SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 09 Aug, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'YI 20' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) JMN

Option 2) HKL

Option 3) CGH

Option 4) PST

Here, 'CGH' is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: **(**1st number × 2) + 3 = 2nd number

Now,

Option 1) 5 : 13

→ (5 × 2) + 3

→ 10 + 3 = 13.

Option 2) 2 : 6

→ (2 × 2) + 3

→ 4 + 3 = 7 ≠ 6

Option 3) 3 : 9

→ (3 × 2) + 3

→ 6 + 3 = 9.

Option 4) 6 : 15

→ (6 × 2) + 3

→ 12 + 3 = 15.

So, odd number pair is '2 : 6'.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

So, '20' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

Given: J × K - L ÷ M + N

It means: J is the wife of K, K is the Brother of L, L is the Father of M, M is the Mother of N.

So, K is the 'Father's brother' of M.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The triangles are:

So, there are '13' triangles in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Given word: HEARING 

Now, arranged in alphabetical order:

Here, 'Three'  letters 'E I N' will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word HEARING is arranged in alphabetical order.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 5 ÷ 8 + 4 × 2 - 9 = ? 

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

⇒ 5 × 8 - 4 ÷ 2 + 9 = ? 

⇒ 5 × 8 - 2 + 9 = ?

⇒ 40 - 2 + 9 = ?

⇒ 49 - 2 = 47.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

Given: L / M × D - K

It means: L is the Brother of M, M is the Sister of D, D is the Father of K.

So, L is the 'Father's brother' of K.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number ÷ 2) - 2 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 34 is related to 15 

⇒ (34 ÷ 2) - 2

⇒ 17 - 2 = 15.

For, 44 is related to 20

⇒ (44 ÷ 2) - 2

⇒ 22 - 2 = 20.

Similarly, 52 related to

⇒ (52 ÷ 2) - 2

⇒ 26 - 2 = 24.

So, 52 will be related to 24.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

So, '696' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Statements:

All napkins are whisks.

Some whisks are kettles.

No kettle is a bowl.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some napkins are whisks - True (Because, All napkins are whisks also implies that some napkins are whisks).

II. Some kettles are whisks - True (Because, Some whisks are kettles).

So, Both conclusions II and III follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

For, 'AJK is related to BKL'

For, 'DOT is related to EPU'

Similarly, for 'PJO'

So, 'PJO' will be related to 'QKP'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'LLRE' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number + 2nd number) × 5 = 3rd number.

Given,

14 - 15 - 145

⇒ (14 + 15) × 5

⇒ 29 × 5 = 145.

And, 12 - 27 - 195

⇒ (12 + 27) × 5

⇒ 39 × 5 = 195.

Similarly, for Option 2: 17 - 31 - 240

⇒ (17 + 31) × 5

⇒ 48 × 5 = 240.

 Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

Given: 16 June 2001 is Saturday.

Now,

16 June 2001 to 16 June 2009 = 8 Years (6 Ordinary Year and 2 Leap Year).

And, In 8 Years = 2 Leap years and 6 Ordinary Year.

So, 2 Leap Year has 4 odd days,

And, 6 Ordinary Year has 6 odd days.

Total odd days = 4 + 6 = 10.

10 odd days → 10/7 = 1 week and 3 odd days.

then, 16 June 2009 will be Saturday + 3 = Tuesday.

Now, the number of days between 16 June 2009 to 21 June 2009 = 5 days

So, 21 June 2009 will be Tuesday + 5 = Sunday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

‘CRAMP' is coded as '29715' 

'MACRO' is coded as '52397’,

Here, 'CRAM' is common in both the statement, so the remaining number is the code for the remaining letter.

So, 'P' will be coded as '1'. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: **(**1st number)² + 1st number = 2nd number

Now,

Option 1) 14 ∶ 210

→ 14² + 14

→ 196 + 14 = 210.

Option 2) 25 ∶ 650

→ 252 + 25

→ 625 + 25 = 650.

Option 3) 11 ∶ 132

→ 112 + 11

→ 121 + 11 = 132.

Option 4) 19 ∶ 342

→ 192 + 19

→ 361 + 19 = 380 ≠ 342.

So, odd number pair is '19 ∶ 342'.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'JBOXV' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

So, '65' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'FXS' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Step I: The triangle is getting flipped to the next image and then shifted it's place in clockwise direction.

Step II: The arrow is getting rotated in clockwise direction in each next images.

So, option 1 will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

For, ‘HPRM is written as OWYT’,

For, 'JRTO is written as QYAV',

Similarly, for 'ELNJ'

So, 'ELNJ' will be written as 'LSUQ'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• Garba dance is a popular folk dance of the state of Gujarat in India.
• The dance is performed during the nine-day Hindu festival of Navratri, which celebrates the victory of good over evil.
• Garba involves circular movements by a group of dancers who move around a central point, accompanied by music played on traditional instruments like dhol, tabla, and harmonium.
• The dance is characterized by colorful costumes, rhythmic clapping, and energetic footwork, and is a symbol of the cultural heritage of Gujarat.

Additional Information

• Bihar is a state in eastern India and is known for its rich history and culture. 
• Jhumar, Jat Jatin, Kajari and Paika are some of the folk dances of Bihar.
• Goa is a small coastal state in western India and is famous for its beaches, seafood, and nightlife. 
• Goa has its own unique folk dances like the Fugdi and Dekhni.
• Assam is a state in northeastern India and is known for its tea gardens, wildlife, and culture.
• The traditional dance forms of Assam include the Bihu and Sattriya.

The correct answer is to Provide pension to unorganised sector workers.

 Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM) scheme is a pension scheme for unorganized sector workers.
• The scheme aims to provide financial security to workers in their old age.
• Workers between the age of 18-40 years with a monthly income of less than Rs. 15,000 are eligible for the scheme.
• The workers have to contribute a small monthly amount towards the pension and the government will also contribute an equal amount.
• The scheme provides a minimum assured pension of Rs. 3000 per month to the beneficiaries.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana provides financial assistance to pregnant women for their healthcare needs.
• This is a Direct Bank Transfer (DBT) program that is sponsored centrally.
• Expectant mothers and lactating women receive a financial incentive of ₹ 5,000 (paid in three installments) immediately into their bank or post office accounts.
• Pradhan Mantri Vidya Lakshmi Yojana provides education loans to students.
• The Vidya Lakshmi Portal is a unique platform designed for students who are looking for an education loan.
• It prepares applications for government scholarships and educational loans and offers students a single-window electronic platform to access information.
• Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana provides insurance coverage to farmers against crop loss or damage due to natural calamities.
• Beginning with the Kharif 2016 season, the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, New Delhi, introduced this program in India.

The correct answer is the Eleventh Five Year Plan.

 Key Points

• The global financial crisis that started in 2008 overlapped with the Eleventh Five five-year plan in India.
• The Eleventh Five Year Plan was implemented from 2007 to 2012, and aimed to achieve inclusive growth and development.
• The global financial crisis had a significant impact on India's economy, leading to a slowdown in growth and affecting various sectors such as exports, manufacturing, and finance.
• The government of India implemented various measures to mitigate the impact of the crisis, such as fiscal stimulus packages, monetary policy interventions, and structural reforms.

Additional Information

• The Ninth Five-Year Plan was implemented from 1997 to 2002.
• ​The primary goals of the Ninth Five-Year Plan were to boost the nation's economic growth and address historical injustices.
• The Tenth Five-Year Plan was implemented from 2002 to 2007.
• ​The following are the Tenth Five-Year Plan's primary goals:
• Achieve annual GDP growth of 8%.
• 5% decrease in the poverty rate by the year 2007.
• supplying high-quality, rewarding work, at minimum, to the new labor force growth.
• The Twelfth Five-Year Plan was implemented from 2012 to 2017.
• ​The Twelfth Plan's motto is "Faster, More Sustainable, and More Inclusive Growth."
• The National Development Council (NDC) was the last body to grant the five-year plans formal approval.

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Himachal Pradesh is NOT a major producer of fertilizers.
• Gujarat is one of the major producers of fertilizers in India with several large fertilizer companies such as Gujarat State Fertilizers Chemicals Ltd. (GSFC) and Gujarat Narmada Valley Fertilizers Chemicals Ltd. (GNFC).
• Maharashtra is also a major producer of fertilizers with companies like Rashtriya Chemicals Fertilizers Ltd. (RCF) and National Fertilizers Ltd. (NFL) having their units in the state.
• Uttar Pradesh is also a major producer of fertilizers with companies like Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Ltd. (IFFCO) and National Fertilizers Ltd. (NFL) having their units in the state.

Additional Information

• A natural or synthetic material that contains chemical ingredients (such as nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K)) to enhance plant growth and productivity is called a fertilizer.
• Fertilisers are chemicals or substances that are added to soil to improve its fertility and promote plant growth.
• Fertilizers are concentrated sources of nutrients for plants, typically in the form of pellets, granules, liquids, or powders.

The correct answer is Kshipra River.

 Key Points

• Simhastha fair is a major Hindu festival that is held every 12 years in the city of Ujjain in Madhya Pradesh, India.
• It is one of the four Kumbh Melas, which are the largest religious gatherings in the world.
• The fair is held on the banks of the Kshipra River, which is considered a sacred river in Hinduism.
• During the fair, millions of devotees take a dip in the river to cleanse their sins and attain salvation.
• The fair also includes various religious rituals, cultural events, and a grand procession of sadhus and saints.

Additional Information

• Son River is a major tributary of the Ganges River and flows through the states of Jharkhand, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh.
• The oldest river bridge in India, the Koilwar Bridge, spans the Sone River and links Patna with Arrah.
• The nation over, the Sone River is well-known for its sand.
• The Ganga River is also known as the Ganges River and is considered the most sacred river in Hinduism. 
• In the state of Uttar Pradesh, the Haridwar Fair is held along the Ganga River.
• Gandak river is a tributary of the Ganges River and flows through Nepal and India.
• ​In Sonepur, Bihar, at the Ganges River confluence (Gandak), the Sonepur Cattle Fair takes place on Kartik Poornima, the full moon day, between the months of November and December.

The correct answer is 2.

Key Points

• Tamil Nadu's Archana Suseendran won 2 gold medals at AFI Indian Grand Prix 2 held in Kerala on 27 March 2023.
• Archana Suseendran is an Indian sprinter who specializes in the 100m and 200m events.
• AFI Indian Grand Prix is an annual athletics competition organized by the Athletics Federation of India.

Additional Information

• The second leg of the Indian Grand Prix was held in Thiruvananthapuram on March 27, while the third and fourth legs were held in Bengaluru, Karnataka, on April 10 and 15, respectively.
• There were eighteen events in the inaugural Grand Prix, with ten for men and ten for women.
• Men's events featured shot put, javelin throw, long jump, triple jump, high jump, 200, 800, and 5,000 meters, as well as 400 meters of hurdles.
• Long jump, high jump, shot put, 200, 800, 5,000, and 400-meter hurdle events were all open to women.

The correct answer is Vembanad Lake.

 Key Points

• Vembanad Lake is the longest lake in India, with a length of about 96.5 km.
• It is located in the state of Kerala and is the largest brackish water lake in India.
• The lake is fed by several rivers, including the Periyar, Muvattupuzha, and Pamba.
• The lake is an important tourist destination and supports a variety of aquatic life, including fish, crabs, and shrimp.

Additional Information

• Kanjia Lake:
• It is a freshwater lake located in Odisha and is known for its rich biodiversity, including several species of migratory birds.
• The wetland's entire area, including the diving facilities, is 105 hectares.
• Ansupa Lake:
• It is a freshwater lake located in Odisha and is known for its scenic beauty and as a popular picnic spot.
• Ansupa Lake is a 231-hectare freshwater oxbow lake with a horseshoe form that is located in the Cuttack district across from Banki on the left bank of the Mahanadi River.
• Wular Lake:
• ​It is a freshwater lake located in Jammu and Kashmir and is the largest natural freshwater lake in India.
• It is fed by the Jhelum River and is an important source of fish for the local population.

The correct answer is Irrigation.

 Key Points

• Rainwater harvesting is the process of collecting and storing rainwater for future use.
• The most suitable application of rainwater harvesting is irrigation, which has the following advantages:
• Reduces water bills:
• Irrigation accounts for a significant portion of water usage in households and industries.
• By using rainwater for irrigation, one can reduce their water bills and save money.
• Conserves water:
• ​Rainwater harvesting helps in conserving water as it reduces the demand for freshwater, which is a scarce resource in many regions.
• Environmentally friendly:
• Rainwater harvesting is an environmentally friendly practice as it reduces the strain on freshwater sources and helps in replenishing groundwater.
• Improves soil quality:
• Rainwater is free from chemicals and additives, which makes it an ideal source of water for plants.
• It also helps in improving soil quality and fertility.

Additional Information

• Using rainwater for cooking is not a suitable application of rainwater harvesting as the water may not be suitable for drinking without proper treatment.
• Using rainwater for pets is not a suitable application of rainwater harvesting as the water may contain harmful bacteria and parasites that can cause health problems.
• Using rainwater for industrial purposes may not be feasible as the water quality requirements for industrial processes are often stringent, and rainwater may not meet those standards.

The correct answer is the Act of 1947.

Key Points

• Act of 1947 is also known as the Indian Independence Act.
• This Act was passed by the British Parliament on July 18, 1947, and received royal assent on July 18, 1947.
• The Act provided for the end of British rule in India and the partition of India into two separate countries, India and Pakistan.
• The Act also provided for the establishment of two independent dominions, India and Pakistan, within the British Commonwealth of Nations.
• The Act came into effect on August 15, 1947, and marked the end of British colonial rule in India after almost 200 years.

Additional Information

• Act of 1858 is also known as the Government of India Act.
• It transferred the administration of India from the East India Company to the British Crown.
• Act of 1892 is the Indian Councils Act.
• It expanded the legislative councils and provided for the election of some members.
• Act of 1961 is the Indian Citizenship Act.
• It provided for the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship.

The correct answer is 1972.

Key Points

• The Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) is responsible for promoting and funding research in history and archaeology in India.
• It is headquartered in New Delhi and has regional centers in different parts of the country.
• The ICHR was established in 1972 under the Ministry of Education, but it became an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture in 1979.

Additional Information

• The Department of Higher Education, several Indian states, individual donations, and the earnings from the sale of the ICHR's publications are among the funding sources that the ICHR gets.
• The historian Ram Sharan Sharma was the organization's first nominee for chairman.
• Irfan Habib, Tapan Raychaudhuri, and Barun De are among the historians who have held positions as members or employees of the ICHR.

The correct answer is Shah Jahan.

Key Points

• Moti Masjid is a white marble mosque situated in the Agra Fort complex in Uttar Pradesh, India.
• It was built by Mughal emperor Shah Jahan between 1648 and 1654 AD.
• The mosque has three domes and four minarets, and it is considered one of the finest examples of Mughal architecture.
• Shah Jahan built Moti Masjid for his personal use and it was used by the Mughal royal family for private prayers.

Additional Information

• Jahangir was the fourth Mughal emperor who ruled from 1605 to 1627 AD.
• He was known for his love of art, poetry, and nature.
• Akbar was the third Mughal emperor who ruled from 1556 to 1605 AD.
• He was known for his religious tolerance, administrative reforms, and military conquests.
• Aurangzeb was the sixth Mughal emperor who ruled from 1658 to 1707 AD.
• He was known for his strict Islamic policies, military campaigns, and expansion of the Mughal Empire.

The correct answer is Kelucharan Mohapatra.

Key Points

• Kelucharan Mohapatra was honoured with the Padma Vibhushan in 2000 for his contributions to the field of Odissi dance.
• He was a renowned Odissi dancer, choreographer, and guru who played a key role in popularizing the dance form.
• Odissi is a classical Indian dance form that originated in the eastern state of Odisha.

Additional Information

• Kelucharan Mohapatra is considered one of the pioneers of modern Odissi dance and is credited with introducing new elements to the traditional form.
• Madhavi Mudgal has also worked extensively to promote Odissi dance and has collaborated with artists from different parts of the world.
• Sanjukta Panigrahi was known for her graceful movements and expressive storytelling through dance.
• She was posthumously awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2004.
• Priyambada Mohanty Hejmadi is a noted Odissi dancer and teacher who has trained under Kelucharan Mohapatra.

The correct answer is 2016.

Key Points

• Equitas Holdings received approval from RBI to launch a small finance bank in the year 2016.
• Equitas Holdings is a non-banking financial company (NBFC) that provides microfinance, vehicle finance, and housing finance services.
• The approval from RBI was granted under the guidelines for licensing of small finance banks in the country.

Additional Information

• Small finance banks are a new category of banks in India that aim to provide financial inclusion and serve the unbanked and underbanked sections of society.
• Banks that hold an SFB license are authorized to offer lending and deposit acceptance as basic banking services.
• Their objective is to extend financial inclusion to segments of the economy that are not catered to by other banks, including small and marginalized businesses, unorganized sector entities, micro and small industries, and small and business units.

The correct answer is Rosy Meena Paulraj.

Key Points

• Rosy Meena Paulraj broke her own pole vault National record of 4.20 m to set a new record of 4.21 m at the National Open Athletics Championships in October 2022 at Bengaluru.
• Rosy Meena Paulraj is a professional pole vaulter from Tamil Nadu, India.
• Pole vaulting is a track and field event in which a person uses a long, flexible pole to jump over a bar.

Additional Information

• Mahi Patel is a long-distance runner from Gujarat, India.
• Pavithra Venkatesh is a pole vaulter from Tamil Nadu, India.
• At the 60th National Open athletics meet, Pavithra Venkatesh took home the gold in the women's pole vault competition.
• VS Surekha is a pole vaulter from India.
• She currently owns the 4.15 m national mark, which was established in 2014 at the National Open Championships in New Delhi.

The correct answer is 352 to 360.

Key Points

• The Emergency Provisions in the Indian Constitution are related to the articles 352 to 360.
• These provisions allow the central government to take control of the state government in case of an emergency situation like war, external aggression or armed rebellion.
• Article 352 deals with the proclamation of emergency, while articles 353 to 355 outline the effect of the emergency on the powers of the central government, state government, and the fundamental rights of citizens.
• Article 356 empowers the President to dismiss a state government and impose the President's rule in case of failure of constitutional machinery in a state.

Additional Information

• Articles 309 to 312 deal with the provisions related to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons serving the Union or a State.
• Articles 343 to 351 deal with the provisions related to the official language of the Union and the States.
• Articles 330 to 342 deals with the provisions related to the representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.

The correct answer is non-tax revenue receipts.

 Key Points

• Dividends received by the Government from Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) are considered as non-tax revenue receipts.
• Non-tax revenue receipts are the revenue generated by the government through means other than taxes, such as dividends, profits, fees, and fines.

Additional Information

• Capital expenditure refers to the expenses incurred by the government for the creation of assets such as buildings, machinery, etc.
• Capex is mostly a one-time investment in non-consumable assets used to support a company's future expansion and preserve current operating levels.
• Capital receipts are the receipts of the government that lead to an increase in its assets and liabilities, such as borrowings, disinvestment, and recovery of loans.
• They also make mention of cash inflows.
• Both debt and non-debt receipts are considered capital receipts.
• Tax revenue receipts are the revenue generated by the government through taxes such as income tax, GST, etc. 
• They come from either indirect or direct taxes.
• It is the primary source of the government's regular revenue.​

The correct answer is Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Key Points

• The assertion that SHGs have emerged as an effective model for microfinance in India is true.
• The reason given to support the assertion is also true - SHGs are able to pool resources and negotiate better loan terms with microfinance institutions.
• Furthermore, SHGs are often better suited to meet the financial needs of low-income individuals and communities, compared to traditional banking institutions.
• Microfinance is the provision of financial services to low-income individuals or groups who typically lack access to traditional banking services.
• Self-help groups (SHGs) are community-based organizations comprising 10-20 members, usually women, who pool their savings and lend to each other.
• SHGs have gained popularity in India as a means of providing microfinance due to their ability to negotiate better loan terms and their focus on financial education and the empowerment of women.

The correct answer is The speculative demand for money will be zero.

 Key Points

• When the rate of interest is at its maximum, it becomes expensive to borrow money, which reduces the demand for loans and investments.
• As a result, the speculative demand for money becomes zero because there are fewer opportunities for profitable investments.
• The demand for bonds may also decrease as investors may prefer to hold onto their cash instead of investing in fixed-income securities.
• The speculative demand for money decreases when the interest rates are high.
• The supply of money is not affected by the interest rates and is determined by the central bank.
• Speculative demand for money refers to the demand for money that is held for the purpose of making speculative investments or taking advantage of future opportunities.
• Demand for bonds refers to the demand for fixed-income securities that pay a fixed rate of interest over a set period of time.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• The Men's FIH Hockey World Cup-2023 was held in the state of Odisha in India.
• The tournament was organized by the International Hockey Federation (FIH).
• The event took place at the Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
• Sixteen teams from around the world participated in the tournament.
• This was the second time that Odisha hosted the Men's Hockey World Cup, the first being in 2018.

Additional Information

• Maharashtra has hosted several international sports events such as the Indian Premier League (IPL) and the Commonwealth Youth Games.
• Jharkhand has hosted several national level hockey tournaments.
• Ranchi was the home of the city-based Ranchi Rays and hosted multiple Hockey India League games between 2012 and 2015.
• For the first time, India will play host to the Asian Champions Trophy women's hockey competition in Ranchi.
• West Bengal has hosted several international sports events such as the FIFA U-17 World Cup and the Kolkata Marathon.

The correct answer is Atropa belladonna.

 Key Points

• Atropa belladonna is a perennial herbaceous plant in the nightshade family Solanaceae.
• It is commonly known as a deadly nightshade and is native to Europe, North Africa, and Western Asia.
• In alternative medicine, Atropa belladonna is used as an aid in treating arthritis pain, colds, or hay fever due to its anti-inflammatory properties.
• However, it is important to note that Atropa belladonna is highly toxic and can cause serious health problems if consumed in large amounts.

Additional Information

• Arachis hypogaea is the scientific name for peanuts.
• They are a legume crop that is widely cultivated for their edible seeds.
• Cynodon dactylon is a perennial grass that is commonly known as Bermuda grass.
• It is often used as a turf grass in warm climates.
• Cicer arietinum is the scientific name for chickpeas.
• They are a legume crop that is widely cultivated for their edible seeds.
• It is important to note that none of these options are used in alternative medicine for treating arthritis pain, colds or hay fever.

The correct answer is Athletics.

 Key Points

• Dr Ajmer Singh is associated with the game of Athletics, which involves track and field events like running, jumping, and throwing.
• He has been honored with the prestigious Arjuna Award for his contribution to the sport of Athletics in India.
• Dr Ajmer Singh has represented India in several international events like the Asian Games, Commonwealth Games, and the Olympics.
• He has also served as a coach and mentor to several young athletes in the country, helping them to achieve their full potential in the sport.

Additional Information

• Football is a popular team sport played with a ball.
• Britain is where modern football had its start in the 1800s.
• Table Tennis is an indoor racket sport played on a table.
• When the game was first created in England at the beginning of the 20th century, it was known by the trade name Ping-Pong.
• When the former Ping-Pong Association, founded in 1902, was resurrected in 1921–1922, the term table tennis was chosen.
• Badminton is another racket sport played with a shuttlecock and is also a popular sport in India.
• The game of badminton got its name when the Duke of Beaufort introduced the sport to his country estate in 1873.

The correct answer is Faraday's law.

 Key Points

• Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction states that the magnitude of the induced EMF (Electromotive Force) in a circuit is equal to the time rate of change of magnetic flux through the circuit.
• This law was discovered by Michael Faraday in 1831 and is one of the fundamental laws of electromagnetism.

Additional Information

• Coulomb's law is a law of electrostatics that states that the force between two charged particles is proportional to the product of their charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
• Kirchhoff's laws are two laws that describe the behavior of electrical circuits: Kirchhoff's current law states that the total current entering a junction in a circuit must equal the total current leaving the junction, while Kirchhoff's voltage law states that the sum of the voltages around any closed loop in a circuit must equal zero.
• Laplace's law is a law of hydrodynamics that describes the relationship between pressure, surface tension, and curvature in a liquid.

The correct answer is 63.

Key Points

• The number of elements known at the time of Mendeleev was 63.
• This is because Mendeleev's periodic table included 63 elements, arranged in order of increasing atomic mass.
• Some of the elements he predicted, such as gallium and germanium, were discovered later and found to fit into the gaps he had left in the table.
• Today, we know of 118 elements in total, with the most recent additions being nihonium, moscovium, tennessine, and oganesson.

Additional Information

• Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeleev is known for creating the first periodic table of elements.
• He arranged the elements based on their atomic mass and observed that there was a periodicity in their properties.
• Mendeleev predicted the existence of some elements that were yet to be discovered, and left gaps in his periodic table for them.
• 57 is the number of elements known at the time of Swedish chemist Jundefinedns Jacob Berzelius, who is known for discovering several new elements and developing the modern system of chemical symbols.
• 53 is the number of elements known at the time of English chemist John Dalton, who is known for developing the atomic theory of matter.
• 67 is the number of elements known at the time of American chemist Glenn T. Seaborg, who discovered several new elements and contributed to the development of the actinide series of elements.

The correct answer is Malini Awasthi.

Key Points

• Malini Awasthi is an award-winning Bhojpuri folk singer.
• She performs Thumri and Kajri songs in addition to singing in Bhojpuri, Awadhi, and Hindi.
• In 2016, the Indian government bestowed upon her the civilian title of Padma Shri.

Additional Information

• Bhojpuri folk music is a traditional music genre from the Bhojpuri-speaking regions of Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Jharkhand.
• Ila Arun is an Indian actress and singer.
• She is known for her work in Rajasthani and folk music.
• Rabbi Shergill is a singer and composer.
• He is known for his fusion of Punjabi folk music with rock and pop.
• Papon is a singer and composer.
• He is known for his work in Assamese folk music.

The correct answer is To increase private sector investment in tourism and hospitality.

 Key Points

• The objective of the 'Swadesh Darshan 2.0 Scheme' is to increase private sector investment in tourism and hospitality.
• The scheme aims to develop theme-based tourist circuits and promote tourism infrastructure in the country.
• The focus is on developing and promoting lesser-known destinations and creating employment opportunities in the tourism sector.
• 'Swadesh Darshan 2.0 Scheme' is a part of the government's larger initiative to boost tourism in India, which includes the 'Atithi Devo Bhava' campaign and the 'Incredible India' campaign.

Additional Information

• The Ministry of Tourism initiated the "National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Augmentation Drive (PRASAD)" in 2014–15 with the goal of developing pilgrimage locations holistically.
• The PRASHAD Scheme aims to enhance the religious tourism experience by identifying and developing pilgrimage sites throughout India.
• In order to offer a comprehensive religious tourism experience, it seeks to integrate pilgrimage sites in a planned, sustainable, and prioritized manner.

Given:

Ravi initially had a certain number of chocolates, Bhanu =  80% of the number of chocolates that Ravi initially had.

Ravi gave 10% of his chocolates to his sister while Bhanu received from his uncle another 35% of the number of chocolates he initially had.

Bhanu finally had 54 chocolate.

Calculation:

Let total number of chocolates Ravi had is 100

Bhanu had 80 chocolates,

Total number of chocolates Bhanu have,

80 + 80 × 35/100 = 108

Value of 108 units = 54

1 unit = 0.5

So Ravi gave 10 × 0.5 = 5 chocolates to his sister.

∴ The correct option is 3

Calculation:

Total estimated amount 8000 × 6 = Rs 48000

Total received amount (7230 + 6435 + 6927 + 6855 + 6562) = Rs 34009

So Tot get the estimated result he has to collect 48000 - 34009 = Rs 13991

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

Initial discount = 20% additional discount = 12%

He sells the shirt at ₹704

Concept used:

The discount is calculated on market price while profit is calculated on cost price.

Calculation:

Let the marked Price of the shirt be 100 units

After giving two discounts the price will be,

⇒ 100 × 80/100 × 88/100 = 70.4

As per the question value of

⇒ 70.4 = 704

The value of 100 units = Rs 1000

∴ The correct option is 3

Calculation:

Total distance covered is 2.5 + 4+ 2.5 + 3.5 + 1.5 + 2.5+ 1.5 = 18

For 5 km calorie burnt = 300

For 18 km calorie burnt is 60 × 18 = 1080 calories

∴ The correct option is 1

Given : 

Two circles touch each other externally.

Concept used:

In a triangle PAC, ∠CAP=∠APC= α

Similarly CB = CP and 

∠CPB=∠PBC= β

Calculation:

let ∠CAP = α and ∠CBP = β.

CA = CP [lengths of the tangents from an external point C].

Now in the triangle APB,

∠PAB+∠PBA+∠APB=180°  [sum of the interior angles in a triangle]

α+β+(α+β)=180°

2α+2β=180°

α+β=90°

Therefore, ∠APB is 

 α+β=90°

∴ The correct option is 1

$\frac{0.24 \times 0.24 \times 0.24-0.008}{0.24 \times 0.24+0.048+0.04}$

⇒ $\frac{0.24^3 -0.2^3}{0.24 \times 0.24+0.048+0.04}$

⇒ $\frac{(0.24 -0.2)({0.24 \times 0.24+0.048+0.04)}}{0.24 \times 0.24+0.048+0.04}$

⇒ 0.24 - .2 = .04

∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

The marked price of an item =  40% above its cost price

Concept used:

Discount is calculated on marked price

Calculation:

Let the cost price be 100 units

Market price = 140 units

Selling price = 112 units

Discount amount 140 - 112 = 28 units

Discount percentage,

⇒ 28 / 140 × 100 = 20%

∴ The correct option is 3

Calculation:

$\frac{\sin ^4 A+\cos ^4 A}{1-2 \sin ^2 A \cos ^2 A}$

⇒ $\frac{(sin ^2 A+\cos ^2 A)^2 -2 \sin ^2 A \cos ^2 A}{1-2 \sin ^2 A \cos ^2 A}$

⇒  $\frac{(1-2 \sin ^2 A \cos ^2 A)}{1-2 \sin ^2 A \cos ^2 A}$

⇒ 1

∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

 ∠A = ∠P = 90°.  BC = 13 cm and PR = 12 cm

Concept used:

 ABC and PQR be two congruent right-angled triangles.

So Side PR = AC

So AC = 12 cm

Calculation:

In Triangle ABC, BC = 13 cm , AC = 12 cm 

So we can say that, AB = 5 cm [ As we know 5, 12 and 13 are triplate]

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

 simple rate of interest of  = 8% per annum.

But he cleverly includes the interest amount in the principal when he calculates it every six months. 

Calculation:

He calculated interest half yearly.

So the rate of interest is 8/2 = 4%

Now for one year the effective rate of interest will be,

⇒ 4 + 4 + (4 × 4 /100) = 8.16%

∴ The correct option is 1

Concept used:

1 - cos² A = Sin² A

1 - sin2 A = cos2 A

Calculation:

$\frac{5\left(1-\cos ^2 A\right)}{6\left(1-\sin ^2 A\right)}$

⇒ 5/6 $Sin^2A /Cos^2A$

⇒ 5/6 Tan²A

⇒ 5/6 × 144/25

= 24/5

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

A train travelling from Mumbai to Goa covered the first 420 km at a speed of 60 km/h and then covered the remaining 195 km at a speed of 65 km/h. 

Concept used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Time taken to cover 1st 420 km is 420 / 60 = 7 hr

Time taken to cover  195 km is  195 / 65 = 3 hr

Total distance is 420 + 195 = 615 km

Total time taken is 7 + 3 = 10 hr

So average speed is 615 /10 = 61.5 km/h

∴ The correct option is 2

Calculation:

Value of 360° = 100%

So Q is (75/110) × 100 = 68.18 percent of candidates in S

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

The marked price = ₹3,800 and it is available for ₹3,230

Calculation:

The discount amount is  3800 - 3230 = Rs 570

Discount percentage is,

⇒  (570 /3800) × 100 = 15 %

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

Two numbers are  6 and 54

We have to find the mean proportion.

Formula used:

If One number is a and another is b

Then there mean proportion will be , ✓(a × b)

Calculation:

Two numbers are  6 and 54

Then there mean proportion will be 

✓(6 × 54)

⇒ 6 × 3

= 18

∴ The mean proportions of 6 and 54 is 18

Given:

In a right-angled triangle XYZ, if X = 60° and Y = 30°

Concept used:

Sin 30° = 1/2

Calculation:

Sin  (X - Y) = Sin 30° 

⇒ 1/2

∴ The correct option is 2

Concept used :

The number should be divisible by 3 is the sum of the numbers should be divisible by 3

The number should be divisible by 9 is the sum of the numbers should be 9

Again all the numbers divisible by 9 should be divisible by 3

Calculation :

Among the given options the sum of digits of option 1 and 2 divisible by 9

But the sum of digits of of option 3 and option 4 is 33 which is not divisible by 9 but divisible by 3.

option 4 > option 3.

So greatest number will be 329784.

∴ The correct option is 4

Mistake Points 

the sum of option 3 is 33 but we have to find the greatest number, so option 4 will be the correct answer. 

Because, option 4 > option 3.

This question is from the official paper of SSC and hasn't no mistakes.

Given:

 The length, breadth, and height of a cuboid are 20 cm, 16 cm and 8 cm.

The edge of each cube is 4 cm.

Formula used:

In both of the cases, volume should be the same.

Volume of cuboid = length × bredth × height

Calculation:

As per the question,

Let the number of cube are N

⇒ 20 × 16 × 8 = N × 4³

⇒ N = 5 × 4 × 2

⇒ N = 40

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

The cost price of 240 articles = selling price of x articles.

profit = 20%

Concept used:

SP = CP + profit

Profit percentage = (Profit / CP) × 100 

Calculation:

Let the total sp  240

Let the cost price is 100 , the selling price will be 120.

So The cost price is 100 / 120 × 240 = 200

So he can sell 200 articles 

∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

(a + b + c) = 17, and (a2 + b2 + c2) = 101

Formula used:

(a + b + c)² = (a2 + b2 + c2) + 2 (ab + bc +ca)

Calculation:

(a + b + c)2 = (a2 + b2 + c2) + 2 (ab + bc +ca)

⇒ 17² = 101 + 2 (ab + bc +ca)

⇒  (ab + bc +ca) = 94

 (a - b)2 + (b - c)2 + (c - a)2.

⇒ 2 (a2 + b2 + c2) - 2 (ab + bc +ca)

⇒  101 × 2 - 2 × 94 = 14

Given:

Total amount  = 64 litres,

8 litres are drawn out and the cask is filled up with water.

The same process is repeated a second, then a third time, 

Concept used:

The final quantity of the original mixture = [ Inititial amount( 1 - the amount taken out / Inititial amount)ⁿ]

Calculation: 

As per the formula,

The final quantity of the original milk in the mixture = [64 ( 1 - 8/64)³]

⇒ 64 × 343 /512

⇒  343 / 8

The amount of water will be 64 - 343/8 = 169 / 8 

The ratio will be 343 : 169

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

If $\frac{x^2+1}{x}=5$

⇒ x + 1 / x = 5

Formula used:

(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² 

Calculation:

x² + 1/x² = 5² - 2

⇒ 23

x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = 23² - 2

⇒  529 - 2 = 527

$x^4+\frac{1}{x^4}-36$ = 527 - 36

⇒ 491

∴ The correct option is 1

Calculation:

The total value of proficient is 20 + 25 + 25 + 33 + 34 = 137

The total value of Below basic is 40 + 19 + 41 + 34 + 8 = 142

The total value of Basic is 35 + 45 + 29 + 21 + 5 = 135

The total value of Advanced is 5 + 11 + 5 + 12 + 52 = 85

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

The radius = 5 cm, its chords =  8 cm.

Concept used: 

 By using Pythagoras theorem

Calculation:

So the distance will be

√(5² - 4²) 

⇒√9 =  3 cm

∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

The chord of a circle = 8 cm and the perpendicular distance between the center and the chord = 3 cm.

Concept used: 

By using Pythagoras' theorem

The diameter = 2 × radius

Calculation:

So the radius will be

√(42 + 3 2)

⇒√(16+ 9)

⇒ √(25) = 5 cm

The diameter will be , 2 × 5 = 10 cm

∴ The correct option is 2

The correct answer is: Disregard

Key Points

• Contemplate means to think deeply or consider carefully. (मनन करना)
• Example: Rita sat quietly by the window, contemplating her future and the choices she had to make.
• Marked option Disregard means to ignore or pay no attention to. (उपेक्षा)
• Example: Despite numerous warnings, the driver disregarded the speed limit and continued to accelerate.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Ruminate means to think deeply or ponder something over and over again. (रोमन्थ करना)
• Meditate means to engage in contemplation or reflection, often for spiritual or relaxation purposes. (चिन्तन करना)
• Retract means to take back or withdraw something that has been said or done. (वापस लेना)

The correct answer is: the best

Key Points

• The error lies in the use of the non-standard word "bestest."
• In formal or standard English, "best" is already the superlative form of "good," and adding "-est" to it creates redundancy.
• "the best" is grammatically correct and conveys the intended meaning effectively.
• It indicates that the speaker's placement offer is superior to those of their classmates.
• "Best" is the superlative form of the adjective "good," indicating the highest level of quality.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Corrected sentence: I have the best placement offer among all my classmates.

Additional Information

• "Better" is the comparative form of good, it doesn't fit well in this context.
• "More" is used to form the comparative degree of adjectives with more than one syllable (e.g., more beautiful, more intelligent).
• "Good" is a positive adjective, it doesn't convey the idea of superiority or excellence as effectively as "the best" does.

The correct answer is: To fail or be ineffective

Key Points

• The idiom "fall flat" means to fail or to be unsuccessful, often in a sudden or disappointing manner. (असफल होना, अक्सर अचानक या निराशाजनक ढंग से)
• Example: After months of preparation, Sarah's presentation to the investors fell flat when technical issues caused her slides not to be displayed properly, leaving the audience unimpressed.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is: BDAC

Key Points

• Part B. The paragraph begins by introducing the small town of Millfield and its charming Main Street, setting the scene and providing context for the events that follow.
• Part D. The sentence follows logically after the introduction of Millfield in sentence B. It introduces the conflict or catalyst of the story: the announcement of a large corporation's plans to build a massive shopping centre on the outskirts of town.
• Part A. After the announcement of the corporation's plans, the paragraph addresses the reaction of the town's residents.
• Part C. Finally, the paragraph concludes with the escalation of the conflict as tensions rise among the townspeople.

Therefore, the sequence BDAC creates a coherent and meaningful paragraph by establishing the setting, introducing the conflict, exploring the reactions of the townspeople, and concluding with the escalation of tension and debate.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is: Going with his tail between his legs

Key Points

• The idiom "going with his tail between his legs" means leaving a situation in a state of embarrassment, defeat, or humiliation.
• It often implies a sense of shame or submission after experiencing a setback or failure.
• Example: After losing the debate competition, Tom left the auditorium with his tail between his legs, feeling defeated and humiliated in front of his peers.
• In the context of the given sentence, "going with his tail between his legs" accurately captures Mayank's reaction of leaving in a cowardly or defeated manner after being confronted with his inconsistency regarding honesty.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is: negligble

Key Points

• The error in the given sentence is in the spelling of the word "negligble"
• The correct spelling of the word is "negligible."
• Negligible means so small or unimportant as to be not worth considering; insignificant. (नगण्य)
• Example: The amount of rain we received last night was negligible, barely enough to wet the ground.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Corrected sentence: There was a saying that they're their own enemies with negligible reason to be shared.

The correct answer is: impoverished

Key Points

• Destitute means extremely poor; lacking the means to provide for oneself. (निःसहाय)
• Example: After losing his job and with no savings, he found himself destitute, unable to afford even basic necessities like food and shelter.
• Marked option Impoverished means extremely poor, deprived of resources or means. (गरीब)
• Example: The village, once thriving, had become impoverished after the drought destroyed their crops and depleted their livestock.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Elite: A select group that is superior in terms of ability, wealth, or social status. (अभिजात वर्ग)
• Haughty: Someone who is arrogantly superior and disdainful. (घमंडी)
• Patriotic: Having or expressing devotion and love for one's country. (देशभक्तिपूर्ण)

The correct answer is: Mischievious

Key Points

• The correct spelling of the word is 'Mischievous'.
• Mischievous refers to causing or showing a fondness for causing trouble in a playful or harmless way. (शरारतपूर्ण)
• Example: The mischievous kitten batted at the ornaments on the Christmas tree, delighting in the chaos it caused but never intending any harm.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Acquiesce: To accept something reluctantly but without protest. (संतुष्ट होना)
• Artificial: Something made or produced by human beings rather than occurring naturally. (कृत्रिम)
• Conscientious: A person who is diligent, careful, and thorough in their work or duties. (ईमानदार)

The correct answer is: for hundreds of years

Key Points

• The context of the sentence implies that the people have had the same lifestyle continuously for a long period of time, not until a certain point in time.
• Therefore, "until hundreds of years" doesn't accurately convey the idea of maintaining the lifestyle over an extended duration.
• Using "for hundreds of years" is more appropriate because it directly indicates the duration of time during which the people have had the same lifestyle without implying a change at any point.
• It accurately conveys the duration of time during which the lifestyle has remained unchanged.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Corrected sentence: The people who live here have had the same kind of lifestyle for hundreds of years.

Additional Information

• "Through" indicates a duration, it implies movement or progress within that duration.
• "Although" introduces a contrast or concession.
• "Since" indicates a starting point in time.

The correct answer is: Did an unknown author write the book?

Key Points

• The subject of the Passive Voice is changed into the object of the Active Voice. Also, the object of the Passive Voice is changed into the subject of the Active Voice.
• The removal of the helping verb and the preposition 'by' is necessary while changing the voice of the sentence from Passive to Active.
• In Active voice (look at the options), it should be an interrogative sentence. The answer to this question will be either “yes” or “no”.
• These types of sentences usually begin with a helping verb like “Did”.
• In Passive voice, the format is: Was/Were + Object of the Active voice (Subjective case) + V3 + by + Subject of the Active voice (Objective case)?
• Therefore, the format of the sentence which begins with “Did” in Active voice is: Did + Subject + V1 + Object?
• For example:
• Were you beaten by him? (Passive)
• Did he beat you? (Active)
• The options except (4) don’t follow the correct grammatical format of the Active Voice.

Thus, the correct answer is: Did an unknown author write the book?

The correct answer is: counterfeiting

Key Points

• Forgery means the action of forging or producing a copy of a document, signature, banknote, or work of art with the intention to deceive. (कूट-रचना)
• Example: The criminal was charged with forgery after attempting to pass off a fake signature on the legal document.
• Marked option Counterfeiting means the production of an imitation of currency, documents, or goods, with the intent to deceive and pass them off as genuine. (जालसाजी)
• Example: The police seized a large quantity of counterfeit currency during the raid on the illegal printing operation.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Murdering: The act of killing someone unlawfully and with premeditation. (हत्या)
• Coaxing: Persuading someone to do something by gentle urging or flattery. (मीठी बातें से मनाना)
• Embezzling: The act of dishonestly appropriating or misappropriating money or assets entrusted to one's care, typically by an employer or client. (गबन करना)

The correct answer is: Essential

Key Points

• Indispensable means absolutely necessary or essential; incapable of being disregarded or neglected. (अपरिहार्य)
• Example: Water is indispensable for life; without it, survival is impossible.
• Marked option Essential means absolutely necessary or extremely important. (अत्यावश्यक)
• Example: Good communication skills are essential for success in any profession; they help individuals convey their ideas effectively.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Memorable: Something worth remembering or likely to be remembered, often because of being remarkable or noteworthy. (अविस्मरणीय)
• Eternal: Something lasting forever or existing without end. (शाश्वत)
• Forceful: Something done with force, strength, or power. (सशक्त)

The correct answer is: Lump sum

Key Points

• The one-word substitute for the given group of words is "Lump sum."
• "An amount of money" can be condensed into a single term "Lump."
• "That is paid at one time" can be summarized as "sum."
• Therefore, "Lump sum" effectively represents the concept of an amount of money paid at one time.
• It's a common term used in financial contexts to refer to a single, large payment made at once, rather than in instalments or over time.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Advanced amount: A sum of money that is paid or provided in advance before it is due or before work has been completed.
• Credit: The ability of a person or entity to borrow money with the understanding that it will be repaid at a later date.
• Mortgage: A loan that is taken out to purchase real estate, typically a home.