General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Azimul Haque.

Key Points

• Azimul Haque has been appointed as the CEO of the Delhi Waqf Board in January 2025. This appointment is significant as the Delhi Waqf Board plays a crucial role in managing waqf properties and ensuring their proper utilization.
• The Delhi Waqf Board is a statutory body established under the Waqf Act, 1995, which governs waqf properties and related matters in India.
• Azimul Haque is known for his extensive administrative experience and in-depth understanding of waqf properties, making him an ideal choice for this role.
• The CEO of the Waqf Board is responsible for overseeing the management, preservation, and development of waqf properties and ensuring their compliance with legal and administrative frameworks.
• This appointment aligns with the government's commitment to strengthening the functioning of statutory bodies like the Waqf Board and ensuring transparency and accountability in their operations.

Additional Information

• Delhi Waqf Board:
• The Delhi Waqf Board is responsible for managing waqf properties in the region, which include mosques, graveyards, dargahs, and other charitable institutions.
• It ensures that waqf properties are used for purposes aligned with Islamic principles, such as education, welfare, and religious activities.
• The Board also takes steps to prevent encroachments and misuse of waqf properties and ensures their proper maintenance and revenue generation.
• Waqf Act, 1995:
• The Waqf Act, 1995, is a central legislation enacted to provide for the administration and supervision of waqf properties in India.
• The Act defines waqf as a permanent dedication of movable or immovable property by a Muslim for religious, pious, or charitable purposes.
• It establishes Waqf Boards at the state level to manage and regulate waqf properties in their respective jurisdictions.
• Role of the CEO:
• The CEO of the Waqf Board is a key administrative position responsible for implementing policies, managing staff, and ensuring the proper functioning of the Board.
• The CEO also liaises with government agencies, legal authorities, and other stakeholders to address issues related to waqf properties.
• Challenges in Waqf Management:
• Encroachments on waqf properties and illegal occupation are major challenges faced by Waqf Boards across India.
• Limited financial resources and lack of skilled personnel often hinder the effective management and development of waqf properties.
• Efforts are being made to digitize records and introduce modern management practices to address these challenges.

Important Points

• Encroachment Issues: Waqf Boards in India have been facing challenges due to widespread encroachments on waqf properties. Ensuring proper legal action and recovery of these properties is a major priority for the Board.
• Digitization: The Government of India has initiated efforts to digitize waqf records under the Waqf Management System of India (WAMSI) to improve transparency and accountability.
• Role of Central Waqf Council: The Central Waqf Council provides guidance and oversight to state Waqf Boards and also supports them in capacity building and resolving disputes.
• Revenue Generation: Effective management of waqf properties can generate significant revenue, which can be utilized for community welfare and development programs.
• Community Welfare: Waqf properties are instrumental in funding educational institutions, healthcare facilities, and other welfare initiatives for the Muslim community in India.

The correct answer is Ministry of Education.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Education launched the Pradhan Mantri Yuva Udyamita Vikas Abhiyan (PM-YUVA) 3.0 in March 2025.
• This initiative aims at fostering a culture of entrepreneurship and innovation in India among the youth.
• The scheme provides support for training, capacity building, and handholding of aspiring entrepreneurs, especially among students in schools, colleges, and universities.
• It is a continuation and enhanced version of the earlier phases, PM-YUVA 1.0 and 2.0, which were successful in promoting entrepreneurial skills.
• The initiative aligns with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasizes vocational training, skill development, and entrepreneurial education.

Additional Information

• PM-YUVA Scheme Objectives:
• The scheme focuses on creating an entrepreneurial ecosystem by encouraging innovation and startups among students and youth.
• It provides access to mentorship, financial assistance, and market linkages for aspiring entrepreneurs.
• It aims to integrate entrepreneurial education into the curriculum of educational institutions.
• It also seeks to promote social entrepreneurship to address societal challenges through innovative solutions.
• National Education Policy (NEP) 2020:
• The NEP 2020 emphasizes the integration of vocational training and skill development into mainstream education.
• It aims to create a holistic and multidisciplinary education system that nurtures critical thinking and problem-solving skills.
• The policy highlights the need for entrepreneurial thinking to prepare students for the challenges of the 21^st century.
• Previous Phases of PM-YUVA:
• PM-YUVA 1.0: Focused on skill-building and entrepreneurship training for students and young professionals.
• PM-YUVA 2.0: Expanded the scope to include more institutions and introduced digital learning platforms.
• Other Similar Initiatives by the Ministry of Education:
• Atal Innovation Mission (AIM): Promotes a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship through Atal Tinkering Labs in schools.
• Skill India Mission: Enhances employability and skill development for youth.
• Startup India Initiative: Provides support for startups, including easier compliance, funding opportunities, and incubation centers.

Important Points

• Age Group: PM-YUVA targets youth, primarily students in the age group of 15 to 29 years.
• Entrepreneurship Curriculum: The initiative introduces entrepreneurship-focused courses in schools and colleges.
• Digital Integration: The scheme uses online platforms for training and mentorship, making it accessible to a larger audience.
• Global Competitiveness: By fostering innovation, PM-YUVA contributes to making India a global leader in entrepreneurship.

The correct answer is 5.

Key Points

• In May 2025, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi approved the establishment of 5 National Centres of Excellence for Skilling as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
• The aim of these centers is to enhance skilling infrastructure and provide high-quality, industry-relevant training to the youth of India.
• The initiative aligns with the Skill India Mission, which seeks to equip Indian youth with employable skills and bridge the gap between education and employment.
• The scheme is centrally sponsored, meaning the funding is shared between the central government and state governments, ensuring collaborative implementation.
• The focus of these centers will be on innovation, technology-driven learning, and industry partnerships to ensure maximum employability of trained individuals.

Additional Information

• Skill India Mission:
• Launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2015, the Skill India initiative aims to train over 40 crore individuals in various skills by 2022.
• It includes programs like Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) and National Skill Development Mission.
• The mission focuses on improving vocational education, skill development, and entrepreneurship opportunities.
• National Centres of Excellence for Skilling:
• These centers are strategically set up to offer specialized training in emerging sectors such as Artificial Intelligence, Robotics, Renewable Energy, Healthcare, and IT.
• The centers will collaborate with industry experts to design curriculum and provide hands-on experience.
• The goal is to make India a global hub for skilled manpower, supporting economic growth and innovation.
• Centrally Sponsored Schemes:
• A Centrally Sponsored Scheme involves financial contributions from both the central and state governments.
• Examples include PMAY (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana), MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act), etc.
• These schemes aim to promote development and welfare across various sectors like education, health, and infrastructure.
• Importance of Skilling Initiatives:
• India has one of the youngest populations globally, with a median age of 28 years, making skilling programs critical for employment generation.
• Skilled manpower contributes to higher productivity, innovation, and economic growth.
• Initiatives like these help address challenges such as unemployment and underemployment.

Important Points

• Key Features of National Centres of Excellence for Skilling:
• Focus on high-demand sectors such as IT, Renewable Energy, Healthcare, and Industry 4.0 technologies.
• Promotes public-private partnerships for skill training and job placement.
• Emphasizes hands-on training to ensure industry readiness.
• Supports the Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat initiatives by creating a workforce aligned with global demands.
• Related Government Schemes:
• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY): Offers free skill training to enhance employability.
• National Skill Development Mission: Focuses on improving overall skill development infrastructure.
• Skill India Digital Platform: Provides online learning resources for vocational training.

The correct answer is Badminton.

Key Points

• Badminton can be played both as an individual sport (singles) and as a team sport (doubles or mixed doubles).
• In singles, one player competes against another, focusing on individual skills, agility, and strategy.
• In doubles or mixed doubles, two players form a team and compete against another team, requiring coordination, communication, and teamwork.
• Badminton is a highly versatile sport and is governed by the Badminton World Federation (BWF) internationally.
• The format of the game, whether singles or doubles, remains consistent in terms of rules, court dimensions, and scoring system.

Additional Information

• Badminton Court Dimensions:
• The court is 13.4 meters long and 6.1 meters wide for doubles, while it is 5.18 meters wide for singles.
• The net is placed at a height of 1.55 meters at the edges and 1.524 meters in the center.
• Scoring System:
• Badminton follows a rally scoring system, where a point is scored in every rally regardless of who serves.
• A match is played in a best-of-three games format, with each game going up to 21 points.
• Equipment:
• The sport requires a shuttlecock and rackets, which vary in material and weight depending on player preferences.
• Feather shuttlecocks are commonly used in professional matches, while synthetic ones are used for recreational play.
• International Tournaments:
• Prominent tournaments include the All England Open Badminton Championships, Thomas Cup, Uber Cup, and the Olympic Games.
• India has produced exceptional players such as **P.

V. Sindhu, Saina Nehwal**, and Kidambi Srikanth who have made significant contributions to the sport internationally.

Important Points

• Comparison with Other Sports:
• Basketball: A team sport that is not played individually.
• Cricket: Exclusively a team sport; no individual matches exist in competitive formats.
• Hockey: A team sport with no provision for individual play.
• Badminton Popularity:
• It is one of the fastest racket sports in the world, requiring high levels of fitness and precision.
• It is immensely popular in countries like China, India, Indonesia, Denmark, and Malaysia.

The correct answer is Shooting.

Key Points

• India's first individual Olympic gold medal was won by Abhinav Bindra in the sport of Shooting. He achieved this historic feat at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
• Bindra won the gold medal in the Men's 10m Air Rifle event, marking a significant moment in India's Olympic history.
• This victory made Bindra the first Indian to win an individual gold medal in the Olympics, breaking a long-standing record of India not achieving this feat in the individual categories.
• Abhinav Bindra's score in the final was 700.5, which included a near-perfect performance in the qualifying rounds and the final.
• His win brought immense pride to India and inspired the growth of shooting as a popular sport in the country, leading to increased interest and investment in the sport.

Additional Information

• Abhinav Bindra's Background:
• He was born on 28 September 1982, in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
• Bindra trained extensively at his private shooting range, which was equipped with advanced technology to simulate international conditions.
• He is a graduate of the University of Colorado, and his dedication to improving his mental and physical abilities contributed significantly to his success.
• Shooting Sport in India:
• Shooting is governed by the National Rifle Association of India (NRAI), which oversees the development of the sport in the country.
• India has been home to several successful shooters, including Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore (2004 silver medalist) and Gagan Narang (2012 bronze medalist).
• The sport has gained popularity over the years, with increased government support and private sponsorships.
• Other Significant Indian Gold Medalists:
• Prior to Bindra's win, India had primarily achieved gold medals in team events, such as Hockey (winning 8 gold medals between 1928 and 1980).
• In recent years, athletes like Neeraj Chopra (gold in Javelin Throw at the 2021 Tokyo Olympics) have followed in Bindra's footsteps by achieving individual Olympic gold medals.
• Impact of Bindra's Win:
• Bindra's historic win has inspired a new generation of Indian shooters, with many of them achieving success at international events.
• It has led to the establishment of specialized shooting academies and increased funding for athletes in the sport.
• His autobiography, "A Shot at History," chronicles his journey and serves as a motivational guide for aspiring athletes.

Important Points

• Significance of the 2008 Beijing Olympics:
• India's medal tally at the 2008 Olympics included three medals: Abhinav Bindra's gold, a bronze by Vijender Singh in Boxing, and another bronze by Sushil Kumar in Wrestling.
• This was India's best-ever performance at the Olympics at that time, marking a turning point for Indian sports on the global stage.
• Growth of Shooting in India:
• Post-2008, shooting has emerged as one of India's strongest sports in international competitions.
• India has consistently performed well in events such as the ISSF World Cups and Commonwealth Games.

The correct answer is Deep Ocean Mission.

Key Points

• The MATSYA 6000 is a manned submersible vehicle developed under India's Deep Ocean Mission, an initiative by the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
• This submersible is designed to reach depths of up to 6,000 meters below sea level, enabling exploration and resource assessment of the deep ocean.
• The Deep Ocean Mission was launched in 2021 with the aim to harness resources, including polymetallic nodules, from the seabed, particularly in the Indian Ocean.
• MATSYA 6000 is equipped with advanced technologies to carry three crew members to the depths of the ocean and conduct scientific exploration.
• The project aligns with India's aspirations to deepen its research in marine biodiversity, seabed mapping, and resource exploitation, enhancing its status as a leader in ocean research.

Additional Information

• Deep Ocean Mission:
• This mission aims to explore the deep ocean for minerals, energy, and marine biodiversity.
• The mission includes the development of technologies for deep-sea mining, underwater vehicles, and underwater robotics.
• The initiative is part of India's efforts to achieve the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 14 (Life Below Water), which focuses on conserving marine resources.
• A key focus area of the mission is the exploration of polymetallic nodules found in the Central Indian Ocean Basin, which are rich in metals like manganese, nickel, cobalt, and copper.
• MATSYA 6000:
• The submersible is being developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai.
• It is equipped with life support systems to ensure the safety of scientists for missions lasting up to 12 hours.
• The submersible uses titanium alloy personnel spheres to withstand high pressure at extreme depths.
• The MATSYA 6000 is expected to play a crucial role in the study of marine ecosystems and geological processes.
• Applications of Deep Ocean Mission:
• Mapping seabed resources for potential mining of valuable minerals.
• Enhancing understanding of marine biodiversity and its conservation.
• Strengthening disaster management capabilities by studying underwater seismic activity.
• Advancing India's research and technology in underwater robotics.
• Other Missions for Context:
• Aditya L-1 Mission: Focuses on studying the Sun and its atmosphere.
• Shukrayaan Mission: A proposed mission to study Venus.
• Gaganyaan Mission: India's first manned space mission, aiming to send astronauts into space.

Important Points

• The Deep Ocean Mission has a budget of Rs. 4,077 crore for a five-year period.
• India is among a handful of countries, including the US, Japan, and China, that are actively working on deep-sea exploration technologies.
• The mission's success could help India reduce its dependency on imported critical minerals.
• It involves collaboration with international organizations under the United Nations International Seabed Authority (ISA).

The correct answer is Nirguni.

Key Points

• Singaji was a revered saint-poet from Madhya Pradesh, known for his devotional compositions.
• His works are rooted in the Nirguni style, which is centered around the worship of a formless and attributeless divine entity, often referred to as Nirguna Brahman.
• Nirguni tradition emphasizes spiritual liberation through devotion, self-realization, and the renunciation of material attachments.
• Singaji’s compositions highlighted themes of equality, spirituality, and devotion, and they often critiqued the rigid caste structures and rituals prevalent in society.
• This style was closely aligned with the Bhakti movement, which sought to simplify spiritual practices and make them accessible to the common people.

Additional Information

• Nirguni Tradition:
• The Nirguni tradition belongs to the Bhakti movement, which flourished in India between the 13^th and 17^th centuries.
• It focuses on the worship of a formless and attributeless divine entity, rejecting idol worship and ritualistic practices.
• Prominent Nirguni poets include Kabir, Ravidas, Dadu Dayal, and Singaji.
• Their teachings emphasized human equality, devotion, and self-awareness.
• Other Musical Styles (Incorrect Options):
• Khayal: A form of Hindustani classical music that emphasizes improvisation and flexibility. It originated in the 18^th century and is not related to the Bhakti movement.
• Tarana: A fast-paced vocal style in Hindustani classical music characterized by the use of meaningless syllables. It is primarily a performance style, not a devotional form.
• Dhrupad: The oldest style of Hindustani classical music, known for its meditative and spiritual depth. While devotional, it is distinct from the Nirguni tradition.
• Bhakti Movement:
• The Bhakti movement was a spiritual reform movement that emerged in medieval India, emphasizing devotion (bhakti) to a personal or formless god.
• It advocated social equality, challenged caste hierarchies, and rejected elaborate rituals.
• Prominent Bhakti saints include Mirabai, Kabir, Tulsidas, and Surdas.
• Key Characteristics of Nirguni Compositions:
• They focus on universal truths and spiritual liberation.
• Reject materialism, caste distinctions, and idol worship.
• Use simple language to connect with the masses.

The correct answer is Advait Kottary.

Key Points

• Advait Kottary is the author of the book 'Siddhartha: The Boy Who Became the Buddha', which won the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar in the English category in 2025.
• The Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar is awarded annually by the Sahitya Akademi, India's National Academy of Letters, to recognize and encourage young writers under the age of 35.
• 'Siddhartha: The Boy Who Became the Buddha' is a fictional account inspired by the early life of Siddhartha Gautama, the founder of Buddhism.
• The book delves into Siddhartha's transformative journey, exploring his struggles, realizations, and eventual enlightenment.
• Advait Kottary is celebrated for his ability to weave historical and spiritual narratives into engaging literary works, making profound themes accessible to readers.

Additional Information

• Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar:
• The Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar was instituted in 2011 to honor young authors for their outstanding contributions to literature.
• It is awarded in 24 languages recognized by the Sahitya Akademi, including English, Hindi, Bengali, Tamil, and others.
• Recipients are chosen based on the literary merit of their work, reflecting innovative ideas and artistic excellence.
• The award includes a cash prize of ₹50,000 along with a citation.
• About Siddhartha Gautama:
• Siddhartha Gautama, known as the Buddha, was born in Lumbini (modern-day Nepal) around the 5^th-6^th century BCE.
• He renounced his princely life in search of answers to human suffering and attained enlightenment under the Bodhi tree in Bodh Gaya, India.
• His teachings formed the foundation of Buddhism, a philosophy advocating the Middle Path, mindfulness, and compassion.
• Other Contemporary Authors:
• Avinuo Kire: Known for her works reflecting the culture and traditions of Nagaland, such as 'The Power to Forgive'.
• Tanuj Solanki: Author of acclaimed books such as 'Diaries of a Non-Binary', focusing on modern existential themes.
• Kanishk Tharoor: Writer of 'Swimmer Among the Stars', which explores themes of history, displacement, and identity.
• Importance of Literary Awards:
• Literary awards like the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar encourage young talent and promote regional and national literature.
• They play a crucial role in preserving linguistic diversity and fostering creative expression across India.

Important Points

• Advait Kottary's Book:
• 'Siddhartha: The Boy Who Became the Buddha' is praised for its vivid storytelling and spiritual depth.
• The book resonates with readers interested in philosophical inquiries and historical narratives.
• Sahitya Akademi:
• The Sahitya Akademi is India's premier institution for promoting literature and fostering literary dialogue among cultures.
• It organizes workshops, seminars, and awards to recognize excellence in writing across various languages.

The correct answer is Kulasekhara.

Key Points

• Meenakshi Amman Temple, located in Madurai, Tamil Nadu, is one of the most iconic landmarks in India and is dedicated to Goddess Meenakshi (a form of Parvati) and Lord Sundareswarar (a form of Shiva).
• The temple was originally constructed during the reign of the Pandyan king Kulasekhara in the early centuries of the Common Era.
• It underwent major expansions and renovations during the reign of the Nayak dynasty in the 16^th and 17^th centuries, particularly under Tirumala Nayaka.
• The architectural style of the temple is a blend of Dravidian architecture, featuring towering gopurams, intricate sculptures, and vibrant frescoes.
• The temple complex spans over 14 acres and includes 14 gopurams (gateway towers), multiple shrines, and a sacred pond known as Porthamarai Kulam (Golden Lotus Tank).
• The temple is renowned for its annual Meenakshi Thirukalyanam festival, which celebrates the divine marriage of Goddess Meenakshi and Lord Sundareswarar.

Additional Information

• Kulasekhara Dynasty:
• The Pandyan dynasty, under rulers like Kulasekhara, was one of the three ancient Tamil kingdoms alongside the Chola and Chera dynasties.
• They were known for their patronage of art, architecture, and literature, particularly in Tamil.
• The Pandyan kings were instrumental in promoting Shaivism and Vaishnavism, as seen in temples like the Meenakshi Amman Temple.
• Dravidian Architecture:
• The Meenakshi Temple is a classic example of Dravidian architecture, characterized by pyramidal gopurams, ornate carvings, and murals depicting Hindu mythology.
• It follows a symmetrical layout and includes mandapas (pillared halls), vimanas (towering spires over the sanctum), and sacred tanks.
• Nayak Contributions:
• While the original construction was by the Pandyan king Kulasekhara, the Nayak rulers expanded the temple significantly in the 16^th century.
• Key features like the Thousand Pillar Hall and ornate frescoes were added during this period.
• The Nayaks also introduced the iconic Meenakshi Thirukalyanam festival, which draws thousands of devotees annually.
• Other Options Explained:
• Karikala Chola: Known for his contributions to irrigation and trade, particularly the construction of the Kallanai Dam, but not associated with the Meenakshi Temple.
• Pulakeshin I: A ruler of the Chalukya dynasty, famous for his military conquests, but unrelated to the construction of the temple.
• Narasimha Deva I: A ruler of the Eastern Ganga dynasty, best known for the Sun Temple at Konark, but not linked to the Meenakshi Temple.

Important Points

• The Meenakshi Amman Temple is a UNESCO Tentative World Heritage Site, highlighting its cultural and historical significance.
• The temple attracts millions of tourists and devotees annually, making it a major pilgrimage site and a symbol of Tamil Nadu's cultural heritage.
• Its sculptures and artwork depict scenes from Hindu mythology, including the life of Goddess Meenakshi and her marriage to Lord Shiva.
• The temple's intricate designs and vibrant colors are a testament to the artistic expertise of ancient Tamil craftsmen.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Dhamoni Urs Fair is a popular annual event held in the state of Madhya Pradesh, India.
• The fair is organized in the town of Dhamoni, located in the Sagar district of Madhya Pradesh.
• This event is primarily a religious and cultural fair and is dedicated to the memory of revered Sufi saints and their teachings.
• Devotees from various parts of Madhya Pradesh and neighboring regions gather to celebrate the Urs, which includes prayers, Sufi music, and community feasts.
• The fair is also an occasion for local artisans and vendors to showcase their crafts, including traditional Madhya Pradesh handicrafts, food, and other cultural items.
• This festival highlights the spiritual harmony and cultural heritage of the region.

Additional Information

• Religious Importance of Urs:
• The term "Urs" is derived from an Arabic word meaning "wedding," symbolizing the union of the soul with the divine.
• The Urs festival is typically celebrated at the Dargah (shrine) of a Sufi saint and marks the saint's death anniversary.
• It is a time for spiritual reflection, prayers, and the promotion of Sufi teachings of love, peace, and unity.
• Cultural Significance of Madhya Pradesh:
• Madhya Pradesh, often referred to as the "Heart of India," is renowned for its rich cultural and religious heritage.
• The state is home to several fairs and festivals, including the Khajuraho Dance Festival, Tansen Music Festival, and Kumbh Mela in Ujjain.
• These events celebrate the state’s diverse traditions, music, dance, and art forms.
• Other Popular Fairs in Madhya Pradesh:
• Kartik Mela: Celebrated in Ujjain, this fair is organized during the Kartik month of the Hindu calendar.
• Malwa Utsav: A cultural festival showcasing the folk dances, music, and crafts of the Malwa region.
• Bhagoria Festival: A tribal festival celebrated by the Bhil and Bhilala tribes of Madhya Pradesh.
• Tourism in Madhya Pradesh:
• The state is famous for its UNESCO World Heritage Sites, such as the Khajuraho Temples, Sanchi Stupa, and Bhimbetka Rock Shelters.
• It is also home to wildlife sanctuaries and national parks like Kanha, Bandhavgarh, and Pench, which attract nature and wildlife enthusiasts.
• Madhya Pradesh offers a blend of spiritual, historical, and natural attractions, making it a unique travel destination.

Important Points

• Geographical Location: Dhamoni is located in the Sagar district of Madhya Pradesh, which is known for its historical significance and cultural richness.
• Connectivity: Dhamoni is well connected by road, and the nearest railway station is in Sagar, making it accessible for pilgrims and tourists.
• Historical Significance: Apart from the Urs fair, Dhamoni is known for its ancient fort and architectural heritage, which reflect the region’s history.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• Shikaar Nritya is a traditional dance associated with the state of Gujarat.
• It is a folk dance performed by tribal communities in Gujarat, particularly as part of cultural ceremonies and rituals.
• The word "Shikaar" translates to "hunt," and the dance often depicts scenes of hunting, bravery, and the relationship between humans and nature.
• This dance form is performed during festivals and occasions to showcase tribal heritage and their connection to the environment.
• The music accompanying the dance often involves traditional instruments like drums, flutes, and other percussion instruments to create a rhythmic and energetic atmosphere.

Additional Information

• Folk Dances of Gujarat:
• Garba: One of the most famous folk dances of Gujarat, performed during the Navratri festival. It involves circular movements and rhythmic clapping.
• Dandiya Raas: Another popular dance, performed with sticks (dandiyas), symbolizing the fight between Goddess Durga and Mahishasura.
• Hudo: A tribal dance of Gujarat, performed during weddings and other celebrations.
• Padhar Nritya: A dance form of the Padhar community, depicting their way of life and connection to water bodies.
• Tribal Communities of Gujarat:
• Gujarat is home to several tribal groups, including the Bhil, Rathwa, Garasia, and Siddis.
• These communities have preserved their rich cultural heritage through traditional dances, music, and art forms.
• Traditional Instruments of Gujarat:
• Common instruments include the tabla, manjira, dhol, pungi, and shehnai, which are often used in folk performances.
• These instruments add a unique rhythm and melody to the dances, enhancing the overall experience.
• Importance of Folk Dances:
• Folk dances like Shikaar Nritya play a crucial role in preserving the culture and traditions of tribal communities.
• They serve as a medium to educate younger generations about their roots and heritage.

Important Points

• Shikaar Nritya’s Connection to Nature:
• The dance reflects the lifestyle of tribal communities, particularly their dependence on nature and hunting for survival.
• It also highlights their bravery, teamwork, and respect for the environment.
• Preservation Efforts:
• Various cultural programs and festivals in Gujarat promote the performance of traditional dances to ensure they are not forgotten.
• The Gujarat government and cultural organizations often organize events to showcase such art forms on a larger platform.
• Tourism and Cultural Exchange:
• Traditional dances like Shikaar Nritya attract tourists and help in promoting Gujarat’s rich cultural heritage globally.
• They also serve as a medium for cultural exchange, allowing people from different regions to appreciate and learn about tribal traditions.

The correct answer is Geo-stationary satellite.

Key Points

• Geo-stationary satellites are primarily used for weather monitoring and forecasting. They are positioned in a fixed orbit above the equator, ensuring they remain over the same geographical location.
• These satellites provide continuous coverage of the same area, making them ideal for tracking weather patterns, cloud formations, and precipitation.
• They operate at an altitude of approximately 35,786 km above the Earth's surface and match the Earth's rotational speed, ensuring their stationary position relative to the ground.
• Geo-stationary satellites are equipped with advanced sensors and cameras to capture real-time weather data, including temperature, humidity, wind speed, and atmospheric pressure.
• Examples of geo-stationary satellites used for weather forecasting include the GOES series (USA), INSAT series (India), and Himawari (Japan).

Additional Information

• Communication satellites:
• These satellites are primarily used for telecommunication services, including television broadcasting, internet connectivity, and telephone communication.
• They are not designed for weather monitoring but play a significant role in enabling global communication networks.
• Examples include the INTELSAT and Iridium satellite constellations.
• Reconnaissance satellites:
• Also known as spy satellites, these are used for military and intelligence purposes, such as surveillance and monitoring enemy activities.
• They are equipped with high-resolution imaging systems to capture detailed information about specific areas.
• Examples include the KH-11 and Lacrosse satellites.
• Astronomical satellites:
• These satellites are designed for space exploration and studying celestial objects like stars, galaxies, and planets.
• They are equipped with specialized instruments like telescopes, spectrometers, and cameras.
• Examples include the Hubble Space Telescope and Chandra X-ray Observatory.
• INSAT series (India):
• The INSAT series of satellites, operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), provide a combination of communication, broadcasting, and weather services.
• The INSAT-3D and INSAT-3DR satellites are equipped with advanced payloads for weather monitoring.

Important Points

• Geo-stationary satellites' advantages:
• Continuous coverage of the same area, enabling real-time data collection.
• Ideal for tracking cyclones, hurricanes, and other severe weather events.
• Supports disaster management by providing early warnings and post-event analysis.
• Global examples:
• GOES series (USA): Managed by NOAA for weather forecasting and monitoring.
• Himawari series (Japan): Operated by the Japan Meteorological Agency (JMA).
• Meteosat (Europe): Operated by EUMETSAT for weather and climate studies.

The correct answer is 2.

Key Points

• Mechanical energy is primarily classified into two types: kinetic energy and potential energy.
• Kinetic energy is the energy an object possesses due to its motion. For example, a moving car or a flowing river has kinetic energy.
• Potential energy is the energy an object possesses due to its position or configuration. For instance, water stored in a dam at height or a stretched spring has potential energy.
• The sum of kinetic and potential energy in a system constitutes its total mechanical energy.
• This classification of mechanical energy into two types is widely accepted in physics and forms the basis for understanding energy transfer in mechanical systems.

Additional Information

• Kinetic Energy:

• Mathematically, kinetic energy is expressed as KE=12mv2KE=12mv2KE=12mv2

  , where m is the mass of the object and v is its velocity.

• Kinetic energy is directly proportional to the mass and square of the velocity, meaning an increase in either will increase the kinetic energy.

• Examples include moving vehicles, flying airplanes, and running athletes.

• Potential Energy:

• Potential energy is calculated using the formula PE=mghPE=mghPE=mgh

  , where m is the mass, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height.

• It depends on the object's position relative to a reference point, such as the height of an object above the ground.

• Examples include water stored in a dam, a compressed spring, or a pendulum at its highest point.

• Energy Conversion:

• Mechanical energy can transform between kinetic and potential energy. For example, in a pendulum, energy constantly shifts between these two forms.

• In a roller coaster, the mechanical energy is conserved as the cars move up and down the tracks, swapping kinetic energy for potential energy and vice versa.

• Real-World Applications:

• Mechanical energy is utilized in various machines, engines, and systems such as wind turbines, hydropower plants, and mechanical clocks.

• It is a fundamental concept in engineering, physics, and various technological applications.

Important Points

• Conservation of Mechanical Energy:
• Mechanical energy is conserved in an isolated system where only conservative forces (like gravity) are acting.
• This principle is fundamental to solving many physics problems, such as calculating the motion of a projectile or the dynamics of a pendulum.
• Non-Conservative Forces:
• When non-conservative forces like friction or air resistance act on a system, mechanical energy is not conserved, as some energy is converted into heat or other forms.
• This explains why a rolling ball eventually comes to a stop or why energy losses occur in real-world machines.

The correct answer is IIT Kanpur.

Key Points

• IIT Kanpur collaborated with the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) for a hackathon held in April 2025. This collaboration aimed to explore the advancements in Large Language Models (LLMs) and Generative AI.
• The hackathon focused on leveraging Artificial Intelligence (AI) to improve financial reporting standards and address challenges in the financial sector.
• Large Language Models, such as OpenAI's GPT series, have been instrumental in processing and analyzing vast amounts of textual data, making them highly relevant for applications in financial auditing and compliance monitoring.
• The event provided a platform for researchers, academicians, and industry professionals to develop innovative solutions using Generative AI to enhance decision-making processes in financial reporting.
• This collaboration reflects IIT Kanpur's commitment to driving innovation and contributing to the nation's technological advancement in critical domains such as financial governance.

Additional Information

• IIT Kanpur:
• Located in Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh, IIT Kanpur is one of India's premier institutions for engineering and technology education.
• Founded in 1959, it has been a leader in fostering research and innovation in diverse fields such as computer science, aerospace engineering, and materials science.
• The institute has a strong focus on Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning, with dedicated research centers and labs for advancements in these areas.
• National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA):
• NFRA is an independent regulatory body established under the Companies Act, 2013, responsible for regulating the auditing and accounting standards in India.
• It aims to enhance the transparency, reliability, and quality of financial reporting in the country.
• NFRA's collaboration with academic institutions like IIT Kanpur signifies its commitment to adopting technological solutions for improving financial compliance and reporting standards.
• Large Language Models (LLMs):
• LLMs, such as GPT-4, are advanced AI systems capable of understanding and generating human-like text based on their training on vast datasets.
• They find applications in fields like customer support, content generation, and financial data analysis.
• These models can assist in fraud detection, audit automation, and report generation in the financial domain.
• Generative AI:
• Generative AI refers to AI systems that can create new content, such as text, images, or code, based on the input they receive.
• Applications of Generative AI in finance include scenario analysis, risk modeling, and predictive analytics.
• By integrating Generative AI, organizations can achieve higher accuracy and efficiency in complex decision-making processes.

Important Points

• Significance of Hackathons:
• Hackathons serve as collaborative platforms where participants innovate and develop solutions to real-world challenges within a limited timeframe.
• They encourage the application of cutting-edge technologies like AI and Machine Learning to address domain-specific problems.
• Role of Academia-Industry Collaboration:
• Partnerships between academic institutions and regulatory bodies like NFRA facilitate the exchange of knowledge and promote research-driven innovation.
• These collaborations help bridge the gap between theoretical research and practical applications, fostering advancements in critical sectors.
• Future of AI in Financial Reporting:
• AI technologies like LLMs and Generative AI are expected to revolutionize financial reporting by automating repetitive tasks and enhancing data accuracy.
• These advancements will lead to more robust financial governance and transparency, ultimately benefiting stakeholders and the economy at large.

The correct answer is Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath.

Key Points

• Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath was the father of Baji Rao I, who served as the Peshwa (Prime Minister) of the Maratha Empire under Chhatrapati Shahu.
• Balaji Vishwanath was the first Peshwa to gain significant political influence and laid the foundation for the hereditary Peshwa system in the Maratha Empire.
• Baji Rao I, born on 18 August 1700, succeeded his father Balaji Vishwanath as Peshwa in 1720 and became one of the most notable military leaders in Indian history.
• Balaji Vishwanath played a key role in stabilizing the Maratha Empire during turbulent times and strengthened the position of the Peshwas, which allowed Baji Rao I to expand the empire further.
• Balaji Vishwanath was instrumental in signing the Treaty of Delhi (1719), which granted significant rights to the Marathas under the Mughal Empire, including tax collection (chauth and sardeshmukhi).

Additional Information

• Baji Rao I:
• Baji Rao I, also known as Thorale Bajirao, was one of the greatest military commanders in Indian history.
• He never lost a battle during his 20-year career as Peshwa, earning him the title of "Napoleon of India."
• His conquests and military strategies were instrumental in expanding the Maratha Empire across much of India.
• He is known for his famous campaigns against the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Mughals, as well as his efforts to establish Maratha dominance in central and northern India.
• Role of Balaji Vishwanath:
• Known as the "Second Founder of the Maratha Empire," Balaji Vishwanath transformed the Peshwa position from a ministerial role to a powerful hereditary office.
• His diplomatic skills and administrative reforms helped restore the financial and political stability of the Maratha Empire after the death of Aurangzeb.
• He introduced the concept of collecting chauth (25% of revenue) and sardeshmukhi (10% of revenue) from Mughal territories, which became a major source of income for the Marathas.
• Balaji Vishwanath's legacy paved the way for his descendants, including Baji Rao I and Nana Saheb, to lead the Maratha Empire to its zenith.
• Important Points About Maratha Empire:
• The Maratha Empire was a dominant power in India from the late 17^th century to the early 19^th century, with its peak under the Peshwas.
• It was founded by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in 1674, and its administration was based on a highly decentralized system of governance.
• The Peshwas served as the prime ministers of the Maratha Empire and were responsible for both administrative and military functions.
• Their influence grew under Peshwas like Balaji Vishwanath and Baji Rao I, who expanded the empire significantly.
• The Maratha Empire eventually declined after the Third Battle of Panipat (1761) and later fell to British rule in the 19^th century.
• Other Options Explained:
• Raghunath Rao: He was the younger brother of Nana Saheb (Baji Rao's son) and played a role in Maratha politics after Baji Rao's era. He was not Baji Rao I's father.
• Shahu ji Maharaj: He was the Chhatrapati (king) under whom Balaji Vishwanath and later Baji Rao I served as Peshwas, but he was not related to Baji Rao by blood.
• Peshwa Madhavrao: He was the grandson of Baji Rao I and served as Peshwa in the later period of the Maratha Empire.

The correct answer is Subsidies.

Key Points

• Capital expenditure refers to spending by the government on assets that have a long-term utility and contribute to the economic growth of the country. Examples include acquiring land, investing in infrastructure, and creating development projects.
• Subsidies, on the other hand, are classified as revenue expenditure because they are recurring payments made by the government to support specific sectors, individuals, or industries and do not create long-term assets. Hence, subsidies are NOT considered capital expenditure.
• Expenditures such as acquisition of land, investment in shares, and constructing buildings for development are capital expenditures as they result in the creation of physical or financial assets.
• Revenue expenditure, including subsidies, is focused on maintaining the daily functioning of the government or providing immediate economic support rather than creating enduring economic value.
• Subsidies are a form of financial assistance provided by the government to reduce the cost of goods or services, ensuring affordability for certain sectors or the public. They do not contribute to the creation of permanent assets.
• Hence, the correct answer is Subsidies.

Additional Information

• Capital expenditure:
• Capital expenditure is incurred by the government for acquiring assets such as land, buildings, machinery, equipment, or investments that contribute to long-term economic benefits.
• Examples include infrastructure development, setting up industries, and acquiring physical or financial assets.
• It is non-recurring in nature and reflects in the country’s balance sheet, improving its economic capacity.
• Investment in shares: Investing in shares by the government is considered capital expenditure as it leads to the creation of financial assets that may provide future returns.
• Revenue expenditure:
• Revenue expenditure refers to expenses incurred for the day-to-day running of government operations and services.
• It includes payments such as salaries, interest payments, subsidies, and welfare schemes. These expenditures are recurring and do not contribute to asset creation.
• Subsidies: Subsidies are a classic example of revenue expenditure. These financial aids are provided to support sectors such as agriculture, education, health, and industry.
• Subsidies are aimed at reducing the cost burden on citizens or businesses but do not result in the creation of physical or financial assets.
• Building for development: Constructing buildings for development purposes is classified under capital expenditure because it involves the creation of infrastructure that contributes to economic growth.
• Fiscal policy: The classification of expenditure into capital and revenue categories is critical for fiscal policy. Governments aim to balance these expenditures to ensure economic growth while maintaining fiscal discipline.

Important Points

• Key characteristics of capital and revenue expenditure:
• Capital expenditure: Non-recurring, creates assets, contributes to long-term economic benefits.
• Revenue expenditure: Recurring, supports day-to-day government functions, does not create assets.
• Government budget classifications: The classification of expenditure is critical in understanding how the government allocates resources and prioritizes economic development versus operational needs.
• Economic significance: Capital expenditure boosts economic growth by creating infrastructure, while revenue expenditure ensures smooth functioning and immediate welfare benefits.

The correct answer is Option 3 (Both I and II).

Key Points

• The Act of 1858: The Government of India Act of 1858 was passed by the British Parliament after the Revolt of 1857. It marked the transfer of governance from the East India Company to the British Crown.
• Statement I: The title of "Governor-General" was replaced with "Viceroy" under this Act. The first Viceroy of India was Lord Canning. This title indicated that the Viceroy was the direct representative of the British Crown. Hence, Statement I is correct.
• Statement II: The Act also emphasized the British Crown's commitment to respecting the customary religious and social practices of Indians. This was an attempt to pacify the Indian population after the Revolt of 1857. The British assured Indians that their religious and social traditions would not be interfered with. Hence, Statement II is correct.
• The Act abolished the Board of Control and the Court of Directors, replacing them with a new office called the Secretary of State for India, who was a member of the British Cabinet. This centralized the administration of India under British authority.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 3 (Both I and II).

Additional Information

• Key Provisions of the Government of India Act, 1858:
• The British Crown assumed direct control over Indian administration, ending the rule of the East India Company.
• A new position, the Secretary of State for India, was created. The Secretary of State was assisted by a Council of India, which consisted of 15 members.
• The Governor-General was now designated as the Viceroy of India, signifying his role as the representative of the British Crown.
• All administrative powers were centralized under the British Government, ensuring uniformity in governance.
• Background of the Act:
• The Act was a response to the widespread dissatisfaction and unrest caused by the East India Company's mismanagement, culminating in the Revolt of 1857.
• The British Government decided to overhaul the administrative structure to prevent future revolts and ensure better governance.
• Respect for Indian Traditions:
• The Act assured Indians that their religious and social customs would be respected, aiming to address the grievances that had fueled the Revolt of 1857.
• This was part of the British strategy to gain the trust and cooperation of Indian subjects.
• Significance of the Act:
• The Act marked the beginning of British Crown rule in India, which lasted until India's independence in 1947.
• It laid the foundation for a more centralized administrative structure under British control.
• The Act highlighted the importance of addressing the concerns of Indian society to prevent future uprisings.

Important Points

• Viceroy of India:
• The first Viceroy of India was Lord Canning.
• The Viceroy acted as the direct representative of the British Crown in India.
• Impact on Indian Administration:
• The Act centralized administrative powers and established a direct link between the British Crown and Indian governance.
• The introduction of the Secretary of State for India ensured that Indian affairs received direct attention from the British Government.
• Legacy of the Act:
• The Government of India Act, 1858, was a significant turning point in Indian history, marking the end of Company rule and the beginning of Crown rule.
• The administrative structure introduced by the Act continued to influence governance in India until independence.

The correct answer is 6 years.

Key Points

• The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of 6 years. This is outlined in the Constitution of India.
• One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every two years, ensuring a continuous rotation of its membership.
• Unlike the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution. It is a permanent body and continues to exist, with vacancies being filled periodically.
• The Rajya Sabha, also referred to as the Upper House of Parliament, represents the states and union territories of India.
• The election process for the Rajya Sabha members is indirect. Members are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states and union territories through a system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

Additional Information

• Rajya Sabha Composition:
• The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is 250 members, out of which 238 are elected and 12 are nominated by the President of India.
• The nominated members are chosen for their expertise in fields such as literature, science, art, and social services.
• Eligibility Criteria for Rajya Sabha Membership:
• A candidate must be at least 30 years old to contest elections for the Rajya Sabha.
• He/she must be an Indian citizen and fulfill other criteria set forth by the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
• Rajya Sabha’s Role:
• It acts as the Council of States and provides representation to states and union territories.
• The Rajya Sabha plays a significant role in legislative matters, except for money bills, which can only originate in the Lok Sabha.
• It serves as a check on the Lok Sabha and ensures representation of regional interests at the national level.
• Difference Between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha:
• The Lok Sabha (Lower House) is directly elected by the people, whereas the Rajya Sabha is indirectly elected by the state legislatures.
• The Lok Sabha has a term of 5 years, while the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body.
• The Lok Sabha is larger, with a maximum strength of 552 members, compared to the Rajya Sabha's 250 members.

Important Points

• Proportional Representation System:
• The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected through the proportional representation system via the single transferable vote.
• This system ensures that minority groups also get representation in the Rajya Sabha.
• President’s Role in Rajya Sabha:
• The Vice President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• The President of India nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha based on their contribution to various fields.

The correct answer is 1948.

Key Points

• The Census of India is conducted under the Census Act, 1948.
• It provides the legal framework for collecting, compiling, and publishing population data.
• The Census is conducted every 10 years (decennial basis).
• It is carried out by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• The Act ensures confidentiality of individual data collected during the census.

Additional Information

• First complete Census in India was conducted in 1881 during British rule.
• The modern systematic decennial Census started from 1881 onwards.
• The latest completed Census was scheduled for 2021, but it was delayed (COVID-19 and administrative reasons).
• Next Census (as per current plan) is expected to include digital data collection and caste enumeration debate.
• 1965, 1932, 1954 → No Census Act exists in these years in India.
• Only 1948 Act provides the statutory basis for Census operations in independent India.

The correct answer is To create an acidic medium for enzyme action.

Key Points

• Hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach creates an acidic medium, which is essential for the activation of the enzyme pepsin. Pepsin is responsible for the digestion of proteins into smaller peptides.
• The pH level in the stomach due to HCl is approximately 1.5 to 3.5, which is highly acidic. This environment is optimal for the functioning of digestive enzymes.
• HCl also helps in the denaturation of proteins, which means it unfolds the protein structures, making them more accessible for enzymatic breakdown.
• Another important role of HCl is to act as a defense mechanism by killing harmful bacteria and pathogens present in the food, thereby preventing infections.
• It does not neutralize food or create an alkaline medium; instead, it ensures an acidic environment for proper digestion. Hence, options 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Additional Information

• Role of Hydrochloric Acid:
• It activates pepsinogen (an inactive precursor) into its active form, pepsin, which is crucial for protein digestion.
• It breaks down the bonds between food particles, making nutrients more accessible for absorption in the intestine.
• The acidic environment facilitates the absorption of certain nutrients, such as iron and calcium, which require an acidic medium for solubilization.
• Enzymes in Digestion:
• Pepsin: Works in the acidic medium to break down proteins into smaller peptides.
• Amylase: Though it starts carbohydrate digestion in the mouth, its activity is halted in the stomach due to the acidic pH.
• Lipase: Functions to a limited extent in the stomach to break down fats.
• Functions of the Stomach:
• Acts as a temporary reservoir where food is mixed with gastric juices.
• Releases small amounts of food (chyme) into the small intestine for further digestion and absorption.
• Produces intrinsic factors necessary for the absorption of Vitamin B12 in the small intestine.
• Other Relevant Information:
• Conditions like hypochlorhydria (low stomach acid) can impair digestion and lead to nutrient deficiencies.
• Excessive production of HCl may cause conditions like acid reflux or ulcers.

Important Points

• Neutralization of Food: This is incorrect as food is not neutralized in the stomach; instead, it is acidified by HCl for enzymatic action.
• Alkaline Medium: The stomach does not create an alkaline medium; the small intestine creates an alkaline environment for further digestion.
• Protein Digestion: Proteins begin to break down in the stomach due to the acidic environment and the action of pepsin.
• Bacteria and Pathogens: The acidic pH of the stomach is effective in killing many harmful organisms, reducing the risk of infections.
• Absorption of Nutrients: Certain nutrients such as iron and calcium rely on the acidic environment of the stomach for proper absorption.