General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Vijayalaya Chola captured the Kaveri delta, marking the beginning of the Chola dynasty's resurgence in South India. This region was strategically important due to its fertile lands and proximity to trade routes.
• After capturing the Kaveri delta, Vijayalaya Chola established the town of Thanjavur, which later became the capital and a cultural hub for the Cholas. This statement is correct.
• Vijayalaya Chola also built a temple for the goddess Nishumbhasudini (a form of Durga) in Thanjavur to commemorate his victory and to signify the divine approval of his rule. This temple was an important religious and cultural landmark. This statement is correct.
• Both actions—establishing Thanjavur and constructing the temple—reflect Vijayalaya Chola’s efforts to consolidate political authority and establish religious and cultural legitimacy.
• These developments laid the foundation for the Chola dynasty's future prosperity and dominance in South India.

Additional Information

• Vijayalaya Chola:
• He was the founder of the Imperial Chola dynasty in the 9^th century CE.
• He emerged as a powerful ruler after defeating the Pallavas and Pandya rulers in the Kaveri delta region.
• His reign marked the rise of the Cholas as a dominant power in South India after centuries of decline.
• Thanjavur:
• Thanjavur became the political and cultural capital of the Chola dynasty during its peak.
• The city was known for its architectural marvels, including the Brihadeeswarar Temple, built later by Rajaraja Chola I.
• It served as a center for art, literature, and religion under Chola patronage.
• Temple of Goddess Nishumbhasudini:
• Vijayalaya Chola built this temple to honor the goddess and to signify his victory over enemies.
• The temple reflects the importance of religion and divine authority in legitimizing kingship during ancient times.
• The goddess Nishumbhasudini represents the triumph of good over evil, symbolizing Vijayalaya’s own victory.
• Chola Dynasty:
• The Chola dynasty is renowned for its contributions to art, architecture, administration, and maritime trade.
• It reached its zenith under rulers like Rajaraja Chola I and Rajaraja Chola II.
• The Cholas were also known for their naval prowess, which helped them establish trade routes and cultural ties with Southeast Asia.

Important Points

• The Chola dynasty's resurgence under Vijayalaya Chola marked the beginning of a significant era in South Indian history. It was characterized by advancements in architecture, literature, and governance.
• Thanjavur, established by Vijayalaya, became a model city that symbolized the grandeur of the Chola empire.
• Religious patronage, such as building temples, was a common practice among rulers to demonstrate their piety and gain public support.
• The Cholas’ emphasis on temple construction and patronage of the arts played a pivotal role in the cultural development of South India.

The correct answer is Sisodiya Rajputs.

Key Points

• The Sisodiya Rajputs, primarily ruling from Mewar, were known for their fierce independence and refusal to accept the authority of the Mughals for a long time.
• The most notable Sisodiya ruler, Maharana Pratap, resisted Mughal emperor Akbar's attempts to annex Mewar and fought the famous Battle of Haldighati in 1576.
• Even after their defeat in Haldighati, the Sisodiyas continued guerrilla warfare under Maharana Pratap and later rulers, maintaining their sovereignty over parts of Mewar.
• Unlike other Rajput clans such as the Kachhwaha of Amer and the Rathores of Marwar, who allied with the Mughals and served in their administration, the Sisodiyas upheld their policy of defiance.
• The Sisodiya Rajputs are celebrated in Indian history for their valor, dedication to their homeland, and their commitment to maintaining independence, making them a symbol of resistance against Mughal imperialism.

Additional Information

• Maharana Pratap:
• Maharana Pratap (1540–1597) was the most famous ruler of the Sisodiya dynasty and is remembered for his valiant resistance against the Mughal empire.
• He refused to accept Mughal suzerainty, unlike most other Rajput rulers, and chose to fight rather than surrender.
• He established his capital at Chavand after losing Chittorgarh to the Mughals.
• Even after the Battle of Haldighati, he continued a guerrilla war against Akbar and reclaimed much of his lost territory.
• Battle of Haldighati (1576):
• The battle was fought between Maharana Pratap and the Mughal forces led by Man Singh I of Amber, a Rajput who had allied with Akbar.
• Though inconclusive, the battle demonstrated the fierce resistance of Maharana Pratap and his determination to defend his kingdom.
• Pratap's loyal horse, Chetak, is also remembered for its bravery during this battle.
• Other Rajput Clans:
• The Kachhwaha Rajputs of Amer, under Raja Bharmal and later Raja Man Singh, allied with Akbar and became prominent commanders in his army.
• The Rathore Rajputs of Marwar also formed alliances with the Mughals, with rulers like Rao Maldeo and Jaswant Singh serving in the Mughal court.
• The Chauhans were significant during earlier medieval times but had lesser political influence during the Mughal period.
• Rajput Resistance:
• While many Rajput clans collaborated with the Mughals, the Sisodiyas' resistance became a defining feature of their legacy.
• This resistance inspired future leaders and symbolized the Rajput spirit of independence and valor.

Important Points

• Chittorgarh: The historic capital of the Sisodiya Rajputs and a significant symbol of Rajput pride. It was besieged multiple times by Muslim rulers, including Alauddin Khilji and Akbar.
• Akbar's Rajput Policy: Akbar adopted a strategy of alliance and diplomacy with Rajput rulers, offering them positions in his administration and matrimonial alliances to secure their loyalty.
• Guerrilla Warfare: Maharana Pratap effectively used guerrilla tactics against the Mughal forces, exploiting the rugged terrain of Mewar to his advantage.
• Rajput Heritage: The Sisodiya Rajputs' legacy of resistance is celebrated in Indian folklore, literature, and art, with Maharana Pratap becoming a national hero.

The correct answer is Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser.

Key Points

• 'Al Kiran' is a pioneering initiative in India co-led by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA) to the Government of India.
• The Principal Scientific Adviser plays a key role in advising on science and technology policies and their application for national development.
• The initiative focuses on fostering innovation, enabling the application of scientific research, and promoting sustainable development in India.
• It aims to address critical challenges in areas such as healthcare, agriculture, energy, and education through the use of science and technology.
• The Office of the PSA collaborates with various stakeholders, including research institutions, industry leaders, and government agencies, to implement such initiatives.

Additional Information

• Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA):
• The Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser was established in 1999 by the Government of India.
• The PSA's role includes providing science and technology advice to the Prime Minister and the Cabinet for formulating policies and strategies.
• It works to promote synergy between academia, industry, and government for scientific and technological advancements.
• The office also oversees the implementation of national missions and initiatives like National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) and other innovation-driven programs.
• Key Functions of the PSA Office:
• Advising on strategic science and technology policies.
• Collaborating with international organizations to promote global partnerships in science and technology.
• Overseeing the implementation of major national projects, such as those aimed at solving climate change, energy security, and public health challenges.
• Other Relevant Organizations:
• NITI Aayog: Focuses on policy formulation and economic development but is not directly involved in the 'Al Kiran' initiative.
• Confederation of Indian Industry (CII): Primarily represents industrial bodies and works on economic growth initiatives.
• National Association of Software and Service Companies (NASSCOM): Represents the IT and software services industry in India.
• Importance of 'Al Kiran':
• The initiative reflects India's commitment to leveraging science and technology for sustainable development.
• It emphasizes the need for innovation-driven solutions to address critical societal challenges.
• 'Al Kiran' serves as a model for integrating scientific research with policy-making and implementation at the national level.

The correct answer is 1000.

Key Points

• The NPS Vatsalya account, introduced in September 2024, is a new initiative under the National Pension Scheme (NPS) aimed at providing financial security.
• The minimum annual contribution required to open and maintain this account is Rs. 1000, making it accessible for a broad segment of the population.
• This initiative is particularly tailored to encourage savings for retirement and financial protection for individuals.
• The NPS Vatsalya account follows the broader framework of the NPS, emphasizing tax benefits and flexible investment options.
• Contributors can build a retirement corpus over time with relatively low annual contributions, ensuring inclusivity and financial planning for individuals across different income groups.

Additional Information

• About NPS:
• The National Pension Scheme (NPS) is a government-sponsored pension scheme launched in 2004 for government employees and extended to all citizens in 2009.
• It aims to provide financial security in old age through regular contributions over an individual’s working life.
• Investors can choose between various asset classes, such as equities, corporate bonds, and government securities, for their contributions.
• Subscribers receive a regular pension after retirement, based on the corpus accumulated during their working years.
• Features of NPS Vatsalya:
• The NPS Vatsalya account has been introduced to expand the reach of the NPS scheme and encourage savings among lower-income groups.
• It requires a minimum annual contribution of Rs. 1000, which is affordable for most individuals.
• The scheme offers tax benefits under Section 80C and Section 80CCD of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
• Flexibility in contributions allows subscribers to save and grow their retirement corpus according to their financial capacity.
• Benefits of the NPS:
• Subscribers receive a fixed monthly pension after retirement, depending on the accumulated savings.
• Investments under NPS are managed by professional fund managers, ensuring optimal returns for subscribers.
• Partial withdrawals are permitted under specific conditions, such as education, marriage, or critical illness.
• Eligibility for NPS Vatsalya Account:
• Any Indian citizen between the ages of 18 and 65 can open an NPS Vatsalya account.
• The scheme is designed to promote financial inclusion among individuals in both urban and rural areas.

Important Points

• Comparison of Contribution Limits:
• The minimum annual contribution for an NPS Vatsalya account is Rs. 1000, which is lower than the typical minimum contribution required for regular NPS accounts.
• There is no upper limit for contributions, allowing individuals to save more based on their financial goals.
• Tax Benefits:
• Contributions to the NPS are eligible for tax deductions of up to Rs. 1.5 lakh under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act.
• Additional deductions of up to Rs. 50,000 are available under Section 80CCD(1B), making it an attractive savings tool.
• Withdrawal Rules:
• Subscribers can withdraw up to 25% of their contributions after completing three years in the scheme, for specific purposes such as higher education or medical emergencies.
• At retirement, subscribers must use at least 40% of their corpus to purchase an annuity, ensuring a steady income post-retirement.
• Role of PFRDA:
• The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) regulates the NPS and ensures its smooth functioning.
• The PFRDA also approves and monitors fund managers responsible for managing subscribers’ investments.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in July 2021. It measures the level of financial inclusion in the country.
• The index comprises three parameters: Access, Usage, and Quality.
• Access: This parameter evaluates the availability of financial services, such as the number of bank branches, ATMs, and other financial outlets per population.
• Usage: This parameter measures how actively people use financial services, such as savings accounts, loans, or insurance policies.
• Quality: While not mentioned in the question, this parameter assesses the effectiveness and efficiency of financial services provided.
• The FI-Index is a comprehensive measure that ranges from 0 to 100, where 0 represents complete financial exclusion and 100 signifies full financial inclusion.
• Hence, both I (Access) and II (Usage) are correct.

Additional Information

• Reserve Bank of India:
• The RBI introduced the FI-Index to provide a comprehensive tool for policymakers and researchers to track financial inclusion progress.
• This index is released annually and incorporates data from 21 parameters, grouped into the three mentioned dimensions.
• Financial Inclusion:
• Financial inclusion aims to provide affordable financial services to all individuals, especially marginalized and underserved communities.
• It includes services such as banking, credit, insurance, and digital payments.
• Government Initiatives:
• The Government of India has launched programs like Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) to enhance financial inclusion.
• PMJDY focuses on providing universal access to banking facilities, financial literacy, and insurance coverage.
• Global Context:
• Similar indices exist globally, such as the Global Findex Database by the World Bank, which measures financial inclusion worldwide.
• India’s FI-Index aligns with international efforts to track progress toward achieving UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly SDG 8.10.

Important Points

• Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana:
• Launched on 28^th August 2014, PMJDY aims to provide universal banking access.
• It has led to the opening of over 48 crore bank accounts as of 2023.
• Digital Financial Services:
• India’s financial inclusion efforts are bolstered by the rise of digital services like UPI and mobile banking.
• UPI (Unified Payments Interface) has revolutionized payment systems, processing over 10 billion transactions monthly in 2023.

The correct answer is 151^st.

Key Points

• India ranked 151^st on the World Press Freedom Index 2025, reflecting a decline in press freedom within the country.
• The World Press Freedom Index is published annually by the Reporters Without Borders (RSF), which evaluates the level of press freedom in 180 countries and territories.
• The ranking is based on indicators like media independence, safety of journalists, legal framework, and the plurality of opinions.
• India’s position has been affected by increasing restrictions on journalists, censorship, and threats to media personnel.
• The top-ranked countries on the index include Norway, Denmark, and Sweden, while countries like North Korea and Eritrea are ranked at the bottom.

Additional Information

• World Press Freedom Index:
• Introduced in 2002 by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), the index evaluates the environment for journalism in 180 countries.
• The index uses five indicators: political context, legal framework, economic factors, sociocultural context, and safety of journalists.
• The aim of the index is to promote and safeguard freedom of information and press rights across the globe.
• India's Declining Press Freedom:
• India’s decline in rankings is attributed to violence against journalists, internet blackouts, and governmental pressures.
• Instances of censorship and restrictions on critical reporting have increased significantly in recent years.
• Journalists reporting on sensitive topics like corruption, politics, or human rights often face threats or legal actions.
• Top-ranked Countries:
• Norway has consistently ranked first in the index due to its strong commitment to press freedom.
• Denmark and Sweden also rank high, reflecting their democratic values and protection of press rights.
• Bottom-ranked Countries:
• North Korea and Eritrea are at the bottom of the index due to their repressive regimes and complete state control over media.
• Journalists in these countries face severe restrictions and risks, including imprisonment and violence.

Important Points

• Role of Reporters Without Borders (RSF):
• RSF is an independent non-governmental organization that advocates for media freedom and access to information.
• It provides support to journalists in danger and promotes the universal right to freedom of expression.
• Challenges to Press Freedom in India:
• India faces challenges like political interference in media, lack of safety for journalists, and increasing digital surveillance.
• The rise of fake news and online trolling has also contributed to creating a hostile environment for journalists.
• Global Trends:
• Globally, press freedom is under threat with increasing instances of censorship, disinformation, and attacks on media personnel.
• Countries with strong press freedom often have independent judiciary systems, transparent governance, and public trust.

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

• The Export Preparedness Index (EPI) in India is based on four pillars. These pillars provide a comprehensive framework for evaluating the export readiness of states and union territories.
• The four pillars of the EPI include Policy, Business Ecosystem, Export Ecosystem, and Export Performance.
• Policy: This pillar evaluates the regulatory framework, trade policies, and institutional support provided by states to promote exports.
• Business Ecosystem: It assesses the ease of doing business, infrastructure development, and the overall environment for businesses to thrive.
• Export Ecosystem: This evaluates factors like logistics, export infrastructure, and support mechanisms that facilitate exports.
• Export Performance: This pillar measures the actual performance of states in terms of export volumes and growth trends.
• The EPI was developed by the NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Institute of Competitiveness to foster competitive spirit among states and encourage them to enhance their export capabilities.

Additional Information

• Export Preparedness Index (EPI) Overview:
• The EPI is a comprehensive tool developed by NITI Aayog to measure the export potential and preparedness of Indian states and union territories.
• It provides valuable insights into the strengths and weaknesses of various states in terms of export readiness.
• The index aims to help states identify areas of improvement and leverage their export potential effectively.
• Objectives of EPI:
• The primary objective is to promote regional export competitiveness across India.
• It emphasizes the importance of an enabling environment for exports, including trade policies, efficient logistics, and infrastructure.
• By identifying gaps, states can formulate targeted policies to enhance their export performance.
• Significance of the Four Pillars:
• Policy: Policies that encourage exports, streamline procedures, and reduce barriers are crucial for export growth.
• Business Ecosystem: A robust business ecosystem ensures that enterprises have access to resources, technology, and markets.
• Export Ecosystem: Efficient logistics and infrastructure directly impact the ease and cost-effectiveness of exporting goods.
• Export Performance: Tracking performance helps states benchmark themselves against others and set measurable goals for improvement.
• Key Findings of EPI:
• States like Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu often rank high due to their robust industrial base, infrastructure, and proactive policies.
• The EPI highlights disparities in export readiness among states, encouraging lagging regions to prioritize export development.
• The index also emphasizes the need for a national-level strategy to support states in overcoming export challenges.

Important Points

• NITI Aayog:
• NITI Aayog was established in 2015 as the policy think tank of the Government of India.
• Its mandate includes promoting cooperative federalism and fostering competitive spirit among states.
• Institute of Competitiveness:
• The institute is a leading research organization focused on economic and competitiveness studies.
• Its collaboration with NITI Aayog ensures that global best practices are incorporated into the EPI framework.
• Other Indices by NITI Aayog:
• India Innovation Index: Measures states' innovation capabilities and identifies areas for improvement.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Index: Tracks progress towards achieving the United Nations SDGs.

The correct answer is Gonda.

Key Points

• The World Wetlands Day is observed annually on February 2^nd to raise global awareness about the vital role of wetlands for people and the planet.
• The theme for World Wetlands Day 2025 emphasizes the importance of preserving and restoring wetlands, which are crucial for biodiversity, climate regulation, and water purification.
• In Uttar Pradesh, the celebrations of World Wetlands Day 2025 were held in Gonda, showcasing efforts to conserve wetlands in the region, particularly focusing on the Sarayu River and nearby wetlands.
• Uttar Pradesh is home to important wetlands like Sandi Bird Sanctuary, Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary, and Sur Sarovar Bird Sanctuary, which are significant for ecological balance and biodiversity conservation.
• The event in Gonda aimed to involve local communities, students, and policymakers to discuss the importance of wetlands and promote sustainable practices to protect them.

Additional Information

• Wetlands:
• Wetlands are areas where water covers the soil, either permanently or seasonally, including marshes, swamps, bogs, and mangroves.
• They act as natural water filters, store carbon, and provide critical habitats for a wide range of species.
• Globally, wetlands cover about 6% of the Earth's surface, but they are disappearing three times faster than forests.
• Ramsar Convention:
• The Ramsar Convention, signed in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran, is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.
• India is a signatory to the convention, with 75 Ramsar sites as of 2023, covering an area of over 13 lakh hectares.
• Sarayu River Wetlands:
• The wetlands along the Sarayu River are ecologically rich and provide livelihood support to local communities.
• They are significant for migratory birds and aquatic biodiversity, making them an integral part of conservation discussions in Uttar Pradesh.
• Importance of Wetlands in India:
• India's wetlands are crucial for water security, flood control, and supporting agriculture and fisheries.
• Initiatives like National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Ecosystems (NPCA) aim to protect and restore wetlands across the country.

Important Points

• World Wetlands Day History:
• The day marks the date of the adoption of the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands on February 2, 1971.
• It was first celebrated in 1997 to raise awareness about the importance of wetlands globally.
• Wetland Conservation Challenges:
• Urbanization, pollution, and agricultural expansion are major threats to wetlands in India.
• Efforts like afforestation, reducing pollutant discharge, and community involvement are critical for wetland conservation.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• The Bandipur Tiger Reserve is located in the state of Karnataka, in southern India.
• It was established in 1974 as part of Project Tiger, a conservation program launched by the Government of India to protect tigers and their habitats.
• The reserve is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which encompasses parts of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala, making it one of the largest protected areas in India.
• The Bandipur Tiger Reserve covers an area of approximately 874 square kilometers and is known for its rich biodiversity, including Bengal tigers, Indian elephants, leopards, and various other species.
• It is famous for its dry deciduous forests, tropical mixed deciduous forests, and grassy woodlands, offering a diverse habitat for wildlife.

Additional Information

• Project Tiger:
• Launched in 1973, Project Tiger is a flagship conservation program of India aimed at protecting the endangered Bengal tiger and its natural habitats.
• Under this initiative, several tiger reserves, including Bandipur, were established to conserve biodiversity and ensure sustainable development.
• Geographical Location:
• The Bandipur Tiger Reserve is located at the intersection of the Western Ghats and the Nilgiri Hills.
• This region is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site for its ecological importance.
• Flora and Fauna:
• The reserve is home to diverse vegetation, including teak, sandalwood, Indian laurel, rosewood, and several types of grasses.
• Prominent wildlife species include the Bengal tiger, Indian elephant, sloth bear, gaur, chital, sambar deer, and a variety of bird species.
• Tourism and Conservation:
• The Bandipur Tiger Reserve is a popular destination for wildlife enthusiasts and eco-tourists.
• Strict conservation measures are in place to minimize human impact, including restrictions on vehicle movement and eco-friendly tourism practices.

Important Points

• Connectivity:
• Bandipur is well-connected to nearby cities like Mysuru (Mysore) and Bengaluru (Bangalore), making it accessible for tourists.
• The National Highway 766 passes through the reserve, but strict measures are enforced to reduce vehicle speed and protect wildlife.
• Neighboring Reserves:
• The Bandipur Tiger Reserve is contiguous with other prominent wildlife reserves such as Nagarhole National Park (Karnataka), Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala), and Madumalai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu).
• This interconnected region forms a crucial wildlife corridor, promoting genetic diversity and species movement.
• Ecological Importance:
• The reserve plays a vital role in maintaining the ecological balance of the Western Ghats and serves as a major watershed for the region.
• It supports numerous endemic and endangered species, highlighting its global conservation significance.

The correct answer is Newton's third law of motion.

Key Points

• Newton's third law of motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. This principle is fundamental to the operation of a satellite launch vehicle.
• During the launch, the rocket engines expel gases at high speed in the downward direction (action), and as a result, the rocket is propelled upward (reaction).
• The expulsion of gases creates a force that pushes the rocket upward, overcoming gravity and atmospheric resistance. This is a direct application of Newton's third law.
• The launch vehicle achieves sufficient velocity to reach orbit by continuously applying this principle through the stages of the rocket.
• Hence, the operation of a satellite launch vehicle entirely relies on the principle outlined in Newton's third law of motion.

Additional Information

• Newton's Laws of Motion:
• First Law: An object will remain at rest or in uniform motion in a straight line unless acted upon by an external force. This is also known as the law of inertia.
• Second Law: The force acting on an object is equal to the mass of the object multiplied by its acceleration (F = ma). This explains how the rocket gains acceleration during launch.
• Third Law: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction, which is the primary principle behind rocket propulsion.
• Rocket Propulsion:
• The expulsion of exhaust gases at high velocities generates thrust due to Newton's third law.
• Modern rockets use liquid or solid propellants to produce controlled explosions that generate the necessary thrust for launch.
• Stages of a Launch Vehicle:
• Most satellite launch vehicles operate in multiple stages, each designed to provide thrust and discard unnecessary weight as the rocket ascends.
• The first stage provides initial thrust to overcome Earth's gravity, while subsequent stages refine the trajectory and increase speed.
• Applications of Satellite Launch Vehicles:
• Used to place satellites into orbit for communication, navigation, weather forecasting, and research.
• Enable space exploration missions by carrying spacecraft to distant planets or the Moon.

Important Points

• Archimedes' Principle: This principle deals with buoyancy and does not apply to the operation of satellite launch vehicles. It states that an object submerged in a fluid experiences an upward force equal to the weight of the displaced fluid.
• Examples of Rocket Launch Vehicles:
• PSLV: Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle developed by ISRO, used for deploying satellites into polar orbits.
• Falcon 9: SpaceX's reusable rocket used for various missions, including satellite launches and resupply missions to the ISS.
• Global Space Agencies:
• NASA: The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (USA).
• ISRO: Indian Space Research Organisation (India).
• ESA: European Space Agency (Europe).

The correct answer is Japan.

Key Points

• Japan became the first country to develop a wooden satellite named LignoSat in 2024.
• The satellite was developed through a collaboration between Kyoto University and Sumitomo Forestry Co. Ltd., a leading Japanese wood-processing company.
• LignoSat is designed to explore the potential of using wood as a sustainable and environmentally friendly material for space exploration.
• The satellite aims to address the issue of space debris, as wooden materials are expected to burn up completely upon re-entry into Earth's atmosphere, leaving no harmful residue.
• This innovation represents a significant step in the field of green technology and sustainable space science, contributing to global efforts to reduce space debris.

Additional Information

• Wooden Satellite Technology:
• Wooden satellites like LignoSat are designed to use treated wood that can withstand the extreme conditions of space, including radiation, vacuum pressure, and temperature fluctuations.
• The use of wood minimizes the environmental impact of satellite launches and de-orbiting, as it fully burns upon re-entry without creating additional space debris.
• Space Debris Issue:
• Space debris refers to defunct satellites, spent rocket stages, and fragments from collisions, which pose significant risks to operational satellites and spacecraft.
• According to estimates, there are over 27,000 pieces of space debris tracked by the U.S. Department of Defense.
• Wooden satellites provide a potential solution by being biodegradable and reducing long-term space pollution.
• Japan's Leadership in Innovation:
• Japan is recognized globally for its advancements in technology and environmental sustainability.
• Projects like LignoSat reflect Japan's commitment to innovation in green technology and eco-friendly scientific solutions.
• Other Countries' Initiatives in Space Technology:
• Russia and China have focused on traditional materials for satellites, prioritizing durability and cost-efficiency over environmental concerns.
• Israel is known for its advancements in miniaturized satellite technology but has not ventured into wooden satellite development.

Important Points

• Wooden Satellite Development:
• The wood used in LignoSat is treated to resist weathering and insect damage, making it viable for space applications.
• The project highlights the use of natural materials in high-tech applications, promoting sustainability.
• Environmental Impact:
• Traditional satellite materials like aluminum and titanium contribute to long-term space debris issues.
• Wooden satellites offer a biodegradable alternative, reducing the risk of space pollution.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Evaporation is the process in which a liquid converts into vapor at a temperature below its boiling point. It is responsible for cooling because it absorbs heat from the surrounding environment during the phase change.
• Statement I: Pouring acetone on the palm leads to cooling. Acetone evaporates quickly due to its low boiling point and high volatility. During evaporation, it absorbs heat from the skin, causing a cooling sensation. This statement is correct.
• Statement II: Sprinkling water on the roof after a sunny day results in cooling. The heat from the roof causes the water to evaporate, and during this process, water absorbs latent heat from the surface, lowering the temperature. This statement is correct.
• Both scenarios highlight cooling due to evaporation, as heat is absorbed from the surrounding environment to facilitate the phase change from liquid to vapor.
• Hence, the correct answer is Both I and II.

Additional Information

• Factors Affecting Evaporation:
• Surface Area: Larger surface area allows for more molecules to escape, increasing the rate of evaporation.
• Temperature: Higher temperatures provide more energy to liquid molecules, increasing their ability to break free and evaporate.
• Humidity: Lower humidity levels enhance evaporation as there is less moisture in the air to hinder the process.
• Air Movement: Wind or air circulation removes vapor from the surface, promoting faster evaporation.
• Applications of Evaporation:
• Refrigeration: Refrigerators and air conditioners use evaporation to absorb heat and cool the surrounding environment.
• Drying Clothes: Evaporation removes water from wet clothes when exposed to air and sunlight.
• Cooling Mechanism in Living Beings: Sweating in humans and transpiration in plants are natural processes that utilize evaporation for cooling.
• Practical Examples:
• Acetone and Alcohol: Substances like acetone and alcohol evaporate rapidly, making them effective as cleaning agents and for cooling purposes.
• Sprinkling Water: Commonly used in summers to cool down roofs, ground, or other heated surfaces.

Important Points

• Latent Heat of Vaporization: The energy required for a substance to change from liquid to vapor at constant temperature is known as latent heat of vaporization. This energy is absorbed from the surroundings, causing cooling.
• Volatility of Liquids: Substances with high volatility, like acetone or alcohol, evaporate faster and produce a stronger cooling effect.
• Evaporation vs. Boiling: While both involve the transition of liquid to vapor, evaporation occurs at all temperatures, whereas boiling happens at a specific boiling point.
• Daily Life Relevance: Evaporation plays a crucial role in water cycles, cooling systems, and even in industrial processes like drying and distillation.

The correct answer is 1739.

Key Points

• Nadir Shah, the ruler of Iran, invaded India in 1739 and sacked the city of Delhi, causing immense destruction and looting.
• He defeated the Mughal Emperor Mohammed Shah in the Battle of Karnal on 24 February 1739, paving the way for his entry into Delhi.
• Nadir Shah’s forces plundered Delhi and carried away immense wealth, including the famous Koh-i-Noor diamond and Peacock Throne.
• The invasion caused a massive loss of life and destabilized the Mughal Empire, marking the beginning of its decline.
• Nadir Shah returned to Persia after his campaign, leaving behind a scarred and weakened Mughal administration.

Additional Information

• Background of Nadir Shah:
• Nadir Shah was a powerful ruler of Persia (Iran), known for his military prowess and ambition.
• He established the Afsharid dynasty and aimed to expand his empire by conquering neighboring territories.
• His invasion of India was motivated by the immense wealth of the Mughal Empire.
• Battle of Karnal:
• The Battle of Karnal was fought between Nadir Shah’s Persian forces and the Mughal army led by Emperor Mohammed Shah.
• Nadir Shah’s army was significantly smaller but highly disciplined and equipped with advanced weaponry.
• The Mughal forces suffered a crushing defeat, enabling Nadir Shah to march into Delhi unopposed.
• Impact on the Mughal Empire:
• Nadir Shah’s invasion exposed the administrative weaknesses and military inefficiency of the Mughal Empire.
• The massive looting led to economic instability and the loss of treasures like the Koh-i-Noor diamond.
• The invasion marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire’s decline, leading to the rise of regional powers in India.
• Significance of the Peacock Throne:
• The Peacock Throne was a symbol of the Mughal Empire’s grandeur and wealth.
• Nadir Shah carried it back to Persia, where it became a prized possession and symbol of his victory.

Important Points

• Delhi Massacre: During Nadir Shah’s occupation of Delhi, a massacre was ordered, resulting in the death of an estimated 20,000 to 30,000 people.
• Koh-i-Noor Diamond: One of the world’s most famous diamonds, the Koh-i-Noor, was taken by Nadir Shah during his plunder of Delhi.
• Decline of Mughal Empire: The invasion highlighted the vulnerability of the Mughal Empire, leading to the rise of regional powers like the Marathas and the British East India Company.
• Nadir Shah’s Legacy: Despite his military achievements, Nadir Shah’s reign was marked by brutality and his eventual assassination in 1747.

The correct answer is Jaipur.

Key Points

• Jaipur was founded by Sawai Raja Jai Singh II, the ruler of Amber, in 1727.
• It was planned and constructed as a new capital city to replace Amber, which had become inadequate due to a growing population and water scarcity.
• The city was meticulously designed by the architect Vidyadhar Bhattacharya, following the principles of Indian Vastu Shastra and Shilpa Shastra, ensuring optimal urban planning.
• Jaipur is known as the Pink City, a name derived from the uniform pink hue of its buildings, introduced during the visit of the Prince of Wales in 1876.
• The city is recognized for its historical significance, architectural marvels, and planned layout, making it one of the earliest planned cities in India.

Additional Information

• Amber:
• Before Jaipur, the capital of the Kachwaha dynasty was Amber, located approximately 11 km from Jaipur.
• Amber was established in the 10^th century and is renowned for its Amber Fort, a UNESCO World Heritage site.
• Amber's limited infrastructure and scarcity of water led to the decision to establish Jaipur as the new capital.
• Urban Planning of Jaipur:
• Jaipur's design is based on a grid system with wide streets and uniform blocks, inspired by ancient Hindu architectural texts.
• The city is divided into nine blocks, symbolizing the nine divisions of the universe in Vastu Shastra.
• Key landmarks include the City Palace, Jantar Mantar, and Hawa Mahal, showcasing the city's architectural brilliance.
• Historical Significance:
• Jaipur became an important center for trade and culture during the rule of Sawai Raja Jai Singh II.
• It was a hub for scholars, artists, and merchants, contributing to its reputation as a cultural and intellectual city.
• The city's strategic location facilitated trade routes and economic development in the region.
• Other Options:
• Udaipur: Founded by Maharana Udai Singh II of the Mewar dynasty in 1559. Known for its lakes and palaces, it is called the City of Lakes.
• Jodhpur: Established by Rao Jodha in 1459. Famous for its Mehrangarh Fort and blue-painted houses, it is referred to as the Blue City.
• Ajmer: Known for the Dargah Sharif of Moinuddin Chishti, Ajmer has significant religious and historical importance but was not founded as a new capital.

Important Points

• Sawai Raja Jai Singh II:
• He was a visionary ruler and an accomplished astronomer.
• He constructed observatories (Jantar Mantar) in Jaipur, Delhi, Ujjain, Mathura, and Varanasi.
• Under his reign, Jaipur emerged as a center for science, architecture, and culture.
• UNESCO Recognition:
• Jaipur was declared a UNESCO World Heritage City in 2019 for its exceptional urban planning and architectural heritage.
• It is one of the few cities globally with such recognition for its design and cultural significance.

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

• The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, enacted in 2003, aims to institutionalize financial discipline, reduce India’s fiscal deficit, and improve macroeconomic management.
• Under the FRBM Act, the government is required to present three policy statements to Parliament along with the Union Budget. These include:
• **Fiscal Policy Strategy

Statement:

** This outlines the government’s fiscal strategy, including revenue generation and expenditure management.

• **Macroeconomic Framework

Statement:

** This provides an overview of the macroeconomic outlook for the country, including growth projections, inflation trends, and other key economic indicators.

• **Medium-Term Fiscal Policy

Statement:

** This contains three-year rolling targets for fiscal indicators, such as revenue deficit, fiscal deficit, and debt levels.

• The FRBM Act mandates transparency and accountability in fiscal operations and aims to create a framework for the government to manage its finances prudently.
• Regular monitoring and presentation of these statements provide a clear roadmap for fiscal management and help in achieving fiscal consolidation targets.
• Hence, the correct answer is Three.

Additional Information

• Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM):
• The FRBM Act was enacted by the Government of India in 2003 to improve fiscal discipline and reduce the fiscal deficit.
• It sets targets for revenue deficit and fiscal deficit to ensure sustainable economic growth.
• The Act mandates the government to ensure transparency in fiscal operations and provide periodic updates through reports to Parliament.
• **Fiscal Policy Strategy

Statement:

**

• This statement is a part of the FRBM Act requirements and outlines the government’s fiscal policies, including expenditure priorities, revenue generation methods, and debt reduction strategies.
• It highlights the measures required to achieve short-term and long-term fiscal goals.
• **Macroeconomic Framework

Statement:

**

• This statement provides an overview of the economy’s performance and projections for key macroeconomic variables, such as GDP growth, inflation rate, and fiscal deficit.
• It helps policymakers and stakeholders understand the broader economic environment in which fiscal decisions are being made.
• **Medium-Term Fiscal Policy

Statement:

**

• This statement provides rolling targets for three years for key fiscal indicators like revenue deficit, fiscal deficit, and debt levels.
• It ensures that fiscal policy aligns with long-term sustainability goals.
• Challenges in Implementation:
• Despite being a landmark legislation, the FRBM Act has faced challenges due to global economic uncertainties, natural disasters, and changes in government priorities.
• Amendments to the Act have been made over the years to adapt to changing economic conditions.

Important Points

• FRBM Act Amendment (2018):
• The amendment introduced a new fiscal deficit target of 3% of GDP, with a deviation of up to 0.5% under special circumstances.
• It replaced the older metrics with the concept of debt-to-GDP ratio as a key fiscal indicator.
• Role of Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG):
• The CAG is tasked with monitoring the compliance of the government with the fiscal targets set under the FRBM Act.
• It provides independent audits and reports to ensure adherence to fiscal responsibility norms.
• Global Context:
• Many countries, including New Zealand, Canada, and the UK, have adopted fiscal responsibility legislation to ensure sound financial management and accountability.
• India’s FRBM Act aligns with global best practices while addressing local economic challenges.

The correct answer is 2002.

Key Points

• The Competition Act was passed by the Parliament of India in 2002 and came into effect on 13 January 2003.
• This act was enacted to replace the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 (MRTP Act), which had become outdated in addressing the modern economic framework and competition issues.
• The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established under this act to promote competition, prevent practices that have an adverse effect on competition, and protect the interests of consumers.
• The act focuses on prohibition of anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominant position, and regulation of combinations (mergers and acquisitions) that may harm competition.
• The Competition Act, 2002, aligns India’s economic regulations with the liberalized and globalized economic environment of the 21^st century, promoting fair competition in the market.

Additional Information

• Objectives of the Competition Act, 2002:
• To prevent practices that have an adverse effect on competition.
• To promote and sustain competition in markets.
• To protect the interests of consumers.
• To ensure freedom of trade carried on by participants in markets in India.
• Competition Commission of India (CCI):
• The CCI is a statutory body established under the Competition Act, 2002.
• It is tasked with eliminating practices that affect competition and regulating mergers or acquisitions to ensure they do not harm market competition.
• The CCI comprises a Chairperson and 6 members, appointed by the Central Government.
• Key Features of the Competition Act:
• It prohibits anti-competitive agreements, such as cartels, that can harm competition.
• It addresses the abuse of dominant position by enterprises, ensuring that no entity exploits its market power unfairly.
• It regulates mergers, acquisitions, and combinations to prevent concentration of market power.
• Replacement of MRTP Act:
• The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act of 1969 aimed to curb monopolistic practices but was deemed inadequate for a liberalized economic environment.
• The Competition Act, 2002, was introduced to address modern economic challenges like globalization and ensure fair competition.
• Significance:
• The act fosters a healthy competitive environment, ensuring efficiency and innovation in the market.
• It enhances consumer welfare by ensuring fair pricing and quality products.
• The act plays a pivotal role in preventing exploitation by monopolies or cartels.

The correct answer is Ragi.

Key Points

• Ragi, also known as finger millet, is a crop that thrives in dryland farming conditions due to its ability to grow in areas with low rainfall.
• It is a drought-resistant crop and requires minimal water compared to crops like rice and sugarcane, which need abundant irrigation. This makes it suitable for semi-arid and arid regions.
• Ragi is cultivated primarily in countries like India and Africa, especially in states such as Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Maharashtra, which have significant dryland farming areas.
• It is a highly nutritious grain, rich in calcium, iron, and dietary fiber, and is considered a staple food in many rural and tribal areas.
• Unlike crops like rice and jute, which require significant water resources, and sugarcane, which is water-intensive, ragi performs well in rainfed conditions and is ideal for farmers practicing dryland agriculture.

Additional Information

• Dryland Farming:
• Dryland farming refers to agricultural practices carried out in regions with low rainfall, typically less than 50 cm annually.
• This type of farming relies on rainwater for crop cultivation and does not involve irrigation.
• Crops grown under dryland farming include drought-resistant varieties such as ragi, bajra, jowar, and pulses.
• Farmers practicing dryland farming often use techniques like mulching, crop rotation, and contour plowing to conserve soil moisture.
• Characteristics of Ragi:
• Ragi is a C4 plant, which makes it highly efficient in photosynthesis under high temperatures, aiding its growth in dry regions.
• It can grow in poor and degraded soils but performs best in sandy loam or red loam soils.
• The grain has a long shelf life and is used to make a variety of food products such as porridge, bread, and malted beverages.
• Ragi is often referred to as a superfood due to its high nutritional value, particularly its calcium and iron content.
• Comparison with Other Crops:
• Rice: Requires significant water for cultivation and is not suitable for dryland farming.
• Sugarcane: A highly water-intensive crop, typically grown in irrigated areas.
• Jute: Requires a humid climate with plenty of rainfall and is unsuitable for dry regions.
• Ragi: Grows well in semi-arid regions with minimal water requirements, making it ideal for dryland farming.
• Government Initiatives for Dryland Farming:
• The National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) promotes sustainable practices in dryland regions, including the cultivation of drought-resistant crops like ragi.
• Programs such as the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) provide financial support for dryland farming technologies and research.

Important Points

• Global Significance: Ragi is an important crop for ensuring food security in arid and semi-arid regions of the world, including parts of Africa and South Asia.
• Health Benefits: It is a gluten-free grain, making it suitable for people with gluten intolerance or celiac disease, and is often recommended for infants and elderly people due to its digestibility.
• Economic Importance: Ragi cultivation supports small-scale and marginal farmers in regions with limited water resources, providing them with a reliable source of income.
• Climate Resilience: As a drought-resistant crop, ragi can play a crucial role in adapting to climate change and mitigating the effects of water scarcity in agriculture.

The correct answer is Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi and Godavari Valleys.

Key Points

• India’s coal reserves: Over 97% of India's coal reserves are concentrated in the valleys of Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi, and Godavari, making them the most significant coal-bearing regions.
• Damodar Valley: Known as the "Ruhr of India", it is one of the primary coal-producing regions, spanning states like Jharkhand and West Bengal. Major coalfields include Jharia, Bokaro, and Raniganj.
• Sone Valley: Located in Madhya Pradesh, this valley hosts significant coal reserves, contributing to India’s energy sector.
• Mahanadi Valley: Found in Odisha, major coalfields like Talcher and Ib Valley are situated here. This region is a key supplier of thermal coal for power generation.
• Godavari Valley: Located in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, the Singareni coalfields are prominent here, known for producing high-grade coal.
• Economic significance: These valleys play a crucial role in India’s energy security, as coal is the primary source for electricity generation and industrial processes.

Additional Information

• Damodar Valley:
• It is known for its historical coal mining activities dating back to colonial times.
• Major coalfields include Jharia (famous for its coking coal), Bokaro, and Raniganj.
• Coal from this region is extensively used in steel production and thermal power generation.
• Sone Valley:
• This valley is located primarily in Madhya Pradesh.
• It contains coalfields like Singrauli, which supply coal for power plants such as NTPC Singrauli.
• Mahanadi Valley:
• Located in Odisha, it includes major coalfields such as Talcher and Ib Valley.
• Coal from this region is used for thermal power generation and industrial purposes.
• Godavari Valley:
• This valley spans Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
• It is home to the Singareni Collieries, which produce high-quality coal.
• Coal from this region is used in power plants and other industrial applications.
• Importance of Coal:
• Coal contributes to over 55% of India’s electricity generation.
• India ranks as the second-largest coal producer globally, after China.
• Coal is vital for industries like steel, cement, and chemicals.

Important Points

• Coal Types in India:
• Anthracite: Found in small quantities; used for heating purposes.
• Bituminous: Most abundant type; used in power generation and industries.
• Lignite: Found in Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan; used for electricity generation.
• Peat: Least carbon content; found in small quantities.
• Coal Mining in India:
• Managed primarily by Coal India Limited (CIL), a government-owned entity.
• India’s coal production reached 893.08 million tonnes in 2022-23.
• Coal blocks are allocated to private players under auction schemes.
• Environmental Impact:
• Coal mining leads to deforestation, soil erosion, and air pollution.
• Efforts are being made to promote clean coal technologies and renewable energy sources to reduce dependency on coal.

The correct answer is 50%.

Key Points

• The Economic Survey 2023-24 projects that by the year 2030, more than 50% of India's population will reside in urban areas. This marks a significant shift in India's demographic and urbanization trends.
• As of 2023, around 35%-40% of India's population lives in urban areas, showing a steady increase over the last few decades due to migration and urbanization.
• The urbanization trend is driven by factors such as economic opportunities, better infrastructure, access to education, and improved healthcare facilities in cities.
• With the rapid growth of urbanization, the government has initiated various schemes like the Smart Cities Mission and AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) to manage urban development sustainably.
• This demographic shift is expected to have a significant impact on sectors like housing, transportation, sanitation, and employment in urban areas, requiring strategic urban planning and governance.

Additional Information

• Urbanization in India:
• India is experiencing rapid urbanization, with an estimated 600 million people projected to live in urban areas by 2030.
• Urban areas contribute significantly to India's economy, with their share in GDP being around 63% as of 2023.
• Urbanization brings challenges such as overcrowding, pollution, traffic congestion, and inadequate infrastructure, necessitating sustainable urban planning.
• Government Urban Development Schemes:
• Smart Cities Mission: Aims to develop 100 cities with modern infrastructure and sustainable living standards.
• AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation): Focuses on improving urban infrastructure and ensuring basic services like water supply and sanitation for urban residents.
• PMAY-Urban (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban): Aims to provide affordable housing to the urban poor by 2022.
• Global Urbanization Trends:
• According to the United Nations, more than 56% of the world’s population currently lives in urban areas, and this figure is expected to reach 68% by 2050.
• Countries like China, the USA, and Brazil have already crossed the 50% urbanization mark, showcasing the global trend of urban migration.
• Challenges of Urbanization:
• Increased pressure on urban infrastructure like housing, transportation, water supply, and energy.
• Environmental concerns such as air pollution, waste management, and depletion of natural resources.
• Growing urban inequality, with a rise in slum populations and unequal access to resources.

Important Points

• India's Population Growth:
• India's total population is expected to reach 1.5 billion by 2030, with urban areas accommodating a significant portion of this growth.
• This rapid population increase in cities will intensify the need for urban policy reforms, efficient resource allocation, and sustainable development.
• Role of Economic Survey:
• The Economic Survey is an annual document presented by the Ministry of Finance that provides a detailed analysis of the country's economic performance and highlights future trends.
• It serves as a crucial policy-making tool for the government, guiding reforms and initiatives across sectors.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY) is a Central Sector Scheme funded fully by the Government of India. Hence, statement I is correct.
• The scheme is targeted at providing physical aids and assisted-living devices to senior citizens belonging to the Below Poverty Line (BPL) category. It aims to improve the quality of life for the elderly population.
• The funds for the scheme are drawn from the Senior Citizens' Welfare Fund, which was established under the 2015-16 Budget. Hence, statement II is correct.
• Under the scheme, devices such as hearing aids, wheelchairs, walkers, spectacles, and other assistive devices are distributed to eligible senior citizens.
• The scheme is implemented by the Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation (ALIMCO), a Public Sector Undertaking under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Additional Information

• Eligibility Criteria:
• Beneficiaries must belong to the BPL category and should be senior citizens aged 60 years or above.
• Preference is given to senior citizens suffering from age-related disabilities such as low vision, hearing impairment, loss of teeth, and locomotor disabilities.
• Key Features of the Scheme:
• The scheme provides one-time free distribution of physical aids and assisted-living devices to eligible beneficiaries.
• Devices include walking sticks, elbow crutches, walkers, tripods/quadrupods, hearing aids, spectacles, and dentures.
• The devices aim to assist senior citizens in carrying out daily activities and improving their mobility and independence.
• Implementation Process:
• The scheme is implemented in camps organized at district levels across India.
• Beneficiaries are identified through a process involving gram panchayats, municipal bodies, and urban local bodies.
• Senior Citizens' Welfare Fund:
• This fund was established as per the Finance Act, 2015, using unclaimed funds from schemes such as small savings and other similar programs.
• The fund is utilized for the welfare of senior citizens, including implementing schemes like RVY.

Important Points

• Senior Citizens' Welfare Fund: It serves as a financial reservoir for schemes aimed at improving the lives of senior citizens in India. The fund ensures the sustained implementation of initiatives like RVY.
• Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation (ALIMCO): ALIMCO is a key player in the implementation of RVY. It manufactures and supplies high-quality assistive devices to beneficiaries under the scheme.
• Focus on Accessibility: RVY emphasizes improving accessibility and mobility for senior citizens, thereby enabling them to lead a dignified life.
• Inclusive Approach: The scheme ensures that senior citizens from rural and urban areas, especially those from marginalized communities, are given due importance during beneficiary identification.