Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 09 Aug, 2023 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

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English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

Each of the letters in the word DONATE are arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter which is third from the left and the one which is second from the right?

  1. AOption (a)

    Seven

  2. BOption (b)

    Eight

  3. COption (c)

    Six

  4. DOption (d)

    Nine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Nine

Why this answer is correct

Word: DONATE

After arranging the letters in the alphabetical order: A D E N O T

Letters between third from the left(E) and second from the right(O) in the alphabetical order is "9".

 E F G H I J K L M N O.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option "4".

Question 2

Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

  1. For '

' element → Shifting diagonally in downward direction subsequently.

  1. For '

' element → → Shifting diagonally in downward direction and then in the opposite direction subsequently.

  1. For '

' element → Shifting diagonally in downward direction and then in the opposite direction subsequently.

  1. For '

' element → Shifting diagonally subsequently.

  1. For '

' element → Shifting diagonally subsequently.

  1. For '

' element → Shifting diagonally and then diagonally in downward direction subsequently.

  1. For '

' element → Shifting diagonally and then diagonally in downward direction subsequently.

Final series is

Hence, ‘option - (1)’ is the correct answer.

Question 3

In a certain code language,

G + T means 'G is the father of T',

G - T means 'G is the sister of T',

G × T means 'G is the brother of T',

G ÷ T means 'G is the daughter of T',

Based on the above, If P ÷ Q - L + N × M, then how is N related to Q?

  1. AOption (a)

    Son

  2. BOption (b)

    Brother 

  3. COption (c)

    Father

  4. DOption (d)

    Brother's son

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Brother's son

Why this answer is correct

Given :

G is
Symbol+-×÷
MeaningFatherSisterBrotherDaughter
to T

Statement given :  P ÷ Q - L + N × M

So,

  • P ÷ Q → P is the daughter of Q.

  • Q - L → Q is the sister of L.

  • L + N → L is the father of N.

  • N × M → N is the brother of M.

​

Thus, according to the final family tree N is the nephew i.e brother's son of Q.

Hence, "Brother's son" is the correct answer.

Question 4

Which term from among the given options can replace the question mark (?) in the following series to make it logically complete?

AN 37, ?, EH 50, GE 58, IB 67

  1. AOption (a)

    DL 42

  2. BOption (b)

    DI 45

  3. COption (c)

    CK 43

  4. DOption (d)

    CL 44

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

CK 43

Why this answer is correct

Logic : 

  • First letter → (2) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series
  • Second letter → (3) is subtracted from the position value according to English alphabetic series.
  • Number → Consecutive number series is added to each number starting with (6).

So,

​Hence, "CK 43" is the correct answer.

Question 5

Which of the following interchanges in two mathematical operators will balance the equation given below?

85 - 28 × 3 + 114 ÷ 6 = 150

  1. AOption (a)
    • and × 
  2. BOption (b)
    • and ÷ 
  3. COption (c)

    ÷ and × 

  4. DOption (d)
    • and -
View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.
  • and -

Why this answer is correct

Given statement : 85 - 28 × 3 + 114 ÷ 6 = 150 

According to the question, after interchanging the signs :

So,

  • Option - (1) : + and ×

85 - 28 × 3 + 114 ÷ 6 = 150 ⇒ 85 - 28 + 3 × 114 ÷ 6 = 150

85 - 28 + 3 × 19 = 150 

85 + 57 - 28 = 150

142 - 28 = 150

114 ≠ 150 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (2) : - and ÷

85 - 28 × 3 + 114 ÷ 6 = 150 ⇒ 85 ÷ 28 × 3 + 114 - 6 = 150

3.03 × 3 + 114 - 6 = 150

27 + 114 - 6 = 150

141 - 6 = 150

135 ≠ 150 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (3) : ÷ and ×

85 - 28 × 3 + 114 ÷ 6 = 150 ⇒ 85 - 28 ÷ 3 + 114 × 6 = 150

85 - 9 + 114 × 6 = 150

85 + 684 - 9 = 150

769 - 9 = 150

760 ≠ 150 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (4) : + and -

85 - 28 × 3 + 114 ÷ 6 = 150 ⇒ 85 + 28 × 3 - 114 ÷ 6 = 150

85 + 28 × 3 - 19 = 150

85 + 84 - 19 = 150

169 - 19 = 150

150 = 150 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Question 6

Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

9 : 720

5 : 134

7 : 334

11 : 1322

  1. AOption (a)

    7 : 334

  2. BOption (b)

    5 : 134

  3. COption (c)

    9 : 720

  4. DOption (d)

    11 : 1322

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5 : 134

Why this answer is correct

Logic : (Cube of 1st number) - 9 = 2nd number

So,

  • Option - (1) : 7 : 334

(7)3(7)^3 - 9 = 334

343 - 9 = 334

334 = 334 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (2) : 5 : 134

(5)3(5)^3 - 9 = 134

125 - 9 = 134

116 ≠ 134 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (3) : 9 : 720

(9)3(9)^3 - 9 = 720

729 - 9 = 720

720 = 720 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (4) : 11 : 1322

(11)3(11)^3 - 9 = 1322

1331 - 9 = 1322

1322 = 1322 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 7

EFHD is related to LMOK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, OPRN is related to VWYU. To which of the following is JKMI related, following the same logic?

  1. AOption (a)

    QSPT

  2. BOption (b)

    TUWS

  3. COption (c)

    QRTP

  4. DOption (d)

    RSTP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

QRTP

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-  (7) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.

​So,

  • 'EFHD’ is written as 'LMOK'

​

And,

  • 'OPRN' is written as 'VWYU'

​

​Similarly,

  • 'JKMI' is written as

​

Hence, "QRTP" is the correct answer.

Question 8

If 13 December 1969 is Saturday, then what will be the day of the week on 9 July 1978?

  1. AOption (a)

    Saturday

  2. BOption (b)

    Friday

  3. COption (c)

    Sunday

  4. DOption (d)

    Monday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sunday

Why this answer is correct

Given : 13 December 1969 was Saturday

Explanation :

The number of odd days from 13 December 1969 to 9 July 1978 :

YearPeriodCalculationOdd days
196913 December 1969 - 31 December 196918 days18 ÷ 7 = 4
1970 - 2077Full years (6 Ordinary years + 2 Leap years)(1 odd day × 6 Ordinary years) + (2 odd days × 2 Leap years) = 10 odd days10 ÷ 7 = 3
19781st January 1978 - 9 July 197831 January + 28 February + 31 March + 30 April + 31 May + 30 June + 9 July = 190 days190 ÷ 7 = 1
Total odd days(8 ÷ 7) = 1

∴ The number of odd days from 13 December 1969 to 9 July 1978 ⇒ 1

⇒So, One odd day get added to Saturday because day asked in future.

∴ Sunday was the day of the week on the 9 July 1978.

Hence, "Sunday" is the correct answer.

Additional Information 

  • Number of odd days for the days of week.
DaysOdd days
Sunday0
Monday1
Tuesday2
Wednesday3
Thursday4
Friday5
Saturday6

 

  • Number of odd days for the days of months.
Months having  number of daysOdd days
28 days0
29 days1
30 days2
31 days3

 

  • Number of odd days for the years.
YearsOdd days
Ordinary year1
Leap year2

Question 9

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

AKRW, DNUZ, GQXC, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    CZWR

  2. BOption (b)

    ISZE

  3. COption (c)

    TJAA

  4. DOption (d)

    JTAF

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

JTAF

Why this answer is correct

Logic : (3) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.

So,

​Hence, "JTAF" is the correct answer.

Question 10

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given combination when mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (3)".

Question 11

If 'A' stands for '÷', 'B' stands for '×' 'C' stands for '+' and 'D' stands for '-', what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

42 A 7 B 11 C 57 D 10 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    109

  2. BOption (b)

    113

  3. COption (c)

    118

  4. DOption (d)

    111

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

113

Why this answer is correct

According to the question,

SymbolABCD
Meaning÷×+-

Given that: 42 A 7 B 11 C 57 D 10 = ?

After replacing the symbols with their meanings, we get :-

42 ÷ 7 × 11 + 57 - 10 = ?

6 × 11 + 57 - 10 = ?

66 + 57 - 10 = ?

123 - 10 = ?

113 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is "113".

Question 12

In a certain code language, 'REPLACE' is coded as '67' and 'PETRIFY' is coded as '106'. How will 'CRACKED' be coded in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    52

  2. BOption (b)

    50

  3. COption (c)

    47

  4. DOption (d)

    45

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

52

Why this answer is correct

Logic : Number of letters within the words are added to the sum of the position values according to English alphabetic series.

So,

  • 'REPLACE' is coded as '67'

And,

  • 'PETRIFY' is coded as '106'

​Similarly,

  • 'CRACKED' will be coded as :

​Hence, "52" is the correct answer.

Question 13

Which number will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

15, 16, 20, 29, 45, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    70

  2. BOption (b)

    65

  3. COption (c)

    75

  4. DOption (d)

    60

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

70

Why this answer is correct

Logic : Squares of a consecutive series is added to each number subsequently.

Hence, "70" is the correct answer.

Question 14

In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting\multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(45, 80)

(37, 64)

  1. AOption (a)

    (41, 73)

  2. BOption (b)

    (52, 114)

  3. COption (c)

    (65, 120)

  4. DOption (d)

    (39, 69)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(65, 120)

Why this answer is correct

Logic : (1st number × 2) - 10 = 2nd number

Given : 

  • (45, 80)

(45 × 2) - 10 = 80

90 - 10 = 80

80 = 80 (LHS = RHS)

  • (37, 64)

(37 × 2) - 10 = 64

74 - 10 = 64

64 = 64 (LHS = RHS)

So,

  • Option - (1) : (41, 73)

(41 × 2) - 10 = 73

82 - 10 = 73

72 ≠ 73 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (2) : (52, 114)

(52 × 2) - 10 = 114

104 - 10 = 114

94 ≠ 114 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (3) : (65, 120)

(65 × 2) - 10 = 120

130 - 10 = 120

120 = 120 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (4) : (39, 69)

(39 × 2) - 10 = 69

78 - 10 = 69

68 ≠ 69 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Question 15

Which number from among the given options can replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

6, 12, ?, 32, 36, 72

  1. AOption (a)

    24

  2. BOption (b)

    21

  3. COption (c)

    16

  4. DOption (d)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

16

Why this answer is correct

Logic : Alternately (2) is multiplied and (4) is added to each number subsequently. 

Hence, "16" is the correct answer.

Question 16

Three of the following number pairs are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd number pair.

(NOTE . The second number in the given number pairs is formed by performing a certain operation on the first number. The same operation is followed in all the number pairs except one. Find that odd number pair.)

  1. AOption (a)

    297 : 33

  2. BOption (b)

    189 : 21

  3. COption (c)

    100 : 12

  4. DOption (d)

    63 : 7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

100 : 12

Why this answer is correct

Logic : (1st number ÷ 9) = 2nd number

So,

  • Option - (1) : 297 : 33

297 ÷ 9 = 33

33 = 33 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (2) : 189 : 21​

​189 ÷ 9 = 21

21 = 21 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (3) : 100 : 12​

​100 ÷ 9 = 12

11.11 ≠ 12 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (4) : 63 : 7

63 ÷ 9 = 7

7 = 7 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Question 17

Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order.

BRG, DOI, FLK, HIM, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    IEM

  2. BOption (b)

    JFO

  3. COption (c)

    JGN

  4. DOption (d)

    IGN

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

JFO

Why this answer is correct

Logic :

  • First and third letters → (2) is added to the position values according to English alphabetic series.
  • Second letter → (3) is subtracted from the position values according to English alphabetic series.

So,

​

​Hence, "JFO" is the correct answer.

Question 18

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements :

All blue are dogs.

No dog is silver

All pink are dogs.

Conclusions :

(I) Some pink are silver.

(II) No blue is pink is a possibility.

(III) Some blue are silver

  1. AOption (a)

    Both conclusions II and III follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion III follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Both conclusions I and II follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only conclusion II follows

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some pink are silver → Does not Follow (As, all pink are dogs and no dog is silver, So, no pink will be silver, therefore Some pink are silver will be definitely false)

II. No blue is pink is a possibility → Follow (As, all blue are dogs and all pink are dogs. and, no definite relation is given between blue and pink, so No blue is pink can be possible therefore it is definitely true)

III. Some blue are silver → Does not Follow (As, all blue are dogs and no dog is silver. So, no blue will be silver, therefore Some blue are silver is definitely false)

Here, Only conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows".

Question 19

In a certain code language,

A + B means 'A is the mother of B'

A - B means 'A is the brother of B'

A × B means 'A is the wife of B'

A ÷ B means 'A is the father of B'

Based on the above, how is S related to U if 'Q × R - S ÷ T + U'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Daughter

  2. BOption (b)

    Brother's wife

  3. COption (c)

    Mother's father 

  4. DOption (d)

    Mother's husband

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mother's father 

Why this answer is correct

Given :

A is
Symbol+-×÷
MeaningMotherBrotherWifeFather
to B

Given statement : Q × R - S ÷ T + U

So,

  • Q × R → Q is the wife of R.
  • R - S → R is the brother of S.
  • S ÷ T → S is the father of T.
  • T + U → T is the mother of U.

​Thus, according to the given statement,

S is the maternal grandfather i.e mother's father of U.

Hence, "Mother's father" is the correct answer.

Question 20

Based on the alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which of the following does NOT belong to that group?

  1. AOption (a)

    PSR

  2. BOption (b)

    TUX

  3. COption (c)

    MPO

  4. DOption (d)

    YBA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

TUX

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :- 

  • First and second letter ⇒ Difference between the position values according to English alphabetic series is (3).
  • Second and third letter ⇒ Difference between the position values according to English alphabetic series is (1).

​So,

  • Option - (1) : PSR

​

  • Option - (2) : TUX

​

  • Option - (3) : MPO

​

  • Option - (4) : YBA

​

​Hence, "TUX" is the correct answer.

Question 21

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 -Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying, etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(22, 44, 8)

(32, 48, 6)

  1. AOption (a)

    (36, 64, 7)

  2. BOption (b)

    (42, 63, 6)

  3. COption (c)

    (56, 128, 9)

  4. DOption (d)

    (48, 98, 8)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(42, 63, 6)

Why this answer is correct

Logic : (1st number × 3rd number) ÷ 4 = 2nd number

Given : 

  • (22, 44, 8)

(22 × 8) ÷ 4 = 44

176 ÷ 4 = 44

44 = 44 (LHS = RHS)

  • (32, 48, 6)​

(32 × 6) ÷ 4 = 48

192 ÷ 4 = 48

48 = 48 (LHS = RHS)

​So,

  • Option - (1) : (36, 64, 7)​

(36 × 7) ÷ 4 = 64

252 ÷ 4 = 64

63 ≠ 64 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (2) : (42, 63, 6)​

(42 × 6) ÷ 4 = 63

252 ÷ 4 = 63

63 = 63 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option - (3) : (56, 128, 9)​

(56 × 9) ÷ 4 = 128

504 ÷ 4 = 128

126 ≠ 128 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option - (4) : (48, 98, 8)​

(48 × 8) ÷ 4 = 98

384 ÷ 4 = 98

96 ≠ 98 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 22

DGEC is related to KNLJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, NQOM is related to UXVT. To which of the following is ILJH related to, following the same logic?

  1. AOption (a)

    ORPN

  2. BOption (b)

    PSQO

  3. COption (c)

    QTRP

  4. DOption (d)

    PTRQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

PSQO

Why this answer is correct

Logic : (7) is added to the position value according to the English alphabetic series.

So, 

  • ‘DGEC’ is written as ‘KNLJ’

​

​And,

  • 'NQOM' is written as 'UXVT'

​

​Similarly,

  • ‘ILJH’ is written as:

​ 

​Hence, "PSQO" is the correct answer.

Question 23

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given combination when mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Detailed Explanation:

  • The line MN is the mirror
  • The word "Gv3pa2" the third digit is "3". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 1 is eliminated.

  • The word "Gv3pa2" the fourth letter is "p". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 3 is eliminated..

  • The word "Gv3pa2" the second letter is "v". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 4 is eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (2)".

Question 24

In a certain code language 'LEASE' is coded as '14936' and 'PLEASE' is coded as '941360'. What is the code for 'P' in the given code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0

Why this answer is correct

Logic : No specific pattern is followed here, random codes are assigned to each letter.

So,

  • 'LEASE' is coded as '14936'
  • 'PLEASE' is coded as '941360'

As some letters are common, so the codes will be :

LettersL / E / A / SP
Codes1 / 4 / 9 / 3 / 60

​Therefore,

  • 'P' will be coded as:

'P' will be coded as '0'.

​Hence, "0" is the correct answer.

Question 25

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

9

Why this answer is correct

The number of triangles in the given figure is shown below :

  

So, there are 9 triangles in the given figure.

Hence, "9" is the correct answer.

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

In 1851, who founded the science of hydrodynamics with his law of viscosity describing the velocity of a small sphere through a viscous fluid?

  1. AOption (a)

    Daniel Bernoulli

  2. BOption (b)

    George Gabriel Stokes 

  3. COption (c)

    Evangelista Torricelli

  4. DOption (d)

    Heinrich Gustav Magnus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

George Gabriel Stokes 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is George Gabriel Stokes.

Key Points

  • Hydrodynamics:-
  • It is the study of fluids in motion, including liquids and gases.
  • George Gabriel Stokes:-
  • He was an Irish mathematician and physicist who made significant contributions to fluid dynamics and optics.
  • George Gabriel Stokes founded the science of hydrodynamics with his law of viscosity, which describes the relationship between the velocity of a small sphere and the viscosity of a fluid.

 Additional Information

  • Daniel Bernoulli:-
  • He was a Swiss mathematician who is known for his work on fluid dynamics, including Bernoulli's principle.
  • Evangelista Torricelli:-
  • He was an Italian physicist and mathematician who is best known for inventing the barometer.
  • Heinrich Gustav Magnus:-
  • He was a German physicist who made important contributions to the study of magnetism and thermodynamics.

Question 27

The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends to other commercial banks for short term has been reduced. What is this rate called?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cash Reserve Rate

  2. BOption (b)

    Reverse Repo Rate 

  3. COption (c)

    Bank Rate

  4. DOption (d)

    Repo Rate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Repo Rate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Repo Rate.

Key Points

  • Repo Rate:-
  • It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks for short term.
  • The reduction in Repo Rate indicates that the RBI is trying to encourage borrowing and spending in the economy.

Additional Information

  • Cash Reserve Rate:-
  • CRR is the amount of funds that banks have to keep with the RBI as a reserve. It is not related to lending rates.
  • Reverse Repo Rate:-
  • It is the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks. It is also not related to lending rates.
  • Bank Rate:-
  • It is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks for long term. It is also not related to short-term lending rates.

Question 28

What was the percentage of India's population that belonged to the Muslim religion in 2011?

  1. AOption (a)

    14.2%

  2. BOption (b)

    11.9%

  3. COption (c)

    16.4%

  4. DOption (d)

    18.5%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

14.2%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 14.2%

Key Points

  • Muslims as per 2011 Census:-
  • It indicates that only 0.142% of India's population identified themselves as Muslims in 2011.
  • This figure is notably lower than some of the other large Muslim-majority countries in the world, such as Indonesia, Pakistan, and Bangladesh.
  • The Muslim population in India has increased since 2011, but it is still a minority religion in the country.
  • It is important to note that religion is a sensitive topic in India, and there have been instances of communal tensions and violence between different religious groups.

Question 29

Kerala is famous for which of the following festivals?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pongal

  2. BOption (b)

    Ugadi

  3. COption (c)

    Bihu

  4. DOption (d)

    Onam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Onam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Onam.

Key Points

  • Onam:-
  • It is the most popular festival celebrated in the state of Kerala, India.
  • It is a 10-day harvest festival that usually falls in the month of August or September.
  • The festival is marked by various cultural events and traditional activities such as boat races, flower decorations, and feasting.
  • Onam is celebrated to honor the legendary king Mahabali and to welcome his annual visit to Kerala.

Additional Information

  • Pongal:-
  • It is a harvest festival celebrated in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana.
  • Ugadi:-
  • It is a New Year festival celebrated in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Karnataka.
  • Bihu:-
  • It is a harvest festival celebrated in the state of Assam.

Question 30

Guru Gopinath National Award 2021 was honoured to whom among the following Kathak dancers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Durga Lal

  2. BOption (b)

    Roshan Kumari

  3. COption (c)

    Kumudini Lakhia

  4. DOption (d)

    Shambhu Maharaj

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kumudini Lakhia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kumudini Lakhia

Key Points

  • Kumudini Lakhia:-
  • She is a renowned Kathak dancer and choreographer from India who has been awarded several other prestigious awards in the past.
  • She was honored with the Guru Gopinath National Award 2021 for her contribution to the field of Kathak dance.

Additional Information

  • Durga Lal:-
  • He was a famous Kathak dancer and choreographer from Rajasthan who passed away in 1990.
  • He is known for his contribution to the Jaipur Gharana of Kathak dance.
  • Roshan Kumari:-
  • She is a Kathak dancer from Jammu and Kashmir who has been trained in the Lucknow Gharana of Kathak dance.
  • Shambhu Maharaj:-
  • He was a legendary Kathak dancer from Lucknow who passed away in 1970. He was a part of the Maharaj family of Kathak dancers and is known for his contribution to the Lucknow Gharana of Kathak dance.

Question 31

Which of these statements is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    Under competitive asset market conditions, the price of a bond must always be equal to its present value in equilibrium.

  2. BOption (b)

    Under competitive asset market conditions, the price of a bond must be less than its present value to benefit the seller.

  3. COption (c)

    Under competitive asset market conditions, the price of a bond must exceed its present value to benefit the buyer.

  4. DOption (d)

    Under competitive asset market conditions, the present value must exceed the price of a bond to benefit the seller.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Under competitive asset market conditions, the price of a bond must always be equal to its present value in equilibrium.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Under competitive asset market conditions, the price of a bond must always be equal to its present value in equilibrium.

Key Points

  • Under competitive asset market conditions:-
  • The price of a bond must always be equal to its present value in equilibrium.
  • This is because in a competitive market, buyers and sellers have access to the same information and are able to make transactions at the market price, which reflects the present value of the bond.

Question 32

Which of these is NOT one of the negative effects of the green revolution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Primarily medium and large farmers were able to benefit from the new technology of the green revolution.

  2. BOption (b)

    The green revolution benefited farmers who had access to land, capital, technology and know-how.

  3. COption (c)

    The green revolution led to the displacement of tenant cultivators in many cases.

  4. DOption (d)

    The green revolution caused increased migration from urban to rural  areas.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The green revolution caused increased migration from urban to rural  areas.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the green revolution caused increased migration from urban to rural areas.

Key Points

  • Green revolution:-
  • The green revolution was a period of technological advancement in agriculture that began in the 1940s and continued until the 1970s.
  • The green revolution was mainly focused on increasing the productivity of high-yielding crops such as wheat, rice, and maize.
  • The green revolution was successful in increasing crop yields and reducing food insecurity in many parts of the world, particularly in Asia and Latin America.
  • Primarily medium and large farmers were able to benefit from the new technology of the green revolution. This statement is true as the green revolution was mainly focused on increasing the productivity of high-yielding crops, which required a certain level of investment and resources that small farmers could not afford.
  • The green revolution benefited farmers who had access to land, capital, technology, and know-how. This statement is also true as the green revolution required a certain level of resources and infrastructure to be successful, and farmers who had access to these resources were able to benefit from it.
  • The green revolution led to the displacement of tenant cultivators in many cases. This statement is also true as the green revolution led to the consolidation of landholdings and the displacement of small farmers and tenant cultivators who could not compete with the larger farmers.

Question 33

Which of the following is included in the M1 measure of money supply?

A) Currency with Public

B) Time Deposit with Post Office

C) Demand Deposits with Commercial Banks/RBI of Public Financial Institutions

  1. AOption (a)

    Both B and C

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and C

  3. COption (c)

    Only B

  4. DOption (d)

    Only A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both A and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both A and C

Key Points

  • M1:-
  • It measure of money supply includes the most liquid components of the money supply, such as physical currency and demand deposits.
  • Time deposits, also known as term deposits, are not included in the M1 measure as they are less liquid and cannot be accessed immediately.
  • Demand deposits are funds held in a checking account that can be withdrawn at any time without prior notice.
  • Commercial banks and RBI (Reserve Bank of India) are examples of financial institutions that offer demand deposit accounts to the public.
  • Both currency with public and demand deposits with commercial banks/RBI of public financial institutions are included in the M1 measure of money supply.
  • Currency with public refers to physical cash held by individuals and businesses.
  • Time deposit with post office is not included in the M1 measure as it is a less liquid component of the money supply.

Question 34

Indian Academy of Sciences, founded in 1934 by CV Raman, is situated in ___________ .

  1. AOption (a)

    Mumbai

  2. BOption (b)

    Hyderabad

  3. COption (c)

    Bangalore

  4. DOption (d)

    New Delhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Bangalore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bangalore.

Key Points

  • Indian Academy of Sciences:-
  • It is located in the city of Bangalore in Karnataka state of India.
  • The academy was founded in 1934 by the Nobel laureate physicist CV Raman.
  • Indian Academy of Sciences is one of the three academies of the Indian National Science Academy (INSA), along with the National Academy of Sciences and the Indian National Academy of Engineering.
  • The academy's mission is to promote science and its applications for the benefit of humanity, and to provide a platform for scientists to exchange ideas and collaborate on research.

Question 35

Who amongst the following raised the banner of revolt against Nasiruddin Khusrau?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nasiruddin Tughlaq

  2. BOption (b)

    Muhammad bin Tughlaq

  3. COption (c)

    Feroz Shah Tughlaq

  4. DOption (d)

    Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq.

Key Points

  • Nasiruddin Khusrau:-
  • Following the death of Alauddin, the Delhi Sultanate was plunged into confusion.
  • Malik Kafur sat on the throne for a few days but was disposed by Qutubuddin Mubarak Shah who ruled from 1316-1320 CE.
  • He was murdered by Nasiruddin Khusrau Shah in1320CE who ascended the throne after him.
  • Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq:-
  • He was the first sultan of the Tughluq dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate.
  • During his reign, Ghiyasuddin Tughluq founded the city of Tughluqabad

Additional Information 

  • Muhammad bin Tughlaq:-
  • Muhammad bin Tughluq, also named Jauna Khan
  • He reigned from February 1325 until his death in 1351
  • Feroz Shah Tughlaq:-
  • He was the grandson of Muhammad bin Tughlaq and ruled from 1351 to 1388.

Question 36

When milk is converted into curd, which type of change is it?

  1. AOption (a)

    Reversible change

  2. BOption (b)

    Physical change

  3. COption (c)

    Isothermal change

  4. DOption (d)

    Chemical change

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Chemical change

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chemical Change.

Key Points

  • Chemical change:-
  • This type of change alters the composition of the substance and results in the formation of a new substance. Examples include combustion, rusting, and digestion. When milk is converted into curd, it undergoes a chemical change.
  • This change is irreversible, meaning it cannot be undone.
  • The process of converting milk into curd is called fermentation, which is a chemical reaction that occurs due to the presence of bacteria.
  • During fermentation, the lactose in the milk is converted into lactic acid, which causes the milk to thicken and form curd.

Additional Information

  • Reversible change:
  • This type of change can be undone, meaning the original substance can be restored. Examples include melting and freezing of ice.
  • Physical change:
  • This type of change does not alter the composition of the substance. Examples include changes in state (solid, liquid, gas) and changes in shape or size.
  • Isothermal change:
  • This type of change occurs at a constant temperature and does not involve any change in energy.

Question 37

Which of the following persons' tenure was extended for one year as Chief of the Enforcement Directorate in November 2021?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pradyumna Sinha

  2. BOption (b)

    Sanjay Kumar Mishra

  3. COption (c)

    Prateek Rai

  4. DOption (d)

    Vijay Verma

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sanjay Kumar Mishra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer Sanjay Kumar Mishra.

Key Points

  • Sanjay Kumar Mishra:-
  • His tenure as Chief of the Enforcement Directorate was extended for one year in November 2021.
  • Enforcement Directorate:-
  • It is a law enforcement agency in India responsible for enforcing economic laws and fighting economic crime.

Additional Information

  • Pradyumna Sinha:-
  • He is a retired IAS officer who was appointed as the first Lieutenant Governor of Jammu and Kashmir after the state's special status was revoked in 2019.

Question 38

Which of the following physical divisions of India is densely populated?

  1. AOption (a)

    The North Indian Plains

  2. BOption (b)

    The islands

  3. COption (c)

    The Himalayan Range

  4. DOption (d)

    The Thar Desert

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The North Indian Plains

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The North Indian Plains.

Key Points

  • North Indian Plains:-
  • The North Indian Plains are densely populated due to their fertile soil, abundant water resources, and favorable climate for agriculture.
  • This region includes the states of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and parts of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and West Bengal.
  • The islands such as Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep have a relatively low population density due to their remote location and limited resources.

Additional Information

  • Himalayan Range:-
  • The Himalayan Range is sparsely populated due to its rugged terrain, harsh weather conditions, and limited accessibility.
  • The Thar Desert:-
  • It is also sparsely populated due to its arid climate and limited water resources.

Question 39

Which of the following is a liberal principle of the Directive Principles of State Policy of the Indian Constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    To secure right to work 

  2. BOption (b)

    To secure uniform civil code

  3. COption (c)

    To promote social welfare

  4. DOption (d)

    To promote equal justice

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To secure uniform civil code

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To secure uniform civil code.

Key Points

  • Liberal principle:-
  • The liberal principle of the Directive Principles of State Policy of the Indian Constitution is to secure uniform civil code.
  • This means that the state should strive to have a common set of laws governing personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption, regardless of the religion or community of the individuals involved. This is seen as a way to promote gender equality and social harmony.

Additional Information

  • Directive Principles of State Policy:-
  • The Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by the courts, but are considered to be fundamental in the governance of the country. They are guidelines for the government to follow in making policies and laws.
  • The issue of uniform civil code is a controversial one in India, with some arguing that it would infringe on the rights of religious minorities and others advocating for its implementation as a way to promote secularism and gender equality.

Question 40

Gurucharan Singh received the Padma Shri from the Government of India in 2023 for his contributions to the sport of ___________ .

  1. AOption (a)

    football

  2. BOption (b)

    basketball

  3. COption (c)

    kabaddi

  4. DOption (d)

    cricket

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

cricket

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is cricket.

 Key Points

  • Gurucharan Singh:-
  • Gurucharan Singh is a former Indian cricketer who played as a left-arm spinner. He represented the Indian cricket team in 5 test matches and 1 ODI between 1982 and 1984.
  • He received the Padma Shri award for his contributions to this sport.

Additional Information

  • Football:-
  • It is a popular sport in India, but Gurucharan Singh did not receive the Padma Shri award for his contributions to this sport.
  • Basketball:-
  • It is also a popular sport in India, but Gurucharan Singh did not receive the Padma Shri award for his contributions to this sport.
  • Kabaddi:-
  • It is a traditional Indian sport that has gained popularity in recent years, but Gurucharan Singh did not receive the Padma Shri award for his contributions to this sport.

Question 41

Which of the following is NOT a capital expenditure for the central government?

  1. AOption (a)

    Loan to state government 

  2. BOption (b)

    Improvement of fixed assets 

  3. COption (c)

    Salaries and old-age pensions

  4. DOption (d)

    Construction of roads and bridges

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Salaries and old-age pensions

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Salaries and old-age pensions.

Key Points

  • Capital expenditures:-
  • It refer to investments made by the government in fixed assets such as infrastructure, buildings, and equipment.
  • Salaries and old-age pensions are not capital expenditures as they are recurring expenses and do not involve investments in fixed assets.
  • Loans to state governments and construction of roads and bridges:-
  • These are examples of capital expenditures as they involve long-term investments in fixed assets.
  • Loans to state governments can be an important tool for the central government to support state-level development projects, while improvement of fixed assets such as buildings and equipment can help to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of government services.

Question 42

Which of the following is a yellowish green to green coloured gemstone often found in mafic and ultramafic igneous rocks such as basalt, gabbro, dunite, diabase and periodotite?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bornite

  2. BOption (b)

    Olivine

  3. COption (c)

    Tremolite

  4. DOption (d)

    Garnet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Olivine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Olivine.

Key Points

  • Bornite:-
  • It is a copper iron sulfide mineral that is commonly found in hydrothermal veins and contact metamorphic rocks.

Additional Information

  • Tremolite:-
  • It is a calcium magnesium silicate mineral that belongs to the amphibole group and is commonly found in metamorphic rocks such as schist and marble.
  • Garnet:-
  • It is a group of minerals that come in a variety of colors and are commonly found in metamorphic and igneous rocks.
  • Olivine:-
  • It is a magnesium iron silicate mineral that is typically yellowish-green to green in color.
  • Olivine is also known as peridot when it occurs as a gemstone.

Question 43

Which of the following is a public sector industry?

  1. AOption (a)

    BHEL

  2. BOption (b)

    Dabur Industry

  3. COption (c)

    Bajaj Auto

  4. DOption (d)

    TISCO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

BHEL

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is BHEL.

Key Points

  • Public sector industries:-
  • These are those that are owned and operated by the government.
  • BHEL (Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited) is a public sector company that specializes in manufacturing electrical equipment.
  • BHEL:-
  • It is a public sector industry.

Additional Information

  • Dabur Industry:-
  • It is a private sector company that specializes in manufacturing Ayurvedic medicine and consumer goods.
  • Bajaj Auto:-
  • It is a private sector company that specializes in manufacturing two-wheelers and three-wheelers.
  • TISCO:-
  • It is a private sector company that specializes in manufacturing steel products.

Question 44

Who was the author of the famous book 'The Economic History of India'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dadabhai Naoroji

  2. BOption (b)

    PC Dutta

  3. COption (c)

    RG Bhandarkar

  4. DOption (d)

    RC Dutt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

RC Dutt

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is RC Dutt.

Key Points

  • Economic History of India:-
  • The book provides a detailed account of India's economic history, starting from ancient times and covering the colonial period until the early 20th century.
  • The author of the famous book "The Economic History of India" is RC Dutt.
  • The book was first published in 1902 and is considered a classic in the field of Indian economic history.
  • RC Dutt:-
  • He was a prominent Indian economist, writer, and politician who played a significant role in India's struggle for independence from British rule

Additional Information

  • Dadabhai Naoroji:-
  • He was a prominent Indian nationalist, social reformer, and politician who is known for his work on Indian economy and his "Drain Theory" that argued that India's wealth was being drained by British colonial policies.
  • PC Dutta:-
  • He was an Indian economist and academic who wrote several books on Indian economy and economic policy.
  • RG Bhandarkar:-
  • He was an Indian historian and scholar who is known for his work on ancient Indian history and culture.

Question 45

Jagoi and Thabal Chongba are the famous dances of which Indian state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Odisha

  3. COption (c)

    Manipur

  4. DOption (d)

    Nagaland

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Manipur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Manipur.

Key Points

  • Jagoi and Thabal Chongba:-
  • These are the famous dances of Manipur, a state in northeastern India.
  • Jagoi is a traditional folk dance performed by the Meitei community of Manipur, which is also known as the Manipuri dance.
  • Thabal Chongba is a Manipuri folk dance that is performed during the Yaoshang festival, which is celebrated in Manipur during spring.
  • Both Jagoi and Thabal Chongba are characterized by graceful movements, intricate footwork, and colorful costumes.
  • These dances are an integral part of Manipuri culture and are performed on various occasions like weddings, festivals, and social gatherings.

Additional Information

  • Uttar Pradesh:-
  • It is a state in northern India, known for its rich cultural heritage and diverse folk traditions. Some of the famous dances of Uttar Pradesh include Kathak, Charkula, and Raslila.
  • Odisha:-
  • It is a state on the east coast of India, is renowned for its classical dance form, Odissi. Apart from Odissi, the state is also known for its folk dances like Dalkhai, Ghumura, and Sambalpuri.
  • Nagaland:-
  • It a state in northeastern India, is home to several indigenous tribes, each with its unique dance forms. Some of the famous dances of Nagaland include the Naga warrior dance, the Chang Lo dance, and the Hornbill dance.

Question 46

In 2023, which Indian Tennis player became the oldest to win the ATP Masters 1000 title?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rohan Bopanna

  2. BOption (b)

    Mahesh Bhupathi

  3. COption (c)

    Vijay Amritraj

  4. DOption (d)

    Ramanathan Krishnan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rohan Bopanna

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rohan Bopanna.

Key Points

  • Rohan Bopanna:-
  • He became the oldest Indian Tennis player to win the ATP Masters 1000 title in 2023.
  • This achievement was a significant milestone in Bopanna's career and a proud moment for Indian tennis. ​

Additional Information

  • Mahesh Bhupathi:-
  • He is a former doubles world number one and has won numerous Grand Slam titles in doubles and mixed doubles.
  • Vijay Amritraj and Ramanathan Krishnan are both former top-ranked Indian singles players who have represented India in multiple Davis Cup matches.
  • ATP Masters 1000:-
  • It is a series of nine men's tennis tournaments that form part of the elite ATP Tour. Winning a Masters 1000 title is a significant achievement for any tennis player.

Question 47

In 1830, which American scientist created the world's most powerful electromagnet, the Alnany magnet, which could lift up to 750 pounds of metal at a time?

  1. AOption (a)

    John Cockcroft

  2. BOption (b)

    William Gilbert

  3. COption (c)

    Joseph Henry

  4. DOption (d)

    Edward Purcell

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Joseph Henry

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Joseph Henry.

Key Points

  • Joseph Henry:-
  • He was an American scientist who is best known for his work in electromagnetism. He discovered the phenomenon of self-induction and mutual induction independently of Michael Faraday.
  • In 1830, Joseph Henry created the world's most powerful electromagnet, the Albany magnet, which could lift up to 750 pounds of metal at a time. This was a significant achievement in the field of electromagnetism.

Additional Information

  • John Cockcroft:-
  • He was a British physicist who is known for his work on the splitting of the atom.
  • He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1951 for his contributions to nuclear physics.
  • William Gilbert:-
  • He was an English physician and natural philosopher who is known as the father of electrical studies.
  • He is credited with the discovery of the Earth's magnetic field and the invention of the term "electricity."
  • Edward Purcell:-
  • He was an American physicist who is known for his work on nuclear magnetic resonance.
  • He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1952 for his contributions to the development of the nuclear magnetic resonance method.

Question 48

Who was the first American male athlete to win the Marathon gold medal in the Olympic Games?

  1. AOption (a)

    Abebe Bikila

  2. BOption (b)

    Thomas Hicks

  3. COption (c)

    Frank Shorter

  4. DOption (d)

    John Hayes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Thomas Hicks

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Thomas Hicks.

Key Points

  • Thomas Hicks:-
  • He won the gold medal in the Marathon event at the 1904 Olympic Games held in St. Louis, Missouri.
  • Hicks was an American athlete who was born in England and later migrated to the United States.
  • He was a member of the New York Athletic Club and was coached by Charles Waldron.
  • Hicks' victory in the Marathon event was controversial as he was given strychnine and brandy during the race by his trainers, which was a common practice at that time.

Additional Information

  • Frank Shorter:-
  • He was an American long-distance runner who won the Marathon gold medal at the 1972 Munich Olympics.
  • John Hayes:-
  • He was an American long-distance runner who won the Marathon gold medal at the 1908 London Olympics.

Question 49

Which of the following Articles about fundamental duties is related to the respect of the National Anthem?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 51A (b)

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 51A (c)

  3. COption (c)

    Article 51A (a)

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 51A (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Article 51A (a)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 51A (a).

Key Points

  • Article 51A (a):-
  • It outlines the fundamental duty of every citizen to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
  • The National Anthem is a symbol of national unity and integrity and must be respected by all citizens.

Additional Information

  • Article 51A (b) of the Indian Constitution outlines the fundamental duty of every citizen to cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the freedom struggle.
  • Article 51A (c) of the Indian Constitution outlines the fundamental duty of every citizen to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
  • Article 51A (d) of the Indian Constitution outlines the fundamental duty of every citizen to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.

Question 50

Begum Akhtar is associated with which of the following fields?

  1. AOption (a)

    Writing

  2. BOption (b)

    Politics

  3. COption (c)

    Painting

  4. DOption (d)

    Ghazal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ghazal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ghazal.

Key Points

  • Begum Akhtar:-
  • She was a renowned Indian classical singer and ghazal artist.
  • Begum Akhtar was primarily associated with the field of ghazal, a form of Urdu poetry that is often sung.
  • She was known for her soulful renditions of ghazals and her unique style of singing.
  • Begum Akhtar was considered one of the greatest ghazal singers of all time and her contributions to the genre are still celebrated today.
  • She was also known for her mastery of other forms of Indian classical music, such as thumri and dadra.

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

Which of the following expressions is equal to the expression x2−3x+2x2−4\rm \frac{x^2-3x+2}{x^2-4}?

  1. AOption (a)

    x+1x−2\rm \frac{x+1}{x-2}

  2. BOption (b)

    x−1x+2\rm \frac{x-1}{x+2}

  3. COption (c)

    x+1x+2\rm \frac{x+1}{x+2}

  4. DOption (d)

    x−1x−2\rm \frac{x-1}{x-2}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

x−1x+2\rm \frac{x-1}{x+2}

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

x2−3x+2x2−4\rm \frac{x^2-3x+2}{x^2-4}

⇒ (x2 - 2x - x + 2)/{(x - 2)(x + 2)}

⇒ x(x - 2) - 1(x - 2)/{(x - 2)(x + 2)}

⇒ (x - 2)(x - 1)/{(x - 2)(x + 2)}

⇒ (x - 1)/(x + 2)

∴ The correct answer is x−1x+2\rm \frac{x-1}{x+2}.

Question 52

What is the fourth proportional of 35\sqrt5, 58\sqrt8 and 310\sqrt10?

  1. AOption (a)

    105\sqrt5

  2. BOption (b)

    402\sqrt2

  3. COption (c)

    30

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

20

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Fourth Proportional (d) = (Second term × Third term) ÷ First term

d = (5√8 × 3√10) ÷ 3√5

d = (5 × 2√2 × 3 × √2 × √5) ÷ (3√5)

d = 5 × 2 × 2 = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Alternate Method

Given:

First term (a) = 3√5

Second term (b) = 5√8 = 5 × 2√2 = 10√2

Third term (c) = 3√10

Formula Used:

If a, b, c, and d are in proportion, then a/b = c/d ⇒ d = (b × c) / a

Calculations:

⇒ Let the fourth proportional be d.

⇒ 3√5 / 5√8 = 3√10 / d

⇒ d = (5√8 × 3√10) / 3√5

⇒ d = (10√2 × 3 × √2 × √5) / 3√5

⇒ d = (30 × 2 × √5) / 3√5

⇒ d = 60 / 3

⇒ d = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is given by x = √(a × b).

Third Proportional

The third proportional to two numbers a and b is c, such that a:b = b:c, which gives c = b2/a.

Invertendo Rule

If a:b = c:d, then b:a = d:c. This is used to rearrange proportional terms.

Compound Ratio

The compound ratio of (a:b) and (c:d) is (a × c) : (b × d).

Question 53

If tan θ = 815\frac{8}{15}, then the value of 1−sin⁡θ1+sin⁡θ\sqrt{\frac{1-\sin\theta}{1+\sin\theta}} is :

  1. AOption (a)

    15\frac{1}{5}

  2. BOption (b)

    35\frac{3}{5}

  3. COption (c)

    25\frac{2}{5}

  4. DOption (d)

    45\frac{4}{5}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

35\frac{3}{5}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Tan θ = 8/15

Formula used:

By Pythagoras theorem:

H2 = P2 + B2

Tan θ = P/B

Sin θ = P/H

Where, H = hypotenuse

P = perpendicular ; B = base

Calculation:

Tan θ = 8/15 = P/B

By Pythagoras theorem:

⇒ H2 = P2 + B2

⇒ H2 = 82 + 152

⇒ H = √(64 + 225) = √289

⇒ H = 17

Now,

√1−sin⁡θ1+sin⁡θ √{\frac{1-\sin\theta}{1+\sin\theta}}~

Putting the values in equation:

⇒ √[{1 - (8/17)}/{1 + (8/17)}]

⇒ √[{9/17}/{25/17}]

⇒ √[9/25] = 3/5

∴ The correct answer is 35\frac{3}{5}.

Question 54

Study the given table and answer the question that follows.

The table represents the mathematics marks of five students.

NameAjayPronoyMahendraJharnaDipti
Marks8572708494

What is the average marks?

  1. AOption (a)

    77

  2. BOption (b)

    80

  3. COption (c)

    81

  4. DOption (d)

    78

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

81

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Total marks obtained by all 5 students = 85 + 72 + 70 + 84 + 94 = 405

Average marks obtain by students = total marks/total students

⇒ 405/5 = 81

∴ The correct answer is 81.

Question 55

A man buys an article for Rs. 80 and marks it at Rs. 125. He then allows a discount of 40%. What is his percentage of loss or gain?

  1. AOption (a)

    12% gain

  2. BOption (b)

    10% gain

  3. COption (c)

    6.25% loss

  4. DOption (d)

    12% loss

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6.25% loss

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Cost price (C.P) = Rs.80

Marked price (M.P) = Rs.125

Discount (D)% = 40%

Concept used:

If discount is = D%

M.P : S.P = 100 : (100 - D)%

Calculation:

C.P : M.P = 80 : 125 = 16 : 25

Discount (D)% = 40%

M.P : S.P = 100 : 60 = 5 : 3 

Marked price must be same.

M.P : S.P = (5 : 3) × 5 = 25 : 15

C.P : M.P : S.P = 16 : 25 : 15

Percentage loss = {(16 - 15) × 100}/16

⇒ 100/16 = 6.25%

∴ The correct answer is 6.25%.

Shortcut TrickCalculation:

Selling price (S.P) = 125 × (100 - 40)% 

⇒ 125 × 60% = Rs.75

Gain% = {(80 - 75) × 100}/80

⇒ 50/8 = 6.25%

∴ The correct answer is 6.25%.

Question 56

Subhas, a 3.15 m tall tree, and an 11.25 m tall building are positioned such that their feet on the ground are collinear and the tree is located between Subhas and the building. The tree is located at a distance of 7.5 m from Subhas and at a distance of 45 m from the building. Further, the eyes of Subhas, the top of the tree, and the top of the building fall in one line. Find the height (in m) from the ground at which Subhas eyes are situated.

  1. AOption (a)

    1.75

  2. BOption (b)

    1.8

  3. COption (c)

    1.6

  4. DOption (d)

    1.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1.8

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The height of the tree = 3.15 m

The height of the building = 11.25 m

The distance between Subhas and the tree = 7.5 m

The distance between the tree and the building = 45 m

Calculation:

Let the height from the ground at which Subhas’s eyes are situated be h.

XA = OB = PC = h

From the question:

YB = 3.15 m ; ZC = 11.25 m

AB = 7.5 m ; BC = 45 m

XO = AB = 7.5 m

OP = BC = 45 m

XP = XO + OP

⇒ XP = 7.5 m + 45 m

∴ XP = 52.5 m

Now,

OY = BY - OB

⇒ OY = 3.15 - h

PZ = ZC - PC

⇒ PZ = 11.25 - h

In ΔXPZ,

⇒ tan θ = PZ/PX

⇒ tan θ = (11.25 - h)/52.5  ----------------(1)

Similarly, in ΔXOY,

⇒ tan θ = OY/OX

⇒ tan θ = ( 3.15 - h)/7.5   ---------------(2)

From eq. (1) & (2)

⇒ (11.25 - h)/52.5 = ( 3.15 - h)/7.5

⇒ 11.25 - h = 7(3.15 - h)

⇒ 11.25 - h = 22.05 - 7h

⇒ 7h - h = 22.05 - 11.25

⇒ 6h = 10.8

⇒ h = 10.8/6

⇒ h = 1.8 m

∴ The correct answer is 1.8 m.

Question 57

The lengths of two parallel chords of a circle are 10 cm and 24 cm lie on the opposite sides of the centre. If the smaller chord is 12 cm from the centre, what is the distance (in cm) between the two chords?

  1. AOption (a)

    13

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    17

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

17

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For a circle with two parallel chords of lengths L1 and L2 at distances d1 and d2 from the center, the radius r satisfies: r2 = d12 + (L1/2)2 = d22 + (L2/2)2.

Given L1 = 10 (half = 5), d1 = 12 ⇒ r2 = 122 + 52 = 169 ⇒ r = 13 cm.

For L2 = 24 (half = 12) ⇒ 132 = d22 + 122 ⇒ 169 = d22 + 144 ⇒ d2 = 5 cm.

Since chords are on opposite sides of the center, Distance = d1 + d2 = 12 + 5 = 17 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 17 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of chord AB = 10 cm, Chord CD = 24 cm.

Distance of AB from center (OM) = 12 cm.

Formula Used:

The perpendicular from the center of a circle to a chord bisects the chord. In a right-angled triangle, Pythagoras theorem states: Hypotenuse2 = Base2 + Perpendicular2.

In circle with center O, let AB and CD be the parallel chords.

OM ⊥ AB and ON ⊥ CD. Since they are on opposite sides, the distance between them is MN = OM + ON.

⇒ AM = AB ÷ 2 = 10 ÷ 2 = 5 cm.

⇒ In ΔOAM, OA2 = OM2 + AM2

⇒ r2 = 122 + 52 = 144 + 25 = 169

⇒ r = √169 = 13 cm.

⇒ In ΔOCN, OC2 = ON2 + CN2, where CN = CD ÷ 2 = 24 ÷ 2 = 12 cm.

⇒ 132 = ON2 + 122

⇒ 169 = ON2 + 144

⇒ ON2 = 169 − 144 = 25

⇒ ON = 5 cm.

⇒ Total distance MN = OM + ON = 12 + 5 = 17 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 17 cm.

Additional Information

Distance Between Parallel Chords

If chords are on the same side of the center, distance = |d1 − d2|. If on opposite sides, distance = d1 + d2.

Perpendicular Bisector Property

The perpendicular from the center to a chord always bisects it, creating two right-angled triangles with the radius as the hypotenuse.

Pythagorean Triplets

Common triplets like (5, 12, 13) and (8, 15, 17) frequently appear in circle geometry problems involving chords and radii.

Question 58

If θ is an acute angle and cos θ =3989\frac{39}{89}, what is the value of sin θ?

  1. AOption (a)

    4989\frac{49}{89}

  2. BOption (b)

    7989\frac{79}{89}

  3. COption (c)

    8089\frac{80}{89}

  4. DOption (d)

    5089\frac{50}{89}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

8089\frac{80}{89}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Cos θ = 39/89

Formula used:

By Pythagoras theorem:

H2 = P2 + B2

Cos θ = B/H ; sin θ = P/H

Where, P = perpendicular ; B = Base

and H = Hypotenuse 

Calculation:

Cos θ = 39/89 = B/H

By Pythagoras theorem:

H2 = P2 + B2

⇒ (89)2 = P2 + (39)2

⇒ P2 = 892 - 392

⇒ P = √{(89 - 39) × (89 + 39)}

⇒ P = √(50 × 128)

⇒ P = 80

Now, Sin θ = P/H = 80/89

∴ The correct answer is 80/89.

Question 59

Study the given pie chart and answer the question that follows.

The pie chart shows the distribution (in terms of central angles) of the number of professors in six different departments of a college.

The number of professors in Economics and Mathematics is approximately (correct up to two decimal places) what per cent more than the number of professors in English and Statistics?

  1. AOption (a)

    69.23%

  2. BOption (b)

    59.09%

  3. COption (c)

    40.91%

  4. DOption (d)

    70.91%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

69.23%

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

According to the question:

⇒ 360° = 600

⇒ 1° = 600/360 = 5/3

Total number of Professor in Economics = 86.4 × (5/3) = 144

Total number of Professor in Mathematics = 72 × (5/3) = 120

Sum of professor in Economics and mathematics = 144 + 120 = 264

Total number of Professor in English = 50.4 × (5/3) = 84

Total number of Professor in Statistics = 43.2 × (5/3) = 72

Sum of professor in English and Statistics = 84 + 72 = 156

Required percentage = {(264 - 156) × 100}/156 

⇒ 10800/156 = 900/13 = 69.23%

∴ The correct answer is 69.23%.

Question 60

The marked price of a sunglass is Rs. 1,350. It is sold at Rs. 1,188 after allowing a certain discount. Find the rate of discount.

  1. AOption (a)

    14%

  2. BOption (b)

    12%

  3. COption (c)

    16%

  4. DOption (d)

    10%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12%

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

Marked price (M.P) = Rs.1350

Selling price (S.P) = Rs.1188

Formula used:

Discount% = (M.P - S.P)/M.P

Calculation:

Rate of discount = {(1350 - 1188) × 100}/1350

⇒ 1620/135 = 12%

∴ The correct answer is 12%.

Question 61

If a + 1a\rm \frac{1}{a} = 5, then determine the value of a3 + 1a3\frac{1}{a^3}.

  1. AOption (a)

    90

  2. BOption (b)

    125

  3. COption (c)

    105

  4. DOption (d)

    110

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

110

Why this answer is correct

Given:

a + 1a\rm \frac{1}{a} = 5

Concept used:

If a + 1a\rm \frac{1}{a} = P

then a3 + (1/a3) = P3 - (3 × P)

Calculation:

a + 1a\rm \frac{1}{a} = 5

⇒ a3 + (1/a3) = 53 - (3 ×  5)

⇒ 125 - 15 = 110

∴ The correct answer is 110.

Question 62

If tan θ. tan 2θ  = 1, then the value of cot 5θ is :

  1. AOption (a)

    -1

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    -3\sqrt3

  4. DOption (d)

    3\sqrt3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

-3\sqrt3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

tan θ × tan 2θ = 1

Formula used:

If Tan θ1 = cot θ2 then,

θ1 +  θ2 = 90° 

Cot (90 + θ) = - tan θ   

Calculation:

⇒ Tan 2θ = 1/tan θ

⇒ Tan 2θ  = cot θ 

From the above relation, we can conclude that

⇒ 2θ + θ = 90

⇒ θ = 90/3 = 30°

Cot 5θ = Cot 5 × 30

⇒ cot 150° = cot (90° + 60)

⇒ - tan 60° = - √3

∴ The correct answer is - √3.

Question 63

A man sells rice at 8% profit and uses weight 25% less than the actual measure. What is his percentage profit?

  1. AOption (a)

    44%

  2. BOption (b)

    41%

  3. COption (c)

    23%

  4. DOption (d)

    36%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

44%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Profit % on rice = 8%

Percentage less in weight = 25%

Concept used:

If profit = P%

C.P : S.P = 100 : (100 + P%)

Calculation:

Profit% = 8%

C.P : S.P = 100 : 108 = 25 : 27

Percentage less in weight = 25%

1000 : 750 = 4 : 3

C.P : S.P = 3 : 4

Total C.P : total S.P = 75 : 108

Gain % = {(108 - 75) × 100}/75

⇒ (33 × 4)/3 = 44%

∴ The correct answer is 44%.

Question 64

The simple interest (in Rs. rounded off to the tens place) on Rs. 12,300 from 22 May 1993 to 2 August 1993 (both days are included) at the rate of 12% per annum is :

  1. AOption (a)

    300

  2. BOption (b)

    200

  3. COption (c)

    250

  4. DOption (d)

    350

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

300

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs.12,300

Rate (R) = 12% ; Time (T) = 73 days

Formula used:

Simple interest (S.I) = (P × R × T)/100

Calculation:

S.I = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ (12300 × 12 × 73)/(365 × 100)

⇒ (123 × 12)/5

⇒ 1476/5 = 295.2 ≈ 300

∴ The correct answer is 300.

Question 65

Two points P and Q are 3 cm apart. These two points lie on the circumference of a circle having radius 1.7 cm. What is the distance (in cm) of the line segment PQ from the centre of the circle?

  1. AOption (a)

    0.8

  2. BOption (b)

    1.0

  3. COption (c)

    0.4

  4. DOption (d)

    0.6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

0.8

Why this answer is correct

Given:

PQ = 3 cm

Radius (OP) = 1.7 cm

Concept used:

The distance of a chord from the centre cuts the chord in half and perpendicular to it.

Calculation:

OM ⊥ PQ

PM = 3/2 = 1.5 cm

Now, By Pythagoras theorem

⇒ H2 = P2 + B2

⇒ (1.7)2 = OM2 + (1.5)2

⇒ OM2 = 1.72 - 1.52

⇒ OM = √{(1.7 + 1.5)(1.7 - 1.5)}

⇒ OM = √{3.2 × 0.2} = √0.64

⇒ OM = 0.8 cm

∴ The correct answer is 0.8 cm.

Given:

Two points P and Q are 3 cm apart. These two points lie on the circumference of a circle with a radius of 1.7 cm.

Concept Used:

Use the properties of circles and right triangles to find the perpendicular distance from the center of the circle to the line segment PQ.

Formula Used:

  1. Pythagorean theorem:a2+b2=c2 a^2 + b^2 = c^2
  2. The perpendicular distance from the center to the chord: d=r2−(chordlength2)2d = \sqrt{r^2 - \left(\frac{chord length}{2}\right)^2}

Calculation:

Identify the given values:

Radius of the circle r = 1.7 cm

Length of the chord PQ = 3 cm

Calculate half of the chord length

Use the formula to find the perpendicular distance from the center to the chord:chordlength2=32=1.5cm \frac{chord length}{2} = \frac{3}{2} = 1.5 cm

d=r2−(chordlength2)2d = \sqrt{r^2 - \left(\frac{chord length}{2}\right)^2} d=1.72−1.52 d = \sqrt{1.7^2 - 1.5^2} d=2.89−2.25 d = \sqrt{2.89 - 2.25} d=0.64 d = \sqrt{0.64} d=0.8cm d = 0.8 cm

So, the distance of the line segment PQ from the center of the circle is 0.8 cm.

Question 66

Two people A and B started running from the same point on a circular track of length 400 m in opposite directions with initial speeds of 10 m/s and 40 m/s, respectively. Whenever they meet, A's speed doubles and B's speed halves. After what time from the start will they meet for the third time?

  1. AOption (a)

    30 sec

  2. BOption (b)

    24 sec

  3. COption (c)

    26 sec

  4. DOption (d)

    28 sec

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

26 sec

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Length of the circular track = 400 m

Speed of A = 10 m/s

Speed of B = 40 m/s

Formula used:

Distance = relative speed × time

Calculation:

Distance = relative speed × time

​⇒ 400 = 50 × T

⇒ T = 400/50 = 8 sec

Now, According to the question:

A new speed = 20 m/s

B new speed = 20 m/s

Distance = relative speed × time

​⇒ 400 = 40 × T

⇒ T = 400/40 = 10 sec

A's new speed = 40 m/s

B's new speed = 10 m/s

Distance = relative speed × time

​⇒ 400 = 50 × T

⇒ T = 400/50 = 8 sec

Total time to meet for third time = 8 + 10 + 8 = 26 sec

∴ The correct answer is 26 sec.

Question 67

Two years ago, the population of the city was 5,00,000. If the annual birth rate and the annual death rate are 6% and 3%, respectively, what is the present population of the city?

  1. AOption (a)

    536440

  2. BOption (b)

    580440

  3. COption (c)

    530450

  4. DOption (d)

    540550

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

530450

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Population of the city = 500000

Birth rate = 6% ; death rate = 3%

Formula used:

Present population = past population (1 + R%)T

R = rate% ; T = time

Calculation:

Effective rate = 6 - 3 = 3%

Present population = past population (1 + R%)T

⇒ 500000 × (1 + 3%)2

⇒ 500000 × 103% × 103%

⇒ 530450

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Question 68

Find the value of the given expression.

(212÷178)\left(2\frac{1}{2}÷1\frac{7}{8}\right) ÷ (938÷1123 of 18)\left(9\frac{3}{8}\div11\frac{2}{3}\ of\ \frac{1}{8}\right)

  1. AOption (a)

    33135\frac{33}{135}

  2. BOption (b)

    11135\frac{11}{135}

  3. COption (c)

    28135\frac{28}{135}

  4. DOption (d)

    57135\frac{57}{135}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

28135\frac{28}{135}

Why this answer is correct

Concept used:

Calculation:

(212÷178)\left(2\frac{1}{2}÷1\frac{7}{8}\right) ÷ (938÷1123 of 18)\left(9\frac{3}{8}÷11\frac{2}{3}\ of\ \frac{1}{8}\right)

⇒ {(5/2) ÷ (15/8)} ÷ {(75/8) ÷ (35/3) × (1/8)}

⇒ {(5/2) × (8/15)} ÷ {(75/8) ÷ (35/24)}

⇒ {4/3} ÷ {(75/8) × (24/35)}

⇒ {4/3} ÷ {45/7}

⇒ {4/3} × {7/45}

⇒ 28/135

Question 69

Find the average of prime numbers lying between 69 and 92.

  1. AOption (a)

    76

  2. BOption (b)

    77

  3. COption (c)

    78

  4. DOption (d)

    79

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

79

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify the prime numbers between 69 and 92: 71, 73, 79, 83, 89.

Assume an average of 79 and find the net deviation: −8, −6, 0, +4, +10.

The sum of deviations = −8 − 6 + 0 + 4 + 10 = 0.

Since the net deviation is 0, the assumed average is the actual average.

∴ The correct answer is 79.

Alternate Method

Given: Prime numbers between 69 and 92.

Formula Used: Average = Sum of all observations ÷ Total number of observations

⇒ Prime numbers between 69 and 92 are 71, 73, 79, 83, and 89.

⇒ Number of prime numbers (n) = 5

⇒ Sum = 71 + 73 + 79 + 83 + 89 = 395

⇒ Average = 395 ÷ 5

⇒ Average = 79

∴ The correct answer is 79.

Additional Information

Prime Numbers

A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that has only two factors: 1 and itself.

Average of Observations

The average or arithmetic mean is calculated as the total sum divided by the count of items: ∑x ÷ n.

Sieve of Eratosthenes

A simple algorithm for finding all prime numbers up to a specified integer by iteratively marking composite numbers.

Question 70

In ΔABC, P and Q are the middle points of the sides AB and AC, respectively, R is point on the segment PQ such that PR ∶ RQ = 1 ∶ 3. If PR = 6 cm, then BC :

  1. AOption (a)

    46 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    48 cm

  3. COption (c)

    44 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    50 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

48 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

PR : RQ = 1 : 3

PR = 6 cm

Concept used:

The line segment in a triangle joining the midpoint of any two sides

is parallel to its third side and is also half of the length of the third side.

Calculation:

PR : PQ = 1 : 3

⇒ 1 unit = 6 cm

⇒ PQ = 4 units = 4 × 6 = 24 cm

So, BC = 2 × PQ

⇒ BC = 2 × 24 = 48 cm

∴ The correct answer is 48 cm.

Question 71

The diameter of a sphere is 14 cm, then the volume of this sphere is (use π = 22/7) :

  1. AOption (a)

    143713\frac{1}{3} cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    168313\frac{1}{3} cm3

  3. COption (c)

    152123\frac{2}{3} cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    212513\frac{1}{3} cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

143713\frac{1}{3} cm3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Diameter of sphere (D) = 14 cm

Formula used:

Volume of the sphere = (4/3) × π × r3

Diameter = 2 × r

Calculation:

Radius of sphere = 14/2 = 7 cm

Volume of the sphere = (4/3) × π × r3

⇒ (4/3) × (22/7) × (7)3

⇒ (4/3) × 22 × 49

⇒ 4312/3 = 143713\frac{1}{3} cm3

∴ The correct answer is 143713\frac{1}{3} cm3.

Question 72

If x = (7 + 35\sqrt5), then find the value of x2 + 1x2\frac{1}{x^2}.

  1. AOption (a)

    580+31558\frac{580+315\sqrt5}{8}

  2. BOption (b)

    799+32858\frac{799+328\sqrt5}{8}

  3. COption (c)

    799+315512\frac{799+315\sqrt5}{12}

  4. DOption (d)

    799+31558\frac{799+315\sqrt5}{8}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

799+31558\frac{799+315\sqrt5}{8}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

x = (7 + 3√5)

Formula used:

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

(a - b)2 = a2 + b2 - 2ab

Calculation:

x = (7 + 3√5)

then, 1/x = 1/(7 + 3√5)

⇒ (7 -  3√5)/{72 - (3√5)2}

⇒ (7 -  3√5)/4

Now,

x2 + (1/x2)

⇒ (7 + 3√5)2 + {(7 -  3√5)/4}2

⇒ 72 + (3√5)2 + 2 × 7 × 3√5 +  {(72 + (3√5)2 - 2 × 7 × 3√5)/16}

⇒ 49 + 45 + 42√5 +  (49 + 45 - 42√5)/16

⇒ 94 + 42√5 +  (94 - 42√5)/16

⇒ (1504 + 672√5 + 94 - 42√5)/16

⇒ (1598 + 630√5)/16

⇒ 799+31558\frac{799+315\sqrt5}{8} 

∴ The correct answer is 799+31558\frac{799+315\sqrt5}{8}.

Question 73

A person spent 12% of his salary on groceries, 8% on medicines, 20% on children's school fee and he had a balance of Rs. 36,000. Find his salary.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 56,000

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 54,000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 60,000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 66,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 60,000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Expense for groceries = 12% × income

Expense for medicines = 8% × income

Expense for school fee = 20% × income

Remaining income = Rs.36000

Calculation:

Total expenses = 12 + 8 + 20 = 40%

According to the question:

⇒ 60% = 36000

⇒ 100% =  {36000 × 100}/60

Income of the person = 60000

∴ The correct answer is 60000.

Question 74

Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.

The production of cement (in lakh tonnes) by a company during the last six years is presented by the bar graph.

What is the average cement production (in lakh tonnes) during the given six years?

  1. AOption (a)

    40.0

  2. BOption (b)

    39.0

  3. COption (c)

    39.5

  4. DOption (d)

    40.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

39.5

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Total cement production during six years = 35 + 40 + 45 + 35 + 35 + 47 = 237

Average cement production during six years = 237/6 = 39.5

∴ The correct answer is 39.5.

Question 75

Three people A, B and C worked together and finished a work in 9 days. If A alone can finish the same work in 18 days, B alone in 30 days, then the number of days C alone will take is :

  1. AOption (a)

    36 days

  2. BOption (b)

    45 days

  3. COption (c)

    40 days

  4. DOption (d)

    54 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

45 days

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the Total Work be the LCM of 9, 18, and 30 = 90 units.

Combined efficiency of A + B + C = 90 ÷ 9 = 10 units/day.

Efficiency of A = 90 ÷ 18 = 5 units/day and efficiency of B = 90 ÷ 30 = 3 units/day.

Efficiency of C = (Efficiency of A + B + C) − (Efficiency of A + B) = 10 − (5 + 3) = 2 units/day.

Time taken by C alone = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of C = 90 ÷ 2 = 45 days.

∴ The correct answer is 45 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by (A + B + C) = 9 days

Time taken by A = 18 days

Time taken by B = 30 days

Formula Used:

Total Work = Time × Efficiency

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
A + B + C99010
A185
B303

Calculations:

⇒ Total Work = LCM of (9, 18, 30) = 90 units

⇒ Efficiency of (A + B + C) = 90 ÷ 9 = 10 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of A = 90 ÷ 18 = 5 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of B = 90 ÷ 30 = 3 units/day

⇒ Combined efficiency of A and B = 5 + 3 = 8 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of C = Efficiency of (A + B + C) − Efficiency of (A + B)

⇒ Efficiency of C = 10 − 8 = 2 units/day

⇒ Time taken by C = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of C

⇒ Time taken by C = 90 ÷ 2 = 45 days

∴ The correct answer is 45 days.

Additional Information

Work and Efficiency Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a work. If time ratio is x : y, efficiency ratio is y : x.

Pipes and Cisterns

Similar to time and work, the rate of filling is efficiency. Outlets have negative efficiency while inlets have positive efficiency.

Work and Wages

Wages are distributed in the ratio of the amount of work done by each person, which is the product of time and efficiency.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Sheela tried for argue with him though she knew it was of no use.

  1. AOption (a)

    to argue with him

  2. BOption (b)

    of argue with him

  3. COption (c)

    in argue with him

  4. DOption (d)

    on argue with him

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

to argue with him

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: to argue with him

Key Points

  • The original sentence is grammatically incorrect because "for" should not be used with "argue".
  • The correct preposition to use with "argue" is "to" and "with".
  • The infinitive form "to argue" is the correct construction to use in this sentence.
  • The sentence means that Sheela attempted to argue with him, even though she knew it was pointless.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Corrected sentence: Sheela tried to argue with him though she knew it was of no use.

Question 77

Select the most appropriate idiom for the given situation.

Don't annoy or irritate Raghav, otherwise he will oppose our proposal in the meeting.

  1. AOption (a)

    Pass the buck

  2. BOption (b)

    Pour oil in troubled water

  3. COption (c)

    Rub in the wrong way

  4. DOption (d)

    Loose the ground

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rub in the wrong way

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Rub in the wrong way

 

Key Points

  • "Rub in the wrong way" means to irritate or annoy someone. (किसी को परेशान या परेशान करना)
  • Example: The constant criticism from his supervisor tends to rub him in the wrong way, making the work environment stressful for him.
  • The phrase is often used to caution against doing something that will make someone angry or upset.
  • In the given situation, the speaker is warning against annoying Raghav because it could cause him to oppose their proposal in the meeting.
  • The phrase "rub the wrong way" is a common idiom in English, and is often used in both formal and informal situations.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

  • "Pass the buck" means to avoid responsibility or pass a problem on to someone else. (जिम्मेदारी से बचने या किसी समस्या को किसी और पर डालने के लिए)
  • "Pour oil in troubled water" means to calm a tense or difficult situation. (किसी तनावपूर्ण या कठिन परिस्थिति को शांत करना)
  • "Loose the ground" means to experience a loss of support, stability, or advantage. (समर्थन, स्थिरता, या लाभ की हानि का अनुभव करना)

Question 78

Select the ANTONYM of the word 'repel' to fill in the blank.

Her bright blue eyes _________ everyone in the party.

  1. AOption (a)

    disgust 

  2. BOption (b)

    vacillate

  3. COption (c)

    attract

  4. DOption (d)

    amenable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

attract

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Attract

Key Points

  • Repel means to push away or reject. (दूर धकेलना या अस्वीकार करना)
  • Example: The strong odour of the insect repellent helped repel mosquitoes during the camping trip.
  • The antonym of "repel" is "attract", which means to draw towards or entice. (अपनी ओर आकर्षित करना या लुभाना)
  • Example: The vibrant colours of the flowers attract butterflies to the garden.
  • The sentence suggests that the woman's blue eyes had a positive effect on people at the party.
  • The use of "everyone" emphasizes that the woman's eyes had a broad appeal.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete sentence: Her bright blue eyes attract everyone in the party.

Additional Information

  • Disgust means to feel revulsion or strong disapproval. (घृणा या तीव्र अस्वीकृति महसूस करना)
  • Vacillate means to waver or be indecisive. (डगमगा जाना या अनिश्चित होना)
  • Amenable means willing to comply or cooperate. (अनुपालन या सहयोग करने को तैयार)

Question 79

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Ludicrous

  1. AOption (a)

    Ridiculous

  2. BOption (b)

    Insane

  3. COption (c)

    Wise

  4. DOption (d)

    Pathetic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Wise

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Wise.

Key Points

  • Ludicrous means ridiculous or absurd. (हास्यास्पद या बेतुका)
  • Example: The idea that pigs could fly seemed ludicrous, prompting laughter from the audience.
  • The antonym of ludicrous is wise, which means having good judgment or common sense. (अच्छा निर्णय या सामान्य ज्ञान होना)
  • Example: Seeking advice from the wise elder, she gained valuable insights into making important life decisions.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Ridiculous means foolishness, or contemptibility. (मूर्खता, या अवमानना)
  • Insane means mentally ill or crazy. (मानसिक रूप से बीमार या पागल)
  • Pathetic means pitiful or sad. (दयनीय या दुखद)

Question 80

Select the most appropriate option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

The car was manufactured by the company in a factory overseas.

  1. AOption (a)

    The factory overseas was used by the company to manufacture the car.

  2. BOption (b)

    The company manufactured the car in a factory overseas.

  3. COption (c)

    The car was being manufactured by the company in a factory overseas.

  4. DOption (d)

    The car was manufactured in a factory overseas by the company.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The company manufactured the car in a factory overseas.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: The company manufactured the car in a factory overseas.

Key Points

  • In active voice, the subject of the sentence should perform the action.
  • Structure of the Passive Voice: Subject (The car) + Auxiliary verb (was) + Main verb (manufactured) + By + Agen (The Company) + Adverbial Phrase (in a factory overseas)
  • Structure of the Active Voice: Subject (The company) + Verb (manufactured) + Object (the car) + Adverbial Phrase (in a factory overseas)
  • To convert the given sentence into active voice, we need to make the company the subject and the car the object of the sentence.
  • The sentence in option 2 correctly places the subject (company) before the verb (manufactured) and the object (car) after the verb.
  • The sentence is grammatically correct and conveys the same meaning as the given sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 81

Select the most appropriate idiom for the given statement.

Doing things in a hurry does not give fruitful results.

  1. AOption (a)

    Nothing succeeds like success.

  2. BOption (b)

    Still waters run deep.

  3. COption (c)

    Haste is waste.

  4. DOption (d)

    Wisdom is too high for a fool.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Haste is waste.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Haste is waste.

Key Points

  • "Haste is waste" is an idiom that means rushing or hurrying through something can lead to mistakes and poor results. (किसी काम में जल्दबाज़ी करने से ग़लतियाँ हो सकती हैं और परिणाम ख़राब हो सकते हैं)
  • Example: She rushed through the project without careful planning, but as they say, haste is waste, and she ended up having to redo most of the work.
  • The phrase emphasizes the importance of taking one's time and being careful in order to achieve better outcomes.
  • The idiom is often used to caution against impatience and encourage patience and thoroughness.
  • In terms of grammar, "haste" is a noun meaning speed or urgency, and "waste" is a verb meaning to use or spend carelessly or without purpose.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

  • "Nothing succeeds like success" is a proverb that means success breeds more success or that successful people or actions tend to beget more success. (सफलता अधिक सफलता उत्पन्न करती है या सफल लोग या कार्य अधिक सफलता उत्पन्न करते हैं)
  • "Still waters run deep" is an idiom that means someone who is quiet or reserved may have a rich or complex personality or inner life. (जो व्यक्ति शांत या संकोची है उसका व्यक्तित्व या आंतरिक जीवन समृद्ध या जटिल हो सकता है)
  • "Wisdom is too high for a fool" is a proverb that means foolish or unintelligent people are unable to understand or appreciate wisdom or knowledge. (मूर्ख या नासमझ लोग बुद्धि या ज्ञान को समझने या उसकी सराहना करने में असमर्थ हैं)

Question 82

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The garment business has made Archie rich.

  1. AOption (a)

    Archie has been made rich by the garment business.

  2. BOption (b)

    Archie have been made rich by the garment business.

  3. COption (c)

    Archie had been made rich by the garment business.

  4. DOption (d)

    Archie is made rich by the garment business.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Archie has been made rich by the garment business.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Archie has been made rich by the garment business.

Key Points

 

  • Passive voice is formed by using the object of the active sentence as the subject of the passive sentence and adding a form of the verb "to be" and the past participle of the main verb.
  • Structure of the Active Voice: Subject + Verb + Object
  • Structure of the Passive Voice: Object+ Auxiliary verb (has been)+ 3rd form of the Main verb (made) + Subject of the Active voice
  • In this sentence, "Archie" is the object of the active sentence, so it becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
  • The verb "has made" becomes "has been made" in the passive voice, and "rich" remains the same.
  • The phrase "by the garment business" is added to show who performed the action in the active sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 83

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given in brackets to fill in the blank.

The _________ (chill) of the sun on his face was a welcome respite from the chilly morning air.

  1. AOption (a)

    glow

  2. BOption (b)

    blush

  3. COption (c)

    warmth

  4. DOption (d)

    brightness

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

warmth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Warmth

Key Points

  • Chill means a feeling of coldness, often associated with a decrease in temperature or an unsettling atmosphere. (ठंडक का अहसास, जो अक्सर तापमान में कमी या अशांत वातावरण से जुड़ा होता है)
  • Example: The brisk wind brought a chill to the air, signalling the onset of winter.
  • Marked option Warmth means The quality or state of being warm; a comfortable and pleasant degree of heat. (गर्म होने की गुणवत्ता या अवस्था; गर्मी की एक आरामदायक और सुखद डिग्री)
  • Example: The cosy blanket provided a comforting warmth on the cold night.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

  • Glow means a soft, radiant light. (एक नरम, उज्ज्वल प्रकाश)
  • Blush means a reddening of the face due to embarrassment or shyness. (शर्मिंदगी या शर्म के कारण चेहरे का लाल होना)
  • Brightness means the quality of being full of light or shining. (प्रकाश से परिपूर्ण या चमकने का गुण)

Question 84

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Infer

  2. BOption (b)

    Neutral

  3. COption (c)

    Apprehensive

  4. DOption (d)

    Maintanence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Maintanence

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Maintanence

Key Points

  • The correct spelling of the word is "maintenance".
  • The mistake is in the placement of the "e" and "a" in the word.
  • The correct pronunciation is "main-tuh-nuhns".
  • Maintenance means the act of maintaining or keeping something in good condition.
  • Example: The maintenance team regularly checks and repairs the building's electrical systems to ensure they function properly.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • Infer means to deduce or conclude something from evidence or reasoning. (साक्ष्य या तर्क से कुछ निष्कर्ष निकालना)
  • Neutral means not taking sides or being impartial. (किसी का पक्ष न लेना या निष्पक्ष न होना)
  • Apprehensive means anxious or fearful about something that might happen. (किसी घटना के बारे में चिंतित या भयभीत होना)

Question 85

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. One of them may contain an error. Select the option that contains the error. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

By virtue off the power given to the leader, the followers accepted his decision.

  1. AOption (a)

    No error

  2. BOption (b)

    By virtue off

  3. COption (c)

    the power given to the leader

  4. DOption (d)

    the followers accepted his decision

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

By virtue off

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: By virtue off

Key Points

  • The correct phrase is 'By virtue of', not 'By virtue off'.
  • 'By virtue of' means 'because of' or 'due to'.
  • "Off" is often used as a preposition indicating a direction away from a particular place or position.
  • "Of" is a preposition used to show possession, origin, connection, or association.
  • The error is a spelling mistake, where 'of' has been misspelt as 'off'.
  • The correct sentence would be: "By virtue of the power given to the leader, the followers accepted his decision."

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 86

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly.

Education gives people the knowledge and skills they need to stay healthy, get jobs and foster tolerance.

  1. AOption (a)

    entrench

  2. BOption (b)

    distrust

  3. COption (c)

    lethargy

  4. DOption (d)

    endurance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

endurance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Endurance

Key Points

  • Tolerance means the ability to accept or endure differences, especially those in opinions, beliefs, or behaviours, without reacting negatively. (सहनशीलता)
  • Example: The community embraced cultural tolerance, celebrating diversity and understanding.
  • Marked option Endurance means the ability to endure or withstand hardship or adversity. (सहनशक्ति)
  • Example: Marathon runners showcase incredible endurance, pushing their physical limits over long distances.
  • In the given context, education helps people endure challenges and maintain their well-being.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

 

Additional Information

  • Entrench means to establish firmly or securely. (मोरचा करना)
  • Distrust means to have doubts or suspicions about someone or something. (संदेह)
  • Lethargy means a lack of energy or enthusiasm. (आलस्य)

Question 87

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. 

The doctor reassured Raman that the lump was benign, which brought immense relief to both him and his family.

  1. AOption (a)

    Harsh

  2. BOption (b)

    Rugged

  3. COption (c)

    Malignant

  4. DOption (d)

    Healthy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Malignant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Malignant

Key Points

  • Antonym means a word that has the opposite meaning of the given word.
  • The given word is "benign" which means not harmful. (हानिकारक नहीं)
  • Example: The doctor assured her that the tumour was benign and not cancerous.
  • The antonym of "benign" is "malignant" which means harmful. (हानिकारक)
  • Example: Unfortunately, the biopsy revealed that the growth was malignant, requiring immediate treatment.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate antonym of the underlined word is "malignant".

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Harsh means unpleasant or unkind. (अप्रिय या निर्दयी)
  • Rugged means rough or uneven. (खुरदुरा या असमान)
  • Healthy means in good physical or mental condition. (अ��्छी शारीरिक या मानसिक स्थिति)

Question 88

Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

A. disrupted, posing major threats to progress

B. global health systems have been

C. health services have been

D. overwhelmed and many essential

E. in fighting other deadly diseases

  1. AOption (a)

    BECDA

  2. BOption (b)

    EADCB

  3. COption (c)

    BDCAE

  4. DOption (d)

    DEABC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

BDCAE

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: BDCAE

Key Points

  • Part B: Sets the stage for the context of the sentence. It introduces the overarching topic.
  • Part D: Provides more information about the global health systems mentioned in the first part of the sentence. It suggests a challenge or problem faced by these systems.
  • Part C: Further specifies the context, narrowing down the focus to health services within the global health systems.
  • Part A: Completes the thought by explaining the consequence of the disruption mentioned earlier. It gives the reason why the global health systems and health services are overwhelmed.
  • Part E: Provides additional information about the situation, indicating that the disruption has implications for efforts in fighting other deadly diseases. It connects the disrupted health systems to a broader context.
  • So, when combined, the sentence reads: "Global health systems have been overwhelmed, and many essential health services have been disrupted, posing major threats to progress in fighting other deadly diseases."

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 89

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the following sentence.

As the orchestra began to play, the audience was transported to another world, enthralled by the psychological effects of the music and the skill of the musicians, who performed each note with precision and passion.

  1. AOption (a)

    influenced by the overall scenario

  2. BOption (b)

    impacted by feelings

  3. COption (c)

    swept away by the emotive power

  4. DOption (d)

    taken in by the effect on emotions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

swept away by the emotive power

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Swept away by the emotive power

Key Points

  • "Swept away" means to be completely carried away by something.
  • In this case the emotive power of the music.
  • "Emotive power" refers to the ability of the music to evoke strong emotions in the listener.
  • This option captures the idea of the audience being completely absorbed and moved by the music.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 90

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who is against the use of violence and war to settle disputes

  1. AOption (a)

    Fatalist

  2. BOption (b)

    Hedonist

  3. COption (c)

    Pacifist

  4. DOption (d)

    Misogynist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pacifist

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Pacifist.

Key Points

 

  • A pacifist is someone who opposes the use of violence and war to resolve conflicts. (कोई व्यक्ति जो संघर्षों को सुलझाने के लिए हिंसा और युद्ध के उपयोग का विरोध करता है)
  • Example: The pacifist's beliefs promote nonviolent solutions to conflicts.
  • The word comes from the Latin word "pax," meaning peace.
  • Pacifists may advocate for nonviolent resistance, diplomacy, or other peaceful means of conflict resolution.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

  • Fatalist: Someone who believes that events are predetermined and inevitable, often leading to a sense of resignation or acceptance. (कोई व्यक्ति जो मानता है कि घटनाएँ पूर्वनिर्धारित और अपरिहार्य हैं, तो अक्सर त्यागपत्र या स्वीकृति की भावना उत्पन्न होती है)
  • Hedonist: Someone who seeks pleasure and enjoyment, often at the expense of others or long-term consequences. (कोई व्यक्ति जो अक्सर दूसरों या दीर्घकालिक परिणामों की कीमत पर सुख और आनंद चाहता है)
  • Misogynist: Someone who hates or discriminates against women. (कोई व्यक्ति जो महिलाओं से नफरत करता है या उनके खिलाफ भेदभाव करता है)

Question 91

Identify the correct spelling of the underlined word.

Alcohol causes intocsication.

  1. AOption (a)

    intoxication

  2. BOption (b)

    intaxication

  3. COption (c)

    entoxkation

  4. DOption (d)

    intakcication

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

intoxication

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Intoxication.

Key Points

  • The correct spelling of the underlined word is "intoxication."
  • The word is spelled with an "x" and not a "k" or a "c."
  • The word is a noun that refers to the state of being drunk or under the influence of alcohol or drugs. (नशे में होने या शराब या नशीली दवाओं के प्रभाव में होने की अवस्था)
  • Example: His slurred speech and unsteady gait indicated a state of intoxication.
  • The word can also refer to the process of administering toxins or poisonous substances to a person or animal.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 92

Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

P. so they design the advertisement of products in such a way

Q. the main target consumers of food companies

R. that consumers are stimulated to buy them repeatedly

S. are children and youth of the country

  1. AOption (a)

    QRSP

  2. BOption (b)

    RPQS

  3. COption (c)

    PRQS

  4. DOption (d)

    QSPR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

QSPR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: QSPR.

Key Points

  • Part Q: Introduces the subject of the sentence, specifying who is being discussed.
  • Part S: Provides additional information about the main target consumers mentioned earlier. It further defines the demographic group.
  • Part P: Introduces the action taken by food companies in response to the target consumer demographic. It sets the stage for explaining the strategy employed.
  • Part R: Completes the sentence by explaining the purpose of the advertisements mentioned earlier. It indicates the desired outcome or effect on consumers.
  • So, when combined, the sentence reads: "The main target consumers of food companies are children and youth of the country, so they design the advertisement of products in such a way that consumers are stimulated to buy them repeatedly."

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 93

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

The team of scientists were conducting experiments to test its hypothesis.

  1. AOption (a)

    experiments to test

  2. BOption (b)

    The team of scientists

  3. COption (c)

    its hypothesis

  4. DOption (d)

    were conducting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

were conducting

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: were conducting

Key Points

  • The error in the given sentence is in the subject-verb agreement.
  • The subject-verb agreement is a grammatical rule that states that the verb in a sentence should agree in number with its subject.
  • In this case, "team" is a collective noun, referring to a group of individuals working together.
  • When the collective noun is the subject of the sentence, it is treated as a singular entity.
  • So, the word "team" is a collective noun, and when it is the subject of the sentence, it should take a singular verb form, which is "was" in this case, instead of "were."
  • The correct verb should be "was conducting" to match the singular subject "team."
  • The correct sentence should be: "The team of scientists was conducting experiments to test its hypothesis."

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 94

Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

P. due to the lofty hilly terrain, curves and cliffs

Q. the route to Badrinath

R. is one of the most arduous one

S. amidst the most scenically beautiful place on the earth

  1. AOption (a)

    QRPS

  2. BOption (b)

    QSPR

  3. COption (c)

    PRSQ

  4. DOption (d)

    PQRS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

QRPS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: QRPS

Key Points

  • Part Q: Sets the context by specifying the subject of the sentence.
  • Part R: Provides information about the nature of the route mentioned earlier, indicating that it is challenging or difficult.
  • Part P: Explains the reason for the arduous nature of the route. It provides additional details about the challenging features of the terrain.
  • Part S: Adds another layer of information, highlighting the scenic beauty of the place. It gives context to why the route, despite its challenges, might be worth traversing.
  • So, when combined, the sentence reads: "The route to Badrinath is one of the most arduous ones due to the lofty hilly terrain, curves, and cliffs, amidst the most scenically beautiful place on the earth."

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 95

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Fixation

  1. AOption (a)

    Formulation

  2. BOption (b)

    Indifference

  3. COption (c)

    Inclination

  4. DOption (d)

    Reformation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Indifference

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Indifference'.

Key Points

  • Antonyms are words with opposite meanings.
  • Fixation means a strong attachment or obsession with something. (किसी चीज़ के प्रति गहरा लगाव या जुनून)
  • Example: Her fixation on collecting vintage stamps led her to search for rare pieces at every opportunity.
  • Marked option Indifference means lack of interest or concern. (रुचि या चिंता की कमी)
  • Example: Despite the exciting news, his indifference to the project was evident as he barely reacted to the announcement.
  • Therefore, indifference is the most appropriate antonym for fixation.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Formulation means the process of creating or developing something. (किसी चीज़ को बनाने या विकसित करने की प्रक्रिया)
  • Inclination means a tendency or preference towards something. (किसी चीज़ के प्रति प्रवृत्ति या प्राथमिकता)
  • Reformation means the act of improving or changing something for the better. (किसी चीज़ को बेहतरी के लिए सुधारने या बदलने की क्रिया)

Direction : In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

The solar system is made up of the sun, planets, moons, asteroids, and comets that 1. _________ around it. Its mysteries and wonders have captured the imagination of people from all walks of life, and it continues to be an area of active research and exploration. The sun is at the centre of the solar system and is the largest object in it. The eight planets in the solar system, 2. __________ Earth, orbit around the sun in nearly circular paths. While the sun is at the centre of the solar system and dominates its gravitational pull, each planet has its own unique set of characteristics that makes it a fascinating object to study. Each planet in the solar system has unique characteristics and features. 3. ___________ planets, such as Mercury and Venus, are small and rocky, while others, like Jupiter and Saturn, are much larger and made up mostly of gas. The outer planets, Uranus and Neptune, are 4. ____________ as 'ice giants' because they contain more water, ammonia, and methane than the gas giants. In addition to the planets, the solar system also has numerous moons, asteroids, and comets. These objects provide important 5. ___________ about the formation and evolution of the solar system.

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    form

  2. BOption (b)

    orbit

  3. COption (c)

    stick

  4. DOption (d)

    fly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

orbit

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Orbit

Key Points

  • Orbit means the path of a celestial object around a larger celestial body, such as a planet around a star. (एक बड़े खगोलीय पिंड के चारों ओर एक खगोलीय वस्तु का पथ)
  • The word "orbit" can also be used metaphorically to refer to a regular or predictable course or pattern of activity.
  • Example: The moon's orbit around the Earth takes about 27 days.
  • In this context of the sentence orbit is the most appropriate word to fill in.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

  • Form refers to the shape or structure of something. (किसी चीज का आकार या संरचना)
  • Stick means to adhere or cling to something. (किसी चीज़ से चिपकना या चिपकना)
  • Fly means to move through the air under control, typically with wings. (नियंत्रण में हवा में घूमना, आमतौर पर पंखों के साथ)

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    excluding

  2. BOption (b)

    diluting

  3. COption (c)

    dissolving

  4. DOption (d)

    including

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

including

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Including.

Key Points

  • Including means to add or involve something or someone in a group or activity. (किसी समूह या गतिविधि में किसी चीज़ या व्यक्ति को जोड़ना या शामिल करना)
  • Example: Including all the necessary ingredients, she prepared a delicious meal for her guests.
  • The sentence suggests that something is being added or involved, rather than removed or reduced.
  • So, 'including' is the most appropriate word here.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • Excluding means to leave out or reject someone or something. (किसी को या किसी चीज़ को छोड़ना या अस्वीकार करना)
  • Diluting means to make a substance weaker or less concentrated by adding another substance. (किसी पदार्थ में कोई अन्य पदार्थ मिलाकर उसे कमजोर या कम सांद्रित करना)
  • Dissolving means mixing a solid substance with a liquid so that it becomes part of the liquid. (किसी ठोस पदार्थ को किसी तरल पदार्थ के साथ मिलाना ताकि वह तरल का हिस्सा बन जाए)

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    Few

  2. BOption (b)

    Some

  3. COption (c)

    Many

  4. DOption (d)

    A lot

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Some

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Some.

Key Points

  • Some indicate a quantity that is more than "few" but less than "many" or "a lot".
  • Grammatically, "some" is a determiner that is used to refer to an unspecified or indefinite number or amount of people or things.
  • Example: Some of the students were absent from class today.
  • As a result, 'some' is the appropriate option to fill in the blank 3.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

  • Few indicate a small quantity or number.
  • Many indicate a large quantity or number.
  • 'A lot' is an informal way of indicating a large quantity or number.

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    classified

  2. BOption (b)

    magnified

  3. COption (c)

    restricted

  4. DOption (d)

    indulged

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

classified

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Classified

Key Points

  • Classified means arranged or organized into categories or groups. (श्रेणियों या समूहों में व्यवस्थित या संगठित)
  • Example: The documents were classified based on their importance.
  • It is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank 4.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Magnified means made bigger or more prominent. (बड़ा या अधिक प्रमुख बनाया गया)
  • Restricted means limited or confined. (सीमित)
  • Indulged means allowing oneself to enjoy something. (स्वयं को किसी चीज़ का आनंद लेने की अनुमति देना)

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    sets

  2. BOption (b)

    derivations

  3. COption (c)

    clues

  4. DOption (d)

    blases

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

clues

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Clues

Key Points

  • Clues refer to hints or indications that help solve a problem or mystery. (संकेत जो किसी समस्या या रहस्य को सुलझाने में मदद करते हैं)
  • In this context, the blank is being filled with a word that is related to solving a problem, so "clues" is the most appropriate option.
  • Grammatically, "clues" is a noun that functions as the object of the preposition "of" in the phrase "clues of a problem".

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

  • Sets could refer to groups of objects or collections. (वस्तुओं या संग्रहों का समूह)
  • Derivations refers to the process of deriving or deducing something. (किसी चीज़ को प्राप्त करने या निकालने की प्रक्रिया)
  • Blases refer to a state of boredom or indifference. (ऊब या उदासीनता की स्थिति)

100 questions in the full paper