General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is To provide assistance to cover the cost of retraining and redeployment of labour..

Key Points

• The National Renewal Fund (NRF) was established in 1992 by the Government of India to address the issues arising from economic reforms and liberalization, particularly to assist workers affected by restructuring and closures of industries.
• The main aim of the NRF was to provide financial assistance for the retraining and redeployment of workers, especially those displaced due to restructuring, modernization, or privatization.
• The fund focused on helping workers acquire new skills through skill development and retraining programs to improve their employability.
• Additionally, the NRF provided severance payments to workers who were laid off or retrenched due to economic transitions or industrial restructuring.
• The NRF was part of the broader economic reforms initiated during the 1991 liberalization period to manage the social and economic impact of structural changes in industries.

Additional Information

• Objectives of the National Renewal Fund:
• The primary objective was to support workers affected by economic restructuring and industrial closures caused by liberalization and privatization policies.
• It aimed to minimize the social costs of economic reforms by ensuring retraining and redeployment support to displaced workers.
• The fund also provided financial support for voluntary retirement schemes (VRS) in public sector enterprises.
• Background of NRF:
• The NRF was established in the context of India's economic liberalization policies, which began in 1991 under the leadership of **Prime Minister P.

V. Narasimha Rao** and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.

• The rapid economic restructuring during this period led to job losses in certain industries, necessitating support for affected workers.
• Impact of the National Renewal Fund:
• The NRF played a significant role in helping workers transition to new jobs by providing skill development and retraining opportunities.
• However, the fund faced criticism for its limited scope and impact, as the number of workers reached through these programs was relatively small compared to the total affected workforce.
• Eventually, the NRF was phased out, and its functions were integrated into other government schemes and programs.
• Other Relevant Government Initiatives:
• The Skill India Mission, launched in 2015, aims to train over 40 crore workers in India by 2022, focusing on improving employability and skill development.
• National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), established in 2009, is another initiative to promote skill development and training in various sectors.
• Comparison with Other Options:
• Option 1: Attracting foreign direct investment (FDI) was not the purpose of the NRF. Instead, this was achieved through liberalization policies. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Option 2: The NRF did not assist the government with external borrowings. This option is incorrect.
• Option 4: Compensating victims of natural disasters was not the focus of the NRF. Instead, disaster relief funds are managed by other specific programs. Hence, this option is incorrect.

Important Points

• The National Renewal Fund was part of the reforms to manage the socio-economic impact of liberalization policies in India.
• While it contributed to worker retraining and redeployment, the fund was later discontinued and replaced by more comprehensive skill development initiatives.
• Current programs like Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) and the Skill India Mission continue to address the need for skill development and employability enhancement in India.

The correct answer is Kanpur.

Key Points

• Nana Saheb, also known as Dhondu Pant, was a prominent leader of the Indian Rebellion of 1857. He played a crucial role in organizing the revolt in Kanpur.
• In June 1857, Nana Saheb gathered armed forces and led an uprising in Kanpur, successfully expelling the British garrison stationed there.
• The revolt at Kanpur was a significant event in the First War of Indian Independence, demonstrating the widespread discontent against British rule.
• Kanpur became one of the major centers of the rebellion, where Nana Saheb proclaimed himself as the Peshwa of the Marathas and declared allegiance to the Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar.
• The capture of Kanpur was a morale booster for the rebels, marking an early success in the revolt. However, it also witnessed severe conflicts and reprisals, particularly during the British recapture of the city.

Additional Information

• Nana Saheb's Role:
• Nana Saheb was the adopted son of the last Peshwa, Baji Rao II. He was denied a pension by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse policy, which fueled his resentment against them.
• He emerged as a key leader during the 1857 revolt, particularly in the Kanpur region, where he led one of the most organized uprisings.
• The Siege of Kanpur:
• During the revolt, the British forces in Kanpur were besieged by Nana Saheb's troops at the entrenched barracks in what is known as the Siege of Kanpur.
• The British surrendered on June 27, 1857, but the aftermath saw tragic events, including the massacre at the Satichaura Ghat and the Bibighar incident, which stained the revolt's legacy.
• Doctrine of Lapse:
• Introduced by Lord Dalhousie, the Doctrine of Lapse allowed the British to annex princely states if the ruler did not have a biological male heir.
• This policy was one of the major causes of discontent among Indian rulers and contributed to the outbreak of the 1857 revolt.
• Impact of the Revolt in Kanpur:
• The rebellion in Kanpur highlighted the widespread dissatisfaction among Indians with British rule, especially due to economic exploitation and cultural interference.
• While the revolt was ultimately suppressed, the events in Kanpur became a symbol of the Indian fight for independence, inspiring future generations of freedom fighters.

Important Points

• Key Figures in the Revolt of 1857:
• Bahadur Shah Zafar: The last Mughal Emperor and symbolic leader of the revolt.
• Rani Lakshmibai: The queen of Jhansi, known for her bravery in the rebellion.
• Tatya Tope: A close associate of Nana Saheb who led guerrilla warfare against the British.
• Mangal Pandey: A sepoy whose rebellion in Barrackpore is often considered the spark of the 1857 uprising.
• Causes of the Revolt:
• Political: Policies like the Doctrine of Lapse, annexation of princely states, and disregard for Indian rulers.
• Economic: Exploitation of Indian resources and the destruction of traditional industries under British rule.
• Social and Religious: Interference in Indian customs and imposition of Western practices, such as the introduction of the Enfield rifle cartridges rumored to be greased with cow and pig fat.

The correct answer is 1998.

Key Points

• The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was introduced in 1998 by the Government of India to provide easy and timely credit access to farmers.
• The scheme was initiated by the NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) based on recommendations from the R.V. Gupta Committee.
• The main objective of the KCC scheme is to provide credit to farmers for agricultural and allied activities, including crop production, post-harvest requirements, and working capital for maintenance of farm equipment.
• The scheme allows farmers to avail loans through a simplified process based on their landholding and cropping pattern, ensuring uniform adoption by banks.
• The KCC scheme has been implemented by commercial banks, cooperative banks, and regional rural banks (RRBs) across India to ensure that farmers get access to financial support without delays.
• The scheme also provides insurance coverage for crops to safeguard against losses due to natural calamities, pests, and diseases.

Additional Information

• Key Features of the KCC Scheme:
• Eligibility: Farmers, including individual farmers, tenant farmers, sharecroppers, and self-help groups (SHGs) engaged in agriculture, can avail the benefits of the KCC scheme.
• Loan Tenure: Loans are typically sanctioned for a short-term period of 3–5 years, with the option for renewal based on the repayment history.
• Credit Limit: The credit limit is determined based on the farmer's landholding, cropping pattern, and other financial requirements.
• Interest Subsidy: The government provides an interest subsidy to reduce the financial burden on farmers. For prompt repayment, an additional interest subvention is offered.
• Technological Integration:
• The KCC scheme has been linked with RuPay debit cards, allowing farmers to withdraw funds from ATMs, bank branches, and point-of-sale (POS) terminals.
• Digital integration has improved transparency, reduced paperwork, and made the entire process more farmer-friendly.
• Insurance Coverage:
• The KCC scheme provides crop insurance under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) to protect farmers from crop failure due to natural calamities, pests, and diseases.
• Insurance coverage is extended to crops such as cereals, pulses, oilseeds, and horticultural crops.
• Benefits for Farmers:
• Farmers get timely access to credit, reducing dependence on informal money lenders.
• The scheme provides flexibility in withdrawals and repayments based on the farmer's cash flow and crop cycle.
• It ensures financial inclusion and promotes better agricultural productivity and rural development.
• Evolution and Impact:
• Since its inception in 1998, the KCC scheme has benefited millions of farmers across India, contributing significantly to agricultural growth.
• Over time, the scheme has been modified to include allied activities such as dairy, poultry, and fisheries, ensuring comprehensive support for rural livelihoods.

Important Points

• Historical Context:
• The KCC scheme was launched during the tenure of Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee as part of efforts to boost agricultural credit and rural development.
• The R.V. Gupta Committee, set up by NABARD, emphasized the need for a simplified and farmer-centric credit system, leading to the implementation of this scheme.
• Implementation Agencies:
• The scheme is implemented through a wide network of commercial banks, cooperative banks, and regional rural banks (RRBs).
• NABARD plays a key role in monitoring and supporting the implementation of the scheme across the country.
• Government Initiatives: The government has continuously enhanced the scope and benefits of the KCC scheme, ensuring that farmers get access to affordable and timely credit.

The correct answer is Governor.

Key Points

• The Governor has the authority to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly before its term ends. This power is derived from Article 174(2)(b) of the Indian Constitution.
• The dissolution of the assembly can be done on the advice of the Chief Minister if the latter has majority support in the house.
• If the Governor believes that the incumbent government has lost its majority or cannot function effectively, they may dissolve the assembly and recommend President's Rule under Article 356 of the Constitution.
• The Governor exercises this power independently in case of a constitutional breakdown or if no party is able to form a government after elections.
• It is important to note that the Governor acts as the representative of the President of India in the state and ensures that the governance is carried out as per the constitutional provisions.

Additional Information

• Role of the Chief Minister:
• The Chief Minister heads the Council of Ministers in a state and advises the Governor regarding the dissolution of the assembly under normal circumstances.
• The Governor is generally bound to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers led by the Chief Minister unless there are exceptional circumstances.
• However, the Chief Minister does not have the power to dissolve the assembly independently. The decision is subject to the Governor's approval.
• Role of the Speaker:
• The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly is responsible for conducting the proceedings of the house, maintaining order, and ensuring that legislative business is carried out smoothly.
• The Speaker does not have the constitutional authority to dissolve the assembly. Their role is limited to the functioning of the house and does not extend to its dissolution.
• Role of the President:
• The President of India does not directly dissolve a state legislative assembly. However, the President can impose President's Rule in a state under Article 356 of the Constitution upon receiving a report from the Governor.
• In such a situation, the legislative assembly is either kept in suspended animation or dissolved, depending on the circumstances.
• Governor’s Role in Emergency Situations:
• In case of a political or constitutional crisis, where no party can form a stable government, the Governor may recommend the dissolution of the assembly to the President.
• The Governor's decision to dissolve the assembly in such cases is subject to judicial review to ensure that it adheres to constitutional principles.

Important Points

• Article 174:
• It empowers the Governor to summon, prorogue, or dissolve the state legislature. However, the dissolution is usually done on the advice of the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.
• Article 356:
• This article allows the President to impose President's Rule in a state upon the Governor's recommendation, leading to the suspension or dissolution of the legislative assembly.
• Such actions are taken when the state government is unable to function as per constitutional provisions.
• Judicial Review:
• The dissolution of a legislative assembly by the Governor can be challenged in courts to check if it was done in compliance with the Constitution.
• In the SR Bommai case (1994), the Supreme Court laid down guidelines for the imposition of President's Rule and the dissolution of state assemblies.
• Notable Examples:
• In 2015, the Bihar Legislative Assembly was dissolved on the advice of the Chief Minister to hold fresh elections.
• In 2019, the Maharashtra Governor recommended President's Rule due to a political impasse after assembly elections.

The correct answer is Iron ore.

Key Points

• The Sulaipet and Badampahar mines are located in the state of Odisha, India.
• These mines are renowned for their rich deposits of iron ore, which is a critical raw material for the steel industry.
• Odisha is one of the largest producers of iron ore in India, and these mines significantly contribute to the state's mineral output.
• The Badampahar mine, in particular, has been a major source of high-grade iron ore, which is essential for industrial and infrastructural development.
• Iron ore from these mines is used in various industries, particularly in the production of steel, which is vital for construction, automobile, and manufacturing sectors.

Additional Information

• Iron Ore in India:
• India is the fourth-largest producer of iron ore globally.
• The major iron ore-producing states in India include Odisha, Karnataka, Chhattisgarh, Goa, and Jharkhand.
• Iron ore is primarily used in the production of steel, which is a key material for industrial growth.
• India exports iron ore to various countries, including China, Japan, and South Korea.
• Types of Iron Ore:
• The major types of iron ore found in India include hematite, magnetite, limonite, and siderite.
• Hematite is the most important iron ore in terms of production and quality, with high iron content.
• Magnetite has slightly lower iron content than hematite but is valued for its magnetic properties.
• Importance of Odisha in Mining:
• Odisha accounts for nearly 50% of India's total iron ore production.
• The state is endowed with high-grade iron ore reserves, particularly in the districts of Keonjhar, Sundargarh, and Mayurbhanj.
• It also has significant reserves of other minerals such as bauxite, chromite, and coal.
• Uses of Iron Ore:
• Iron ore is primarily used for the production of steel, which is essential for infrastructure, construction, and manufacturing industries.
• It is also used in the creation of tools, machinery, automobiles, and household appliances.
• Additional Mining Information:
• India's iron ore reserves are estimated at approximately 28.5 billion tonnes, according to the Indian Bureau of Mines.
• The mining sector contributes significantly to India's GDP and employment generation.
• Iron ore mining is regulated under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.

The correct answer is Import Substitution.

Key Points

• Import Substitution, also known as the inward-looking trade strategy, was adopted by India during the initial Five-Year Plans to promote self-reliance and reduce dependency on foreign imports.
• The strategy aimed at developing domestic industries by restricting imports through high tariffs, quotas, and other trade barriers.
• India's focus was to produce goods domestically that were otherwise imported, specifically in sectors like capital goods, machinery, and consumer products.
• This approach was rooted in the belief that protecting domestic industries would help them grow and strengthen the country's industrial base.
• However, while it led to industrial growth initially, the policy also resulted in inefficiencies, lack of competition, and technological stagnation in the long run.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of Import Substitution:
• Focus on domestic production of goods to replace imports.
• Implementation of protectionist policies such as high tariffs and import quotas.
• Encouragement of public sector enterprises to lead industrial development.
• Emphasis on building a self-reliant economy without foreign dependency.
• Outcome of Import Substitution in India:
• Initial success in building a strong industrial base, particularly in heavy industries.
• Limited competition due to protectionism, which led to low-quality production and inefficiencies.
• Technological stagnation as industries were not exposed to global advancements.
• Shift in policy during the 1991 economic liberalization when India opened its markets to global trade.
• Comparison with Other Options:
• Export Enhancement: This involves promoting exports to strengthen the economy, but India initially focused on restricting imports rather than boosting exports.
• Free Trade Expansion: This refers to reducing trade barriers and fostering global trade, which was contrary to India's inward-looking approach during the initial Five-Year Plans.
• Foreign Investment Expansion: Encouraging foreign investments was not a priority during India's early economic policy, as the focus was on domestic production.
• Economic Liberalization:
• India moved away from import substitution in 1991 when economic reforms were introduced, including liberalization, privatization, and globalization.
• These reforms opened up India’s economy to foreign trade and investments, fostering growth and technological advancements.

Important Points

• Five-Year Plans: India’s Five-Year Plans were initiated in 1951 under the guidance of the Planning Commission to promote economic development.
• Protectionist Measures: High tariffs and quotas were key tools used to implement import substitution.
• Public Sector Dominance: Many industries were state-controlled, emphasizing self-reliance.
• Impact of 1991 Reforms: The shift from protectionist policies to economic liberalization marked a turning point in India’s economic trajectory.
• Globalization: Post-1991, India integrated into the global economy, boosting exports, foreign investments, and technological growth.

The correct answer is 31.16%.

Key Points

• The level of urbanisation in India as per the 2011 Census was reported to be 31.16%. This indicates that a little over 31% of India's population resided in urban areas during that time.
• The urbanisation level is calculated based on the proportion of the total population living in areas categorized as urban regions.
• Urban areas are defined based on specific criteria such as population size, density, and the presence of certain infrastructure and amenities like roads, electricity, and education facilities.
• The increase in urbanisation from previous censuses indicates a gradual shift towards urban regions, driven by factors like industrialisation, employment opportunities, and rural-to-urban migration.
• 2011 Census data is one of the most reliable sources for understanding urbanisation trends in India, conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.

Additional Information

• Definition of Urban Areas:
• Urban areas in India are defined by the Registrar General of India using criteria such as a minimum population of 5,000, a population density of at least 400 persons per square kilometer, and at least 75% of the male working population engaged in non-agricultural activities.
• Urbanisation Trends in India:
• As per the 2001 Census, the urbanisation level was 27.81%, showing a significant increase by the 2011 Census.
• Factors contributing to urbanisation include industrial growth, expansion of service industries, and improved transportation and communication networks.
• State-wise Data:
• States like Delhi, Goa, and Tamil Nadu show higher levels of urbanisation, while states like Bihar and Odisha have lower urbanisation percentages.
• Global Context:
• Globally, urbanisation levels are higher, with the world average at around 55% as per the UN World Urbanisation Prospects Report in 2018.
• Challenges of Urbanisation:
• Rapid urbanisation presents challenges such as overcrowding, pollution, inadequate infrastructure, and housing shortages.
• Government initiatives like Smart Cities Mission and AMRUT aim to address these challenges.

Important Points

• 2011 Census:
• The 2011 Census was the 15^th Census of India and the 7^th Census since Independence.
• It highlighted the demographic trends, including urbanisation, literacy levels, population growth, and other socio-economic indicators.
• Future Projections:
• According to the United Nations, India’s urban population is expected to reach 50% by 2050, signifying a significant demographic transition.
• Policy Measures:
• To manage urbanisation effectively, the government has introduced schemes like PMAY (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana), RAY (Rajiv Awas Yojana), and JNNURM (Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission).

The correct answer is To remove nitrogenous waste products from the blood.

Key Points

• The primary function of an artificial kidney is to remove nitrogenous waste products such as urea and creatinine from the blood. This process is called dialysis and mimics the natural function of the kidneys.
• Artificial kidneys are used in patients suffering from kidney failure or end-stage renal disease (ESRD), where the kidneys are no longer capable of filtering waste products efficiently.
• The artificial kidney works on the principle of diffusion and ultrafiltration. It removes unwanted waste, toxins, and excess fluids from the blood while retaining necessary components like proteins and essential ions.
• Unlike natural kidneys, artificial kidneys do not produce urine. Instead, the filtered waste and excess fluids are collected in the dialysis machine and disposed of externally. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
• The artificial kidney does not filter glucose from the blood unless specifically required, such as in rare cases of glucose regulation during dialysis. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
• The device does not play a direct role in increasing blood pressure. Blood pressure regulation in patients undergoing dialysis is managed through medications or other interventions. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Kidney Functions:
• Natural kidneys filter around 50 gallons of blood daily, removing waste products, toxins, and extra fluids to form urine.
• They also regulate essential body functions such as blood pressure, electrolyte balance, and red blood cell production through the secretion of hormones like erythropoietin.
• Dialysis Process:
• There are two main types of dialysis: hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.
• Hemodialysis: Blood is drawn from the body, filtered through a dialysis machine, and then returned to the body. It is typically performed in a hospital or dialysis center.
• Peritoneal Dialysis: Utilizes the peritoneum (a membrane in the abdomen) as a natural filter. A special dialysis fluid is introduced into the abdominal cavity to absorb waste and toxins.
• Components of an Artificial Kidney (Dialysis Machine):
• The machine has a dialyzer containing semi-permeable membranes to filter blood.
• A pump regulates blood flow, and a monitor ensures proper filtration and safety during the procedure.
• Conditions Requiring Dialysis:
• Chronic kidney disease (CKD) or end-stage renal disease (ESRD).
• Acute kidney injury (AKI) due to infection, injury, or other causes.
• Important Facts:
• The first successful dialysis was conducted by Willem Kolff in 1943.
• Dialysis is typically required when kidney function drops below 15%.
• In India, dialysis is often subsidized under health schemes like Ayushman Bharat.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• The central nervous system (CNS) in humans comprises the brain and the spinal cord.
• The spinal cord is a crucial part of the CNS, functioning as the communication highway between the brain and the rest of the body. It transmits motor commands from the brain and sensory information from the body.
• The heart, while vital for pumping blood throughout the body, is part of the circulatory system and not the CNS. Hence, it is not involved in neural processing or control.
• The spinal cord is responsible for reflex actions and plays a role in the autonomic and voluntary control of movements.
• Statement I ("Heart") is incorrect as the heart does not belong to the CNS, whereas Statement II ("Spinal cord") is correct as it is a central component of the CNS.

Additional Information

• Central Nervous System (CNS):
• The CNS consists of the brain and the spinal cord, which are protected by the skull and vertebral column, respectively.
• It is responsible for processing sensory data, decision-making, and motor command generation.
• The CNS is surrounded by protective membranes called the meninges and is cushioned by cerebrospinal fluid.
• Spinal Cord:
• The spinal cord is a tubular structure extending from the brainstem to the lower back, enclosed within the vertebral column.
• It contains nerve tracts that transmit signals to and from the brain.
• It plays a significant role in reflex actions, which occur without brain involvement.
• Heart:
• The heart is part of the circulatory system and functions as the body's pump, circulating oxygen-rich blood.
• It operates autonomously under the control of the autonomic nervous system, particularly the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches.
• Although the nervous system influences heart rate, the heart itself is not part of the CNS.
• Nervous System Division:
• The human nervous system is divided into the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS).
• The CNS includes the brain and spinal cord, while the PNS comprises nerves extending to the rest of the body.

Important Points

• Reflex Actions:
• Reflex actions are quick, involuntary responses to stimuli mediated by the spinal cord, bypassing the brain.
• Examples include the knee-jerk reflex and the withdrawal reflex when touching something hot.
• Autonomic Nervous System:
• The autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary functions such as heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate.
• It operates independently of conscious control and has two branches: sympathetic (activates fight-or-flight response) and parasympathetic (calms the body).

The correct answer is Kautilya.

Key Points

• Kautilya, also known as Chanakya or Vishnugupta, authored the ancient Indian treatise called the ‘Arthasastra’.
• The ‘Arthasastra’ is a comprehensive work on statecraft, economics, military strategy, and governance, written during the 4^th century BCE.
• Kautilya was the chief advisor to Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Mauryan Empire, and played a critical role in establishing and consolidating his empire.
• The treatise discusses topics like administration, diplomacy, taxation, law, and war strategies, reflecting the sophisticated governance system of that time.
• The ‘Arthasastra’ is widely regarded as one of the earliest and most influential works on political science and economics in the world.

Additional Information

• About Kautilya:
• Kautilya, also known as Chanakya, was a renowned scholar, economist, and political strategist of ancient India.
• He was associated with the Takshashila University, an ancient center of learning.
• Kautilya used his knowledge and intellect to assist Chandragupta Maurya in overthrowing the Nanda dynasty and establishing the Mauryan Empire.
• Content of Arthasastra:
• The ‘Arthasastra’ is divided into 15 books (Adhikaranas), covering topics like economic policies, governance, military tactics, and legal systems.
• It provides guidance on the duties of a king, the functioning of the state, and the management of resources.
• The text also emphasizes the importance of espionage, alliances, and diplomacy in statecraft.
• Comparison with Other Thinkers:
• Kautilya is often compared to other great political thinkers like Machiavelli for his pragmatic and strategic approach to governance.
• Unlike Machiavelli’s ‘The Prince’, the ‘Arthasastra’ provides a more detailed and systematic analysis of state administration.
• Legacy:
• The ‘Arthasastra’ remained a key reference for governance and administration in India for centuries.
• Its rediscovery in the early 20^th century by scholar Rudrapatna Shamasastry brought it back into academic and public discourse.
• Other Options Explained:
• Ashoka: He was a Mauryan emperor known for his promotion of Buddhism and inscriptions on pillars and rocks, not for writing the ‘Arthasastra’.
• Visakhadatta: He was a playwright known for works like ‘Mudrarakshasa’, which depicts the rise of the Mauryan Empire, but he did not author the ‘Arthasastra’.
• Megasthenes: He was a Greek ambassador to the Mauryan court and wrote the ‘Indica’, a detailed account of India, but not the ‘Arthasastra’.

Important Points

• Rediscovery of Arthasastra:
• The text was rediscovered in 1905 by Rudrapatna Shamasastry, a Sanskrit scholar and historian.
• It provided new insights into ancient Indian political and economic systems, showcasing the advanced governance practices of the Mauryan period.
• Influence on Modern Governance:
• The principles of the ‘Arthasastra’ are still studied in political science and management for their relevance to modern governance and business strategies.

The correct answer is Khums.

Key Points

• Khums was a tax levied during the Delhi Sultanate period on the treasure or booty looted in wars.
• The term Khums literally means "one-fifth" in Arabic, and it refers to the Islamic principle of taxing one-fifth (20%) of the war booty.
• This tax was collected by the state and was utilized for administrative purposes, public welfare, and religious activities.
• The remaining four-fifths of the booty were distributed among the soldiers who participated in the battle, as per Islamic law.
• The practice of levying Khums was in line with the Islamic traditions followed by the rulers of the Delhi Sultanate, such as the Slave Dynasty, Khilji Dynasty, and Tughlaq Dynasty.

Additional Information

• Kharaj:
• Kharaj was a land tax imposed on agricultural produce during the Delhi Sultanate period.
• It was usually levied on non-Muslim cultivators and was a significant source of revenue for the state.
• The tax rate varied but was typically fixed at one-third of the total agricultural produce.
• Jizyah:
• Jizyah was a tax levied on non-Muslims (referred to as Dhimmis) for protection and exemption from military service.
• This tax was an important financial contribution made by non-Muslim subjects to the Islamic state.
• Jizyah was abolished by Akbar but reinstated by Aurangzeb during the Mughal period.
• Zakat:
• Zakat is a form of almsgiving and one of the Five Pillars of Islam.
• It was a mandatory charitable contribution levied on Muslims, typically amounting to 2.5% of one’s wealth.
• Zakat was used for social welfare and assistance to the poor and needy.
• Delhi Sultanate Timeline:

Important Points

• Islamic Taxation System:
• The taxation system during the Delhi Sultanate was heavily influenced by Islamic principles.
• Taxes like Khums, Zakat, and Jizyah were based on Islamic jurisprudence and were used to maintain the state's administration and support religious institutions.
• These taxes were systematically collected and documented by state-appointed officials.
• Administrative Use of Taxes:
• The revenue collected through Khums and other taxes was used for state welfare, construction of mosques, fortifications, and public works.
• It also funded the military campaigns and administrative machinery of the Sultanate.

The correct answer is Western Himalayas.

Key Points

• The Gaddi tribe is a semi-nomadic pastoral community primarily found in the Western Himalayas, particularly in regions like Himachal Pradesh and parts of Jammu & Kashmir.
• During the fourteenth century, the Gaddi tribe's shepherds traditionally inhabited the mountainous regions of the Western Himalayas due to the availability of vast pasture lands suitable for grazing their sheep and goats.
• The Gaddi shepherds followed a transhumance system, moving their herds between low-altitude winter pastures and high-altitude summer pastures in the Western Himalayan ranges.
• The climate and geographical features of the Western Himalayas, including its lush grasslands and cooler temperatures, made it an ideal location for sustaining their livelihood through sheep rearing and wool production.
• Hence, the correct answer is Western Himalayas.

Additional Information

• Gaddi Tribe:
• The Gaddi tribe is known for its pastoral lifestyle and resides mainly in the Kangra, Chamba, and Bharmaur regions of Himachal Pradesh.
• Their primary occupation involves sheep and goat rearing, and they are skilled in producing wool-based products like blankets and shawls.
• The Gaddi people follow the Hindu religion and worship deities like Lord Shiva, reflecting their deep spiritual connection with the Himalayan region.
• Transhumance:
• Transhumance is the seasonal movement of people with their livestock between fixed summer and winter pastures.
• The Gaddis move to higher altitudes during summer for grazing and return to lower altitudes during winter to escape the cold.
• This practice allows the conservation of grazing resources and ensures sustainable use of the Himalayan pastures.
• Geographical Features of Western Himalayas:
• The Western Himalayas encompass regions like Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and parts of Jammu & Kashmir.
• It is characterized by dense forests, alpine meadows, and glaciers, making it suitable for pastoralism.
• The region supports diverse flora and fauna, including medicinal plants, which are integral to the traditional knowledge of tribes like the Gaddis.
• Comparison of Other Options:
• Mysore: Located in southern India, Mysore is not suitable for the Gaddi tribe's traditional pastoral lifestyle as it lacks alpine pastures.
• Bijapur: A historic city in Karnataka, Bijapur is known for its architectural significance, but it is not associated with pastoral tribes like the Gaddis.
• North-east India: Although rich in biodiversity, North-east India does not have the alpine pastures required for the Gaddi tribe's transhumance system.

Important Points

• Historical Context: The Gaddi tribe's lifestyle in the fourteenth century revolved around their dependency on livestock and grazing lands in the Western Himalayas.
• Modern Challenges: In recent years, the Gaddi tribe has faced challenges like shrinking grazing lands and climate change, affecting their traditional way of life.

The correct answer is Pakistan.

Key Points

• The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a regional grouping established in 1967 that promotes economic, political, and security cooperation among its 10 member countries located primarily in Southeast Asia.
• The founding members of ASEAN include Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand, which signed the Bangkok Declaration in August 1967.
• Other members include Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia, totalling 5 members. These countries work together to enhance regional cooperation and integration.
• Pakistan is not a member of ASEAN. It is located in South Asia and is a member of other organisations like SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation), but it does not participate in the ASEAN framework.
• Countries like Indonesia, Malaysia, and the Philippines, mentioned in the question, are prominent members of ASEAN and actively contribute to its initiatives. Hence, Pakistan is not part of ASEAN.

Additional Information

• ASEAN:
• Established: 8 August 1967, Bangkok, Thailand.
• Objective: To accelerate economic growth, social progress, and cultural development in the region.
• Headquarters: Jakarta, Indonesia.
• ASEAN Charter: Signed in November 2007 and entered into force in December 2008. It serves as the legal and institutional framework for ASEAN.
• ​Recent Summits:
• ​47^th ASEAN Summit:
• Held on 26–28 October 2025 at the Kuala Lumpur Convention Centre (KLCC), Malaysia.
• On 26 October 2025, Timor-Leste formally signed the accession instrument to become ASEAN's 11^th Member State.
• A landmark agreement (Kuala Lumpur Peace Accord) between Thailand and Cambodia was signed during the 47^th Summit to resolve long-standing border conflicts.
• ASEAN-India Summit: At the 22^nd ASEAN-India Summit, Prime Minister Narendra Modi declared 2026 as the "ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation".
• Current Chairmanship: The Philippines holds the rotating ASEAN Chairmanship for 2026.
• ASEAN's Economic Role:
• ASEAN is one of the most dynamic economic regions in the world, with a combined GDP exceeding $3 trillion.
• It has established various free trade agreements (FTAs) with countries like China, Japan, South Korea, India, Australia, and New Zealand.
• The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP), signed in 2020, further strengthens ASEAN's global economic integration.
• Important Members of ASEAN:
• Indonesia: The largest economy in ASEAN and a founding member.
• Malaysia: Known for its advanced infrastructure and active participation in ASEAN initiatives.
• Philippines: A founding member with a focus on regional security and economic development.
• Brunei: A small but wealthy member contributing to ASEAN's energy sector.

Important Points

• ASEAN's Dialogue Partners: ASEAN collaborates with its dialogue partners, including the USA, China, India, Japan, South Korea, and Russia, to discuss geopolitical and economic issues.
• ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF): Established in 1994, the ARF promotes regional security and confidence-building measures.
• ASEAN Economic Community (AEC): Launched in 2015, the AEC aims to create a single market and production base among ASEAN member states.
• ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA): AFTA was established in 1992 to promote intra-regional trade by reducing tariff barriers$.

The correct answer is Surya Kiran.

Key Points

• Surya Kiran is a joint military exercise conducted between India and Nepal to strengthen bilateral defense cooperation and enhance inter-operability between the armies of the two nations.
• The exercise focuses on counter-terrorism operations, disaster management, and humanitarian assistance. It also includes cultural exchanges to foster mutual understanding.
• Surya Kiran is held annually and alternates between locations in India and Nepal.
• The exercise is aimed at sharing tactical knowledge, improving military coordination, and boosting the overall relationship between the two countries.
• It reflects the strong defense ties between India and Nepal, which share a historical and geographical relationship marked by open borders and people-to-people connections.

Additional Information

• Indra:
• Indra is a bilateral military exercise conducted between India and Russia.
• It focuses on counter-terrorism operations and aims to strengthen defense cooperation between the two nations.
• It includes activities such as joint tactical drills, cultural exchanges, and strategic discussions.
• Vajra Prahar:
• Vajra Prahar is a joint military exercise between India and the United States.
• It is primarily conducted between the Special Forces of both nations to enhance their tactical skills and inter-operability.
• The exercise includes training in counter-terrorism and special operations in a simulated environment.
• Malabar:
• Malabar is a naval exercise involving India, the United States, Japan, and Australia.
• It focuses on enhancing maritime security, anti-submarine warfare, and interoperability among participating navies.
• It reflects the strategic partnership and commitment of the participating nations towards a free and open Indo-Pacific region.

Important Points

• India-Nepal Defense Relations:
• India and Nepal share a unique defense relationship characterized by open borders and deep historical ties.
• The India-Nepal Treaty of Peace and Friendship (1950) forms the basis of their defense cooperation.
• Numerous Nepalese citizens serve in the Indian Army under the Gorkha Regiment, demonstrating the mutual trust between the two countries.
• Objectives of Joint Exercises:
• Enhance mutual trust and cooperation between participating nations.
• Improve inter-operability and tactical skills in simulated environments.
• Provide training in areas such as counter-terrorism, disaster management, and humanitarian assistance.

The correct answer is The Father of the Indian Unrest.

Key Points

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak was given the title "The Father of the Indian Unrest" by the British colonial rulers due to his revolutionary ideas and activities in the Indian freedom struggle.
• This title was coined by the British writer and historian Valentine Chirol in his book titled "Indian Unrest" published in the early 20^th century.
• Tilak’s strong opposition to British rule and his call for Swaraj (self-rule) resonated strongly among Indians, making him a prominent leader in the freedom movement.
• He played a crucial role in the extremist faction of the Indian National Congress, advocating for direct confrontation with colonial authorities rather than moderate dialogue.
• His famous statement, "Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it," became a rallying cry for Indian independence.

Additional Information

• About Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
• He was born on 23 July 1856 in Ratnagiri, Maharashtra.
• Tilak was one of the earliest leaders of the Indian independence movement and is often referred to as one of the "Lal-Bal-Pal" trio, along with Lala Lajpat Rai and Bipin Chandra Pal.
• He founded two nationalist newspapers, Kesari (in Marathi) and The Mahratta (in English), which were instrumental in spreading anti-British sentiments.
• He was also a scholar of Indian culture and wrote extensively on the Bhagavad Gita and other Indian scriptures.
• Other Titles and Contributions:
• Despite the British calling him "The Father of the Indian Unrest," Tilak was also referred to as "Lokmanya," meaning "accepted by the people as their leader."
• He introduced the Ganesh Chaturthi festival as a public event to unite people and instill a sense of nationalism.
• He was a key figure in the Home Rule Movement in 1916, which aimed to attain self-governance within the British Empire.
• Context of the Title:
• The title "The Father of the Indian Unrest" by Valentine Chirol reflected British fears of Tilak's ability to mobilize people against colonial rule.
• Titles of other Leaders:

Important Points

• Valentine Chirol's Role:
• Chirol was a British journalist and historian who criticized the Indian independence movement in his writings.
• His book "Indian Unrest" was a critique of Indian nationalists, particularly Tilak and his methods.

The correct answer is Uttam Kumar.

Key Points

• Uttam Kumar was the first recipient of the National Film Award for Best Actor, which was introduced in 1968.
• He received the award for his exceptional performance in the films "Chiriyakhana" (directed by Satyajit Ray) and "Antony Firingee".
• The National Film Awards are the most prestigious awards for films in India, organized by the Government of India to honor excellence in cinema.
• Uttam Kumar was widely regarded as the icon of Bengali cinema and had a profound influence on Indian cinema.

Additional Information

• National Film Awards:
• The National Film Awards were established in 1954 and are presented annually by the Directorate of Film Festivals, which is part of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
• The awards aim to encourage the production of films of high artistic and technical standards and recognize achievements across various categories, including acting, direction, music, and cinematography.
• The awards are divided into two main categories: Feature Films and Non-Feature Films, with additional awards for Best Writing on Cinema.
• Uttam Kumar's Legacy:
• Uttam Kumar was born on 3 September 1926 in Kolkata and became one of the most celebrated actors in Bengali cinema.
• He worked in over 200 films, showcasing his talent in both commercial and arthouse cinema.
• His collaborations with directors like Satyajit Ray and his co-acting with actresses like Suchitra Sen are iconic in Indian film history.
• He was posthumously awarded the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, India's highest honor in cinema.
• Other Nominees for the First Best Actor Award:
• Prithviraj Kapoor: A legendary actor known for his contribution to Indian theatre and cinema, but he did not win the first National Film Award for Best Actor.
• Ashok Kumar: A pioneering figure in Indian cinema, often referred to as the "Dadamoni," he was recognized for his acting skills but was not the first recipient of this award.
• Dev Anand: Known as the "Evergreen Star" of Bollywood, he was famous for his charismatic performances, but he did not win the first National Film Award for Best Actor.

Important Points

• 71^st National Film Awards (2025):
• ​Dadasaheb Phalke Award: Mohanlal
• Best Feature Film: 12^th Fail (Hindi)
• Best Actor (Male): Shah Rukh Khan (Jawan) & Vikrant Massey (12^th Fail)
• Best Actor (Female): Rani Mukerji (Mrs. Chatterjee v/s Norway)
• Best Direction: Sudipto Sen (The Kerala Story)
• Best Popular Film Providing Wholesome Entertainment: Rocky Aur Rani Kii Prem Kahaani
• Best Feature Film Promoting National, Social, and Environmental Values: Sam Bahadur
• Best Supporting Actor: Vijayaraghavan & Muthupettai Somu Bhaskar
• Best Supporting Actress: Urvashi & Janki Bodiwala
• Best Film in AVGC (Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming & Comic): Hanu-Man
• Best Non-Feature Film: Flowering Man

The correct answer is G. Balasubramanian.

Key Points

• G. Balasubramanian has been appointed as the High Commissioner of India to the Republic of Maldives in November 2024.
• The appointment of an Indian High Commissioner to the Maldives is a significant diplomatic position due to the strategic importance of the Maldives in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
• The Maldives is a close neighbor and partner of India, and both countries share strong ties in terms of defense, security, trade, and cultural relations.
• His role will involve coordinating efforts to strengthen India-Maldives collaboration in areas such as infrastructure development, maritime security, and people-to-people connectivity.

Additional Information

• India-Maldives Relations:
• The India-Maldives relationship is based on shared cultural, historical, and economic ties, with India being one of the Maldives' closest allies.
• India has been a key partner in the Maldives' development, contributing to projects such as infrastructure development, health, and education.
• The Maldives is a member of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), which strengthens its regional ties with India.
• India has consistently provided support to the Maldives during times of crisis, such as the COVID-19 pandemic, where vaccines and other medical aid were extended.
• Role of a High Commissioner:
• A High Commissioner represents their home country in a Commonwealth nation, similar to the role of an ambassador in non-Commonwealth countries.
• The High Commissioner's responsibilities include maintaining and enhancing bilateral relations, promoting trade, and protecting the interests of their citizens in the host country.
• Strategic Importance of the Maldives:
• The Maldives' location in the Indian Ocean makes it a key player in maritime security and trade routes.
• India and the Maldives cooperate on issues such as anti-piracy, counter-terrorism, and disaster management in the Indian Ocean Region.

Important Points

• Other Options:
• Sanjiv Ranjan: A senior diplomat, but not appointed as the High Commissioner to the Maldives in 2024.
• Rajesh Kumar Singh: A distinguished personality, but holds no relevance to the given appointment.
• Vitul Kumar: Another notable name, but unrelated to the appointment in question.

The correct answer is Education.

Key Points

• UDISE+ stands for Unified District Information System for Education Plus.
• This system was introduced by the Ministry of Education, Government of India, to strengthen and improve the collection of data related to the school education system in India.
• UDISE+ replaces the earlier version, UDISE, and aims to provide accurate and comprehensive data related to schools, teachers, and students in both government and private schools.
• It facilitates better planning, decision-making, and implementation of policies by providing a transparent and reliable database of the education sector.
• The system covers vital aspects such as student enrollment, infrastructure availability, teacher qualifications, and dropout rates across schools in India.

Additional Information

• Key Features of UDISE+:
• UDISE+ ensures real-time data collection and reduces manual errors through digitization.
• It provides a platform for tracking and monitoring the progress of various government schemes such as Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan and Mid-Day Meal Scheme.
• Data collected through UDISE+ is used to generate reports and indices, such as the Performance Grading Index (PGI) for states and Union Territories.
• The system is designed to ensure equity, quality, and access in education.
• Importance of School Education Data:
• Reliable data is crucial for identifying gaps in infrastructure, teacher deployment, and student performance.
• It enables the government to allocate resources effectively and prioritize areas that need immediate attention.
• Quality data helps in achieving Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG 4), which focuses on ensuring inclusive and equitable quality education.
• Global Context:
• Similar systems like UDISE+ are implemented in other countries to monitor education-related progress. For example, UNESCO's Education Management Information System (EMIS) aims to collect and analyze data on education globally.
• Such systems contribute to international cooperation and knowledge sharing for improving education standards worldwide.

Important Points

• UDISE+ Implementation:
• The system is applicable across schools providing elementary, secondary, and higher secondary education in India.
• UDISE+ is managed and monitored by the Department of School Education and Literacy under the Ministry of Education.
• Annual surveys conducted through UDISE+ help track the progress of various programs and schemes in the education sector.
• Key Challenges:
• Ensuring data accuracy and completeness remains a challenge, especially in remote and rural areas.
• Lack of digital infrastructure in some schools hinders the seamless implementation of UDISE+.
• Capacity-building initiatives for school administrators and education officials are essential for the effective use of UDISE+.

The correct answer is 2030.

Key Points

• Jal Jeevan Mission was launched by the Government of India on 15^th August 2019 to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all rural households.
• The mission aims at ensuring functional tap water connections to every household in India's rural areas.
• In the Union Budget 2025-26, the Jal Jeevan Mission has been extended until 2030, marking a significant step toward achieving universal access to clean drinking water.
• The extension reflects the government's commitment to addressing issues related to water scarcity, hygiene, and public health.
• By extending the mission to 2030, India aligns itself with the Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 6, which focuses on clean water and sanitation for all.

Additional Information

• Objectives of Jal Jeevan Mission:
• The mission seeks to provide 55 liters of water per person per day to every rural household through functional household tap connections.
• It emphasizes community participation and encourages villages to prepare water security plans.
• Strengthening the capacity of local bodies, including Panchayati Raj Institutions, is a key component of the program.
• It also focuses on source sustainability measures, such as rainwater harvesting and groundwater recharge.
• Sustainable Development Goal 6 (SDG 6):
• SDG 6 is part of the United Nations' 2030 Agenda, aiming to ensure the availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all.
• It emphasizes improving water quality, implementing integrated water resource management, and protecting water-related ecosystems.
• The Jal Jeevan Mission contributes significantly to India's progress in achieving this global goal.
• Challenges Addressed by Jal Jeevan Mission:
• India faces challenges such as water scarcity, contamination of water sources, and poor infrastructure in rural areas.
• The mission aims to address these challenges through technological interventions, robust infrastructure development, and community involvement.

Important Points

• Budget Allocation:
• The Union Budget has allocated significant funds to the Jal Jeevan Mission, reflecting its importance in the national development agenda.
• In the Union Budget 2023-24, approximately ₹60,000 crore was allocated to the program.
• Technological Advancements:
• The mission leverages smart meters, remote monitoring systems, and advanced water treatment technologies.
• It also promotes the use of solar-powered water supply systems in rural areas.
• Community Empowerment:
• The program encourages the formation of Village Water and Sanitation Committees (VWSCs) to ensure efficient management and maintenance.
• Training programs are conducted to enhance local capacity for water resource management.

The correct answer is Surfing.

Key Points

• Surfing is a sport performed on water where an individual rides on ocean waves using a surfboard. The participant glides on the wave's face towards the shore.
• This sport requires large water bodies, typically oceans, seas, or artificial wave pools, where there are consistent and surfable waves.
• Surfing originated in the Pacific Islands, with Hawaii being one of the most notable regions where it developed as both a sport and cultural practice.
• The equipment primarily includes a surfboard, which comes in various sizes and designs depending on the surfer's skill level and wave conditions.
• Surfing has become a popular recreational activity worldwide and is also a competitive sport, with events like the World Surf League (WSL) and its inclusion in the Olympics.

Additional Information

• Badminton:
• This is a racket sport played indoors or outdoors where players hit a shuttlecock back and forth over a net.
• Badminton is played on a rectangular court divided by a net, and it requires quick reflexes, agility, and precision.
• The game is not water-based but is highly popular worldwide, especially in countries like India, China, and Indonesia.
• Basketball:
• A team sport played on a rectangular indoor court where players aim to score points by throwing a ball through a hoop.
• It is not related to water but requires proper coordination, strategy, and athleticism.
• Basketball was invented by Dr. James Naismith in 1891 and is now a major sport globally, especially in the United States.
• Cricket:
• Cricket is a bat-and-ball game played on a field with a 22-yard pitch in the center.
• The game involves two teams of eleven players each and is extremely popular in countries like India, England, and Australia.
• It is played on land and has no connection to water-based sports.
• Surfing:
• Surfing involves riding on water waves using a specially designed surfboard.
• It requires skill, balance, and knowledge of the wave patterns and conditions.
• Surfing competitions like the World Surf League attract participants and audiences worldwide.
• It is primarily carried out in coastal regions where wave formations are suitable for the sport.

Important Points

• Surfing in the Olympics:
• Surfing made its debut as an Olympic sport in the 2020 Tokyo Olympics, showcasing its growing global recognition.
• The event was held in natural ocean settings to capture the essence of the sport.
• Types of Surfing:
• There are various forms of surfing, such as shortboarding, longboarding, and big wave surfing, each requiring different techniques and skill levels.
• Big wave surfing involves waves that are at least 20 feet high and is considered highly challenging and dangerous.
• Surfing Equipment:
• In addition to surfboards, equipment like wetsuits, wax, leashes, and fins are commonly used to enhance performance and safety.
• Wetsuits help in maintaining body temperature while surfing in cold waters.