (प्रदान करना): To grant or bestow (a title, degree, benefit, or right).
• Example: The university will confer honorary degrees on several distinguished guests.
• Award (पुरस्कार देना): To give or order the giving of something as an official payment, compensation, or prize.
• Example: She was awarded the Nobel Prize for her contributions to physics.
• Grant (अनुदान देना): To agree to give or allow (something requested) to.
• Example: The council has granted permission for the new building project.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect verb form "have" used with the singular noun "Mountain biking."
• Singular subjects require singular verbs.
• The correct phrase should be "Mountain biking has," ensuring subject-verb agreement.
• Thus, the error is located in part 4 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: "Mountain biking has always attracted non-conformists and strong personalities."

Additional Information

• 1: "always attracted non-conformists," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• 2: "No error" – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in part 4.
• 3: "and strong personalities." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "about" is the correct preposition to use with "concerned" when referring to worrying or being anxious about something. (के बारे में चिंतित)
• The phrase "concerned about" is commonly used to express worry regarding a specific issue.
• The other options: "at," "over," and "on" do not fit as naturally in this context.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: Concerned about the pollution levels and the role firecrackers played in increasing it, the Supreme Court last October banned the sale, use and manufacture of crackers that were not 'green'.

Additional Information

• Concerned at: This phrase is less common and typically used in different contexts.
• Concerned over: This phrase can be used but is more formal and less common compared to "concerned about".
• Concerned on: This phrase is incorrect in this context.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "exacerbating" means making a bad situation worse. In this context, it refers to firecrackers worsening the pollution levels. (बढ़ाना)
• The other options: "destroy," "reducing," and "augmenting" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: Concerned about the pollution levels and the role firecrackers played in exacerbating it, the Supreme Court last October banned the sale, use and manufacture of crackers that were not 'green'.

Additional Information

• Destroy (नष्ट करना): Means to put an end to the existence of something by damaging or attacking it. It does not fit the context here.
• Reducing (कम करना): Means to make something smaller or less in amount. It is the opposite of what is needed in this context.
• Augmenting (बढ़ाना): Means to make something greater by adding to it. Although similar, it is not as precise as "exacerbating" which specifically implies worsening a negative condition.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The past tense "were" is used because the sentence refers to a specific time in the past when the Supreme Court made a decision. (थे)
• The subject "crackers" is plural, and "were" is the correct form to use with a plural subject in the past tense.
• The other options: "are," "is," and "was" do not fit the context as appropriately. "Are" and "is" are present tense, and "was" is singular past tense.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: Concerned about the pollution levels and the role firecrackers played in exacerbating it, the Supreme Court last October banned the sale, use and manufacture of crackers that were not 'green'.

Additional Information

• Are (हैं): Present tense plural, not suitable for past actions.
• Is (है): Present tense singular, not suitable for both plurality and past action.
• Was (था): Past tense singular, not suitable for plural subjects.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "beyond" means past or exceeding a certain limit. In this context, it refers to the crackers not being allowed to be loud beyond a specific level. (से परे)
• The other options: "beside," "beneath," and "behind" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: This meant that these crackers couldn't be loud beyond a certain limit and had to be approved by the Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO).

Additional Information

• Beside (के ��गल में): Means next to or at the side of something. It does not fit this context.
• Beneath (नीचे): Means directly under something. It is not suitable for describing levels of loudness.
• Behind (पीछे): Means at the back of something or in the past. It doesn't fit the context of describing limits.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "approved" means having received official authorization or consent. In this context, it refers to the crackers needing to be approved by the Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO). (स्वीकृत)
• The other options: "endorsed," "resumed," and "added" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: This meant that these crackers couldn't be loud beyond a certain limit and had to be approved by the Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO).

Additional Information

• Endorsed (समर्थित): Means to publicly or officially support someone or something. Although similar to approved, it implies public support which does not fit the regulatory context here.
• Resumed (फिर प्रारंभ किया): Means to begin again or continue after a pause. This does not fit the context of authorization.
• Added (जोड़ा): Means to include something. This does not fit the context of giving official approval.

सही उत्तर है - जीभ

Key Points

• वाक्य - डॉक्टर ने उसे जिह्वा दिखाने को कहा।
• वाक्य में 'जिह्वा' एक तत्सम शब्द है, जबकि इसका तद्भव शब्द 'जीभ' होगा।
• तत्सम - जिन शब्दों को संस्कृत से बिना किसी परिवर्तन के ले लिया जाता है, उन्हें तत्सम शब्द कहते हैं। 
• जैसे - घट, गृह, ग्रन्थि, ज्येष्ठ आदि।
• तद्भव - जिन शब्दों में समय और परिस्थितियों के कारण कुछ परिवर्तन होने से जो शब्द बने हैं, उन्हें तद्भव कहते हैं। 
• जैसे- घड़ा, घर, गाँठ, जेठ आदि।​

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण ​तत्सम और तद्भव शब्द -

कोष्ठक में दिए गए शब्द के पर्यायवाची शब्द का सही विकल्प है - जुगुप्सा

Key Points

• वाक्य - मेरे पड़ोसी की हरकतें ऐसी है कि मुझे उससे (घृणा) जुगुप्सा होने लगी है।
• 'घृणा' शब्द का पर्यायवाची 'जुगुप्सा' होगा।
• 'घृणा' के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द - नफ़रत, घिन, तिरस्कार, अनभिलाष, अनरुचि, अनिच्छा, अप्रीति, अरुचि, अरोच।
• पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -

रिक्त स्थान के लिए सही भाववाचक संज्ञा वाला होगा - बुढ़ापे

Key Points

• यहाँ पर 'बुढ़ापा' शब्द से किसी भाव, अवस्था, गुण, दोष, दशा आदि का पता चल रहा है, अतः यह शब्द भाववाचक संज्ञा है।
• जो शब्द किसी चीज़ या पदार्थ की अवस्था, दशा या भाव का बोध कराते हैं, उन शब्दों को भाववाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।
• जैसे- बचपन, बुढ़ापा, मोटापा, मिठास, उमंग, चढाई, थकावट, मानवता, चतुराई, जवानी, लम्बाई, मित्रता, मुस्कुराहट, अपनापन, भूख, आदि। 
• गुलाबजामुन बहुत मीठे हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

• 'परिवार' एक  समूहवाचक संज्ञा है।
• 'दिन, घर' एक जातिवाचक संज्ञा है।

Important Pointsसंज्ञा-

• किसी भी व्यक्ति, वस्तु, जाति, भाव या स्थान के नाम को संज्ञा कहते हैं।
• जैसे - मनुष्य (जाति), भारत (स्थान), बचपन (भाव), टेबल (वस्तु) आदि।

संज्ञा के भेद -

1. व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा
2. जातिवाचक संज्ञा
3. भाववाचक संज्ञा
4. समुदाय या समूहवाचक संज्ञा
5. द्रव्यवाचक संज्ञा

Additional Information 

रिक्त स्थान के लिए सही शब्द वाला होगा - स्वाभाविक

Key Points

• वाक्य - श्रम के उपरांत थकान होना स्वाभाविक है। 
• 'स्वाभाविक' का अर्थ - प्राकृतिक, नेचुरल।
• अन्य सभी विकल्प के प्रयोग से वाक्य का सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा है।