SSC CPO · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

3100 Total Questions62 Official PapersYears: 2017–2025Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 1941–1960 of 3100Page 98 of 100
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 24 November 2020 Shift 2)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1941

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Jayprakash Narayan was given the title of ‘______’.

  1. AOption (a)

    Deenbandhu

  2. BOption (b)

    Loknayak

  3. COption (c)

    Jana Nayak

  4. DOption (d)

    Deshbandhu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Loknayak

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Loknayak.

  • Jayaprakash Narayan is popularly known as JP or Lok Nayak.
  • He was an Indian independence activist, theorist, socialist and political leader.
  • He is also known as the "Hero of Quit India Movement".
  • JP Narayan is best known for opposing former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
  • It is said that Indira Gandhi's power was snatched away from her after the "JP movement" and gave the famous slogan "Sinhaasan khaali karo ki janta aati hai".

Additional Information

  • Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan was born on 11 October 1902 in Sitabadiyara, Bihar.
  • In 1948, he led the Socialist Party of the Congress and later formed the Samajwadi Socialist Party in association with the Gandhian Party.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 24 November 2020 Shift 2)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1942

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

In which of the following states are the Sundargarh deposits of Manganese located ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Odisha

  3. COption (c)

    Kerala

  4. DOption (d)

    Gujarat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Odisha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Odisha.

Important Points

  • Manganese deposits are available in Sundargarh, Keonjhar, Rayagada, and Balangir districts in Odisha.
  • Dolomite is available in plenty only in the district of Sundargarh in Odisha.
  • There are two major coal-bearing areas in the state which are currently being exploited namely Talcher and the Ib valley in Odisha.
  • Iron ore is abundantly available in the districts of Mayurbhanj, Sundargarh, Keonjhar, and Jajpur in Odisha.

Additional Information

  • South Africa is the world's largest producer of manganese, accounting for 33.5% of global production.
  • The principal mineral-bearing belts in  Maharashtra are the Vidarbha area in the east and the Konkan area in the west.
  • Important mineral occurrences are:
  • Bauxite in Kolhapur, Raigad, Ratnagiri, Satara, Sindhudurg, Thane districts.
  • China clay in Amravati, Bhandara, Chandrapur, Nagpur, Sindhudurg, Thane districts.
  • Chromite in Bhandara, Chandrapur, Nagpur, Sindhudurg districts.
  • Coal in Nagpur, Chandrapur, Yavatmal districts.
  • Dolomite in Chandrapur, Nagpur, Yavatmal districts.
  • Gold in Bhandara, Nagpur districts.
  • Important mines in Kerala:
  • Bauxite in Kannur, Kasaragod, Kollam, Thiruvananthapuram districts.
  • China clay in Alappuzha, Ernakulam, Kannur, Kasaragod, Kollam, Kottayam, Palakkad, Thiruvananthapuram, Thrissur districts.
  • Gold in Malappuram, Palakkad districts.
  • Important mines in Gujarat:
  • Bauxite is found in Kutch as well as Devbhoomi Dwarka District.
  • Manganese deposits are found in Panchmahal, Vadodara, and Dahod District.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 24 November 2020 Shift 2)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1943

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Detritivores in the soil break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is called ______. 

  1. AOption (a)

    mineralisation

  2. BOption (b)

    catabolism

  3. COption (c)

    fragmentation

  4. DOption (d)

    leaching

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

fragmentation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is fragmentation.

Important Points

  • Decomposition of detritus (dead remains of plants and animals) is the process in which decomposers break down complex organic matter into inorganic substances like carbon dioxide, water, and nutrients.
  • The important steps in the process of decomposition are fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humification, and mineralization.
  • Detritivores (like earthworms) break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is called fragmentation.
  • By the process of leaching, water-soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts.
  • In the catabolism process, Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances.
  • Humification leads to the accumulation of a dark-colored amorphous substance called humus that is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate.
  • The humus is further degraded by some microbes and the release of inorganic nutrients occurs by the process known as mineralization.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 24 November 2020 Shift 2)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1944

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Called the farmer’s ‘friend’, the ______ helps in the breakdown of complex organic matter as well as in loosening of the soil.

  1. AOption (a)

    earthworm

  2. BOption (b)

    locust

  3. COption (c)

    weed

  4. DOption (d)

    rat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

earthworm

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is earthworm.

Important Points

  • Earthworms are known as farmers’ best friends because of the multitude of services they provide that improve soil health and consequently plant health.
  • The density of earthworms in the soil is considered to be a good indicator of healthy soil because they improve many soil attributes like structure, water holding capacity, moisture content, etc.
  • They can also increase nutrient availability and degrade pesticide residues.
  • Worms feed on plant debris (dead roots, leaves, grasses, manure) and soil.
  • Their digestive system concentrates the organic and mineral constituents in the food they eat, so their casts are richer in available nutrients than the soil around them.
  • Soils with earthworms drain up to 10 times faster than soils without earthworms.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 24 November 2020 Shift 2)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1945

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Sagol Kangjei, an indigenous game of Manipur is similar to the modern day sports of:

  1. AOption (a)

    cricket

  2. BOption (b)

    polo

  3. COption (c)

    hockey

  4. DOption (d)

    boxing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

polo

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is polo.

Important Points

  • The Sagol Kangjei has been adapted and adopted by the international enthusiasts of the game as Polo and now it's being played worldwide.
  • Today, the world has accepted that the game of Polo originated from Manipur.
  • The Manipuri Polo is played with seven players (on each side) who mount and ride ponies, which are usually 4/5 feet in height.

Each player is fitted with a Polo-stick made of bamboo root.

Additional Information

  • Yubi Lakpi is Manipuri Rugby.
  • “Yubi” in Manipur means coconut and “Lakpi” means snatching.
  • In Manipur, Hiyang Tannaba is Boat Race.
  • It is generally held in November at Thangapat (Moat). The boats called Hiyang Hiren are regarded to be invested with spiritual powers and the game is associated with religious rites.
  • Mukna is Manipuri Wrestling.
  • The game is the Manipuri style of wrestling played between two male rivals for a trial of strength by sheer physical strength and skill.

Key Points

  • Cricket originated in South England.
  • The modern game of hockey emerged in England in the mid-18th century.
  • Boxing originated in Egypt.
  • This sport was introduced to the ancient Olympic Games by the Greeks in the late 7th century BC.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 24 November 2020 Shift 2)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1946

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

‘The Substance and the Shadow’ is the autobiography of ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Dilip Kumar

  2. BOption (b)

    Dev Anand

  3. COption (c)

    Shammi Kapoor

  4. DOption (d)

    Guru Dutt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Dilip Kumar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dilip Kumar.

  • The Substance And The Shadow is an autobiography of the veteran actor, Yousuf Khan, popularly known as Dilip Kumar.
  • The book is written by author and former journalist Udaya Tara Nayar which chronicles the thespian’s ups and downs in his much-talked about relationships, marriage, and movies.
  • The actor entered films with the 1944 release Jwar Bhata. In a career spanning six decades, he did over 60 films including Mela, Naya Daur, Aan, Devdas, Madhumati, and Mughal-E-Azam.
  • He got Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 1994.
  • He got Pakistan’s highest civilian award Nishan-e-Imtiaz in 1998.
  • He holds the Guinness World Record for winning the maximum number of awards by an Indian actor.

Important Points

Dev Anand- The Bollywood superstar was born as Devdutta Pishorimal Anand and was called Dharam Dev Anand. - "Romancing with Life" is the autobiography of Dev Anand. - His nickname was Chiru. - His hit films in his initial years include Vidya, Jeet, Shair, Afsar, Nili, Do Sitare, Sanam, Guide, Jewel Thief, Nau Do Gyarah, Awaara.
Shammi Kapoor- He is also known as the Elvis Presley of India. - Some films of him are Andaz, Zameer, Hero, Vidhaata, Hukumat, Batwara, Tahalka, Chamatkar, Namak and Prem Granth.
Guru Dutt- Vasanth Kumar Shivashankar Padukone, better known as Guru Dutt, was an Indian film director, producer, and actor. - His films are Pyaasa, Kaagaz Ke Phool, Sahib Bibi Aur Ghulam, and Chaudhvin Ka Chand.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 24 November 2020 Shift 2)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1947

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

The charge has to be passed ______ to obtain maximum work from a galvanic cell.

  1. AOption (a)

    uniformly

  2. BOption (b)

    inversely

  3. COption (c)

    proportionately

  4. DOption (d)

    reversibly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

reversibly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is reversibly.

  • There are two types of electrochemical cells: galvanic, also called Voltaic, and electrolytic.
  • Galvanic cells derive their energy from spontaneous redox reactions.
  • Electrolytic cells involve non-spontaneous reactions and thus require an external electron source like a DC battery or an AC power source.

Important Points

  • Galvanic cells traditionally are used as sources of DC electrical power.
  • Oxidation occurs at the anode and reduction occurs at the cathode. Since the reaction at the anode is the source of electrons for the current, the anode is the negative terminal for the galvanic cell.
  • The maximum work of a galvanic cell is equal to Gibb's free energy of the cell.
  • Only happen when the cell is used reversibly.
  • The reversible work done by a galvanic cell is equal to a decrease in its Gibbs energy.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 24 November 2020 Shift 2)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1948

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

What is the length of the Indian border with Afghanistan?

  1. AOption (a)

    601 km

  2. BOption (b)

    106 km

  3. COption (c)

    755 km

  4. DOption (d)

    575 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

106 km

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 106 km.

Important Points

Land borders of India:

CountryLength (Km)Force
Bangladesh4096 (2,545 miles)Border Security Force
China (McMahon Line)3488 (2,167 miles)Indo-Tibetan Border Police
Pakistan (Radcliffe Line)3310 (2,060 miles)Border Security Force
Nepal1752 (1,089 miles)Sashastra Seema Bal
Myanmar1458 (906 miles)Assam Rifles and Indian Army
Bhutan699 kmSashastra Seema Bal
Afghanistan106 (66 miles)Border Security Force
  • India also shares water borders with Sri Lanka, Maldives, Thailand, Indonesia.
  • The India-Bhutan border is 699 km long and adjoins the Indian states of Assam (267 km), Arunachal Pradesh (217 km), West Bengal (183 km), and Sikkim (32 km).
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 24 November 2020 Shift 2)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1949

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Name the high-frequency radiation produced in nuclear reactions and also emitted by radioactive nuclei that are used in medicine to destroy cancer cells.

  1. AOption (a)

    Gamma rays

  2. BOption (b)

    Ultraviolet waves

  3. COption (c)

    Light waves

  4. DOption (d)

    X-rays

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Gamma rays

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gamma rays.

  • Gamma rays consist of high-energy waves that can travel great distances at the speed of light and generally have a great ability to penetrate other materials.
  • For that reason, gamma rays (such as from cobalt-60) are often used in medical applications to treat cancer and sterilize medical instruments.

Important Points

  • Ultraviolet (UV) light has shorter wavelengths than visible light.
  • The wavelength range is from 100-400 nm.
  • Although UV waves are invisible to the human eye, some insects, such as bumblebees, can see them.
  • This is similar to how a dog can hear the sound of a whistle just outside the hearing range of humans.
  • These invisible rays that are part of the energy that comes from the sun, that can burn the skin and cause skin cancer.
  • It is widely used in industrial processes and in medical and dental practices for a variety of purposes, such as killing bacteria, creating fluorescent effects, curing inks and resins, phototherapy, and suntanning.
  • Light radiates from a source in waves.
  • Each wave has two parts: an electric part, and a magnetic part. That's why light is called Electromagnetic Radiation.
  • Visible light is usually having wavelengths in the range of 400–700 nm (4.00 × 10⁻⁷ to 7.00 × 10⁻⁷ m), between the infrared and the ultraviolet.
  • X-rays have much higher energy and much shorter wavelengths than ultraviolet light.
  • X-rays have very small wavelengths, between 0.01 to 10 nanometers.
  • The use of x-rays is checking for fractures (broken bones), chest x-rays can spot pneumonia. Mammograms use x-rays to look for breast cancer.

Additional Information

  • X-rays were first observed and documented in 1895 by German scientist Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen.
  • Radio waves, television waves, and microwaves are all types of electromagnetic waves.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 24 November 2020 Shift 2)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1950

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

A set of equations involving electric and magnetic fields, and their sources, the charge and current densities are known as ______ equations.

  1. AOption (a)

    Newton’s

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhor’s

  3. COption (c)

    Einstein’s

  4. DOption (d)

    Maxwell’s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Maxwell’s

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maxwell’s.

  • Maxwell formulated a set of equations involving electric and magnetic fields, and their sources, the charge and current densities.
  • We have so far established that the total flux of electric field out of a closed surface is just the total enclosed charge multiplied by 1/ε0

∫E⋅dA = q/ε0, It represents completely covering the surface with a large number of tiny patches having areas dA.,ε0 = Vacuum permittivity.

  • The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from a straight charged conductor is inversely proportional to d.
  • A field line and an equipotential surface are always at 90°.

Important Points

Newton’s Equations- 1st law: An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force. - Newton’s first law of motion, which is sometimes called the law of inertia, explains that an object at rest stays at rest, and an object in motion remains in motion with the same velocity unless acted upon by an external force. - 2nd law: the acceleration of an object is dependent upon two variables - the net force acting upon the object and the mass of the object. - The acceleration of an object depends directly upon the net force acting upon the object, and inversely upon the mass of the object. - Newton's 2nd law of motion says the rate change of momentum is called force. - 3rd law: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. - Newton's law of universal gravitation: The attractive force between two objects (F) is equal to G times the product of their masses (m1, m2) divided by the square of the distance between them (r).
F = G(m1m2/r2)
Bohr's equation- The great Danish physicist Niels Bohr made immediate use of Rutherford’s planetary model of the atom. - Bohr’s theory explained the atomic spectrum of hydrogen and established new and broadly applicable principles in quantum mechanics. - The observed hydrogen-spectrum wavelengths can be calculated using the following formula:
1/λ=R(1/nf2−1/ni2), where λ is the wavelength of the emitted EM radiation and R is the Rydberg constant, determined by the experiment to be R = 1.097 × 107 / m (or m−1). The constant nf is a positive integer associated with a specific series.
Einstein’s equation- Einstein's theory of special relativity shows that matter (as mass) and energy can be converted into each other according to the famous equation E = mc2, where E is energy, m is mass, and c is the speed of light.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 25 November 2020 Shift 1)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1951

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Which of the following represents an alpha particle?

  1. AOption (a)

    \({}_2^2He\)

  2. BOption (b)

    \({}_2^4He\)

  3. COption (c)

    \({}_1^1He\)

  4. DOption (d)

    \({}_1^2He\)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

\({}_2^4He\)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is \({}_2^4He\)

Important Points

  • Alpha particle is a doubly ionized helium particle.
  • It is identical to the nucleus of the Helium-4 atom.
  • It consists of two protons and two neutrons bound together, thus having a mass of four units and a positive charge of two.

Key Points

  • Alpha particle was named and discovered by Ernest Rutherford in 1899.
  • Ernest Rutherford's most famous experiment is the gold foil experiment.
  • Rutherford concluded that: A major fraction of the α-particles bombarded towards the gold sheet passed through it without any deflection, and hence most of the space in an atom is empty.
  • The best-known source of alpha particles is alpha decay of heavier (> 106 u atomic weight) atoms.
  • Alpha particles are commonly emitted by all of the larger radioactive nuclei such as uranium, thorium, actinium, and radium.
  • Uses of Alpha Particles:
  • Cancer Treatment
  • Smoke Detector
  • Heating Devices
  • Seismic and Oceanographic Devices
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 25 November 2020 Shift 1)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1952

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

In the context of the banking sector, what does ‘F’ stand for in IFSC?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fiscal

  2. BOption (b)

    Forum

  3. COption (c)

    Functional

  4. DOption (d)

    Financial

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Financial

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Financial.

Key Points

  • IFSC is short for Indian Financial System Code.
  • It represents the 11 digit character that you can usually see on your bank’s cheque leaves, or other bank sponsored material.
  • This 11 character code helps identify the individual bank branches that participate in the various online money transfer options like NEFT and RTGS.

Important Points

  • RTGS stands for real-time Gross Settlement.
  • It can be defined as the continuous (real-time) settlement of funds individually on an order by order basis (without netting).
  • Real-time means the processing of instructions at the time they are received rather than at some later time.
  • The gross settlement means the settlement of funds transfer instructions occurs individually (on an instruction by instruction basis).
  • Considering that the fund's settlement takes place in the books of the Reserve Bank of India, the payments are final and irrevocable.
  • The RTGS system is primarily meant for large value transactions. The minimum amount to be remitted through RTGS is Rs 2 lakh. The maximum limit is Rs 10 lakh per day.
  • NEFT - National Electronic Funds Transfer.
  • It is a nation-wide payment system facilitating one-to-one funds transfer. Under this Scheme, individuals can electronically transfer funds from any bank branch to any individual having an account with any other bank branch in the country participating in the Scheme.
  • The IMPS - Immediate Payment Service.
  • It helps you access your bank account and transfer funds instantly and securely.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 25 November 2020 Shift 1)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1953

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Which of the following Ministries releases the ‘Ease of Living Index’ in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Finance

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.

Key Points

  • Ease of Living Index is aimed at providing a holistic view of Indian cities beginning from the services provided by local bodies, the effectiveness of the administration.
  • The outcomes generated through these services in terms of the liveability within cities and finally the citizen perception of these outcomes.
  • This survey, which is being administered both online and offline, has commenced from 1st February 2020 and will continue till 29th February 2020.

Additional Information

  • This portal was formally launched by Shri Durga Shanker Mishra, Secretary, Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India, on the 19th of December 2019.
  • The first time, as part of the Ease of Living Index Assessment, a Citizen Perception Survey is being conducted on behalf of the Ministry (which carries 30% of the marks of the Ease of Living Index).
  • This is a very important component of the assessment exercise as it will help indirectly capturing the perception of citizens with respect to the quality of life in their cities.
  • The citizen perception survey is a part of the Assessment Frameworks for Ease of Living (EoL) Index for all Smart Cities and million-plus population cities.
  • Participants from all Urban Local Bodies/City are allowed to participate in the Survey. However, winners shall be selected only if the participant has been a resident of his/her Urban Local Body/City for at least the past 6 months.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 25 November 2020 Shift 1)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1954

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

How many medals in total did India win at the Summer Olympic Games, 2012?

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

  • India won a total of six medals in the Summer Olympic Games, 2012.
NameSportsMedal
Vijay KumarMen's 25 meter rapid fire pistol eventSilver
Gagan NarangMen's 10 meter air rifle eventBronze
Saina NehwalWomen's singles in badmintonBronze
Yogeshwar DuttMen's freestyle 60 kg wrestling eventBronze
Sushil Kumar66 kg Freestyle wrestling eventSilver
Mary KomWomen's flyweight category in BoxingBronze

Important Points

  • The Summer Olympics Games, 2012 were held in London, United Kingdom, from 27 July 2012 to 12 August 2012.
  • It is also known as London Olympics 2012.

Additional Information

  • The Summer Olympic Games are a major international multi-sport event.
  • It is held every four year.
  • It was started in 1896 and was held in Athens, Greece, for the first time.
  • The Summer Olympic Games, 2020 was scheduled to held in Tokyo, Japan from 24 July 2020 to 9 August 2020.
  • It was rescheduled due to COVID-19 and now scheduled to be held in Tokyo, Japan from 23 July 2021 to 8 August 2021.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 25 November 2020 Shift 1)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1955

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

A healthy individual has 12-16 grams of hemoglobin in every ______ ml of blood.

  1. AOption (a)

    1000

  2. BOption (b)

    100

  3. COption (c)

    100000

  4. DOption (d)

    10000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

100

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 100.

Key Points

  • Hemoglobin (Hb) is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen in your body and gives blood its red color.
  • Hemoglobin levels vary from person to person. Men usually have higher levels than women.
  • With the assistance of external chemical factors, the Hemoglobin molecules take up oxygen molecules within the lungs and then send them to our body's varied tissues.
  • Iron is the main constituent of hemoglobin.
  • The normal Hb level for males is 14 to 18 g/dl; females are 12 to 16 g/dl.

Additional Information

  • The biggest regulator of oxygen affinity in Hemoglobin is that the oxygen itself.
  • If in the lungs, the oxygen levels are high, the Hemoglobin shows a greater affinity towards the oxygen molecules, and as it bounds to more oxygen, this property of affinity increases and vice versa.
  • When the Oxyhemoglobin binds to the utmost capacity, it becomes saturated, but its affinity towards oxygen increases, whereas when this binding loose oxygen molecule, the affinity decreases.
  • This regulation activity is named Cooperativity. It is a crucial function because it allows the utmost amount of Hemoglobin to be carried to the tissues and allows deoxyhemoglobin, releasing the oxygen tissue.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 25 November 2020 Shift 1)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1956

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

India joined the United Nations after ratifying the UN Charter in ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    February 1946

  2. BOption (b)

    December 1945

  3. COption (c)

    October 1945

  4. DOption (d)

    May 1946

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

October 1945

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is October 1945.

Key Points

  • India is a founding member of the United Nations on June 26, 1945, India was among 50 countries to sign the UN charter. India joined the United Nations after ratifying the UN Charter on October 30, 1945.
  • India has participated in UN peacekeeping missions since its inception. India has contributed more peacekeepers to UN missions than any other country and is also proud to have contributed to the world’s first female peacekeeping force that served towards bringing peace to Liberia in 2007.
  • Mahatma Gandhi has had a lasting influence on the United Nations. His ideals of non-violence deeply influenced the United Nations at the time of its inception. In 2007, the United Nations declared 2nd October, Mahatma Gandhi’s birthday, as the International day of non-violence.

Additional Information

  • Indians at United Nations 
  • Mr. Arcot Ramasamy Mudaliar was India’s delegate to the San Francisco Conference leading to the creation of the United Nations.
  • Mrs. Hansa Mehta represented India on the nuclear Sub-Committee on the status of women in 1946. As the Indian delegate on the UN HumanRights Commission in 1947–48.
  • Mrs. Lakshmi Menon, India’s delegate to the Third Committee in 1948, argued forcefully in favor of non-discrimination based on sex and “the equal rights of men and women” in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 25 November 2020 Shift 1)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1957

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

The first Indian satellite, Aryabhata, was launched on 19 April ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    1977

  2. BOption (b)

    1974

  3. COption (c)

    1976

  4. DOption (d)

    1975

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1975

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1975.

Key Points

  • Aryabhata was the first Indian satellite launched on 19 April 1975.
  • It was named after Indian Mathematician and astronomer Aryabhata.
  • It was built ISRO and launched with Russian rocket launch vehicle Kosmos-3M

Important Points

  • ISRO - Indian Space Research Organisation, Indian space agency develop Indian space programs.
  • Founded - 1969
  • Headquarter - Bangalore
  • Chairman - Shri S. Somanath

Additional Information

  • On 18 may 1974, first successful nuclear bomb test was performed by India at Pokhran, an Indian Army base in Rajasthan.
  • The code for this mission was Smiling Buddha and it is also known as **Pokhran-**I test.
  • Indira Gandhi was Prime minister at that time.
  • Pokhran-II test was a series of five nuclear bomb test explosions in 1998 at Pokhran, an Indian Army base in Rajasthan.
  • The code for this mission was Operation Shakti–98 and five bombs were named as Shakti– i to iv.
  • Atal Bihari Vajpayee was Prime minister at that time.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 25 November 2020 Shift 1)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1958

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Who among the following had been given the title of ‘Sultan Buland Iqbal’ by Shah Jahan?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dara

  2. BOption (b)

    Aurangzeb

  3. COption (c)

    Shuja

  4. DOption (d)

    Murad

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Dara

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dara.

Key Points

  • Dara Shikoh had been given the title of ‘Sultan Buland Iqbal’ or Shahzada-e-Buland Iqba by Shah Jahan.
  • Dara Shikoh was the eldest son of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan.
  • Shah Jahan declared Dara Shikoh as his successor.
  • He was appointed as Governor of Multan and Kabul in 1652.
  • In the war of succession, Dara Shikoh was defeated by Aurangzeb and executed in 1659 on his order.
  • Dara Shikoh was known to be Intellectual, liberal, and Sufi.
  • Some of his literary works are Tariqat ul-Haqiqat, Iksir-i Azam, Risaala-i Haq Numa, Sirr-e-Akbar etc.

Additional Information

  • There were four sons of Shah Jahan namely,
  • Dara Shikoh
  • Shah Suja
  • Murad
  • Aurangzeb
  • The war of succession was fought between the sons of Shah Jahan.
  • Although, Shah Jahan declared Dara Shikoh as his successor, ultimately Aurangzeb won the war of succession and declared himself the king.
  • In 1659, in the battle of Deorai, Aurangzeb defeated Dara Shikoh and executed him.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 25 November 2020 Shift 1)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1959

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Who is the Secretary-General of the United Nations as on July 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    Javier Perez de Cuellar

  2. BOption (b)

    Kurt Waldheim

  3. COption (c)

    Ban Ki-moon

  4. DOption (d)

    Antonio Guterres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Antonio Guterres

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Antonio Guterres.

Key Points

  • Antonio Guterres is the 9th Secretary-General of the United Nations.
  • He took office on 1 January 2017.
  • Previously he served as United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees from June 2005 to December 2015.
  • He was the former prime minister of Portugal.

Important Points

  • Secretary-General of the United Nations is the chief administrative officer of the Security Council, General Assembly, Economic, and Social Council, and other United Nations organs.
  • The Secretary-General is also Chairman of the United Nations System Chief Executives Board for Coordination (CEB).
  • The term of office is 5 years.

Additional Information

  • Ban Ki-moon was the 8th Secretary-General of the United Nations, who held office from January 2007 to December 2016.
  • Kurt Waldheim was the 4th Secretary-General of the United Nations, who held office from January 1972 to December 1981.
  • Javier Perez de Cuellar was the 5th Secretary-General of the United Nations, who served from January 1982 to December 1991.
SSC CPO Tier- I Previous Year Paper (Held On: 25 November 2020 Shift 1)·General Knowledge and General Awareness
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Question 1960

SSC CPO 2020• General Knowledge and General Awareness• General Knowledge and General Awareness

Who among the following was the Chairman of the Committee for Drafting the National Education Policy, which was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    RS Sarkaria

  2. BOption (b)

    Madan Mohan Punchhi

  3. COption (c)

    K Kasturirangan

  4. DOption (d)

    Dharmendra Pradhan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

K Kasturirangan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is K Kasturirangan.

Key Points

  • K Kasturirangan is a former chairman of ISRO (Indian Space Research Organization).
  • The National Education Policy 2020 which was approved by the Union Cabinet of India on 29 July 2020, outlines the vision of India's new education system.
  • The new policy replaces the previous National Policy on Education, 1986.
  • Important Highlights of National Education Policy 2020.
  • Universalization of early childhood care education.
  • National mission on foundational literacy and numeracy.
  • 5+3+3+4 curricular and pedagogical structure.
  • Curriculum to integrate 21st-century skills, mathematical thinking, and scientific temper.
  • No rigid separation between art and science, curricular and extra-curricular activities, between vocational and academic streams.
  • Education of gifted children.
  • Gender inclusion fund.
  • Reduction in the curriculum to core concepts.
  • Vocational Integration from class 6 onwards.

Additional Information

  • RS Sarkaria was the chairman of the Sarkaria Commission that was set up in June 1983 to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments.
  • Madan Mohan Punchhi was the chairman of the Punchhi Commission that was set up in 2007 to look into new issues of Centre-State relations.
  • Dharmendra Pradhan is the Cabinet Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas and Steel in the Government of India.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC CPO?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.