SSC GD Constable (2022) Official Paper (Held On : 17 Jan 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Given equation : 200 * 2 * 10 * 8 * 40 * 20

According to the question, after replacing '*' with mathematical signs:

So,

• Option - (1) : ×, =, ÷, +, −

200 * 2 * 10 * 8 * 40 * 20 ⇒ 200 × 2 = 10 ÷ 8 + 40 − 20

400 = 1.25 + 40 − 20

400 = 41.25 - 20

400 ≠ 21.25 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (2) : ×, +, =, ÷, −

200 * 2 * 10 * 8 * 40 * 20 ⇒ 200 × 2 + 10 = 8 ÷ 40 − 20

400 + 10 = 0.2 - 20

410 ≠ -19.8 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : ÷, =, ×, +, −

200 * 2 * 10 * 8 * 40 * 20 ⇒ 200 ÷ 2 = 10 × 8 + 40 − 20

100 = 80 + 40 - 20

100 = 120 - 20

100 = 100 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (4) :  −, +, ÷, =, ×

200 * 2 * 10 * 8 * 40 * 20 ⇒ 200 − 2 + 10 ÷ 8 = 40 × 20

200 + 1.25 - 2 = 800

201.25 - 2 = 800

199.25 ≠ 800 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

According to given figure:

The figure will appear when it is opened as follows:

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Given :

Statement given :  D + E + F – G × H ÷ I – J

So,

• D + E → D is the daughter of E.

• E + F → E is the daughter of F.

• F – G → F is the husband of G.

• G × H → G is the mother of H.

• H ÷ I → H is the brother of I.

• I – J → I is the husband of J.

​

Thus, according to the final family tree :

• Option - (1) : D is sister of I → Incorrect statement ⇒ D is niece of I
• Option - (2) : E is sister of I → Correct statement
• Option - (3) : E is sister of H → Correct statement
• Option - (4) : E is the daughter of G → Correct statement

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

Logic : Number series with same number as power pattern is followed here.

Hence, "256" is the correct answer.

Logic : (Cube of 1st number + 10) = 2nd number

So,

• 4 : 74

4³ + 10 = 74

64 + 10 = 74

74 = 74 (LHS = RHS)

And,

• 7 : 353

73 + 10 = 353

343 + 10 = 353

353 = 353 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

• 6 : ?

63 + 10 = ?

216 + 10 = ?

226 = ?

Hence, "226" is the correct answer.

Logic : Consecutive multiple of (3) are added subsequently.

Hence, "14" is the correct answer.

Logic : State : Capital city

So,

• Mumbai is the capital city of Maharashtra.

Similarly,

• Kolkata is the capital city of West Bengal.

Hence, "Kolkata" is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Bihar → Patna is the capital city of Bihar.
• Punjab  → Chandigarh is the capital city of Punjab.
• Kolkata → Kolkata is the capital city of West Bengal.
• Bhopal → Bhopal is the capital city of Madhya Pradesh.

Logic : Opposite letter according to English alphabetic series is written. 

​So,

• 'NATION' is written as 'MZGRLM'

​

And,

• 'PRINTS' is written as 'KIRMGH'

​

​Similarly,

• 'BOTTLE' is written as :

​

Hence, "YLGGOV" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: In each next boxes "two lollypop symbols" are getting flipped vertically.

So, the complete series will be:

Hence, ‘option - (2)’ is the correct answer.

Logic : Professional : Workplace associated

So,

• Doctor works in a hospital.

Similarly,

• Astronomer works in an observatory.

Hence, "Observatory" is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Watership → Watership, derives from Old English waeterscipe, a neuter noun with the meaning 'a body of water, a piece of water, water'
• Professional → Engaged in a specified activity as one's main paid occupation rather than as a pastime.
• Showroom → It is a room used to display goods for sale, such as appliances, cars, or furniture.
• Observatory → It is a place or building equipped and used for making observations of astronomical, meteorological, or other natural phenomena.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. All donkeys are animals → Follow (As all donkeys are mammals and all mammals are animals. So, as all donkeys comes in mammals which all comes in animals therefore all donkeys are animals is definitely true)

II. All animals are donkeys → Does not follow (As all donkeys are mammals and all mammals are animals. So, Some animals are definitely donkeys but All animals are donkeys can be possible only)

III. Some cows are donkeys → Does not follow (No definite relation given between cows and donkeys. So, it can be possible only)

∴ Here, Only conclusion I follows .

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion I follows".

According to the sequence in the dictionary:

4. FILTER
5. FLETCHER
6. FLEUR
7. FLORIST
8. FLOWER

Hence, the correct option is "4, 2, 5, 3, 1".

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, Option figure -(1) is embedded in given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option-(1)".

Logic : (2) is subtracted from the position value according to the English alphabetic series. 

​So,

• ‘TEACHER’ is written as ‘RCYAFCP’​

And,

• ‘SCHOOL’ is written as ‘QAFMMJ’

​

​Similarly,

• ‘SUBJECT’ is written as :

​

Hence, "QSZHCAR" is the correct answer.

Given : Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting next to each other in a straight line facing north

Explanation :

1) R sits fifth to the left of V.

2. S sits third to the right of R.

As position of V is not known yet, therefore there are two possible positions for V.

• Case - (1) :

• Case - (2) :

3) U is sitting immediate left of V.

4. R is sitting immediately adjacent to P and T.

As R is an immediate neighbor of P and T, therefore case - (1) is eliminated.

As position of P and T with respect to R is not known yet, therefore there are two possible positions for P and T.

After positioning P, T and U only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e Q.

• Case - (2) :

Thus, according to the final arrangement S is sitting immediate right of Q.

Hence, "S" is the correct answer.

Logic : Alternately (2) is added to and (3) is subtracted from the position value according to the English alphabetic series respectively. 

​So,

​

Hence, "GJTQ" is the correct answer.

Logic : (5), (4) and (3) is added to the first, second and third letter position value according to the English alphabetic series respectively. 

​So,

​

Hence, "HPA" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given combination when mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Detailed Explanation:

• The line MN is the mirror
• The combination "

" the fifth element is "

". So, the mirror image should be "

"  ⇒ Option 1 is eliminated.

• The combination "

" the third element is "

". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 2 is eliminated..

• The combination "

" the second element is "

". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 4 is eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (3)".

Given : Eight persons – D, E, G, H, K, L, S and T are sitting in a straight line facing north.

Explanation :

1) E sits second from the left end of the row.

2. No one is sitting between H and E.

As position of E with respect to E is not known yet, therefore there are two possible positions for H.

• Case - (1) :

• Case - (2) :

3) G sits fourth to the right of H.

4) K is sitting immediate left of G.

• Case - (1) :

• Case - (2) :

5) Only two persons sit between K and D.

6) L is sitting third to the right of S.

As there is possible position for D is case - (2), therefore case - (2) is eliminated.

After positioning D, L and S only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e T.

• Case - (1) :

Thus, according to the final arrangement four people i.e K, G, L and D are sitting between S and T.

Hence, "More than three" is the correct answer.

Given equation : 63 + 5 ÷ 35 - 7 × 21 = 23

According to the question, after interchanging the mathematical signs:

So,

• Option - (1) : ÷ and ×

63 + 5 ÷ 35 - 7 × 21 = 23 ⇒ 63 + 5 × 35 - 7 ÷ 21 = 23

63 + 5 × 35 - 0.33 = 23

63 + 175 - 0.33 = 23

238 - 0.33 = 23

237.67 ≠ 23 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (2) : × and  +

63 + 5 ÷ 35 - 7 × 21 = 23 ⇒ 63 × 5 ÷ 35 - 7 + 21 = 23

63 × 0.14 - 7 + 21 = 23

9 + 21 - 7 = 23

30 - 7 = 23

23 = 23 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (3) : ÷ and +

63 + 5 ÷ 35 - 7 × 21 = 23 ⇒ 63 ÷ 5 + 35 - 7 × 21 = 23

12.6 + 35 - 7 × 21 = 23

12.6 + 35 - 147 = 23

47.6 - 147 = 23

-99.4 ≠ 23 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (4) :  + and -

63 + 5 ÷ 35 - 7 × 21 = 23 ⇒ 63 - 5 ÷ 35 + 7 × 21 = 23

63 - 0.14 + 7 × 21 = 23

63 + 147 - 0.14 = 23

210 - 0.14 = 23

209.86 ≠ 23 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

• Decathlon is a combined event in athletics consisting of ten track and field events.
• The events in decathlon are 100 meters, 400 meters,1500 meters, 110 meters of hurdles, long jump, shot put, high jump, discus throw, pole vault, and javelin throw.
• The pentathlon events that took place at the ancient Greek Olympics gave rise to the decathlon.
• Pentathlons comprised five events: sprint, discus throw, javelin throw, long jump, and wrestling battle.
• This competition was first held at Olympia in 708 BC, and for many centuries it was incredibly popular.
• The modern decathlon made its debut in the Olympic athletics schedule during the Stockholm Games in 1912.

Additional Information

• Male competitors normally engage in the decathlon, while female competitors usually compete in the heptathlon.
• The events are spread across two days, and the athlete with the highest total score at the end of the competition is declared the winner.
• The winner of the decathlon has traditionally been crowned the "World's Greatest Athlete."
• With a total score of 9,126 points in the 2018 Décastar in France, Frenchman Kevin Mayer holds the current official decathlon world record.

The correct answer is Rights to freedom of religion.

Key Points

• Articles 25 to 28 of the Indian Constitution are part of the Fundamental Rights which gives Rights to freedom of religion.
• Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality, and health.
• Article 26 grants every religious denomination the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion, subject to public order, morality, and health.
• Article 27 prohibits the state from compelling any person to pay taxes for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination.
• Article 28 prohibits the imparting of religious instruction in any educational institution wholly maintained out of state funds.

Additional Information

• Rights to constitutional remedies: Articles 32 to 35 of the Indian Constitution deal with the right to constitutional remedies.
• These articles empower citizens to petition the Supreme Court or High Courts for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and other legal rights.
• Cultural and educational rights: Articles 29 and 30 of the Indian Constitution deal with cultural and educational rights.
• Article 29 provides protection for the interests of minorities by prohibiting discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, language, or any of them.
• Article 30 grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
• Right against exploitation: Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution.
• Article 23 prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour.
• Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in factories, mines, and other hazardous occupations.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• Basavaraj Bommai was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Karnataka on July 28, 2021, following the resignation of his predecessor, B. S. Yediyurappa.
• Basavaraj Bommai is a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and represents the Shiggaon constituency in the Karnataka Legislative Assembly.
• He served as the 23rd Chief Minister of Karnataka from July 28, 2021 to May 19, 2023.
• He is a lawyer by profession and has previously served as the Minister for Home Affairs, Law, Parliamentary Affairs, and Legislature in the Karnataka state government.

Additional Information

• The current CM of Karnataka (as of December 2023) is Siddaramaiah since May 20, 2023.
• He is from the Indian National Congress.
• Kerala is currently (as of December 2023) led by Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan since May 25, 2016, of the Communist Party of India (Marxist).
• Telangana is currently (as of December 2023) led by Chief Minister Anumula Revanth Reddy since December 7, 2023.
• He is a member of the Indian National Congress.
• He represents Kodangal constituency.
• Currently, Tamil Nadu is led by Chief Minister M. K. Stalin of the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam since May 7, 2021.

The correct answer is Income.

Key Points

• Per capita income is a measure of the average income earned by an individual in a particular country.
• It is calculated by dividing the total income of a country by its total population.
• It is a useful indicator of a country's economic well-being and can be used to compare the standard of living across different countries.

Additional Information

• Income: This refers to the money earned by an individual or business from various sources such as wages, salaries, investments, and profits.
• It is an important measure of economic activity and is used to gauge the financial health of individuals, businesses, and countries.
• Loan: This refers to the amount of money borrowed by an individual or business from a lender.
• It can be used for various purposes such as buying a house, starting a business, or financing education. Loans come with interest rates and repayment terms that need to be fulfilled by the borrower.
• Capital: This refers to the assets owned by a company or individual such as property, equipment, and investments.
• It is an important measure of wealth and is used to determine the financial strength of a company or individual.
• Liability: This refers to the debts owed by a company or individual such as loans, mortgages, and credit card balances.
• It is an important measure of financial obligations and is used to determine the financial risk associated with a company or individual.

The correct answer is Foot gauge.

Key Points

• Indian Railway tracks are categorized based on the distance between the two rails, which is measured in terms of gauge.
• These are:

Additional InformationHistory of Indian Railways:

• The first passenger train in India, traveled the 34 kilometers from Bori Bunder (Bombay) to Thane on April 16, 1853.
• It was operated by three locomotives, named Sahib, Sultan and Sindh, and had thirteen carriages.
• In 1862, the first Railway Workshop was founded in Jamalpur, Bihar, which is close to Munger.
• It manages the fourth largest national railway system in the world by size, with a total route length of 68,043 km (2022).

The correct answer is Nuakhai.

Key Points

• Nuakhai is a harvest festival celebrated mainly in western Odisha and some parts of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand and is celebrated with great enthusiasm and fervor.
• It marks the beginning of the harvest season and is a time of thanksgiving and celebration.
• The day following the Ganesh Chaturthi celebration, it is celebrated on panchami tithi, or the fifth day, of the lunar fortnight in the month of Bhadrapada or Bhadraba (August–September).

Additional Information

• Taj Mahotsav is a festival celebrated in Agra, Uttar Pradesh, to showcase the rich cultural heritage of the state.
• It is a 10-day festival that showcases the art, craft, and culture of Uttar Pradesh.
• It is held annually in February-March and attracts a large number of tourists from all over the world.
• Ganga Festival is celebrated in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, to celebrate the holy river Ganges and its significance in Hindu mythology.
• It is celebrated in the month of November and is a major attraction for tourists who come to witness the grand celebrations and take a dip in the holy river Ganges.
• Buddha Festival is celebrated in Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh, to commemorate the birth, enlightenment, and death of Lord Buddha.
• It is celebrated in Sarnath, which is a famous pilgrimage site for Buddhists.
• It is held annually in December and is a major event for Buddhists from all over the world.

The correct answer is Shri Ram Nath Kovind.

Key Points

• The President of India at that time, Shri Ram Nath Kovind inaugurated the new Darbar Hall at Raj Bhavan, Mumbai on February 11, 2022.
• Ram Nath Kovind presided as India's 14th President from 2017 to 2022.
• He is the first Uttar Pradeshi to hold the office of President of India.
• Prior to his presidency, he served as the 26th Governor of Bihar from 2015 to 2017.
• From 1994 to 2006, he was a member of the Rajya Sabha as well.
• He practiced law for sixteen years, first at the Delhi High Court and then at the Supreme Court of India, until 1993, when he entered politics.
• On October 1, 1945, Ram Nath Kovind was born into a Dalit family in Paraunkh village, Kanpur Dehat district, Uttar Pradesh, to Maiku Lal and Kalawati during the British Raj.

Additional Information

• Uddhav Balasaheb Thackeray served as the 19th Chief Minister of Maharashtra from 2019 to 2022 and the Leader of the House, Maharashtra Legislative Assembly from 2019 to 2022.
• He has served as the president of Maha Vikas Aghadi since 2019, a member of the Maharashtra Legislative Council since 2020, and the president of the Shiv Sena (Uddhav Balasaheb Thackeray) since 2022.
• In addition, he served as the president of Shiv Sena from 2003 to 2022, its leader from 2013 to 2022, and Saamana's chief editor from 2006 to 2019.
• Amit Anil Chandra Shah has been India's first Minister of Cooperation since 2021 and the country's 31st Minister of Home Affairs since 2019.
• From 2014 to 2020, he presided over the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) as its tenth president.
• Since 2014, he has furthermore held the position of National Democratic Alliance (NDA) chairperson.
• In the 2019 Indian general elections, he was chosen from Gandhinagar to serve in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament.
• He had previously been elected from Gujarat to serve as a member of the Rajya Sabha, the upper chamber of Parliament, from 2017 to 2019.
• Since May 2014, Narendra Damodardas Modi has held the position of India's 14th prime minister.
• Modi serves as the Member of Parliament (MP) for Varanasi and served as Gujarat's chief minister from 2001 until 2014.
• He belongs to the right-wing Hindu nationalist paramilitary volunteer organization Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) as well as the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• He is the prime minister from outside the Indian National Congress with the longest tenure.

The correct answer is Decomposition reaction.

Key Points

• Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction because it breaks down water into its constituent elements, hydrogen and oxygen.
• Reaction: 2H₂O + electricity → 2H₂ + O₂
• Electrolysis is the process of using an electric current to drive a non-spontaneous chemical reaction.
• It is commonly used for the production of metals, such as aluminum and copper.

Additional Information

• Bidisplacement reaction is also known as the double displacement reaction.
• It involves two reactants exchanging their ions to form two new products.
• For example, potassium nitrate reacts with aluminium chloride and forms aluminium nitrate and potassium chloride.
• Reaction: KNO₃ + AlCl₃ ↔️    Al(NO₃)₃ + KCl
• Displacement reaction is also known as the single replacement reaction.
• It involves a more reactive element displacing a less reactive element from its compound.
• The reaction of potassium with magnesium chloride is an example of a single displacement reaction.
• Reaction: 2K + MgCl₂ → 2KCl + Mg
• Combination reaction is also known as the synthesis reaction.
• It involves two or more reactants combining to form a single product.
• For example, when we burn magnesium ribbon (or magnesium), it gives a gray-black ash of magnesium oxide.
• Reaction: Mg + O₂ → MgO

The correct answer is Water.

Key Points

• Surface tension is the measure of the force required to stretch or break the surface of a liquid.
• The SI unit of Surface Tension is Newton per Meter or N/m.
• It is important to note that the surface tension of a liquid is dependent on factors such as temperature, pressure, and impurities.
• Water (H₂O) has the highest surface tension among the given options due to its strong hydrogen bonding between the water molecules.
• This results in a strong cohesive force between the molecules, making it difficult to break the surface.

Additional Information

• Ethanol (CH₃CH₂OH) is a volatile, colorless liquid that has a slight odor.
• It burns with a blue flame that is smokeless and sometimes invisible in normal light.
• Ethane (C₂H₆) is a gas at room temperature and does not have a surface tension value.
• At standard temperature and pressure, ethane is a colorless, odorless gas. ​
• Methanol (CH₃OH), also known as wood alcohol, is considered an alternative fuel.
• It is often used as a low surface tension testing substance in calibration and/or testing of new apparatuses or methods to measure surface tension.

Important Points

Boiling points of some compounds at atmospheric pressure 1 atm :

The correct answer is 4%.

Key Points

• India's share in the world's water resources is 0.04 or 4%.
• It accounts for 18% of the world's population.
• It accounts for about 2.45 per cent of world’s
  

surface area.

• The total water available from
  

precipitation in the country in a year is about

4,000 cubic km.

• India is one of the most water-stressed countries in the world, with a rapidly growing population and increasing demand for water.
• The major rivers in India are the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Indus, which are all shared with neighboring countries like China, Nepal, and Pakistan, leading to water sharing disputes.

Additional Information

• There is an ample supply of water worldwide, making it a cyclical resource.
• Water covers roughly 71% of the earth's surface but fresh water makes up only approximately 3 percent of all water.
• Climate change is exacerbating water scarcity in India, with irregular monsoons and increasing temperatures leading to droughts and reduced availability of water.
• India is working towards increasing water conservation efforts and improving water management to ensure sustainable use of its limited water resources.
• There are four major sources of surface water: rivers, lakes, ponds, and tanks.
• The groundwater utilisation is very high in the states of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu.

The correct answer is Bye.

Key Points

• Bye: A run is scored when the batsman does not touch the ball with either his bat or body. First recorded in the 1770s.

Additional InformationA glossary of cricket terms:

The correct answer is National Sample Survey Organisation.

Key Points

• Unemployment is measured in India on the methods prescribed by the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO).
• According to the International Labour Organization (ILO), unemployment is defined as not having a job but is available for work and actively looking for one.
• The unemployment rate is measured as the ratio of the unemployed to the labour force.
• The total number of employed and unemployed people is known as the labor force.
• People who are neither employed nor jobless, such as students and people who perform unpaid household labor, are seen as not being in the labor force.
• The NSSO is the nodal agency responsible for conducting surveys and collecting data on various socio-economic aspects of the country, including employment and unemployment.
• It was set up in 1950 to conduct periodic surveys on employment and unemployment, which are used to estimate the unemployment rate in the country.
• In 2019, the Central Statistical Office (CSO) and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) combined to become the National Statistical Office (NSO) under Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI).
• Apart from NSSO, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) also publishes data on employment and unemployment, but it is primarily focused on the banking and financial sector.

Additional Information

• The National Employment Department under  Ministry of Labour & Employment is responsible for formulating policies and schemes for employment generation and skill development in the country.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India’s central bank.
• In compliance with the terms of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, it was founded on April 1, 1935 in Calcutta.
• It was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937.
• Though originally privately owned, since nationalisation in 1949, the Reserve Bank is fully owned by the Government of India.
• It regulates the issue of Bank notes and keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage.
• It also monitors the monetary policies through its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC).
• The National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSE) was founded in 1992 with the main goal of increasing market transparency in India's equity markets.
• It was recognised as a stock exchange by SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) in1993 and started its operations in 1994.
• Its headquarters is in Mumbai. It is a market facilitator for trades in wholesale debt, stocks, and derivatives.
• In 1994, it became the first exchange in India to provide modern, completely automated electronic trading.

The correct answer is Kanak Rele.

Key Points

• Kanak Rele, who has been awarded the Padma Shri for her extensive contribution to Mohiniyattam.
• She is a renowned Mohiniyattam dancer and choreographer who has contributed significantly to the development and popularization of this dance form.
• She has also founded the Nalanda Dance Research Centre in Mumbai, which is dedicated to the research and preservation of Indian classical dance forms.
• Mohiniyattam is a classical Indian dance form from Kerala, which is known for its graceful movements and expressions.

Additional Information

• K P Kittappa Pillai is a well-known Carnatic musician and composer who has composed several popular songs and ragas.
• He is known for his innovative approach to music and has won several awards for his contributions to the field.
• Mehboob Subhani is a social activist and educationist who has worked towards the empowerment of the marginalized communities in India.
• He has founded several schools and educational institutions to provide quality education to children from underprivileged backgrounds.
• Suchitra Ella is a scientist and entrepreneur who has made significant contributions to the fields of biotechnology and healthcare.
• She is the co-founder of a biotech company that specializes in developing vaccines and other healthcare products.​

Important Points

• 8 important Classical Dance forms of India:

The correct answer is Kathak.

Key Points

• Sitara Devi was known for Kathak, which is a classical dance form of North India that involves storytelling, intricate footwork, and graceful movements of hands and arms.
• Sitara Devi was a world-famous Kathak dancer, singer, and actress.
• She was born to her father Sukhdev Maharaj and her mother was Matsya Kumari on 8 November 1920 in Kolkata.
• She is known as "Queen of Kathak"
• She was also referred to as the "Empress of Dancing" or "Nritya Samrajni" by Rabindranath Tagore.
• She was the recipient of several awards and accolades like the Sangeet Natak Academy award (1969), Padma Shri(1973), Kalidas Samman 1995, and Nritya Nipuna.
• She died at the age of 94 on November 25, 2014.
• Kathak is a classical dance form of North India basically Uttar Pradesh.
• It is a storytelling dance that involves intricate footwork, spins, and graceful movements of the hands and arms.
• The themes of Kathak are often romantic or devotional in nature.

Additional Information

• Kathakali is a classical dance form of Kerala.
• It is a highly stylized and ritualistic dance drama that combines elements of ballet, opera, masque, and pantomime.
• The performers wear elaborate costumes and makeup to depict characters from Indian mythology.
• Bharatnatyam is a classical dance form of Tamil Nadu.
• It is a highly expressive dance that involves intricate footwork, hand gestures, and facial expressions.
• The themes of Bharatnatyam are often devotional in nature, and the dance is often performed in temples.
• Manipuri is a classical dance form of Manipur.
• It is a graceful and fluid dance that involves delicate hand gestures, flowing movements, and intricate footwork.
• The themes of Manipuri are often mythological or devotional in nature.
• 8 important Classical Dance forms of India:

The correct answer is Dinesh Lal Yadav.

Key Points

• Dinesh Lal Yadav:
• Born on February 2, 1979, Dinesh Lal Yadav is an Indian actor, singer, producer, and politician who is mostly connected with Bhojpuri-language films.
• He is also known by the nickname Nirahua, which means "an abiding husband."
• On March 27, 2019, Nirahua entered politics by joining the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in Lucknow.
• He was officially announced as a Bharatiya Janata Party candidate to run in the 2019 Indian Lok Sabha election from the Azamgarh constituency on April 3, 2019.
• He triumphed over Dharmendra Yadav, the candidate of the Samajwadi Party, in the Azamgarh bypolls of 2022 by a margin of 8,700 votes.

Additional Information

• Yashwant Singh:
• He is a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party, was born on March 1, 1962, and emerged victorious in the 2014 Indian general elections from Nagina constituency.
• He received his M.D. from the All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi, and his M.B.B.S. from Nehru Medical College.
• From 2002 until 2012, he served as a member of the Uttar Pradesh State Legislative Assembly for two consecutive terms.
• He was elected to the 16th Lok Sabha in May 2014. He joined the Standing Committee on Rural Development in September 2014.
• Ghanshyam Singh Lodhi:
• Born on May 6, 1967, Ghanshyam Singh Lodhi is an Indian politician who represented the Rashtriya Kranti Party in the Uttar Pradesh Legislative Council from 2004 to 2010 and the Samajwadi Party from 2016 to 2022.
• He was victorious in the Rampur Lok Sabha by-election in 2022 while standing for the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• Akhilesh Yadav: 
• Born on July 1, 1973, Akhilesh Yadav is an Indian politician who held the position of 20th Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh while also serving as the national president of the Samajwadi Party.
• At the age of 38, he became the chief minister on March 15, 2012, making him the youngest person to hold the position to date.
• Yadav was elected as a Member of Parliament for Azamgarh in the 17th Lok Sabha and as the current Member of the Legislative Assembly for Karhal in the 18th Vidhan Sabha.
• He has been serving as the Leader of Opposition in the Uttar Pradesh Legislative Assembly since March 2022.

The correct answer is Speaker of the State Legislature.

Key Points 

• The State Business Advisory Committee is a body that assists the Speaker of the State Legislature in conducting the business of the House.
• It is responsible for preparing the agenda for the proceedings of the House, allocating time for the discussion of various issues, and coordinating with the government on legislative matters.
• Hence, the Speaker of the State Legislature is the natural choice for the Chairman of the Committee.

Additional Information

• Chief Minister(CM):
• ​The CM is head of the government at the state level.
• According to Article 164 of the Indian Constitution, the Governor appoints a Chief Minister.
• The CM of the State is the head of the government and is **responsible for the overall administration of the State.**​
• The State Finance Minister is responsible for managing the finances of the State and presenting the budget.
• He or She may have a say in the financial matters related to the legislative proceedings.
• The Governors of states:
• Governors have been discussed under Article 153 to Article 162 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Governor is the constitutional head of a state in India and is responsible for the administration of the state.
• Under Article 155, the appointment of the Governor is done by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal.
• He/She holds office at the pleasure of the President, which means that the President can remove the Governor from office at any time without assigning any reason.
• The term of governor's office is normally 5 years but it can be terminated earlier.
• He/She can also resign from his/her office by addressing the resignation letter to the President.
• Under Article 157, the qualifications for appointment as a Governor are: A Governor must
• be an Indian citizen and reside in the country.
• attain an age of a minimum of 35 years.
• not be a member of both houses of the parliament and the house of the state legislature.
• not hold any office for generating profit.

The correct answer is Green Revolution.

Key Points

 Green Revolution:

• The Green Revolution was a major initiative that aimed to increase the production and quality of food crops, especially wheat and rice, in India.
• In India, stagnation in agriculture during colonial rule was permanently eliminated by Green Revolution.
• It introduced new technologies, such as high-yielding varieties of seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation, and mechanization.
• MS Swaminathan is considered the father of the Green Revolution in India.
• Norman Borlaug is known as the 'Father of Green Revolution' in the world.
• the Government of India launched the Green Revolution in 1965 under the Third Five-Year Plan(1961-66).
• The Green Revolution within India led to an increase in agricultural production, especially in Haryana, Punjab, and Uttar Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Industrial licensing:
• In 1970, the government implemented the new industrial licensing regime based on the Dutt Committee's suggestion.
• Its goals were as follows:
• to outlaw trade restrictions and monopolies (except by government)
• to avoid the consolidation of economic power in a small number of hands
• To be able to manage monopolies
• To safeguard the interests of customers
• Old crop technology:
• It refers to traditional farming methods, which were prevalent during colonial rule.
• These methods were inefficient and could not keep up with the growing population's demands.
• Loan facility:
• It is a facility in which borrowers receive a fixed amount of money up front in return for certain lending conditions.
• With either a fixed or variable interest rate, borrowers agree to repay their lenders a predetermined amount over a predetermined timetable.
• It is a general term and does not specifically relate to agriculture. While access to credit is important for farmers, it is not a comprehensive solution to the challenges faced by the agricultural sector.

The correct answer is Pushpmitra.

Key Points

• Pushyamitra  established the Shunga dynasty in India after overthrowing the Mauryan ruler Brihadratha in 185 or 186 BC.
• His capital was at Pataliputra.
• He successfully repelled the assaults of Demetrius and Menander, two Greek monarchs.
• Additionally, he stopped the Kalinga king Kharavela's attack and conquered Vidarbha.
• The Stupas at Sanchi and Barhut were restored during his rule. He constructed the Sanchi stone entrance with sculptures.
• He patronised the Sanskrit grammarian Patanjali under whom he performed Vedic sacrifices such as Ashvamedha, Rajasuya and Vajapeya.
• The Shunga dynasty ruled from 185 BCE to 73 BCE and was known for its patronage of Buddhism and revival of Hinduism.
• It emerged in the post-Mauryan era and had ten emperors who ruled for roughly 112 years.
• They controlled North-central and Eastern India as well as parts of the northwest (now Pakistan).
• Their capital city was Pataliputra.
• Protecting India against the Huna invasion was one of the Sunga dynasty's greatest accomplishments.

Additional Information

• Agnimitra was the son of Pushyamitra who ascended to the throne in his place.
• He ruled from roughly 149 BC to 141 BC.
• Vidarbha had already seceded from the empire by this point.
• The protagonist of Kalidasa's poem Malavikagnimitram is Agnimitra.
• He was succeeded as king by his son Vasumitra.
• The fourth emperor of the Shunga Empire in North India was Vasumitra.
• He was the brother or half-brother of Vasujyeshtha, the stepson of Queen Mālavikā, King Agnimitra's third wife, and the son of Agnimitra through his queen Dharini.
• The identities of Vasumitra's successors remain unclear. Various names, including Andhraka, Pulindaka, Vajramitra, and Ghosha, appear in multiple accounts.
• Devabhuti was the final known Sunga ruler. The previous one was Bhagabhadra.
• In approximately 73 BC, Devabhuti was assassinated by his own clergyman, Vasudeva Kanva. The Kanva dynasty was created in Magadha and lasted from 73 to 28 BC.

The correct answer is Market.

Key Points

• The term "marketable surplus" describes the difference between a farmer's entire output and his own consumption of that output.​​
• Market surplus is the part of agricultural produce which is sold by farmers in the market.
• It is an important aspect of agricultural economics as it helps to determine the supply and demand of agricultural produce in the market.
• It can also influence the prices of agricultural produce in the market
• Agricultural produce refers to the crops and livestock produced by farmers.

Additional Information.

• Revised surplus: This refers to the difference between the expected yield of a crop and the actual yield.
• It is calculated by subtracting the expected yield from the actual yield.
• Balanced surplus: This refers to a situation where the supply of agricultural produce in the market is equal to the demand for it.
• Imported surplus: This refers to the surplus produce that is imported from other countries to meet the demand for agricultural produce in the local market.

The correct answer is 1922.

Key Points

• Non Cooperation Movement:
• In 1920, during British rule, Gandhiji started the first national movement known as the Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM).
• There were several factors that contributed to the Non-Cooperation Movement. The main causes include the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, the Rowlatt Act, and the Khilafat Movement.
• In September 1920, during a special session held in Calcutta, the Congress supported a Non-Cooperation Movement until the injustices of Punjab and Khilafat were rectified and Swaraj was achieved.
• The Nagpur INC Session of December 1920 saw the acceptance and endorsement of the non-cooperation programme without any resistance.
• The campaign was characterized by the boycott of foreign products, government services and legal practice, legislative bodies, courts, and government-run institutions and colleges.
• It also emphasizes the promotion of Khadi and Swadeshi products.
• Mahatma Gandhi, who was adamantly against violence, put an end to the non-cooperation movement on February 12, 1922, following the Chauri Chaura incident.
• Chauri-Chaura Incident:
• The terrible incident happened at Chauri Chaura in the Uttar Pradesh district of Gorakhpur on February 4, 1922.
• Numerous Khilafat activists and Congress freedom fighters who were taking part in the Non-Cooperation campaign were shot at by police, resulting in their deaths.
• Many of the inhabitants of the Chauri Chaura police station were killed when protestors attacked and set fire to it as payback.
• Twenty-two police officers and three civilians lost their lives in the event.

Additional Information

• Rowlatt Act:
• The Rowlatt Act, also known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, was enacted by the British government, prompting the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
• On the advice of the Sir Sidney Rowlatt who chaired Sedition Committee, this act was passed. Despite the Indian members' unanimous opposition, the Imperial Legislative Council rushed this act through in March 1919.
• It gave the government broad powers to stifle political activity and allowed the two-year imprisonment of political prisoners without charge or trial.
• Gandhiji demanded that the Rowlatt Act be opposed nationally.
• Jallianwala Bagh massacre:
• The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre, took place on 13 April 1919.
• During the annual Baishakhi festival in Amritsar, Punjab, British India, a sizable and nonviolent gathering had convened at the Jallianwala Bagh to express disapproval of the Rowlatt Act and the apprehension of pro-independence activists Saifuddin Kitchlew and Satyapal.
• Temporary Brigadier General Reginald E. H. Dyer encircled the mass of unarmed civilians and ordered open fire in reaction to their public gathering.
• Khilafat Movement:
• Following World War I, Indian Muslims launched the Khilafat Movement to express their disapproval of the British Empire's dissolution of the Ottoman Caliphate.
• The Ali brothers, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Ajmal Khan, and Hasrat Mohani, organized the All India Khilafat Committee in the beginning of 1919 with the goal of pressuring the British Government to alter its stance against Turkey.
• Gandhi promoted non-cooperation and backed the Khilafat cause.
• It was no longer relevant as under Mustafa Kamal Pasha, the Turkish people rose up in November 1922 and ousted the Sultan from office. Turkey became a secular nation-state.

Shortcut Trick

Initial Alcohol = 10% of 40 = 4 liters.

New Total Mixture = 40 + 4 = 44 liters.

New Alcohol % = (4 ÷ 44) × 100 = (1 ÷ 11) × 100 = 9(1/11)%.

∴ The correct answer is 9(1/11)%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial volume of mixture = 40 liters

Percentage of Alcohol = 10%

Volume of Water added = 4 liters

Calculations:

⇒ Quantity of Alcohol = 10% of 40 = (10 ÷ 100) × 40 = 4 liters

⇒ Quantity of Water = 40 − 4 = 36 liters

⇒ New total volume of mixture = 40 + 4 = 44 liters

⇒ New Alcohol percentage = (Quantity of Alcohol ÷ New Total Volume) × 100

⇒ New Alcohol percentage = (4 ÷ 44) × 100

⇒ New Alcohol percentage = (1 ÷ 11) × 100 = 100/11 = 9(1/11)%

∴ The correct answer is 9(1/11)%.

Additional Information

Concentration Formula

The concentration of a solute in a solution is given by (Volume of Solute ÷ Total Volume of Solution) × 100.

Dilution Principle

When only solvent (water) is added, the quantity of solute (alcohol) remains constant while the total volume increases, leading to a decrease in percentage concentration.

Given:

A policeman notices a thief from a distance = 600 m.

A policeman runs at the rate of 12 km/hr

And thief run at the rate of 10 km/hr

Formula used:

Distance = speed x time

Calculation:

Relative speed = (12 - 10)km/hr = 2 km/hr

Time = 600/(2 × 5/18)

⇒ 1080 sec = 1080/60 = 18 minutes

∴ The answer is 18 minutes.

Given:-

A completes a task in 18 days

B completes a task in 27 days

Concept Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculation: 

Let B finish the remaining work in x days

Let total work be 54 units (LCM of 18 and 27)

⇒ Efficiency of A = 54/18 = 3 units

⇒ Efficiency of B = 54/27 = 2 units

According to the question,

⇒ 5 × 8 + 2x = 54

⇒ 2x = 54 - 40

⇒ x = 14/2 = 7 days.

The answer is 7 days.

Given:

The ratio of the radius and height of the cylinder = 3: 2

Radius = 21 cm

Formula used:

The curved surface area of the cylinder = 2πrh

Here,

r = radius

h = height

Calculation:

Let the radius of the base and height of the cylinder be 3x and 2x

So,

3x → 21

2x → 21/3 × 2 = 14

Curved surface area = 2π × 21 × 14

⇒ 2 × (22/7) × 21 × 14

⇒ 2 × 22 × 21 × 2

⇒ 1848

∴ The curved surface area (in cm2) of the cylinder is 1848.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Radius (50% increase): 2 → 3

Ratio of Height (50% decrease): 2 → 1

Ratio of Volume (r² × h): (2² × 2) → (3² × 1) ⇒ 8 → 9

Percentage change = (Difference / Initial) × 100 = (1 / 8) × 100 = 12.5%

∴ The correct answer is 12.5% increase.

Alternate Method

Given:

Increase in radius (r) = 50%

Decrease in height (h) = 50%

Formula Used:

Volume of Cylinder (V) = πr²h

⇒ Let the initial radius be r and initial height be h.

⇒ Initial Volume V₁ = πr²h

⇒ New radius R = r + 50% of r = 1.5r

⇒ New height H = h − 50% of h = 0.5h

⇒ New Volume V₂ = π × (1.5r)² × 0.5h

⇒ V₂ = π × 2.25r² × 0.5h = 1.125 × (πr²h)

⇒ Percentage change = [(V₂ − V₁) / V₁] × 100

⇒ Percentage change = (1.125 − 1) × 100 = 0.125 × 100 = 12.5%

∴ The correct answer is 12.5% increase.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When two dimensions change, the net change is given by x + y + (xy/100). For r², apply this to the two radius factors first.

Cylinder Surface Area Change

The Curved Surface Area (2πrh) change depends linearly on both r and h. If r increases by 50% and h decreases by 50%, CSA becomes 1.5 × 0.5 = 0.75 (25% decrease).

Volume Proportionality

For any 3D figure, the volume change is the product of the change factors of its three linear dimensions (e.g., r, r, and h for a cylinder).

Given:

2 shirt is given free on the purchase of 10 shirts

A discount of 10% is allowed on the purchase

Formula Used:

SP = CP + Profit

Discount% = Free article/Total article × 100

Calculation:

Discount% = 2/12 × 100 = 16.66%

SP ⇒ MP × (1 - 10/100) × (1 - 16.66/100) 

SP ⇒ MP × 9/10 × 5/6

SP/MP ⇒ 3/4

Net effective discount % = (4 - 3)/4 × 100

= 25%

The answer is 25%.

Given:

The price of an article is first decreased by 8% and later increased by 12%.

Formula used:

Percentage in change =   a + b + (ab/100) 

Calculation:

12 - 8 - (8 × 12)/100 = 4 - 0.96

= 3% (approx.)

It means the price of the book increased by 3%.

    ∴ The price of the article increased by 3%.

Shortcut Trick

For no profit or loss, the Selling Price (SP) must be equal to the Cost Price (CP).

Let the multiplier for each equal discount be 'k'.

k² = SP / MP = 121.5 / 150 = 81 / 100

k = √(81 / 100) = 9 / 10

Discount Percentage = (1 − 9/10) × 100 = 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) of the pen = ₹121.5

Marked Price (MP) of the pen = ₹150

Condition: No profit or loss after two equal successive discounts.

Formula Used:

SP = MP × (1 − r/100)ⁿ

Where 'r' is the discount rate and 'n' is the number of discounts.

Calculations:

⇒ For no profit or loss, SP = CP = ₹121.5

⇒ 121.5 = 150 × (1 − x/100)²

⇒ (1 − x/100)² = 121.5 / 150

⇒ (1 − x/100)² = 1215 / 1500

⇒ (1 − x/100)² = 81 / 100

⇒ 1 − x/100 = √(81 / 100)

⇒ 1 − x/100 = 9 / 10

⇒ x/100 = 1 − 0.9

⇒ x/100 = 0.1

⇒ x = 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Additional Information

No Profit No Loss Case

This condition occurs when the Selling Price (SP) is exactly equal to the Cost Price (CP) of the product.

Successive Discounts Formula

If two discounts are 'a%' and 'b%', the equivalent single discount is given by: [a + b − (ab/100)]%.

Marked Price (MP) Relation

MP = CP × (100 + Profit%) / (100 − Discount%). If Profit% is zero, then MP/CP = 100 / (100 − Net Discount%).

Given:

14 men can build a wall 55 m long in 5 days.

Formula used:

(M₁ × T₁)/W₁ = (M₂ × T₂)/W₂

Where M₁ and M₂ is numbers of men

T₁ and T₂ is Time taken to complete the work

W₁ and W₂ is the work done

Calculation:

Applying the above formula

⇒ (14 × 5)/55 = (21 × 4)W₂

⇒ W₂ = 84 × 11/14

⇒ W₂ = 66 m

∴ The required length of the wall will be 66 metre

Shortcut Trick

When the Cost Price (CP) of two articles is the same, the net profit or loss percentage is the average of their individual profit or loss percentages.

Net Profit or Loss % = (P₁ + P₂) ÷ 2

⇒ Net % = (+12% − 8%) ÷ 2

⇒ Net % = +4% ÷ 2 = +2%

Since the sign is positive, there is an overall profit of 2%.

∴ The correct answer is 2% Profit.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit on the 1st car = 12%

Loss on the 2nd car = 8%

Cost Price (CP) of both cars is the same.

Calculation:

⇒ Let the CP of each car be 100.

⇒ Total CP of both cars = 100 + 100 = 200

⇒ SP of the 1st car (at 12% profit) = 100 + 12 = 112

⇒ SP of the 2nd car (at 8% loss) = 100 − 8 = 92

⇒ Total SP of both cars = 112 + 92 = 204

CP = 100 Car 1

+12% Profit

SP = 112

CP = 100 Car 2

−8% Loss

SP = 92

Total CP = 200

Net Profit = 4

Total SP = 204

2% Profit

⇒ Net Profit = Total SP − Total CP

⇒ Net Profit = 204 − 200 = 4

⇒ Overall Profit % = (Profit ÷ Total CP) × 100

⇒ Overall Profit % = (4 ÷ 200) × 100 = 2%

∴ The correct answer is 2% Profit.

Additional Information

Case 1: Same Cost Price (CP)

If two items are bought at the same CP, one sold at x% profit and the other at y% loss, the net profit or loss percentage is given by (x − y) ÷ 2.

Case 2: Same Cost Price & Equal % Value

If two items are bought at the same CP, one sold at x% profit and the other at x% loss, there is ALWAYS no overall profit and no overall loss (0% net change).

Case 3: Same Selling Price (SP)

If two items are sold at the same SP, one at x% profit and the other at x% loss, there is ALWAYS an overall net loss which is equal to (x² ÷ 100)%.

Shortcut Trick

Initial Ratio of Gold to Copper = 2 ∶ 1 (Total = 3 units = 60 Grams ⇒ 1 unit = 20 Grams)

Final Ratio of Gold to Copper = 1 ∶ 2

Since Gold remains unchanged, equate the Gold units by multiplying the final ratio by 2 ⇒ 2 ∶ 4

Increase in Copper = 4 − 1 = 3 units ⇒ Added Copper = 3 × 20 = 60 Grams.

∴ The correct answer is 60 Grams.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total weight of initial alloy = 60 Grams

Initial ratio of Gold to Copper = 2 ∶ 1

Final ratio of Gold to Copper = 1 ∶ 2

Calculations:

Let the initial weight of Gold be 2x and Copper be x.

⇒ Total initial weight = 2x + x = 60

⇒ 3x = 60 ⇒ x = 20 Grams

⇒ Initial quantity of Gold = 2 × 20 = 40 Grams

⇒ Initial quantity of Copper = 20 Grams

Let y Grams of pure copper be added to the mixture.

⇒ New quantity of Copper = (20 + y) Grams

Since the new ratio of Gold to Copper is 1 ∶ 2:

⇒ 40 / (20 + y) = 1 / 2

⇒ 20 + y = 80

⇒ y = 60 Grams

∴ The correct answer is 60 Grams.

Additional Information

Constant Element Concept

When only one component of a mixture is altered (added or removed), the absolute quantity of the other component remains unchanged. Equating the constant component's parts across the initial and final ratios provides the fastest way to solve mixture problems.

Rule of Alligation

Used to find the exact ratio in which two distinct mixtures must be mixed. Formula: (Quantity of cheaper ÷ Quantity of dearer) = (Price of dearer − Mean price) ÷ (Mean price − Price of cheaper).

Replacement Formula

If from a vessel containing x units of a pure liquid, y units are drawn out and replaced with water, and this process is repeated n times, the amount of pure liquid left = x × (1 − y/x)ⁿ.

Shortcut Trick

Surface Area = 4πr² = 30,184 cm²

r² = 30184 ÷ (4 × 22/7) = 343 × 7 = 2401 ⇒ r = 49 cm

Volume = (Surface Area × r) ÷ 3 = (30184 × 49) ÷ 3

In terms of options: Volume = (4/3) × (22/7) × 49 × 49² = (88 × 7 / 3) × 49² = (616/3) × 49²

∴ The correct answer is 616/3 × (49)² cm³.

Alternate Method

Given:

Surface area of the sphere = 30,184 cm²

Formula Used:

Surface Area of a sphere = 4πr²

Volume of a sphere = (4/3)πr³

r = 49 Sphere

Calculations:

⇒ 4 × (22/7) × r² = 30,184

⇒ (88/7) × r² = 30,184

⇒ r² = (30184 × 7) ÷ 88

⇒ r² = 343 × 7 = 2401

⇒ r = √2401 = 49 cm

⇒ Volume = (4/3) × (22/7) × 49 × 49 × 49

⇒ Volume = (4/3) × 22 × 7 × 49 × 49

⇒ Volume = (616/3) × (49)² cm³

∴ The correct answer is 616/3 × (49)² cm³.

Additional Information

Volume and Surface Area of Hemisphere

For a hemisphere of radius r, Volume = (2/3)πr³, Curved Surface Area = 2πr², and Total Surface Area = 3πr².

Relationship between Volume and Surface Area of Sphere

The Volume (V) of a sphere can be expressed in terms of its Surface Area (S) as V = (S × r) ÷ 3.

Archimedes Principle for Sphere

The volume of a sphere is two-thirds the volume of its circumscribing cylinder with the same radius and height.

Given: 

The selling price of the mixture = Rs.136.40 per kg

Profit percent = 10% 

Formula used:

Profit percent = [(SP - CP)/ CP] × 100 

Calculation

⇒ 10 = [(136.4 - CP)/ CP] × 100 

⇒ 10 CP = 13640 - 100 CP 

⇒ 110 CP = 13640 

⇒ CP = Rs.124/kg

Let the quantity of the first variety of tea = x

Let the quantity of the second variety of tea = y 

According to the question: 

120 × x + 130 × y = (x + y) 124

120x + 130y = 124x + 124y 

6y = 4x 

x : y = 3 : 2

∴ The required ratio is 3: 2 

Shortcut Trick 

⇒ CP of Mixture = 136.4/110 × 100 = Rs.124\kg

Using allegation method

120        130

       124

6               4

The ratio is 3: 2.

Given

A and B together can complete a work in 12 days

B and C together in 15 days 

C and A together in 20 days

Formula used

Total work = Men × Efficiency

Calculation

Total efficiency of A, B and C = (5 + 4 + 3)/2 = 6

Time taken to finish work together ⇒ 60/6 = 10 days

The answer is 10 days.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the LCM of 3, 12, 24, and 36, which is 72.

The largest 3-digit number is 999.

Divide 999 by 72: 999 ÷ 72 = 13 with a remainder of 63.

Subtract the remainder from 999: 999 − 63 = 936.

∴ The correct answer is 936.

Alternate Method

Given: Divisors are 3, 12, 24, and 36.

Formula Used: Required Number = (Largest 3-digit number) − (Remainder of Largest 3-digit number ÷ LCM of divisors)

⇒ Step 1: Find LCM of 3, 12, 24, 36.

⇒ 3 = 3¹

⇒ 12 = 2² × 3¹

⇒ 24 = 2³ × 3¹

⇒ 36 = 2² × 3²

⇒ LCM = 2³ × 3² = 8 × 9 = 72.

⇒ Step 2: Divide 999 by 72.

⇒ 999 = 72 × 13 + 63.

⇒ Step 3: Required number = 999 − 63 = 936.

∴ The correct answer is 936.

Additional Information

LCM (Least Common Multiple)

The smallest positive integer that is divisible by each of the given numbers. Found by taking the highest power of all prime factors.

Divisibility Rule of 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3.

Finding N-digit Multiples

To find the largest n-digit number divisible by 'x', calculate: (Largest n-digit number) − (Remainder of Largest n-digit number ÷ x).

Calculation

⇒ 42 ÷ 2 + m × 3 – 22 ÷ 11 + 3 = 28

⇒ 21 + m × 3 – 2 + 3 = 28

⇒ 22 + m × 3 = 28

⇒ 3m = 6

⇒ m = 2

The answer is 2.

Given:

A policeman notices a thief from a distance = 85 m.

A policeman runs at the rate of 8 km/hr

And thief run at the rate of 7 km/hr

Formula used:

Distance = speed x time

Calculation:

Relative speed = (8 - 7)km/hr = 1 km/hr

Time = 85/(1 × 5/18)

⇒ 17 × 18 sec = 306 seconds

= 306/60 = 5.1 minutes

∴ The answer is 5.1 minutes.

Given:

Principal = Rs. 5,000

Amount = Rs. 5,832

Rate = 8% p.a.

Formula Used:

Amount = Principal × (1 + r/100 )^Time

Calculation:      

Amount = Principal × (1 + r/100 )Time

⇒ 5832 = 5000 × (1 + 8/100 )Time

⇒ 5832/5000 = (108/100)^Time

⇒ 729/625 = (27/25)Time

⇒ (27/25)² = (27/25)Time

Since the base is the same we can compare the power raised.

⇒ Time = 2 years.

∴ ₹5,000 becomes ₹5,832 at a rate of 8% per annum in 2 years.

Given:

The principal is Rs. 22,445

Rate is 30%

Time is 2 years

Formula used:

Amount = P{1 + (R/100)}^T

C.I = Amount - P

Where P is Principal,

C.I is Compound Interest,

R is Rate,

T is time

Calculations:

According to the question, 

⇒ Amount = P{1 + (R/100)}^T

⇒ Amount = 22,445{1 + (30/100)}²

⇒ Amount = 22,445 × (130/100) × (130/100) 

⇒ Amount = 22,445 × (13/10) × (13/10)

⇒ Amount = Rs. 22,445 × 169/100 = 37,933

∴ The answer is 37,933.

Shortcut Trick

Effective Profit % = (1/3 × 18%) + (1/4 × 25%) + (5/12 × 30%)

Effective Profit % = 6% + 6.25% + 12.5% = 24.75%

According to question: 24.75% of Total CP = ₹1980

Total CP = (1980 ÷ 24.75) × 100 = 8000

∴ The correct answer is ₹8,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

First part = 1/3 at 18% profit | Second part = 1/4 at 25% profit | Total profit = ₹1980

Calculations:

⇒ Remaining part = 1 − (1/3 + 1/4) = 1 − 7/12 = 5/12

⇒ Let the Total Cost Price be 1200 units (LCM of 3 and 4 multiplied by 100)

⇒ Profit from 1/3 part = 1/3 × 1200 × 18/100 = 400 × 18/100 = 72 units

⇒ Profit from 1/4 part = 1/4 × 1200 × 25/100 = 300 × 25/100 = 75 units

⇒ Profit from 5/12 part = 5/12 × 1200 × 30/100 = 500 × 30/100 = 150 units

⇒ Total Profit in units = 72 + 75 + 150 = 297 units

⇒ 297 units = ₹1980

⇒ 1 unit = 1980 ÷ 297 = 20/3

⇒ Total CP = 1200 units = 1200 × 20/3 = 400 × 20 = 8000

∴ The correct answer is ₹8,000.

Additional Information

Overall Profit Percentage

When different parts of an article are sold at different profit rates, the net profit % = Σ(Part_n × Profit%_n).

Cost Price Formula

If the absolute profit value and profit percentage are known, Cost Price (CP) = (Total Profit × 100) ÷ Net Profit %.

Profit/Loss on Remaining Parts

Remaining part = 1 − (Σ given fractions). Ensure the sum of all fractional parts equals 1 before calculating net effect.

The correct answer is: let the cat out of the bag

Key Points

• The idiom "let the cat out of the bag" means to reveal a secret or disclose something that was supposed to be kept confidential. (किसी रहस्य को प्रकट करना या किसी ऐसी बात का खुलासा करना जिसे गोपनीय रखा जाना चाहिए)
• It suggests that someone has unintentionally or carelessly disclosed information that was meant to be kept hidden.
• Example: Tom couldn't contain his excitement and accidentally let the cat out of the bag about the surprise vacation.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• "Let the chance slip by" means to miss or fail to take advantage of an opportunity. (किसी अवसर का लाभ उठाने में चूक जाना या असफल होना)
• "Let things slide" means to neglect or ignore something, often allowing it to deteriorate or become less controlled. (किसी चीज़ की उपेक्षा या अनदेखी करना, अक्सर उसे बिगड़ने या कम नियंत्रित होने देना)
• "Let the chips fall where they may" means to accept the outcome of a situation without trying to control or influence it. (किसी स्थिति को नियंत्रित या प्रभावित करने की कोशिश किए बिना उसके परिणाम को स्वीकार करना)

The correct answer is "her friends were laughing at her."

Key Points

• The error lies in the part "laughing on" of the sentence.
• The sentence "She was embarrassed because her friends were laughing on her" contains a preposition error.
• Instead of "laughing on," it should be "laughing at."
• So, the correct answer is Option 2.
  

​

Correct sentence: She was embarrassed because her friends were laughing at her.

The correct answer is "went a step further."

Key Points

• The error lies in the part "went a step further" of the sentence.
• "Farther" is primarily used to refer to physical distance. (आगे)
• Example: The store is farther down the road.
• "Further" is often used in a more figurative or metaphorical sense, referring to a greater degree or extent. (आगे)
• Example: We need to conduct further research on the topic.
• The correct phrase is "a step further" instead of "a step farther."
• So, the correct answer is Option 2.
  

​

Correct sentence: The principal went a step further to declare 12th June as a holiday for the entire group of schools.

The correct answer is: Grand

Key Points

• Magnificent means extremely impressive, beautiful, or extraordinary in a way that evokes admiration or awe. (शानदार)
• Example: The palace was adorned with magnificent chandeliers and intricate tapestries, creating a breathtaking atmosphere.
• Marked option Grand means large, impressive, or ambitious in scale or appearance. (शानदार)
• Example: The grand cathedral stood tall and imposing, showcasing remarkable architecture and intricate details.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• "Evil" refers to morally wrong or wicked actions, thoughts, or intentions. (बुराई)
• "Capable" means having the ability, skill, or potential to do something. (काबिल)
• "Enlarge" means to make something larger in size or extent. (बड़े आकार में)

The correct answer is "fit."

Key Points 

• The word "fit" means strong and in good physical health (especially because of exercise). (हृष्‍ट-पुष्‍ट और सुस्‍वस्‍थ विशेषतः व्‍यायाम के कारण)
• Example: Swimming is a good way to keep fit.
• Here, "fit" indicates maintaining physical fitness or health through regular jogging.
• So, the correct answer is Option 2.
  

​

Correct sentence: In order to keep fit I jog for 45 minutes daily. 

Additional Information

• Feet: the lowest part of the body, at the end of the leg, on which a person or animal stands. (पैर, पाँव)
• Feat: something you do that shows great strength, skill or courage. (शक्ति और कुशलता या साहस से पूर्ण कार्य; उल्‍लेखनीय उपलब्धि)
• Fitt: Incorrect spelling.

The correct answer is: stingy

Key Points

• Generous means showing a readiness to give more of something, especially money or time, than is strictly necessary or expected. (उदार)
• Example: Her generous donation to the charity helped fund crucial programs for underprivileged children.
• Marked option Stingy means being unwilling to give, share, or spend; it implies a reluctance to be generous or open-handed. (कंजूस)
• Example: Despite his wealth, he was known for being stingy, rarely contributing to communal efforts or charitable causes.
• Complete sentence: The employer is too stingy to give a bonus to the employees.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• "Caring" refers to showing concern, affection, and consideration for the well-being of others. (देखभाल करने वाला)
• "Kind" means having a friendly, considerate, and benevolent nature. (दयालु)
• "Cripple" means to cause severe and disabling damage to; deprive of the ability to function normally. (अपंग)

The correct answer is: inert

Key Points

• Static means lacking in movement, action, or change. (स्थिर)
• Example: The radio station experienced static on the frequency, causing interference with the broadcast.
• Marked option Inert means lacking the ability or strength to move or act. (निष्क्रिय)
• Example: The chemicals remained inert until the right conditions activated their reactive properties in the laboratory experiment.
• Complete sentence: Society is not an inert but a dynamic entity.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• "Independent" means having the ability to function or operate on its own, without relying on external control or support. (स्वतंत्र)
• "Capable" refers to having the ability, skills, or qualities necessary to achieve or perform a particular task. (काबिल)
• "Variable" is something that is subject to change or variation, often in quantity, value, or nature. (परिवर्तनीय)

The correct answer is: Unsuccessful

Key Points

• Futile means incapable of producing any useful result. (व्यर्थ)
• Example: His attempts to fix the antique watch were futile.
• Marked option Unsuccessful means not achieving the desired outcome or failing to accomplish a goal. (असफल)
• Example: Despite her hard work, the business venture was ultimately unsuccessful.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Foresightful: Having the ability to anticipate or predict future events and outcomes. (दूरदर्शी)
• Mirthful: Full of joy, happiness, and laughter. (आनंदित)
• Worthwhile: Valuable, significant, or deserving of time, effort, or attention due to the benefits or rewards it brings. (सार्थक)

The correct answer is: under a cloud

Key Points

• The phrase "Under a cloud" means being in a state of suspicion, disfavour, or general disrepute. (संदेह, अनादर या सामान्य बदनामी की स्थिति में होना)
• It suggests that a person or situation is surrounded by doubt, criticism, or a negative perception.
• Example: After the scandal broke, the politician found himself under a cloud of suspicion.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is: fertile

Key Points

• Barren means unable to produce offspring, unproductive, or infertile. (अनुपजाऊ)
• Example: The barren desert stretched for miles, lacking any signs of life.
• Marked option Fertile means capable of producing offspring, abundant in vegetation, or able to support plant growth. (उपजाऊ)
• Example: The fertile soil in the valley allowed farmers to cultivate a variety of crops throughout the year.
• Complete sentence: The land near arid regions is not fertile enough for growing crops or any kind of vegetation.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• "Devoid" means entirely lacking or empty of something. (शून्य)
• "Arid" describes an environment or climate that is extremely dry, lacking sufficient moisture for plant growth. (शुष्क)
• "Stark" means harsh, grim, or severe in appearance. (कठोर)

The correct answer is "I chose not to go to the reunion."

Key Points

• The error lies in the phrase "go for."
• The phrase "go for" is often used to express a decision or choice, particularly when selecting something or pursuing a particular option.
• Example: I think I'll go for the chicken dish for dinner.
• The phrase "go to" is commonly used to indicate movement toward a specific location or destination.
• Example: I need to go to the store to buy some groceries.
• So, we must replace the phrase "go for" with "go to."
• So, the correct answer is Option 4.
  

​

Correct sentence: Although my friends begged me, I chose not to go to the reunion.

The correct answer is "Why is he crying like that?"

Key Points 

• The present progressive tense, also known as the present continuous tense, is a verb form that indicates an ongoing action in the present.
• It is formed by using the present tense of the auxiliary verb "to be" (am, is, are) followed by the present participle (the -ing form) of the main verb.
• Structure: Why+Auxiliary Verb (Am/Is/Are)+Subject+Present Participle (Verb + -ing)+?
• Example: Why is she studying for her exams?
• So, the correct answer is Option 2.
  

​

Correct sentence: Why is he crying like that?

The correct answer is "enduring."

Key Points 

• In the given sentence, the incorrectly spelt word is "enduering."
• The correct spelling of the word is "enduring."
• The word "enduring" means lasting over a period of time; durable. (स्‍थायी, टिकाऊ)
• Example: I shall be left with many enduring memories of the time I spent in India.
• So, the correct answer is Option 1.
  

​

Correct sentence: Many people were enduring mental agony and health issues with the change in lifestyle. 

Additional Information

• Agouny: The correct spelling is "Agony." It means great pain or suffering. (तीव्र वेदना, तेज़ पीड़ा, व्‍यथा, कष्‍ट)
• Heaolth: The correct spelling is "Health." It means the condition of a person’s body or mind. (व्‍यक्ति के शरीर या मन की दशा; स्‍वास्‍थ्‍य, सेहत)
• Mentel: The correct spelling is "Mental." It means connected with or happening in the mind; involving the process of thinking. (मन से संबंधित या मन में होने वाला, मानसिक; जिसमें सोचने की प्रक्रिया चले, दिमाग़ी)

The correct answer is "The sage said that life is nothing but a journey of compromises."

Key Points  

• The correct spelling is "compromises."
• The word "compromises" means an agreement that is reached when each person gets part, but not all, of what he/she wanted. (सुलह आदि के लिए किया गया समझौता जिसमें हर व्‍यक्ति की केवल कुछ ही माँगें पूरी होती हैं; मध्य रास्‍ता)
• Example: The government has said that there will be no compromises with terrorists.
• So, the correct answer is Option 1.
  

​

Correct sentence: The sage said that life is nothing but a journey of compromises.

The correct answer is: Giant

Key Points

• Titan refers to a person or thing of great strength, size, or achievement. (दैत्य)
• Example: The businessman was considered a titan in the industry, having built a massive empire.
• Marked option Giant refers to a creature, object, or person of enormous size or power. (विशाल)
• Example: The mountain was surrounded by giant trees, creating a breathtaking natural landscape.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• "Midget" is used to describe individuals of short stature. (बहुत छोटा चित्र)
• "Predator" refers to an animal or person that preys on others, often for food or in a harmful manner. (हिंसक जानवर)
• "Puny" means small, weak, or lacking in strength or size. (छोटा आकार का)

The correct answer is "threats."

Key Points 

• The word "threats" means a warning that somebody may hurt, kill or punish you if you do not do what he/she wants. ((इच्छित काम न करने पर) (चोट पहुँचाने या मार देने की) धमकी)
• Example: She was fired after making threats to her co-workers.
• The sentence conveys that light is one of the biggest dangers to textiles.
• So, the correct answer is Option 1.
• Correct paragraph:

One of the greatest threats to textiles is light. It is a form of energy that can fade colour and cause chemical and physical ______ (2) ______ of textile fibres. Exposure to both, natural and ultra violet light can threaten the ______ (3) ______ of textiles. Light damage occurs progressively. You must have noticed at home that the most faded folds of curtains are the first to ______ (4) ______ and fall apart. Fading of colours and alterations of hues are the ______ (5) ______ easy-to-detect signs of light damage. 

Additional Information

• Beauties: the quality which gives pleasure to the senses; the state of being beautiful. (इंद्रियों को सुखद लगनेवाले लक्ष्ण; सुंदरता, ख़ूबसूरती, आकर्षण; सौंदर्य)
• Additions: the action or process of adding something to something else. (किसी चीज़ में कुछ जोड़ने की क्रिया या प्रक्रिया)
• Warnings: something that tells you to be careful or tells you about something, usually something bad, before it happens. ((प्रायः अशुभ स्थिति से) सतर्क करने वाली बात; पूर्वसूचना, चेतावनी)

The correct answer is "degradation."

Key Points

• The word "degradation" means the action of making somebody be less respected; the state of being less respected. (अपमानित होने की क्रिया; अपमानित होने की अवस्‍था)
• Example: One of the effects of environmental degradation is the absence of fish in that river.
• The sentence conveys that it is a type of radiation that can cause textile fibers to physically and chemically deteriorate as well as fade in color.
• So, the correct answer is Option 1.
• Correct paragraph:

One of the greatest threats to textiles is light. It is a form of energy that can fade colour and cause chemical and physical degradation of textile fibres. Exposure to both, natural and ultra violet light can threaten the ______ (3) ______ of textiles. Light damage occurs progressively. You must have noticed at home that the most faded folds of curtains are the first to ______ (4) ______ and fall apart. Fading of colours and alterations of hues are the ______ (5) ______ easy-to-detect signs of light damage.

Additional Information

• Embarrassment: the feeling you have when you are embarrassed. (लज्जित होने का भाव)
• Mortification: great embarrassment and shame. (अपमान, अवमानता)
• Disgrace: the state of not being respected by other people, usually because you have behaved badly. (प्रायः बरे आचरण के कारण सम्मानीय न होने की स्थिति, सार्वजनिक बदनामी, अपयश)

The correct answer is "longevity."

Key Points

• The word "longevity" means long life; the fact of lasting a long time. (लंबा जीवन; दीर्घ आयु)
• Example: Elephants are known for their longevity.
• The sentence conveys that textures that are exposed to both natural and ultra violet light may not last as long.
• So, the correct answer is Option 2.
• Correct paragraph:

One of the greatest threats to textiles is light. It is a form of energy that can fade colour and cause chemical and physical degradation of textile fibres. Exposure to both, natural and ultra violet light can threaten the longevity of textiles. Light damage occurs progressively. You must have noticed at home that the most faded folds of curtains are the first to ______ (4) ______ and fall apart. Fading of colours and alterations of hues are the ______ (5) ______ easy-to-detect signs of light damage.

Additional Information

• Seniority: the position or importance that a person has in a company, organization, etc. in relation to others. (किसी कंपनी, संस्‍था आदि में किसी व्यक्ति का पद या महत्व (दूसरों की तुलना में), किसी व्यक्ति की वरिष्‍ठता; सीनियॉरिटी)
• Oldness: the quality of being old. (बूढ़ा होने का गुण)
• Dexterity: skill at doing things, especially with your hands. (दक्षता, निपुणता (विशेषतः हाथ के काम में))

The correct answer is "shred."

Key Points

• The word "shred" means a small thin piece of material that has been cut or torn off. (किसी चीज़ का कटा या फाड़ा हुआ छोटा महीन टुकड़ा; धज्‍जी, कतरन)
• Example: His clothes were torn to shreds by the rose bushes.
• The sentence conveys that the most discolored curtain folds are the first to tear and disintegrate, as you have probably noticed at home.
• So, the correct answer is Option 1.
• Correct paragraph:

One of the greatest threats to textiles is light. It is a form of energy that can fade colour and cause chemical and physical degradation of textile fibres. Exposure to both, natural and ultra violet light can threaten the longevity of textiles. Light damage occurs progressively. You must have noticed at home that the most faded folds of curtains are the first to shred and fall apart. Fading of colours and alterations of hues are the ______ (5) ______ easy-to-detect signs of light damage.

Additional Information

• Distill: to make a liquid pure by heating it until it becomes a gas and then collecting the liquid that forms when the gas cools. (द्रव को शुद्घ करने के लिए उसे भाप बनाना और फिर ठंडा करके पुनः द्रव बनाना)
• Desolate: (used about a place) empty in a way that seems very sad. ((स्‍थान) निर्जन और अवसादपूर्ण)
• Irate: very angry. (अतिक्रुद्घ, रुष्‍ट)

The correct answer is "earliest."

Key Points 

• The word "earliest" means happening or done before the usual or expected time. (सामान्य या अपेक्षित समय से पहले घटित या किया हुआ)
• Example: These data suggest that even the earliest multi-word utterances adhere to syntactic constraints.
• The sentence conveys that the initial visible indications of light damage are color fading and hue changes.
• So, the correct answer is Option 4.
• Correct paragraph:

One of the greatest threats to textiles is light. It is a form of energy that can fade colour and cause chemical and physical degradation of textile fibres. Exposure to both, natural and ultra violet light can threaten the longevity of textiles. Light damage occurs progressively. You must have noticed at home that the most faded folds of curtains are the first to shred and fall apart. Fading of colours and alterations of hues are the earliest easy-to-detect signs of light damage. 

Additional Information    

• Prompt: immediate; done without delay. (अत्‍यावश्‍यक; बिना बिलंब किया (कार्य))
• Premature: happening before the normal or expected time. (सामान्‍य या प्रत्‍याशित समय से पहले घटित, समय-पूर्व)
• Former: of an earlier time; belonging to the past. (पूर्वकाल का; अतीतकालीन)

रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति उचित शब्द "हवा के" होगा। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

Important Pointsअन्य महत्वपूर्ण मुहावरे- 

वाक्य के "बेफिजूल की बातें" शब्द में अशुद्धि है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है। 

Key Points

• वाक्य- रमेश को उस समय मुझ से बेफिजूल की बातें नहीं करनी चाहिए थीं।
• इस वाक्य में बेफिजूल शब्द में अशुद्धि है।
• बेफिजूल का शुद्ध रूप फ़िजूल है।
• शुद्ध वाक्य- 
• रमेश को उस समय मुझ से फ़िजूल की बातें नहीं करनी चाहिए थीं।

Important Points