SSC GD Constable (2024) Official Paper (Held On: 26 Feb, 2024 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

Let's check each option one by one.

Given equation: 18 × 3 - 2 ÷ 4 + 7 = 59

Option 1) 7 and 3

After interchange the numbers we get;

⇒ 18 × 7 - 2 ÷ 4 + 3 = 59

⇒ 18 × 7 - 0.5 + 3 = 59

⇒ 126 - 0.5 + 3 = 59

⇒ 129 - 0.5 = 59

⇒ 128.5 ≠ 59

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) 18 and 4

After interchange the numbers we get;

⇒ 4 × 3 - 2 ÷ 18 + 7 = 59

⇒ 4 × 3 - 0.11 + 7 = 59

⇒ 12 - 0.11 + 7 = 59

⇒ 19 - 0.11 = 59

⇒  18.89 ≠ 59

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) 3 and 2

After interchange the numbers we get;

⇒ 18 × 2 - 3 ÷ 4 + 7 = 59

⇒ 18 × 2 - 0.75 + 7 = 59

⇒ 36 - 0.75 + 7 = 59

⇒ 43 - 0.75 = 59

⇒ 42.25 ≠ 59

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) 2 and 4

After interchange the numbers we get;

⇒ 18 × 3 - 4 ÷ 2 + 7 = 59

⇒ 18 × 3 - 2 + 7 = 59

⇒ 54 - 2 + 7 = 59

⇒ 61 - 2 = 59

⇒ 59 = 59

⇒ LHS = RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

'STOP' is coded as 'VXRT'

Similarly, the code for 'WALK' 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

According to the given information:

1. Eight persons from Reena, Kavita. Raman, Umesh, Rohit, Vikas, Monika and Priya.

2. Reena sits on the immediate right of Rohit and they both sit on the same side.

3. Monika faces the one who is second to the left of Kavita.

4. Monika is sitting fourth to the right of Reena.

5. Two persons sit between Vikas and Umesh (when counted from one side only) and Umesh is adjacent to Rohit.

6. Only one person sits between Monika and Raman (when counted from one side only).

Thus, Monika is sitting second to the left of Umesh.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

Given: M ÷ N × O - P

It means: M is the sister of M, N is the son of O and O is the wife of P.

So, P is the 'Father' of M.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is: 

• Dark dot is shifting +2, +4, +6, ... inside the circle.
• • symbol is shifting +1, +3, +5, ... inside the circle.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Sequence: pq _ s _ rsp _ rspq

Now, putting the letters in the blank spaces given in the option one by one:

Option 1) pqrp → pq p s / q r rs / p p rs / pq 

Option 2) гpqq → pq r s / p q rs / p q rs / pq 

Option 3) гprг→ pq r s / p r rs / p r rs / pq 

Option 4) гrpq→ pq r s / r p rs / p q rs / pq 

Here, 'pqrs' followed a pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct Dictionary order is:

1. CELEBRATE
2. CELEBRITY
3. CELESTIAL
4. CELLO
5. CELLULOID

So, the correct order are: '1, 4, 2, 3, 5'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

BO : DR 

Similarly, FS : HV

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Animal and its offspring.

Here,

Tiger : Cub → Cub is the offspring of a Tiger.

Similarly,

Elephant : Calf → Calf is the offspring of an Elephant.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Statements

All reptiles are amphibians.

Some amphibians are frogs.

Some frogs are turtles.

The least possible Venn diagram:

Conclusion:

I Some amphibians are not reptiles. - False (Because, All reptiles are amphibians so, some amphibians are reptiles but some ,amphibians are not reptiles it is not possible)

II Some turtles are amphibians. - False (Because, there is no direct relation between turtles and amphibians so it can be possible)

So, Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

According to the given information:

The code for 'K' can be 3 or 5 but 5 is not in option. So, code for 'K' = 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: Six people R, S, T, U, V.

V is to the immediate left of T.

Only one person sits between T and R.

R is not sitting next to V.

Only S is in between R and U.

Thus, W is sitting to the immediate left of R.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Let's check each option one by one.

Given equation: 18 × 3 + 15 ÷ 4 - 44 = 22 

Option 1) × and -

After interchange the signs we get;

⇒ 18 - 3 + 15 ÷ 4 × 44 = 22 

⇒ 18 - 3 + 3.75 × 44 = 22 

⇒ 18 - 3 + 165 = 22 

⇒ 183 - 3 = 22 

⇒ 180 ≠ 22

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) × and +

After interchange the signs we get;

⇒ 18 + 3 × 15 ÷ 4 - 44 = 22 

⇒ 18 + 11.25 - 44 = 22 

⇒ 29.25 - 44 = 22 

⇒ -14.75 ≠ 59

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) + and ÷ 

After interchange the signs we get;

⇒ 18 × 3 ÷ 15 + 4 - 44 = 22 

⇒ 3.6 + 4 - 44 = 22 

⇒ 7.6 - 44 = 22

⇒ -36.4 ≠ 22

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4**)** × and ÷

After interchange the signs we get;

⇒ 18 ÷ 3 + 15 × 4 - 44 = 22 

⇒ 6 + 15 × 4 - 44 = 22 

⇒ 6 + 60 - 44 = 22 

⇒ 66 - 44 = 22 

⇒ 22 = 22

⇒ LHS = RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Number of sides decrease in each next figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Abhinaya darpana.

Key Points

• Bharatanatyam originated in Tamil Nadu.
• Bharatanatyam is the oldest Indian classical dance and it originated hundreds of years ago in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu.
• This dance form expresses the religious themes and spiritual ideas of South India.
• The ancient Tamil epic Silappatikaram contains the description of Bharatanatyam.
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi currently confers classical status on eight Indian classical dance styles: Bharatanatyam (Tamil Nadu), Kathak (North, West and Central India), Kathakali (Kerala), Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh), Odissi (Odissa), Manipuri (Manipur), Mohiniyattam (Kerala), and Sattriya (Assam).

Additional Information

• The Indian States and Folk Dances
• Andhra Pradesh- Kuchipudi, Bhamakalpam, Lambadi, Dhimsa, Kolattam, Butta Bommalu.
• Assam- Bihu, Bichhua, Natpuja, Maharas, Kaligopal, Bagurumba, Naga dance, Khel Gopal, Tabal Chongli, Canoe, Jhumura Hobjanai
• Bihar- Jata-Jatin, Bakho-Bakhain, Panwariya, Sama Chakwa, Bidesia.
• Gujarat- Garba, Dandiya Ras, Tippani Juriun, Bhavai.
• Haryana- Jhumar, Phag, Daph, Dhamal, Loor, Gugga, Khor, Gagor.
• Himachal Pradesh- Jhora, Jhali, Chharhi, Dhaman, Chhapeli, Mahasu, Nati, Dangi.
• Jammu and Kashmir- Rauf, Hikat, Mandjas, Kud Dandi Nach, Damali.
• Karnataka- Yakshagan, Huttari, Suggi, Kunitha, Karga, Lambi.
• Kerala- Kathakali (Classical), Ottamthullal, Mohiniattam, Kaikottikali.
• Maharashtra- Lavani, Nakata, Koli, Lezim, Gafa, Dahikala Dasavtar or Bohada.
• Odisha- Odissi (Classical), Savari, Ghumara, Painka, Munari, Chhau.
• West Bengal- Kathi, Gambhira, Dhali, Jatra, Baul, Marasia, Mahal, Keertan.
• Punjab- Bhangra, Giddha, Daff, Dhaman, Bhand, Naqual.
• Rajasthan- Ghumar, Chakri, Ganagor, Jhulan Leela, Jhuma, Suisini, Ghapal, Kalbeliya.
• Tamil Nadu- Bharatanatyam, Kumi, Kolattam, Kavadi.
• Uttar Pradesh- Nautanki, Raslila, Kajri, Jhora, Chappeli, Jaita.
• Uttarakhand- Garhwali, Kumayuni, Kajari, Jhora, Raslila, Chappeli.
• Goa- Tarangamel, Koli, Dekhni, Fugdi, Shigmo, Ghode, Modni, Samayi nrutya, Jagar, Ranmale, Gonph, Tonnya mell.
• Madhya Pradesh- Jawara, Matki, Aada, Khada Nach, Phulpati, Grida Dance, Selalarki, Selabhadoni, Maanch.
• Chhattisgarh- Gaur Maria, Panthi, Raut Nacha, Pandwani, Vedamati, Kapalik, Bharthari Charit, Chandaini.
• Jharkhand- Alkap, Karma Munda, Agni, Jhumar, Janani Jhumar, Mardana Jhumar, Paika, Phagua,Hunta Dance, Mundari Dance, Sarhul, Barao, Jhitka, Danga, Domkach, Ghora Naach.
• Arunachal- Pradesh Buiya, Chalo, Wancho, Pasi Kongki, Ponung, Popir, Bardo Chham.
• Manipur- Dol Cholam, Thang Ta, Lai Haraoba, Pung Cholom, Khamba Thaibi, Nupa Dance, Raslila, Khubak Ishei, Lhou Sha.
• Meghalaya- Ka Shad Suk Mynsiem, Nongkrem, Laho.
• Mizoram- Cheraw Dance, Khuallam, Chailam, Sawlakin, Chawnglaizawn, Zangtalam, Par Lam, Sarlamkai/Solakia, Tlanglam, Bamboo Dance.
• Nagaland- Modse, Agurshikukula, Butterfly Dance, Aaluyattu, Sadal Kekai, Changai Dance, Kuki Dance, Leshalaptu, Khamba Lim, Mayur Dance, Monyoasho, Rengma, Seecha and Kukui Kucho, Shankai and Moyashai.
• Tripura- Hojagiri.
• Sikkim- Chu Faat Dance, Sikmari, Singhi Chaam or the Snow Lion Dance, Yak Chaam, Denzong Gnenha, Tashi Yangku Dance, Khukuri Naach, Chutkey Naach, Maruni Dance.
• Telangana- Dappu Nrityam or Dappu Dance, Lambadi, Perini Sivatandavam, Gusadi and Mayuri.

The correct answer is 2011.

Key Points

• Saxena Committee:
• This committee was formed to advise the Ministry of Rural Development on the suitable methodology for a Below Poverty Line (BPL) census.
• SECC:
• The Socio-Economic and Caste Census was a comprehensive survey aimed at collecting data on the socio-economic status and caste composition of households across India.
• The SECC data was intended to provide a more accurate and inclusive understanding of poverty and deprivation in India, enabling the government to target welfare schemes and resources more effectively.

Additional Information

• The SECC collected information on various socio-economic indicators, including education, occupation, land ownership, housing, and access to basic amenities.
• For the first time in India, the SECC also collected data on caste, providing valuable insights into the social and economic disparities faced by different communities.
• The SECC data was used to identify beneficiaries for various government welfare schemes, such as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), and the National Food Security Act (NFSA).

The correct answer is January.

Key Points

• Lohri
• Lohri, the bonfire harvest festival of Punjab celebrated in the month of Magh, is symbolic of new beginnings.
• The festival is celebrated every year on January 13 with much enthusiasm and zeal.
• It is primarily the harvest festival of the Punjabis.
• This festival denotes the harvesting of the Rabi crops and hence all the farmers get together in order to thank god for giving them such a wonderful harvest.
• The rituals related to Lohri symbolize the attachment of the people with Mother Nature.

The correct answer is Indian Journalism.

Key Points

• James Augustus Hicky was an Irishman who launched the first printed newspaper in India, Hickey's Bengal Gazette.
• The Bombay Samachar, now Mumbai Samachar, is the oldest continuously published newspaper in India established in 1822 by Fardunjee Marzban, it is published in Gujarati and English.
• The Lahore Chronicle was started by Syed Muhammad Azim, father of the Punjab historian, in 1849.
• Hickeys Bengal Gazette or the Original Calcutta General Advertiser was an English language weekly newspaper published in Kolkata (then Calcutta), the capital of British India.
• It was the first newspaper printed in Asia and was published for two years, between 1780 and 1782, before the East India Company seized the newspaper's types and printing press.
• Founded by James Augustus Hickey a highly eccentric Irishman who had previously spent two years in jail for debt, the newspaper was a strong critic of the administration of Governor-General Warren Hastings.
• The newspaper was important for its provocative journalism and its fight for free expression in India.
• Hickey first maintained a neutral editing policy (his slogan was "Open to all Parties, but Influenced by None") but after he learned that competitors with ties to the East India Company were intending to launch a rival newspaper, the India Gazette, he changed his editorial stance.
• Hickey accused an East India Company employee, Simeon Droz, of supporting the India Gazette as punishment for Hickey's refusal to pay a bribe to Droz and Marian Hastings, Warren Hastings' wife.
• Hickey claimed Hastings' order violated his right to free expression and accused Hastings of corruption, tyranny.
• Hickey also accused other British leaders in Calcutta of corruption, including the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William, Elijah Impey of taking bribes, and the leader of the Protestant Mission, Johann Zacharias Kiernander of stealing from an orphaned children's fund.
• Hickey's editorial independence was short-lived as Hastings and Kiernander sued him for libel. After four dramatic trials in June 1781, the Supreme Court found Hickey guilty and sentenced him to jail.
• Hickey continued to print his newspaper from jail and continued to accuse Hastings and others of corruption.

The correct answer is Ali Ahmad Hussain.

Key Points

• Ali Ahmad Hussain Khan was a renowned shehnai player.
• He passed away on March 16, 2016, in Kolkata, West Bengal.
• He was known for his innovative style and mastery over the Indian classical, semi-classical and folk music reportoire.

Additional Information

• Shehnai:
• Traditional Indian wind instrument
  
• Double reed instrument
  
• Often used in North Indian weddings and processions
  
• Produces a loud, clear, and penetrating sound
  
• Made from wood, with a metal bell at the end

The correct answer is sodium.

Key Points

• sodium
• Sodium metal is stored in Kerosene.
• Metals such as sodium, Potassium are highly reactive and they catch fire if they kept in open, hence these metals are immersed in kerosene to prevent their oxidation.
• Reactive elements displace the less reactive elements in a chemical reaction.
• The reactive element loose electrons readily to attain stable electronic configuration and thus reduce another element and oxidize themselves.

Additional Information

• The order of reactivity of metals is given below.

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

• Bastar Dussehra spans over 75 days starting around August and ending in October.
• It is thus the longest Dussehra celebration in the world.
• It involves the participation of diverse tribes and castes.
• Bastar is celebrated in Dandakarnya, where Lord Rama is believed to have spent the 14 years of his exile.
• During this festival, the reputed Raj family of Bastar even arrange worship sessions in which the ancient arms of the Goddess Danteswari are treated as divine elements.
• The festival involves rituals of extraordinary rigor like a girl swinging on a bed of thorns; a youth (Jogi) sitting in vigil, buried shoulder-deep, for nine days, etc.
• One of the most awaited events is the rath yatra. It is made new each year using tribal tools and methods and the sight of 400 persons pulling a large chariot is an experience by itself.

The correct answer is Third.

Key Points

• Though the planned economic development in India began in 1951 with the inception of the First Five Year Plan, theoretical efforts had begun much earlier, even prior to the independence.
• Setting up of National Planning Committee by Indian National Congress in 1938, The Bombay Plan & Gandhian Plan in 1944, Peoples Plan in 1945 (by post-war reconstruction Committee of Indian Trade Union), Sarvodaya Plan in 1950 by Jaiprakash Narayan stepped in this direction.
• Five-Year Plans (FYPs) :
• Five-Year Plans centralized and integrated national economic programs.
• Joseph Stalin implemented the first FYP in the Soviet Union in the late 1920s.
• Most communist states and several capitalist countries subsequently have adopted them.
• China and India both continue to use FYPs.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Prakash Padukone.

Key Points

• Prakash Padukone became the first Indian to win the prestigious All England Badminton Championship in 1980.
• Prakash Padukone defeated Indonesia's Liem Swie King, a top player of that era, in the final with a score of 15–3, 15–10.
• Along with the All England title, Padukone won many other international titles and became a trailblazer for Indian badminton players worldwide.
• He was honored with the Arjuna Award in 1972, recognizing his excellence and contribution to Indian sports, particularly badminton.
• In 1982, Prakash Padukone received the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award, for his outstanding achievements in badminton.

Additional Information

• Kiran Bedi
• Kiran Bedi became the first woman to join the Indian Police Service (IPS) in 1972, breaking gender barriers in law enforcement.
• She was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award for Government Service in 1994 for her pioneering reforms in the Indian prison system, particularly at Tihar Jail.
• She was Inspector General of Tihar Jail, she introduced several innovative reforms focused on education, meditation, and rehabilitation for inmates.
• Kiran Bedi served as the Lieutenant Governor of Puducherry from 2016 to 2021, contributing to the administration and governance of the Union Territory.
• Sachin Tendulkar
• Sachin Tendulkar is the only cricketer in the world to score 100 international centuries (51 in Test cricket and 49 in One-Day Internationals).
• He was at the age of 17, Tendulkar became the youngest Indian to score a Test century, achieving this milestone against England at Old Trafford in 1990.
• In 2010, Tendulkar became the first player in history to score a double century in a One-Day International, against South Africa.
• He was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian honor, in 2014, becoming the first sportsperson to receive this recognition.
• Dhyan Chand
• Dhyan Chand earned the nickname "The Wizard" for his extraordinary ball control and dribbling abilities on the hockey field.
• He won three Olympic gold medals in field hockey for India in 1928 (Amsterdam), 1932 (Los Angeles), and 1936 (Berlin).
• Dhyan Chand is regarded as one of the greatest field hockey players in history, known for his exceptional goal-scoring skills.
• His birthday, August 29, is celebrated as National Sports Day in India, honoring his contributions to Indian sports.

Important Points

• Other famous Indian badminton players:
• Pullela Gopichand
• He won the All England Badminton Championship in 2001, becoming the second Indian to achieve this feat after Prakash Padukone.
• Saina Nehwal
• Saina Nehwal became the first Indian badminton player to win an Olympic medal (bronze) at the 2012 London Olympics and has held the world No. 1 ranking in women's singles.
• P.V. Sindhu:
• P.V. Sindhu won a silver medal at the 2016 Rio Olympics, a bronze at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics, and became the first Indian to win the BWF World Championships (gold in 2019).
• Kidambi Srikanth
• Kidambi Srikanth became the first Indian male badminton player to win four Super Series titles in a calendar year (2017), and he achieved the world No. 1 ranking in 2018.
• Lakshya Sen
• A rising star in Indian badminton, Lakshya Sen won the bronze medal at the 2021 BWF World Championships and the gold medal at the 2022 Commonwealth Games.

The correct answer is Nandini Gupta.

Key Points

• Nandini Gupta was crowned Femina Miss India World 2023, representing the state of Rajasthan.
• She pursued her bachelor's degree in Business Management from Lala Lajpat Rai College, located in Mumbai.
• Nandini Gupta was born and raised in Kota, a city known for its educational institutions in Rajasthan.
• She cites Ratan Tata, the renowned Indian industrialist and philanthropist, as one of her major inspirations.
• After winning the Miss India title, Nandini will represent India at the prestigious Miss World 2023 competition, carrying forward India's legacy on the global stage.

Additional Information

• Thounaojam Strela Luwang
• Thounaojam Strela Luwang is Femina Miss India 2023 1st runner-up.
• She hails from Manipur, a state in northeastern India.
• Strela Luwang is known for her passion for social causes and actively advocates for mental health awareness.
• Femina Miss India World 
• Femina Miss India World is one of the most esteemed beauty pageants in India, organized annually by The Times Group.
• The winner of Femina Miss India World represents India at the Miss World competition, showcasing talent, beauty, and cultural heritage on an international platform.
• Many former winners, such as Priyanka Chopra, Aishwarya Rai Bachchan, and Sushmita Sen, have gone on to achieve significant success in both national and international arenas, including acting and philanthropy.

The correct answer is Iran.

Key Points

• The Asian Kabaddi Championship 2023 was held at the Dong-Eui Institute of Technology Seokdang Cultural Center in Busan, Republic of Korea, showcasing top teams from across Asia.
• India emerged victorious against Iran, successfully defending their title and continuing their dominance in the sport.
• The Indian team featured standout performances from key players, contributing significantly to their win through effective strategies and teamwork.
• This victory reaffirmed India’s status as a powerhouse in kabaddi, adding to its rich legacy in the sport and highlighting its popularity across Asia.

Additional Information

• Asian Kabaddi Championship:
• The Asian Kabaddi Championship is a prestigious tournament that promotes the sport of kabaddi among Asian countries and features teams competing for the title.
• Established in 2000, the championship has been held periodically, with India being the most successful nation in its history.
• The tournament usually includes a round-robin stage followed by knockout rounds, featuring top kabaddi teams from countries like India, Iran, Pakistan, and Bangladesh.
• The championship enhances the popularity of kabaddi, providing a platform for emerging players and fostering international competition and sportsmanship.

The correct answer is Depreciation.

Key Points

• Gross National Product (GNP) measures the total value of all goods and services produced by a country's residents within a specific time period, including income earned by residents from investments abroad.
• Depreciation accounts for the reduction in value of capital goods over time due to wear and tear or obsolescence.
• By subtracting depreciation from GNP, you arrive at Net National Product (NNP), which reflects the actual value of goods and services produced, taking into account the loss of value in capital assets.
• The formula can be summarized as: NNP=GNP−Depreciation.

Additional Information

• Subsidies
• Subsidies are government financial assistance provided to individuals or businesses to promote economic activity and reduce costs.
• They include direct cash payments, tax breaks, price supports, and grants.
• Subsidies can stimulate growth and lower consumer prices but may also cause market distortions and strain government budgets.
• Common examples include agricultural subsidies, energy subsidies for renewables, and education subsidies for higher education.
• Indirect taxes
• Indirect taxes are taxes levied on goods and services rather than on income or profits, meaning they are not directly paid by the individual but are passed on through the price of goods.
• Common forms of indirect taxes include sales tax, value-added tax (VAT), excise duty, and customs duty.
• Indirect taxes increase the cost of goods and services, which can lead to higher prices for consumers, making them less visible than direct taxes.
• Indirect taxes are a significant source of revenue for governments, as they are easier to collect and can be applied to a wide range of products and services.
• Personal income
• Personal income refers to the total earnings received by an individual from various sources, including wages, salaries, investments, rental income, and government benefits.
• It includes wages, bonuses, interest income, dividends, rents, and any other forms of earnings before taxes are deducted.
• Personal income is a key indicator of an individual's economic health and purchasing power, influencing consumption, savings, and overall economic activity.
• Personal income is subject to income tax, which varies based on the individual's income level and applicable tax laws in their country or region.

The correct answer is 30.

Key Points

• Article 80 of the Indian Constitution, the minimum age to become a member of the Rajya Sabha is 30 years.
• The Rajya Sabha is composed of a maximum of 250 members, of which 238 are elected by the Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union territories, and 12 are appointed by the President of India.
• Members of the Rajya Sabha serve a term of six years, with one-third of the members retiring every two years, ensuring continuity in the house.
• Besides age, candidates must be citizens of India and should not be disqualified under any law made by Parliament, as outlined in Article 84 of the Constitution.
• The Rajya Sabha plays a crucial role in representing the states and union territories at the national level, contributing to the legislative process, and reviewing legislation passed by the Lok Sabha.

Additional Information

• Lok Sabha
• The minimum age to become a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years, as per Article 84 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Lok Sabha consists of 545 members, with 543 elected by the public and 2 appointed by the President (though the latter provision has been abolished).
• Members serve a term of five years, unless the house is dissolved earlier.
• Candidates must be Indian citizens and not disqualified under any law, as specified in Article 102.
• President and Vice President
• According to Article 58 of the Indian Constitution, the minimum age to become the President of India is 35 years.
• To be eligible for the presidency, a candidate must be a citizen of India, he candidate must be eligible to be a member of either the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, and must not hold any office of profit under the Government, as stated in Article 58.
• As per Article 66, the minimum age to become the Vice President of India is also 35 years.

Important Points

• Panchayat (local self-government) in India:
• The minimum age to contest in Panchayat elections is 21 years, as specified in Article 243F of the Indian Constitution.
• The Panchayati Raj system is a three-tier system of local self-government in rural areas, consisting of the Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zilla Parishad (district level).
• The specific rules and regulations governing Panchayat elections, including age and eligibility criteria, may vary slightly from state to state, as each state has the authority to enact its own Panchayat laws.

The correct answer is Two.

Key Points

• Indigenous Origin Theory
• This theory suggests that iron smelting and production developed independently in India based on early evidence of iron use in various regions of the country.
• Notably, iron artifacts dating back to around 1000 BCE have been discovered in southern India.
• Diffusion Theory
• This theory posits that iron technology was introduced to India through cultural diffusion from the Near East or Central Asia, likely via trade or migration.
• It suggests that iron smelting knowledge spread across regions, arriving in India during the second millennium BCE.

Additional Information

• Impact on Society
• The introduction and independent development of iron technology significantly transformed ancient Indian society, contributing to advancements in agriculture (with iron plows), warfare (with iron weapons), and overall economic development.
• Archaeological Evidence
• Sites like Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, and Andhra Pradesh also reveal extensive use of iron, showcasing its importance in various cultural and technological contexts throughout ancient India.
• Historical Context
• The transition from the Bronze Age to the Iron Age marked a crucial turning point in Indian history, leading to the rise of urbanization and complex societies.

Important Points

• Bronze was prominently used during the Indus Valley Civilization (around 3300–1300 BCE), which is one of the earliest urban cultures in India.
• The civilization showcased advanced metallurgy techniques, including the casting of bronze.
• Various bronze artifacts, including tools, weapons, and decorative items, have been discovered at archaeological sites such as Mohenjo-Daro and Harappa.
• These items indicate the sophisticated level of craftsmanship and metalworking skills in ancient Indian society.
• The transition from the Bronze Age to the Iron Age in India marked a significant shift in technology and society.
• While bronze was essential for various tools and weapons, the advent of iron metallurgy around 1000 BCE led to advancements in agriculture, warfare, and trade.

The correct answer is ​Health and Family Welfare.

Key Points

• The National Dental Commission Bill, 2023 aims to establish a national framework for the regulation of dental education and practice in India.
• The Bill proposes the establishment of the National Dental Commission (NDC), which will be responsible for formulating policies for dental education and practice, as well as maintaining a registry of dental professionals in India.
• The NDC will regulate dental colleges, set educational standards, and accredit dental institutions.
• It aligns with the Ministry's broader goals to enhance healthcare delivery by integrating dental care into overall health policies.

Additional Information

• Finance Ministry of India
• The Finance Ministry formulates and implements financial policies, manages the economic framework, and oversees the national budget, taxation, and public expenditure.
• It prepares the annual Union Budget, detailing government spending and revenue plans, and presents it in Parliament to ensure fiscal discipline.
• The ministry develops economic policies aimed at promoting sustainable growth, managing inflation, and ensuring financial stability.
• It comprises several departments, including the Department of Economic Affairs, Department of Revenue, Department of Expenditure, and Department of Financial Services, each handling specific aspects of financial governance .
• Ministry of Commerce and Industry
• The Ministry is responsible for formulating and implementing policies related to international and domestic trade to promote exports and manage imports.
• It plays a crucial role in boosting industrial growth, supporting businesses, and fostering investment opportunities to enhance economic development.
• The Ministry works to improve the ease of doing business by simplifying regulations, encouraging foreign direct investment (FDI), and promoting entrepreneurship.
• Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
• Formulates policies for social justice for marginalized groups, including Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
• Focuses on empowering women, children, and persons with disabilities through various schemes for equal opportunities.
• Oversees programs to improve living standards of vulnerable populations, providing financial assistance and skill development.
• Develops and implements laws like the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act to ensure protection and rights for marginalized communities.

The correct answer is Promoting heavy industries.

Key Points

• The Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) was established in 1964 under an Act of Parliament. Initially, it functioned as a wholly owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India.
• In 1976, the Union Government of India took over ownership of IDBI, marking a significant shift in control of the financial institution.
• IDBI transformed into a commercial bank in 2004 to align with developments in India's financial sector, enhancing its operational capabilities.
• MBA Skool offers a SWOT analysis of IDBI Bank, detailing its target market, segmentation, positioning, and unique selling proposition.
• IDBI Bank plays a crucial role in the Indian economy, initially established to provide credit and financial facilities for developing Indian industries.

Additional Information

• Supporting agricultural cooperatives
• Supporting agricultural cooperatives often includes providing financial aid, such as low-interest loans and grants, to help farmers access necessary resources for production and expansion.
• Training and capacity-building programs are organized to enhance the skills of cooperative members, improving their knowledge of sustainable farming practices and efficient management.
• Agricultural cooperatives receive support to improve their market access through collective marketing strategies, ensuring better prices and reducing exploitation by intermediaries.
• Encouraging small-scale industries
• Governments and financial institutions provide loans, grants, and subsidies to small-scale industries to facilitate startup costs and expansion efforts.
• Initiatives are launched to enhance the skills of the workforce in SSIs through training programs, helping improve productivity and competitiveness.
• Small-scale industries receive support in the form of marketing assistance, exhibitions, and trade fairs to promote their products and enhance market visibility.
• Governments implement favorable policies and regulations, including tax benefits and simplified compliance requirements, to create a conducive environment for the growth of small-scale industries.
• Providing housing loans
• Banks offer housing loans with competitive interest rates and flexible repayment options, making homeownership more accessible to a broader population.
• Financial institutions provide various types of housing loans, including home purchase loans, home improvement loans, and construction loans, catering to different customer needs.
• Many banks participate in government housing schemes, such as Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), which provide additional subsidies and benefits for low- and middle-income families seeking housing loans.

The correct answer is Pakistan.

Key Points

• The first Men’s Hockey World Cup was held in 1971 in Barcelona, Spain, from October 15 to 24.
• Pakistan defeated Spain 1-0 in the final to claim the title.
• Pakistan's dominance in world hockey continued, as they went on to win the World Cup two more times: in 1978 (Buenos Aires, Argentina) and 1982 (Mumbai, India).
• After the 1971 tournament, the Hockey World Cup became a quadrennial event, growing in stature and importance over the years.

Important Points The current winner of the 2023 Men's Hockey World Cup is Germany. They secured the title by defeating Belgium in a penalty shootout after the match ended in a 3-3 draw​.

The correct answer is 2002.

Key Points

• The last Fundamental Duty was added to Article 51A of the Indian Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act in 2002.
• This amendment inserted Clause (k), which states: "It shall be the duty of every parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to their child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen years."
• This duty was added to complement the Right to Education, which became a fundamental right under Article 21A through the same amendment, ensuring free and compulsory education for children in this age group.
• It strengthens the Directive Principles of State Policy by creating a legal obligation for parents to ensure their children receive an education.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Key Points

• The India-Bangladesh border is approximately 4,096 kilometers long, making it the longest international border India shares with any country.
• The border between India and Pakistan is about 3,323 kilometers.
• The border with Nepal measures around 1,751 kilometers.
• The borders with China and Bhutan are approximately 3,488 kilometers and 699 kilometers, respectively.

The correct answer is Boxing.

Key Points

• Vikas Krishan Yadav is an Indian sportsperson who competes in boxing.
• Vikas has represented India in several international competitions, including the Olympics.
• He gained significant recognition after winning a bronze medal at the 2011 World Boxing Championships held in Baku, Azerbaijan, and has also competed in the 2012 London Olympics and the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
• Vikas has also won multiple medals at the Asian Championships, further establishing his status as one of India's top boxers.

Additional Information

Given:

E, F, and G together can complete a work in 20 days.

E and F together can complete the same work in 50 days.

Formula Used:

Work done by E, F, and G together in 1 day = 1/20

Work done by E and F together in 1 day = 1/50

Work done by G alone in 1 day = Work done by (E, F, and G) - Work done by (E and F)

Calculation:

Work done by E, F, and G together in 1 day = 1/20

Work done by E and F together in 1 day = 1/50

⇒ Work done by G alone in 1 day = (1/20) - (1/50)

⇒ Work done by G alone in 1 day = (5 - 2) / 100

⇒ Work done by G alone in 1 day = 3 / 100

⇒ G alone can finish the work in 100/3 days

The correct answer is option 2.

Given:

Present population of the town = 91260

Rate of increase per year = 30%

Formula Used:

Population 2 years ago = Present population / (1 + rate of increase)²

Calculation:

Population 2 years ago = 91260 / (1 + 0.30)²

Population 2 years ago = 91260 / (1.30)²

Population 2 years ago = 91260 / 1.69

⇒ Population 2 years ago = 54000

The population of the town 2 years ago was 54000.

Given:

A is thrice as fast as B and B is twice as fast as C.

C covers the journey in 66 minutes.

Formula Used:

Time taken by A = Time taken by C / (Speed of A / Speed of C)

Calculation:

Speed of B = 2 × Speed of C

Speed of A = 3 × Speed of B = 3 × (2 × Speed of C) = 6 × Speed of C

⇒ Time taken by A = Time taken by C / 6

⇒ Time taken by A = 66 / 6

⇒ Time taken by A = 11 minutes

The time taken by A is 11 minutes.

Given:

Ratio of two numbers = 8 ∶ 9

Sum of the two numbers = 102

Formula Used:

Let the two numbers be 8x and 9x.

Sum of the two numbers = 8x + 9x = 17x

Difference between the two numbers = 9x - 8x = x

Calculation:

Given sum of the two numbers:

8x + 9x = 102

⇒ 17x = 102

⇒ x = 102 / 17

⇒ x = 6

Difference between the two numbers = x = 6

The difference between the two numbers is 6.

Given:

$\frac{81}{13} \div\left(\frac{176}{16}-\frac{98}{49}\right) \times \frac{2197}{169}$

Formula Used:

Calculation:

$\frac{81}{13} \div\left(\frac{176}{16}-\frac{98}{49}\right) \times \frac{2197}{169}$

⇒ $\frac{81}{13} \div\left(11-2\right) \times \frac{2197}{169}$

⇒ $\frac{81}{13} \div\left(9\right) \times \frac{2197}{169}$

⇒ $\frac{81}{13} \times \frac{1}{9} \times \frac{2197}{169}$

⇒ $\frac{81}{13} \times \frac{1}{9} \times 13$

⇒ $\frac{9}{13} \times 13$

⇒ 9

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Given:

14 × 8 + 42 × 9 - 111 ÷ 3

Formula Used:

Calculation:

First, perform the multiplications and division:

14 × 8 = 112

42 × 9 = 378

111 ÷ 3 = 37

Next, perform the addition and subtraction:

⇒ 112 + 378 - 37

⇒ 490 - 37

⇒ 453

The correct answer is option 4, 453.

Given:

X alone can complete the work in 20 days.

Y alone can complete the work in 50 days.

They work together for 5 days.

Formula Used:

Work done by X in 1 day = 1/20

Work done by Y in 1 day = 1/50

Total work done by X and Y in 1 day = (1/20) + (1/50)

Remaining work after 5 days = Total work - Work done in 5 days

Time taken by Y to finish remaining work = Remaining work / Work done by Y in 1 day

Calculation:

Work done by X in 1 day = 1/20

Work done by Y in 1 day = 1/50

Total work done by X and Y in 1 day = (1/20) + (1/50)

Total work done by X and Y in 1 day = $\frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{50}$

Total work done by X and Y in 1 day = $\frac{5 + 2}{100}$

Total work done by X and Y in 1 day = $\frac{7}{100}$

Work done by X and Y in 5 days = 5 × $\frac{7}{100}$

Work done by X and Y in 5 days = $\frac{35}{100}$

Work done by X and Y in 5 days = 0.35

Remaining work after 5 days = 1 - 0.35

Remaining work after 5 days = 0.65

Time taken by Y to finish remaining work = Remaining work / Work done by Y in 1 day

Time taken by Y to finish remaining work = 0.65 / (1/50)

Time taken by Y to finish remaining work = 0.65 × 50

Time taken by Y to finish remaining work = 32.5 days

The correct answer is option 3.

Given:

Amount = Rs. 49766.4

Principal = Rs. 24000

Time = 2 years

Formula used:

Amount when interest is compounded half-yearly = P[1 + (R/200)]2T

P = Principal

R = Rate of interest

T = Time taken

Calculation:

According to the question,

49766.4 = 24000[1 + (R/200)]4

⇒ 49766.4/24000 = [1 + (R/200)]4

⇒ (6/5) - 1 = R/200

⇒ R = 40

∴ Rate of interest = 40%

Shortcut Trick

Average of 11 consecutive odd numbers is the middle term, which is the 6^th term = X.

The last 6 numbers are the 12^th, 13^th, 14^th, 15^th, 16^th, and 17^th terms.

Average of these 6 numbers is the mid-point between the 14^th and 15^th terms (i.e., 14.5^th position).

Difference in positions = 14.5 − 6 = 8.5 steps.

Since the difference between consecutive odd numbers is 2, the total increase = 8.5 × 2 = 17.

∴ The correct answer is X + 17.

Alternate Method

Given: Total numbers = 17, Average of first 11 = X.

Formula: For an Arithmetic Progression (AP), Average = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2.

⇒ Let the 17 numbers be a₁, a₂, ..., a₁₇ with common difference d = 2.

⇒ Average of first 11 numbers = a₆ = X.

⇒ 12^th number (a₁₂) = a₆ + (12 − 6) × 2 = X + 6 × 2 = X + 12.

⇒ 17^th number (a₁₇) = a₆ + (17 − 6) × 2 = X + 11 × 2 = X + 22.

⇒ Average of last 6 numbers (from a₁₂ to a₁₇) = (a₁₂ + a₁₇) ÷ 2.

⇒ Average = (X + 12 + X + 22) ÷ 2 = (2X + 34) ÷ 2.

⇒ Average = X + 17.

∴ The correct answer is X + 17.

Additional Information

Consecutive Numbers Property

For any odd number of terms in an AP, the average is exactly the middle term.

Common Difference

For consecutive odd or consecutive even numbers, the common difference (d) is always 2.

Average of AP

The average of any subset of an AP is the arithmetic mean of its first and last terms: (a + l) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

L is 3 times more than M ⇒ L = M + 3M = 4M.

The ratio of L : M is 4 : 1.

M is less than L by 3 units out of 4 units.

Percentage less = (3 ÷ 4) × 100 = 75%.

∴ The correct answer is 75%.

Alternate Method

Given: L is 3 times more than M.

Formula Used: Percentage Less = [(Difference) ÷ (Base Value)] × 100

M = 1 unit

L = M + 3M = 4 units

Difference = 3 units

% Less = (3 / 4) × 100 = 75%

Let the value of M be 100.

⇒ L = M + (3 × M)

⇒ L = 100 + 300 = 400

Now, we need to find how much percentage M is less than L:

⇒ Difference = L − M = 400 − 100 = 300

⇒ Percentage Less = (Difference ÷ L) × 100

⇒ Percentage Less = (300 ÷ 400) × 100

⇒ Percentage Less = (3 ÷ 4) × 100 = 75%

∴ The correct answer is 75%.

Additional Information

Interpretation of "Times More"

If A is "n times more" than B, then A = B + nB = (n+1)B. If A is simply "n times" B, then A = nB.

Percentage Comparison Rule

If A is x% more than B, then B is [x / (100 + x)] × 100% less than A.

Base Value Selection

In percentage comparison, the word after "than" or "of" usually represents the base value (denominator) in the calculation.

Given:

Expression: 15 - (2 × 4) + 7

Formula Used:

Use the BODMAS/BIDMAS rule to solve the expression.

Calculation:

First, solve the multiplication inside the parentheses:

⇒ 15 - (2 × 4) + 7

⇒ 15 - 8 + 7

Next, perform the subtraction and addition from left to right:

⇒ 7 + 7

⇒ 14

The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

Marked price (MP) = 160% of Cost Price (CP)

Discount = 35%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP - (Discount% of MP)

Profit% = ((SP - CP) / CP) × 100

Calculation:

Let CP = ₹100

MP = 160% of ₹100

MP = 160

Discount = 35% of ₹160

Discount = 160 × (35 / 100)

Discount = 56

SP = MP - Discount

SP = 160 - 56

SP = 104

Profit% = ((SP - CP) / CP) × 100

Profit% = ((104 - 100) / 100) × 100

Profit% = (4 / 100) × 100

Profit% = 4

The profit percentage is 4 percent.

Given:

Marked price of the article = Rs. 1960

Discount = 30%

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Marked Price - (Discount% × Marked Price)

Calculation:

Discount Amount = 30% × 1960

Discount Amount = 0.30 × 1960

Discount Amount = 588

Selling Price = 1960 - 588

Selling Price = 1372

The selling price of the article is Rs. 1372.

Given:

Profit earned on mobile = 250% of cost price

Cost price increases by 50%

Selling price remains the same

Formula Used:

Profit Percentage = $\frac{Selling Price - Cost Price}{Cost Price} × 100$

Calculation:

Let the original cost price be CP .

Original profit = 250% of CP

Original profit = 2.5 × CP

Selling Price (SP) = CP + 2.5 ×  CP

Selling Price (SP) = 3.5 × CP

New Cost Price = CP + 50% of CP

New Cost Price = CP + 0.5 × CP

New Cost Price = 1.5 × CP

New Profit = Selling Price - New Cost Price

New Profit = 3.5 × CP - 1.5 × CP

New Profit = 2 × CP

New Profit Percentage = $\frac{New Profit}{New Cost Price} × 100$

New Profit Percentage =$\frac{2 × CP}{1.5 × CP} × 100$

New Profit Percentage = $\frac{2}{1.5} × 100$

New Profit Percentage = $\frac{200}{1.5}$

New Profit Percentage = 133.33%

The new profit percentage is 133.33%, hence the correct answer is option 3.

Given:

Length of the first piece of wood = 91 m.

Length of the second piece of wood = 112 m.

Length of the third piece of wood = 49 m.

Formula Used:

Greatest Possible Length of Each Plank = Greatest Common Divisor (GCD) of the lengths of the pieces of wood

Calculation:

First, find the GCD of 91, 112, and 49.

Prime factorization of 91 = 7 × 13

Prime factorization of 112 = 2⁴ × 7

Prime factorization of 49 = 7 × 7

Common factor = 7

Therefore, GCD(91, 112, 49) = 7

The greatest possible length of each plank is 7 m.

Given:

Principal amount = P

Simple interest rate per annum = 8%

Time = 2 years

Interest earned = $320

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100

Calculation:

Given SI = $320

Rate = 8%

Time = 2 years

Using the formula for simple interest:

SI = (P × 8 × 2) / 100

⇒ 320 = (P × 16) / 100

⇒ 320 = 0.16P

⇒ P = 320 / 0.16

⇒ P = 2000

The principal amount is $2000.

Given:

P ∶ Q = 5 ∶ 3

Q ∶ R = 2 ∶ 5

Formula Used:

To find Q ∶ (P + R), first find the common term Q in both ratios.

Calculation:

From P ∶ Q = 5 ∶ 3, we can write:

P/Q = 5/3

From Q ∶ R = 2 ∶ 5, we can write:

Q/R = 2/5

We need to make the Q term the same in both ratios. The least common multiple of 3 and 2 is 6.

So, we convert P ∶ Q and Q ∶ R to have the same Q value:

P ∶ Q = 5 ∶ 3 = 10 ∶ 6 (Multiplying both terms by 2)

Q ∶ R = 2 ∶ 5 = 6 ∶ 15 (Multiplying both terms by 3)

Now, P ∶ Q ∶ R = 10 ∶ 6 ∶ 15

To find Q ∶ (P + R):

P + R = 10 + 15 = 25

So, Q ∶ (P + R) = 6 ∶ 25

The value of Q ∶ (P + R) is 6 ∶ 25.

Given:

Selling price (SP) of a shirt = 35% of its cost price (CP).

Formula Used:

Loss Percentage = ((Cost Price - Selling Price) / Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

Let the Cost Price (CP) of the shirt be 100 units.

Selling Price (SP) = 35% of CP = 35 units.

Loss = CP - SP = 100 - 35 = 65 units.

Loss Percentage = (Loss / CP) × 100

Loss Percentage = (65 / 100) × 100

Loss Percentage = 65%

The loss percentage is 65%.

Given:

Perimeter of the rectangular table = 70 metre

Area of the rectangular table = 300 metre²

Formula Used:

Perimeter of a rectangle = 2 × (Length + Breadth)

Area of a rectangle = Length × Breadth

Diagonal of a rectangle = $\sqrt{Length^2 + Breadth^2}$

Calculation:

Let Length = L and Breadth = B

Given, 2 × (L + B) = 70

⇒ L + B = 35 ... (i)

Also, L × B = 300 ... (ii)

From equation (i), B = 35 - L

Substitute in equation (ii):

L × (35 - L) = 300

⇒ 35L - L² = 300

⇒ L² - 35L + 300 = 0

Solving this quadratic equation:

L = $\frac{35 ± \sqrt{35^2 - 4 × 300}}{2}$

L = $\frac{35 ± \sqrt{1225 - 1200}}{2}$

L = $\frac{35 ± \sqrt{25}}{2}$

L = $\frac{35 ± 5}{2}$

L = 20 or L = 15

Using L + B = 35:

If L = 20, then B = 15

If L = 15, then B = 20

Diagonal = $\sqrt{L^2 + B^2}$

Diagonal = $\sqrt{20^2 + 15^2}$

Diagonal = $\sqrt{400 + 225}$

Diagonal = $\sqrt{625}$

Diagonal = 25 metre

The length of the diagonal is 25 metre.

Given:

The average age of Seeta and Geeta is 40 years.

If Reetu replaces Seeta, then the average age will become 38 years.

If Reetu replaces Geeta, then the average age will become 42 years.

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of ages) / (Number of people)

Calculation:

Let the ages of Seeta, Geeta, and Reetu be S, G, and R respectively.

From the given data:

(S + G) / 2 = 40

⇒ S + G = 80

(R + G) / 2 = 38

⇒ R + G = 76

(S + R) / 2 = 42

⇒ S + R = 84

We now have the following system of equations:

1. S + G = 80

2. R + G = 76

3. S + R = 84

To find the values of S, G, and R, we solve these equations:

From equation 1 and 2, subtract equation 2 from equation 1:

S + G - (R + G) = 80 - 76

⇒ S - R = 4 ----(4)

From equation 3 and 4, add equation 3 and equation 4:

S + R + S - R = 84 + 4

⇒ 2S = 88

⇒ S = 44

Substitute S = 44 into equation 1:

44 + G = 80

⇒ G = 36

Substitute G = 36 into equation 2:

R + 36 = 76

⇒ R = 40

The respective ages of Seeta, Geeta, and Reetu are 44 years, 36 years, and 40 years.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The word "entreprenurial" is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "entrepreneurial" which refers to having the qualities or spirit of an entrepreneur. (उद्यमी)
• Example: His entrepreneurial skills helped him establish a successful startup.
• "Entrepreneurial" means characterized by the taking of financial risks in the hope of profit; enterprising. (उद्यमी)
• Example: She has an entrepreneurial spirit that drives her to innovate and take on new challenges.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Acumen (तीव्रता): The ability to make good judgments and quick decisions, typically in a particular domain.
• Example: His business acumen led the company to unprecedented success.
• Peers (साथी): People who are equal to another in abilities, qualifications, age, background, and social status.
• Example: She is highly respected by her peers in the academic community.
• Business (व्यवसाय): The practice of making one's living by engaging in commerce.
• Example: He runs a successful business that exports organic food products.

The correct answer is '3' quiet old town once more.

Key Points

• The existing phrase "quite old town one more" is not grammatically correct and does not convey a clear meaning.
• The correct phrase should use "quiet" instead of "quite" because it pertains to an adjective describing the town as peaceful.
• The corrected phrase should be "quiet old town once more" to make the sentence meaningful and grammatically accurate.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• "Quiet" and "quite" are often confused but have different meanings: "quiet" means silent or peaceful, whereas "quite" means completely or very.
• The phrase "once more" means again, fitting well in this context to indicate a repeated experience.
• Adjective-noun arrangements in English require careful choice to ensure the adjectives accurately describe the nouns.

The correct answer is 'break'.

Key Points

• The phrase "break of day" is an idiomatic expression that means early morning or dawn. It is the most appropriate expression to fit in the blank.
• The other options: "breach," "brake," and "breech" do not fit the context.
• A "breach" refers to breaking a rule or agreement, a "brake" is a device for stopping a vehicle, and "breech" generally refers to the back part of a gun barrel or the buttocks of a human body.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: In the morning we were up at break of day, and down to the nigger cabins to pet the dogs.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. No improvement.

Key Points

• The given sentence "I can make fresh coffee if you'd like some" is grammatically correct.
• The modal verb "can" is appropriately used to indicate the ability to make fresh coffee.
• The phrase "fresh coffee" accurately describes coffee that is newly made.
• None of the other options provide a grammatically correct or contextually appropriate improvement.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Modal verbs like "can" are useful to express ability, possibility, and permission.
• Adjectives such as "fresh" are used to describe nouns and should fit contextually and grammatically.
• When no improvement is needed, recognizing correctly formed sentences is key in language proficiency.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The word "purview" means the range of experience or thought; the scope of the influence or concerns of something. (सीमा)
• Example: The new law falls within the purview of the federal government.
• "Domain" refers to an area of territory owned or controlled by a particular ruler or government; a specified sphere of activity or knowledge. (क्षेत्र)
• Example: Her expertise lies in the domain of artificial intelligence and machine learning.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'purview' is 'domain'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Depth (गहराई): The distance from the top or surface to the bottom of something.
• Example: The depth of the ocean is still largely unexplored.
• Limitation (सीमा): A restriction or boundary.
• Example: Every system has its limitations, and we need to work within them.
• Extreme (चरम): Reaching a high or the highest degree; very great.
• Example: The extreme weather conditions made it difficult to travel.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The idiom "Pull a fast one" means to deceive someone or play a trick on someone. (किसी को धोखा देना या किसी पर चाल चलना)
• Example: He tried to pull a fast one on his teacher by pretending he was sick.
• Deceive refers to causing someone to believe something that is not true, typically in order to gain some personal advantage. (धोखा देना)
• Example: She deceived her friend into thinking she had lost the tickets.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: To help someone urgently (किसी की तत्काल मदद करना)
• Example: He rushed to the hospital to help his friend urgently.
• Option 2: To produce something that is needed (जो आवश्यक है उसका उत्पादन करना)
• Example: The factory managed to produce the masks that were needed during the pandemic.
• Option 3: To adjust in a difficult situation (कठिन परिस्थिति में समायोजित करना)
• Example: She had to adjust in a difficult situation after losing her job.

The correct answer is 'Take'.

Key Points

• The phrase "Take a bite" is a common expression that means to eat a small amount to taste or try the food. It is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
• The other options: "Make," "Gain," and "Keep" do not fit the context in this sentence.
• "Make a bite" does not make sense as it implies creating a bite-sized portion, "Gain a bite" does not fit as it implies obtaining something, and "Keep a bite" implies retaining something, which are not suitable in this context.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: Take a bite and tell me how it is.

The correct answer is 'number'.

Key Points

• The word "number" is the most appropriate to use when referring to people or countable items. It is commonly used to denote a countable group of individuals.
• "Value" typically refers to the importance, worth, or usefulness of something, which does not fit the context here.
• "Quantity" is generally used for uncountable or bulk items, which makes it less fitting when describing countable individuals.
• "Capacity" refers to the maximum amount something can contain, and it does not appropriately fit the context of describing people who live alone.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: A large number of elderly people live alone.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

• In the second part of the given sentence, the phrase "If acid drainage will reaches" is incorrect.
• In conditional sentences, the correct structure for the first conditional is "If" + present simple, followed by "will" + base verb.
• Therefore, the correct form should be "If acid drainage reaches" instead of "If acid drainage will reaches".
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct sentence: If acid drainage reaches groundwater, it may persist for decades or centuries.

Additional Information

• Conditional sentences often use specific structures to convey possibilities and hypothetical situations correctly.
• Ensuring the proper use of verb tenses in such sentences is crucial for accurate meaning.
• Reviewing conditional structures can help avoid common mistakes in complex sentences.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. this part of the sentence has no error.

Key Points

• The given sentence is grammatically correct and has no errors.
• Each part of the sentence is structurally and contextually appropriate.
• The comparison made between "My cousin's watch" and "your old watch" is clear and accurate.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct sentence: My cousin's watch is more elegant than your old watch.

Additional Information

• When comparing two objects, it's important to ensure clarity in what is being compared.
• The use of possessive pronouns and appropriate comparative structures enhances sentence clarity.

The correct answer is 'begged'.

Key Points

• The verb "begged" is the past tense form of the verb "beg."
• The sentence describes an action that occurred in the past, so the past tense "begged" is required.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: "He begged pardon, and was getting into the carriage, but felt he must glance at her once more."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "said" is incorrect because it does not fit the context of asking for pardon.
• Option 2: "asked" is incorrect because it is not typically used in this context.
• Option 3: "adjured" is incorrect; it means to earnestly or solemnly urge, which does not fit the context.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "cultural" means relating to the ideas, customs, and social behavior of a society. (सांस्कृतिक)
• Example: The festival showcased the rich cultural heritage of the region.
• "Cultural" in the context of the sentence refers to different spheres influenced by culture. (सांस्कृतिक)
• Example: Intangible cultural heritage cuts across political, historical, community and cultural spheres.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct word is "cultural".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: "culturel" (सांस्कृतिक): This is a misspelling of the word "cultural".
• Example: Incorrect: Intangible cultural heritage cuts across political, historical, community and culturel spheres.
• Option 3: "comunity" (समुदाय): This is a misspelling of the word "community".
• Example: Incorrect: Intangible cultural heritage cuts across political, historical, comunity and cultural spheres.
• Option 4: "polatical" (राजनीतिक): This is a misspelling of the word "political".
• Example: Incorrect: Intangible cultural heritage cuts across polatical, historical, community and cultural spheres.

The correct answer is: Ignorant.

Key Points

• The word "pensive" means deeply or seriously thoughtful, often with a tinge of sadness. (विचारमग्न)
• Example: She sat by the window, pensive, watching the rain fall outside.
• "Ignorant" refers to someone who is lacking in knowledge, awareness, or information about something. (अज्ञानी)
• Example: He remained ignorant of the changes happening around him because he never read the news.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'pensive' is 'ignorant'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Ignorant.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Thoughtful (विचारशील): Engaged in deep or serious thought.
• Example: He gave a thoughtful reply after considering all aspects of the situation.
• Reflective (चिंतनशील): Capable of or engaged in deep thought.
• Example: After the meeting, she became reflective about her career choices.
• Pondering (विचारशील): Thinking deeply about something.
• Example: He was pondering over the decision for hours.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The idiom "See eye to eye" means to share the same opinion as someone. (किसी से सहमत होना)
• Example: They finally saw eye to eye on the matter and decided to move forward with the project.
• "To share the same opinion as someone" refers to agreeing with another person’s point of view or perspective. (किसी के दृष्टिकोण से सहमत होना)
• Example: Despite their differences, they often see eye to eye on important issues.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• To be spontaneous (स्वतःस्फूर्त होना): Acting on impulse without planning.
• Example: She decided to take a spontaneous trip to the mountains.
• To fight with someone (किसी से लड़ना): Engaging in a physical or verbal altercation.
• Example: They fought over a trivial issue.
• To speak aggressively (आक्रामक ढंग से बोलना): Using harsh or forceful language.
• Example: He spoke aggressively during the argument.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

• In the fourth part of the given sentence, the past tense of the verb 'lead' is incorrect.
• The correct past tense form should be 'led.'
• Therefore, the correct form of the verb 'led' should be used in place of 'lead'.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct sentence: The rabbit led the boy towards the outskirts of the city.

Additional Information

• The verb 'lead' is present tense, and its past tense form is 'led'.
• Using the correct verb tense is crucial for maintaining the proper time reference in a sentence.
• Reviewing subject-verb agreement and verb tenses can help avoid such common mistakes.

The correct answer is 'consume'.

Key Points

• Lions are carnivores, and the word needed to fill the blank should indicate the action they take towards their food.
• The term “consume” means to eat or ingest, which aligns perfectly with the dietary habits of lions.
• Other options like "abduct", "tolerate", and "churn" do not fit the context, as they do not describe the process of eating.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Passage: Lions are carnivores, which means they only consume meat. They will eat almost any animal they can catch, however the most of the time it is buffalo, zebra, giraffe, warthog, and antelope species. If the opportunity arises, they will also prey on the young of larger mammal species such as rhinos and elephants. The majority of the preys will weigh between 50 and 300kg. Male lions can eat approximately 7 kg of meat per day. Whereas females eat approximately 4.5 kg. Both are capable of consuming up to 15% of their body weight in a single meal!

The correct answer is 'opportunity'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the circumstances under which lions might prey on the young of larger mammal species.
• The term “opportunity” refers to a set of circumstances that makes it possible to do something, which fits the context of the lions finding and taking advantage of a chance to hunt these animals.
• Other options like "state", "condition", and "capacity" do not fit as well in this context because they do not describe a chance or occasion.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Passage: Lions are carnivores, which means they only consume meat. They will eat almost any animal they can catch, however the most of the time it is buffalo, zebra, giraffe, warthog, and antelope species. If the opportunity arises, they will also prey on the young of larger mammal species such as rhinos and elephants. The majority of the preys will weigh between 50 and 300kg. Male lions can eat approximately 7 kg of meat per day. Whereas females eat approximately 4.5 kg. Both are capable of consuming up to 15% of their body weight in a single meal!

The correct answer is 'such'.

Key Points

• The passage describes the types of larger mammal species that lions may prey on.
• The term “such as” is used to introduce examples of a category, which in this case are rhinos and elephants as examples of larger mammal species.
• Other options like "like", "that", and "so" do not fit as naturally in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Passage: Lions are carnivores, which means they only consume meat. They will eat almost any animal they can catch, however the most of the time it is buffalo, zebra, giraffe, warthog, and antelope species. If the opportunity arises, they will also prey on the young of larger mammal species such as rhinos and elephants. The majority of the preys will weigh between 50 and 300kg. Male lions can eat approximately 7 kg of meat per day. Whereas females eat approximately 4.5 kg. Both are capable of consuming up to 15% of their body weight in a single meal!

The correct answer is 'while'.

Key Points

• The passage compares the eating habits of male and female lions.
• The term “while” is used to draw a contrast between the quantities of meat consumed by male and female lions.
• Other options like "yet," "rather," and "as" do not fit as naturally in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Passage: Lions are carnivores, which means they only consume meat. They will eat almost any animal they can catch, however the most of the time it is buffalo, zebra, giraffe, warthog, and antelope species. If the opportunity arises, they will also prey on the young of larger mammal species such as rhinos and elephants. The majority of the preys will weigh between 50 and 300kg. Male lions can eat approximately 7 kg of meat per day. While females eat approximately 4.5 kg. Both are capable of consuming up to 15% of their body weight in a single meal!

The correct answer is 'capable'.

Key Points

• The passage mentions the ability of lions to consume a significant portion of their body weight in a single meal.
• The term “capable” refers to the lions' ability to do something, specifically consuming up to 15% of their body weight in one meal.
• Other options like "susceptible," "veteran," and "trained" do not fit in the context of describing an ability.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: Lions are carnivores, which means they only consume meat. They will eat almost any animal they can catch, however the most of the time it is buffalo, zebra, giraffe, warthog, and antelope species. If the opportunity arises, they will also prey on the young of larger mammal species such as rhinos and elephants. The majority of the preys will weigh between 50 and 300kg. Male lions can eat approximately 7 kg of meat per day. While females eat approximately 4.5 kg. Both are capable of consuming up to 15% of their body weight in a single meal!

वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द का विलोम शब्द होगा - शांत

Key Points

• वाक्य - नदी कलकल करती हुई बहती है।
• 'कलकल' शब्द का विलोम शब्द 'शांत' होगा।
• 'कलकल' का अर्थ- झरने आदि के जल के गिरने का शब्द, कोलाहल, हल्ला, शोर।
• 'शांत' का अर्थ - मन की स्थिरता, निःशब्दता, सूनापन।
• विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information  कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द के लिए सही वर्तनी है - दफ्तर

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - श्यामा दफ़तर के लिए निकल गई।
• दिए गये वाक्य में वर्तनी प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• ​यहाँ 'दफ़तर' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• ​अत: सार्थक शब्द 'दफ्तर' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - श्यामा दफ्तर के लिए निकल गई।
• वर्तनी - भाषा के किसी शब्द को को लिखने में प्रयुक्त वर्णों के सही क्रम को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

Additional Information कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

कोष्ठक में दिए गए शब्द के तद्भव रूप का सही विकल्प है - गोत

Key Points

• वाक्य - शादी-विवाह के कार्यक्रम में बहुत से लोग (गोत्र) गोत जाने बिना आगे का कार्यक्रम नहीं करते हैं।
• 'गोत्र' एक तत्सम शब्द है, जबकि इसका तद्भव शब्द 'गोत' होगा।
• तत्सम - जिन शब्दों को संस्कृत से बिना किसी परिवर्तन के ले लिया जाता है, उन्हें तत्सम शब्द कहते हैं। 
• जैसे-  अक्षि, कूप, वृक्ष आदि।
• तद्भव - जिन शब्दों में समय और परिस्थितियों के कारण कुछ परिवर्तन होने से जो शब्द बने हैं, उन्हें तद्भव कहते हैं। 
• जैसे- आँख, कुआँ, पेड़ आदि।​

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information 

रिक्त स्थान के लिए सही स्त्रीलिंग रूप वाला विकल्प होगा - खबर

Key Points

• वाक्य - तुम्हारे ठीक न होने की खबर मुझे बहुत देरी से मिली।
• स्त्रीलिंग शब्द है - 'खबर' (समाचार, हाल) जैसे - वह खबर सुनकर हैरान रह गई।
• स्त्रीलिंग - शब्द के जिस रूप से व्यक्ति या वस्तु की स्त्री जाति का बोध होता है, उसे स्त्रीलिंग कहते हैं।
• जैसे - छात्रा, चाची, बुढ़िया, नौकरानी, घास आदि।
• पुल्लिंग - शब्द के जिस रूप से पुरुष जाति का बोध होता है, उसे पुल्लिंग कहते हैं।
• जैसे- छात्र, चाचा, बूढ़ा, नौकर, शेर, बंदर आदि।

अन्य विकल्प-

Important Points 

Additional Information  लिंग दो प्रकार के होते हैं-

1. पुल्लिंग
2. स्त्रीलिंग