SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2023 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1. For '

' element → Number of '

' element is increasing subsequently.

 

Final series is

  

Hence, ‘option - (3)’ is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

 

Conclusions:

I. Some Houses are Shoes → Follow (As, some Shoes are Boxes and all Boxes are Houses, So, all boxes comes in houses and has some part common with shoes therefore it is definitely true.)

II. Some Feet are Boxes → Follow (As, all Shoes are Feet and some Shoes are Boxes. So, all shoes comes in feet and has some part common with boxes therefore it is definitely true.)

Here, Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow".

Logic : No specific pattern is followed here, random codes are assigned to each letter.

So,

• ‘DRAWN’ is coded as '25761'
• 'WARNE' is coded as '57264'

As some letters are common, so the codes will be :

​Therefore,

• 'E' will be coded as:

'E' is coded as '4'.

​Hence, "4" is the correct answer.

Given : 42 × 7 ÷ 12 - 77 + 13 = ?

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

• ‘+’ and ‘-’ are interchanged
• ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

So,​​

42 ÷ 7 × 12 + 77 - 13 = ?

6 × 12 + 77 - 13 = ?

72 + 77 - 13 = ?

149 - 13 = ?

136 = ?

Hence, "136" is the correct answer.

Logic : (Square of 1^st number + 9) = 2^nd number

So,

• Option - (1) : 19 ∶ 370

$(19)^2$ + 9 = 370

361 + 9  = 370

370 = 370 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (2) : 11 ∶ 130

$(11)^2$ + 9 = 130

121 + 9  = 130

130 = 130 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (3) : 17 ∶ 298

$(17)^2$ + 9 = 298

289 + 9  = 298

298 = 298 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (4) : 15 ∶ 244

$(15)^2$ + 9 = 244

225 + 9  = 244

234 ≠ 244 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is

Hence, The correct answer is 61

Given : 11 August 1918 was Sunday

Explanation :

The number of odd days from 11 August 1918 to 4 December 1925 :

∴ The number of odd days from 11 August 1918 to 4 December 1925 ⇒ 5

⇒So, Five odd day get added to Sunday because day asked in future.

∴ Friday was the day of the week on the 4 December 1925.

Hence, "Friday" is the correct answer.

Additional Information 

• Number of odd days for the days of week.

 

• Number of odd days for the days of months.

 

• Number of odd days for the years.

Given :

Statement given :  Z ÷ Y + S × V - U

So,

• Z ÷ Y → Z is the daughter of Y.

 

• Y + S → Y is the father of S.

 

• S × V → S is the son of V.

 

• V - U → V is the mother of U.

​ 

Thus, according to the final family tree Z  is the daughter of V.​

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given combination when mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (4)".

Logic :

1. First and second letter →  Difference between the position value according to the English alphabetic series is 2.
2. Second and third letter → Difference between the position value according to the English alphabetic series is 1.

​​So,​

• Option - (1) : WYZ

​ 

• Option - (2) : EGH

​ 

• Option - (3) : CEF

​ 

• Option - (4) : TVX

​ 

Here, out of all options only 'TVX' doesn't follow the same logic as given.

Hence, "TVX" is the correct answer.

The number of squares in the given figure is shown below :

Thus, there are total 10 squares in the given figure.

Hence, "10" is the correct answer.

Logic : (1^st number ÷ 3) = 2^nd number 

So,

• 75 is related to 25

75 ÷ 3 = 25

25 = 25 (LHS = RHS)

And,

• 69 is related to 23

69 ÷ 3 = 23

23 = 23 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

• 93 is related to ?

93 ÷ 3 = ?

31 = ?

Hence, "31" is the correct answer.

Given : D _ D _ E _ D _ _ D E _

By checking options :

1. DEDDED → D D D E E D D D E D E D → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
2. EDEDED → D E D D E E D D E D E D → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
3. EDDEDD → D E D D E D D E D D E D → (It follows the pattern of : DED - DED - DED - DED)
4. DEEDEE → D D D E E E D D E D E E → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)

⇒Option - (3) gives the pattern of " D E D - D E D - D E D - D E D "

Hence, "EDDEDD" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-  (8) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.

​So,

• 'DFCB’ is written as 'LNKJ'

​ 

And,

• 'OQNM' is written as 'WYVU'

​ 

​Similarly,

• 'JLIH' is written as

​ 

 

Hence, "RTQP" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given combination when mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

 

Detailed Explanation:

• The line MN is the mirror
• The word "kds26A" the third letter is "s". So, the mirror image should be "

"  ⇒ Option 1 is eliminated.

• The word "kds26A" the second letter is "d". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 3 is eliminated.

• The word "kds26A" the second letter is "d". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 4 is eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (2)".

The logic followed here is :-  (6) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.

​So,

• 'EGDH’ is written as 'KMJN'

​ 

And,

• 'QSPT' is written as 'WYVZ'

​

​Similarly,

• 'CEBF' is written as

​ 

Hence, "IKHL" is the correct answer.

Logic : 

• First and second letter → (3) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.
• Number → Alternately (4) is subtracted and multiplied by (5) to each number subsequently.

So,

 

​Hence, "TA 6" is the correct answer.

Logic : Decreasing odd number series is subtracted from each number subsequently.

 

Hence, "774" is the correct answer.

Logic : (1^st number × 3^rd number × 10) = 2^nd number

Given : 

• 4 - 200 - 5

4 × 5 × 10 = 200

200 = 200 (LHS = RHS)

• 6 - 420 - 7

6 × 7 × 10 = 420

420 = 420 (LHS = RHS)

So,

• Option - (1) : 3 - 660 - 9

3 × 9 × 10 = 660

180 ≠ 660 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (2) : 7 - 780 - 8

7 × 8 × 10 = 780

560 ≠ 780 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : 8 - 720 - 9

8 × 9 × 10 = 720

720 = 720 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (4) : 4 - 400 - 7

4 × 7 × 10 = 400

280 ≠ 400 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Given :

So,

• Option - (1) : Z @ R + K + P % Y → Z is the brother of R who is the sister of K who is sister of P who is the mother of Y.

​

Here, Y is either nephew or niece of Z.

• Option - (2) : P $ Y % R + K % Z → P is the daughter of Y who is the mother of R who is the sister of K who is the mother of Z.

​

Here, Y is the grandmother of Z.

• Option - (3) : Y % P # K + R % Z → Y is the mother of P who is the husband of K who is the sister of R who is the mother of Z.

​

Here, Y is the mother-in-law of Z's maternal aunt.

• Option - (4) : Y % P + K @ R $ Z → Y is the mother of P who is the sister of K who is the brother R who is the daughter of Z.

​

Here, Y is the wife of Z.

Thus, only option - (4), 'Y % P + K @ R $ Z' shows that Y is the wife of Z.

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Logic : (1^st number - 2^nd number) × 5 = 3^rd number

So,

• Option - (1) : 17 - 14 - 15

(17 - 14) × 5 = 15

3 × 5 = 15

15 = 15 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (2) : 33 - 26 - 25

(33 - 26) × 5 = 25

7 × 5 = 25

35 ≠ 25 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : 39 - 33 - 30

(39 - 33) × 5 = 30

6 × 5 = 30

30 = 30 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (4) : 22 - 18 - 20

(22 - 18) × 5 = 20

4 × 5 = 20

20 = 20 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Given : h _ jh _ ijhhi _ hh _ jh

By checking options :

1. ihji → h i jh h ijhhi j hh i jh → (It follows the pattern of : hijh - hijh - hijh - hijh)
2. jjhi → h j jh j ijhhi h hh i jh → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
3. hiji → h h jh i ijhhi j hh i jh → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
4. ihhi → h i jh h ijhhi h hh i jh → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)

⇒Option - (1) gives the pattern of "hijh - hijh - hijh - hijh"

Hence, "ihji" is the correct answer.

Given : 104 - 7 ÷ 65 × 13 + 38 = ?

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

• ‘+’ and ‘-’ are interchanged
• ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

So,​​

104 + 7 × 65 ÷ 13 - 38 = ?

104 + 7 × 5 - 38 = ?

104 + 35 - 38 = ?

139 - 38 = ?

101 = ?

Hence, "101" is the correct answer.

According to the given information,

Thus, according to the given codes '6#' is the code for the word 'Stars'.

Hence, the correct answer is "6**#**".

Given : 1 September 2002 was Sunday

Explanation :

The number of odd days from 1 September 2002 to 14 February 2003 :

∴ The number of odd days from 1 September 2002 to 14 February 2003 ⇒ 5

⇒So, Five odd day get added to Sunday because day asked in future.

∴ Friday was the day of the week on the 14 February 2003.

Hence, "Friday" is the correct answer.

Additional Information 

• Number of odd days for the days of week.

 

• Number of odd days for the days of months.

 

• Number of odd days for the years.

The correct answer is Only A.

Key Points

• Monetary policy:-
• It refers to the measures taken by the central bank of a country to regulate the supply of money and credit in the economy.
• The general target of the monetary policy is to ensure price stability in the economy.
• This means that the central bank aims to keep inflation low and stable, so that prices of goods and services do not fluctuate too much.
• Inflation:-
• It is a key concern for any economy, as it erodes the purchasing power of money and makes it difficult for people to plan their finances.
• The central bank uses various tools such as interest rates, reserve requirements, and open market operations to influence the supply of money and credit in the economy and keep inflation in check.

Additional Information

• Price stability:
• Price stability means keeping inflation low and stable.

The correct answer is George E Palade.

Key Points 

• George E Palade:-
• He was a Romanian-American cell biologist who demonstrated the role of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) in protein processing and sorting in the 1960s.
• Palade's discovery led to the understanding of how proteins are made, modified, and transported within cells.
• He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1974 for his work on the structure and function of cells.
• Palade's research also paved the way for further studies on the mechanisms of protein synthesis and secretion, as well as the development of treatments for diseases related to protein misfolding and trafficking.

The correct answer is the Identification of eligible households.

Key Points

• National Food Security Act, 2013:-
• The National Food Security Act, 2013 is a legislation enacted by the Indian parliament to provide food and nutritional security to the people of India.
• The Act mandates the state/UT governments to identify eligible households for receiving foodgrains at subsidized rates under the Public Distribution System (PDS).
• Eligible households are identified based on certain criteria such as income, social status, and occupation.
• Once the eligible households are identified, the state/UT government is responsible for issuing ration cards to them and ensuring that they receive their entitled quantity of foodgrains.
• As per the responsibilities defined in National Food Security Act, 2013, the responsibility of the state/UT government is to identify eligible households.

The correct answer is Antim Panghal.

Key Points

• Antim Panghal:-
• She won silver in the 53 kg weight category at the Asian Wrestling Championships 2023 in Astana, Kazakhstan.
• Antim Panghal is an Indian wrestler who has competed in various international wrestling tournaments and has won several medals.

Additional Information

• Reetika Hooda:-
• She is also an Indian wrestler who competes in the 53 kg weight category, but she did not participate in the Asian Wrestling Championships 2023.
• Anshu Malik:-
• She is an Indian wrestler who competes in the 57 kg weight category, so she did not win silver in the 53 kg weight category at the Asian Wrestling Championships 2023.
• Sonam Malik:-
• She is an Indian wrestler who competes in the 62 kg weight category, so she also did not win silver in the 53 kg weight category at the Asian Wrestling Championships 2023.

The correct answer is 6 August 2021.

Key Points

• Khel Ratna award:-
• It is the highest sporting honour in India, given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• Major Dhyan Chand was a legendary Indian hockey player who won three Olympic gold medals for India in 1928, 1932, and 1936.
• On Friday August 06 2021 the Sports Ministry announced that the Khel Ratna award will be renamed as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna award.

The correct answer is 2004-05.

Key Points

• Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act:-
• The FRBM Act is a law passed by the Government of India to ensure fiscal discipline and reduce fiscal deficits.
• The Act was introduced in 2003 and came into effect on May 1, 2004.
• The Act aims to bring down the fiscal deficit to 3% of the GDP and the revenue deficit to zero by March 31, 2008.
• The Act also provides for the setting up of a Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Committee to review the implementation of the Act and suggest measures for its improvement.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

 Key Points

• Pushkar Mela:-
• It is a popular cultural festival in Rajasthan.
• It is held annually in the town of Pushkar in Ajmer district of Rajasthan.
• The festival is primarily a livestock fair where thousands of camels, horses, and cattle are traded.
• Apart from the livestock fair, Pushkar Mela also features various cultural and religious activities such as music and dance performances, camel races, and a holy dip in the Pushkar Lake.
• Pushkar Mela attracts a large number of tourists from all over the world who come to witness the unique cultural extravaganza.

Additional Information

• Assam:-
• It is known for its Bihu festival which is a celebration of the harvest season.
• Bihar:-
• It is famous for the Chhath Puja which is a festival dedicated to the Sun God.
• Sikkim:-
• It is known for the Losoong festival which is a celebration of the Tibetan New Year.

The correct answer is four.

Key Points

• Significant figures:-
• These are the digits in a number that carry meaning contributing to its precision and accuracy.
• The number of significant figures in 0.05800 is four because all non-zero digits are significant, and the trailing zeros after the decimal point are also significant.

Alternate Method

⇒ The given number is 0.05800.

⇒ Leading zeros are not significant.

⇒ The digits 5, 8, 0, and 0 are significant.

⇒ Total significant figures = 4

∴ The number of significant figures in 0.05800 is four.

The correct answer is They are meant for repetitive purchases.

Key Points

• Durable goods:-
• These are products that have a long lifespan and are intended for multiple uses.
• Examples of durable goods include cars, appliances, furniture, and electronics.
• Non-durable goods, on the other hand, are products that are quickly consumed or used up, such as food, toiletries, and cleaning supplies.

The correct answer is Indira Gandhi International Airport (Delhi).

Key Points

• Indira Gandhi International Airport (Delhi):-
• In the year 2022, Indira Gandhi International Airport (Delhi) had the most passengers and aircraft movements.
• Indira Gandhi International Airport has undergone significant expansion and modernization in recent years, which has helped it handle more passengers and aircraft movements.
• The airport has also implemented various measures to improve the passenger experience, such as self-check-in kiosks, automated baggage handling, and a wide range of dining and shopping options.
• Delhi is home to several major airlines, including Air India and IndiGo, which operate numerous flights from the airport.

Additional Information

• Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport (Mumbai):-
• It is located in a different region of the country.
• Mumbai is known as the financial capital of India and is also a popular tourist destination.
• Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (Hyderabad):-
• It is located in the southern part of India and serves as a major hub for both domestic and international travel. It is also the sixth-busiest airport in India.
• Kempegowda International Airport (Bengaluru):-
• It is located in the southern city of Bengaluru and serves as a major hub for both domestic and international travel.
• It is also the third-busiest airport in India.

The correct answer is Saptarishi.

Key Points

• Saptarishi:-
• It refers to the seven priorities that the Government of India has adopted in the Union Budget 2023-24.
• These priorities are aimed at promoting economic growth, social development, and environmental sustainability.
• The seven priorities are: Health and Well-being, Physical and Financial Capital and Infrastructure, Inclusive Development for Aspirational India, Reinvigorating Human Capital, Innovation and RundefinedD, Minimum Government and Maximum Governance, and Environmental Sustainability.

Additional Information

• Spatasutra:-
• It is a term used in Ayurveda and refers to the seven basic principles of healing.
• Saptanga:-
• It is a term used in Indian classical dance and music, and refers to the seven components of a performance. These components are: Nritta (pure dance), Nritya (expressive dance), Natya (dramatic representation), Geet (vocal music), Vadya (instrumental music), Aaharya (makeup and costume), and Sattvika (emotional state).

The correct answer is Kerala, Lakshadweep, Mizoram.

Key Points

• Kerala:-
• Kerala has consistently been at the top of the literacy rate rankings in India for several decades.
• It has the highest literacy rate in India at 94.0%.
• Lakshadweep:-
• It has a literacy rate of 91.85%.
• Lakshadweep is a Union Territory of India with a small population of around 65,000 people.
• Mizoram:-
• It is a state in Northeast India with a predominantly Christian population.
• Mizoram has a literacy rate of 91.33%.

Additional Information

• Goa has a literacy rate of 87.4%.
• Maharashtra has a literacy rate of 82.9%.
• Puducherry has a literacy rate of 86.55%.
• Uttarakhand has a literacy rate of 79.6%.
• Tamil Nadu has a literacy rate of 80.09%.

The correct answer is Abhinaya Darpana.

Key Points

• Abhinaya Darpana:-
• Abhinaya Darpana is an ancient text that is considered to be a primary source for studying Bharatanatyam.
• Abhinaya Darpana was written by Nandikeshvara, a sage who is believed to have lived during the 1^st or 2^nd century CE.
• Bharatanatyam:-
• It is a classical dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu, India.

Additional Information

• Abhigyan Shakuntalam:-
• It is a play written by Kalidasa, a famous Sanskrit poet and playwright. It is not a source for studying Bharatanatyam.
• Ashtadhyayi:-
• It is a treatise on Sanskrit grammar written by Panini.
• Arthashastra:-
• It is an ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economic policy and military strategy. It is not related to the study of Bharatanatyam.

The correct answer is Central assistance for states and union territories.

 Key Points

• Non-plan revenue expenditure:-
• It refers to the regular expenses incurred by the government in running its day-to-day operations and does not include any capital expenditures.
• Salaries and pensions of government employees, subsidies to various sectors, and defense services are some of the major components of non-plan revenue expenditure.
• Central assistance:-
• Central assistance for states and union territories, on the other hand, is a part of the plan expenditure, which refers to the government's spending on development and welfare schemes.
• Central assistance is provided to the states and union territories for specific purposes such as infrastructure development, poverty alleviation, and education.

Additional Information

• Salaries and pensions:
• This includes the salaries and pensions of government employees such as civil servants, police officers, and teachers.
• Subsidies:
• This refers to the financial assistance provided by the government to various sectors such as agriculture, industry, and exports, to promote their growth and development.
• Defence services:
• This includes the expenses incurred on the maintenance and modernization of the armed forces, as well as on border security and defense-related research and development.

The correct answer is revenue assignments.

Key Points

• Bhoga:-
• It was a term used in medieval India to refer to the revenue assignments made by the state to its officials and other beneficiaries.
• These assignments were usually in the form of land or other resources, which could be used for agricultural or other purposes.
• The term bhoga was also used to refer to the income generated from such assignments, which could be in the form of taxes, rents, or other forms of payment.
• Revenue assignments:-
• These were a crucial part of the feudal system that existed in medieval India, where the state granted land and other resources to its officials and other beneficiaries in exchange for their loyalty and service.
• These assignments were often hereditary and could be passed down from generation to generation.

Additional Information

• Donations to temples:-
• These were also common during the medieval period, but they were usually made by individuals or groups rather than the state. These donations could take the form of money, land, or other resources, and were often made as a way of earning religious merit or gaining social status.
• Festival:-
• Festivals and religious functions were important parts of medieval Indian society, but they were not directly related to the system of revenue assignments.
• It could also be referred to as bhoga in some contexts, but these were not the primary meanings of the term during the medieval period.

The correct answer is Tama Dora.

Key Points

• Tama Dora:-
• He led the Koya movement in Malkangiri in 1880.
• Koya movement:-
• The Koya movement was a tribal revolt against British colonial rule and the oppressive zamindari system.

Additional Information

• Koya people:-
• The Koya people are an indigenous tribe in India, primarily found in the states of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh.
• The Koya language is part of the Dravidian language family and is spoken by approximately 300,000 people.

The correct answer is Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.

Key Points

• Guru Bipin Singh:-
• Guru Bipin Singh was a renowned Manipuri dancer and choreographer who was instrumental in popularizing the dance form across the country.
• The award was given to him in the year 1984 for his contribution to the field of Manipuri dance.
• He was presented with the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, which is a national-level award given for performing arts in India.
• He was also the founder of the Manipuri Nartanalaya, a dance academy in Imphal, which has produced many talented Manipuri dancers over the years.

Additional Information

• Saraswati Samman:-
• It is a prestigious literary award given in India, which recognizes outstanding contributions to literature in any of the 22 Indian languages.
• Kalamandal Puraskar:-
• It is a cultural award given by the Kalamandalam Deemed University of Art and Culture in Kerala, which honors artists and scholars in the field of Indian classical arts.
• Padma Shri:-
• It is a civilian award given by the Government of India, which recognizes distinguished service in various fields such as arts, literature, science, social work, etc.

The correct answer is Tabla.

Key Points

• Zakir Hussain:-
• He is associated with the musical instrument Tabla.
• Zakir Hussain is a renowned Indian musician and composer who is considered a master of the tabla. He has won several awards and accolades for his contribution to Indian classical music.

Additional Information

• Santoor:-
• It is a stringed musical instrument that originated in Persia and is now popular in India.
• It is played with a pair of wooden mallets and has a unique sound that is soothing and melodic.
• Sitar:-
• It is an Indian stringed instrument that has been used in classical music for centuries.
• It has a long neck and a pear-shaped body, and is played with a plectrum and finger techniques.
• Piano:-
• It is a Western classical instrument that has keys and hammers that strike strings to produce sound.
• It is not typically associated with Indian classical music, although some musicians have experimented with incorporating it into their compositions.

The correct answer is momentum of particle.

Key Points

• Radius of curvature of a charged particle's passage:-
• The radius of curvature of a charged particle's passage in a homogeneous magnetic field is directly proportional to the momentum of the particle.
• This is because the magnetic force acting on the charged particle is perpendicular to both the direction of the magnetic field and the direction of the particle's velocity. This force causes the particle to move in a circular path with a radius proportional to its momentum.

Additional Information

• The energy of the particle and the charge of the particle do not affect the radius of curvature in a homogeneous magnetic field.
• The strength of the magnetic field does affect the radius of curvature, but it is indirectly proportional rather than directly proportional. This means that as the magnetic field strength increases, the radius of curvature decreases.
• It is important to note that this relationship only holds true for a homogeneous magnetic field, where the field strength is constant throughout the region of interest.

The correct answer is 55.

Key Points

• Khelo India Youth Games:-
• It is a national-level multi-sport event for young athletes in India.
• Maharashtra is one of the states in India that participates in the games.
• Maharashtra is one of the top-performing states in the Khelo India Youth Games.
• In the 2023 games, Maharashtra won a total of 158 medals (including gold, silver, and bronze). 55 were silver out of those.
• Maharashtra's performance was boosted by strong showings in sports such as athletics, swimming, and wrestling.
• The state has consistently performed well in the Khelo India Youth Games, with a total of 307 medals won across all editions of the event so far.

The correct answer is Formation of Rent Authority Department.

Key Points

• Policy of 'land to the tiller':-
• The policy of 'land to the tiller' was introduced under the first five year plan, which aimed at redistributing land from big landowners to landless farmers.
• The policy of 'land to the tiller' was aimed at reducing land inequality and improving the economic conditions of small and marginal farmers.

Additional Information

• Land Ceiling Act:-
• The Land Ceiling Act was aimed at preventing the concentration of land in the hands of a few individuals and promoting equitable distribution of land.
• The Land Ceiling Act was also introduced under the first five year plan, which put a limit on the maximum amount of land that an individual could own.
• High yielding variety seed:-
• The high yielding variety seed technology was introduced under the third five year plan, which aimed at increasing agricultural productivity by introducing new and improved seed varieties.
• The high yielding variety seed technology was a major breakthrough in agricultural productivity, which helped India achieve self-sufficiency in food production.
• Rent Authority Department:-
• The Rent Authority Department was formed under the Rent Control Act, which aimed at regulating the rent charged by landlords and protecting the interests of tenants. However, it was not directly related to agricultural reforms.
• The Rent Authority Department was not among the reforms related to agriculture undertaken under the five year plans.

The correct answer is A lot of boring pumps have been set up in the adjacent areas.

Key Points

• Primary factor contributing to dryness of old wells:
• A lot of boring pumps have been set up in the adjacent areas, leading to depletion of groundwater resources and drying up of old wells.
• Groundwater depletion is a major issue in many parts of the world due to increasing population and demand for water.
• Wells being covered may contribute to their abandonment, but not necessarily to their dryness.
• People stopping to utilize wells may be a consequence of their dryness, not the cause.
• Vegetation around wells may actually help retain moisture and prevent evaporation, but it is not the primary factor contributing to their dryness.

 Additional Information

• Boring pumps extract groundwater from aquifers, which are underground layers of permeable rock or soil that hold water.
• Overuse of groundwater resources can lead to depletion and even collapse of aquifers, causing wells to dry up.
• Groundwater depletion can also have other negative impacts, such as land subsidence, saltwater intrusion, and reduced streamflow.
• In some cases, old wells can be rehabilitated by deepening or re-drilling them, or by implementing sustainable groundwater management practices.

The correct answer is Article 19.

Key Points

• ​Article 19:-
• The Right to Freedom is enshrined in Article 19 of the Indian Constitution.
• Article 19 guarantees six freedoms to the citizens of India, namely, freedom of speech and expression, freedom of assembly, freedom of association, freedom of movement, freedom of residence, and freedom of profession, occupation, trade, or business.
• These freedoms are subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign countries, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation, or incitement to an offense.

Additional Information

• Article 17 deals with the abolition of untouchability.
• Article 18 deals with the abolition of titles.
• Article 16 deals with equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.

The correct answer is South-westerly.

Key Points

• South-westerly:-
• The direction of the southeast trade winds in India during the southwest monsoon season is South-westerly.
• The southwest monsoon season in India generally lasts from June to September.
• The southeast trade winds blow towards the equator and are deflected westwards due to the Coriolis effect.
• The south-westerly winds bring in moisture from the Arabian Sea and cause heavy rainfall in the western and southern parts of India.

Additional Information

• South-easterly winds:-
• These are the direction of the southeast trade winds during the winter monsoon season in India, which lasts from December to February.
• North-westerly winds:-
• These are the direction of the winds during the retreating monsoon season in India, which lasts from October to December.
• North-easterly:-
• These winds are the direction of the winds during the northeast monsoon season in India, which lasts from October to December and brings rainfall to the eastern coast of India.

The correct answer is Article 12.

Key Points

• Article 12:-
• The word 'State' is defined under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution, which includes the Government and Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of each of the States, and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
• The scope of the word 'State' has been expanded by the judiciary to include private bodies or individuals performing public functions, which has led to the application of Fundamental Rights against them as well.

 Additional Information

• Article 14:-
• It guarantees the right to equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• Article 15:-
• It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Article 13:-
• It declares that any law that violates the Fundamental Rights shall be void.

Calculation

The marks obtained in English and S.S. are 52 and 59 respectively.

The marks obtained in Hindi and Maths are 72 and 88 respectively.

⇒ (160 - 111)160 × 100

⇒ 4900/160

⇒ 245/8

⇒ $30\frac{5}{8}\%$

The answer is $30\frac{5}{8}\%$

Given:

Arc length = 16.5 cm

Angle subtended by Arc = 22.5°

The radius of the circle = r

Formula used:

The angle subtended by an arc (in Radian) = (Length of arc)/Radius

The arc length of a sector  = (θ/360°) × 2πr

Calculation:

(θ/360°) × 2πr = 16.5

⇒ 22.5/360 ×(22/7 × r) = 16.5

⇒ r/14 = 3

⇒ r = 42 cm

∴ The radius of the circle is 42cm.

Calculation:

The average sale of books throughout the week = (100 + 200 + 550 + 800 + 450 + 600)/6

= 2700/6 = 450

Only Monday and Tuesday has sale less than the average of the whole week's sale.

∴ The answer is 2.

Confusion Points 

According to the given data, Difference between each gap = 200Assume that each gap is divided into four parts, as example, for 0 - 200: the four parts are: 0 to 50, 50 to 100, 100 to 150, and 150 to 200.

Given

C.P of C = 3059

Profit = 33%

Loss = 25%

Formula used

S.P = (100 + profit)/100 × C.P

Profit of A = 33% = 33/100

Loss of B = 25% = 1/4

Let the cost price of A = Rs.400               ( product of 4 and 100)

⇒ Profit of A = 400 × 33/100 = Rs.132

⇒ Selling price of A = 400 + 132 = Rs.532

⇒ Cost price of B = Rs.532

B sold to C at a loss of 1/4

⇒ Loss of B = 532 × 1/4 = Rs.133

⇒ Selling price of B = 532 - 133 = Rs.399

⇒ Cost price of C = Rs.399

399 → 3059

400 → 3059/399 × 400

400 → 9200/3 = 3066(2/3)

The answer is 3066(2/3).

Shortcut Trick 

Let the C.P of A be x.

⇒ x × 133/100 × 3/4 = 3059

⇒ x = 9200/3 or 3066(2/3)

Shortcut Trick

Given, 4(y − 1/y) = 11 ⇒ y − 1/y = 11/4

Direct formula: If x − 1/x = a, then x² + 1/x² = a² + 2

⇒ y² + 1/y² = (11/4)² + 2

⇒ y² + 1/y² = 121/16 + 2 = 153/16

⇒ 153/16 = 9 ⁹/₁₆

∴ The correct answer is 9 ⁹/₁₆.

Alternate Method

Given:

4y − 4/y = 11

Formula Used:

(a − b)² = a² + b² − 2ab

Calculations:

⇒ 4(y − 1/y) = 11

⇒ y − 1/y = 11/4

Squaring both sides:

⇒ (y − 1/y)² = (11/4)²

⇒ y² + 1/y² − 2 × y × (1/y) = 121/16

⇒ y² + 1/y² − 2 = 121/16

⇒ y² + 1/y² = 121/16 + 2

⇒ y² + 1/y² = (121 + 32) / 16

⇒ y² + 1/y² = 153/16 = 9 ⁹/₁₆

∴ The correct answer is 9 ⁹/₁₆.

Additional Information

Algebraic Identities for Squares

If x + 1/x = a, then x² + 1/x² = a² − 2

Algebraic Identities for Cubes

If x + 1/x = a, then x³ + 1/x³ = a³ − 3a

Difference to Sum Conversion

If x − 1/x = a, then x + 1/x = √(a² + 4)

Given:

y - 1/y = - 9

Formula used:

(a + b)²  = a² + 2ab + b²

(a + b)³  = a³ + 3ab(a + b) + b³

Calculation:

y - 1/y = - 9

⇒ x² + 1/x² = 9² + 2

⇒ 83

y³ - 1/y³

⇒ (-9)³ + 3(-9)

⇒ -729 – 27

⇒ - 756

x⁵ - 1/x⁵ = (x² + 1/x²)( x³ - 1/x³) – (x - 1/x)

⇒ 83 × - 756 + 9

⇒ - 62748 + 9

⇒ - 62739

∴ x⁵ - 1/x⁵ is - 62739.

Given:

A mobile is marked at a price 25% above its cost price.

Profit = 5%

Formula used:

SP = (100 + Profit)/100 × C.P100+������100×��100+������100×��100+������100×��100+������100×��

Calculations: 

Let the CP of the article be Rs. 100

MP of the article = Rs. 125

SP of the article = 100 × (105/100)

= Rs. 105

Discount = 125 – 105 = 20

Discount percentage = 20/125 × 100 = 16%

Hence, the Discount percentage is 16%.

Shortcut Trick

5 = 25 – x – (25x/100)

5 = 25 – x – x/4

5x/4 = 20

x = 16%

Shortcut Trick

Interest for the 1^st year = 10% of 50,000 = Rs. 5,000.

In Compound Interest, the interest earned each subsequent year grows successively by the rate percentage.

Interest for 3^rd year = Interest for 1^st year × (1 + 10/100)²

Interest for 3^rd year = 5000 × 1.1 × 1.1 = 6050

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 6,050.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 50,000

Rate (R) = 10% per annum compound interest

Time period = 3^rd year

Formula Used:

Interest for a specific year is calculated on the total amount accrued up to the previous year.

50k Start

55k Year 1

60.5k Year 2

66.55k Year 3

• 5k

• 5.5k

• 6.05k

I&sub3; = 6050

Calculation:

⇒ Interest for 1^st year = 10% of 50,000 = Rs. 5,000

⇒ Amount after 1^st year = 50,000 + 5,000 = Rs. 55,000

⇒ Interest for 2^nd year = 10% of 55,000 = Rs. 5,500

⇒ Amount after 2^nd year = 55,000 + 5,500 = Rs. 60,500

⇒ Interest for 3^rd year = 10% of 60,500 = Rs. 6,050

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 6,050.

Additional Information

Successive Increment in CI

In compound interest, the interest earned each successive year forms a geometric progression with a common multiplier of (1 + R/100).

Compound Interest Total Amount Formula

The total amount after n years is directly calculated as A = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ, where P is the principal and R is the rate of interest.

Difference Between SI and CI (2 Years)

The difference between compound interest and simple interest for exactly two years is derived using the formula: Difference = P(R/100)².

Given:

Principal₁ = Rs. 2500

Principal₂ = Rs. 1500

Time = 3 years

S.I = 360

Formula used:

SI = (PRT)/100

where, 

SI is Simple interest, P is Principal, R is Rate, T is Time and A is Amount

Calculations:

According to the question, we have

⇒ SI = (PRT)/100

⇒ 360 = ((2500 - 1500) × R × 3))/100

⇒ R = 12%

∴ The rate of interest per annum is 12%.

Given

Perimeter = 20 metres

The two sides are 5 metres and 6 metres. 

Formula used

Semi-perimeter = (a + b + c)/2

Area of triangle = √s(s - a)(s - b)(s - c)

Calculation

Semi-perimeter = 20/2 = 10

Third side of triangle = 20 - (5 + 6) = 9

Area of triangle = √[10(10 - 5)(10 - 6)(10 - 9)]

= √(10 × 5 × 4 × 1)

= 10√2

The answer is  10√2 m²

Given:

x2 + y2 – 25 = 0

Concept used:

The standard equation of a circle is given by:

(x-h)2 + (y-k)2 = r2

Where (h,k) is the coordinates of the circle's centre and r is the radius. 

Calculation:

Comparing the given equation with the concept used, we can conclude that,

x2 + y2 – 25 = 0

⇒ x2 + y2  = 25

⇒ x2 + y2  = 5²

where r(radius) = 5

∴ The radius of circle is 5 units

Given

Raman spends = 75% of his income 

Expenditure increased = 10%

Income increased = 20%

Formula used

Expenditure = Income - Savings

Calculation

Let the income be 100x

Raman  expenditure = 75% of 100x = 75x

Savings = 25x

Now if the expenditure is increased by 10%,

New expenditure = 75x × 110/100

⇒ 82.5x

And if Income is increased by 20%

New income = 100x × 120/100

⇒ 120x

New savings = New income - New expenditure 

New savings = 120x - 82.5x = 37.5x

The percentage increase in savings = (New savings - old savings)/old savings × 100

The percentage increase in savings= (37.5x - 25x)/25x × 100

The percentage increase in savings = 50%

The correct option is 50%.

Given:

Efficiency of A = 2 × efficiency of B

Concept used:

If total work is constant then,

Efficiency ∝ (1/time)

Formula used:

Total work = efficiency × time

Calculation:

Efficiency of A : Efficiency of B = 2 : 1

Total work = (2 + 1) × 20

⇒ 3 × 20 = 60

Time taken by A to do the same work = 60/2 

⇒ 30 days

∴ The correct answer is 30 days.

Given:

First interior angle = 35°

Second interior angle = 65° 

Concept used:

The sum of the interior opposite angle is equal to the exterior angle.

Calculation:

The measurement of exterior angle = first interior angle + second interior angle

⇒ 35° + 65° = 100° 

∴ The correct answer is 100°.

Given:

First distance = 210 km

Speed for first distance = 70 km/h

Second distance = 170 km

Speed for second distance = 85 km/h

Formula used:

Average speed = total distance/total time taken

Time taken to cover the distance = distance/time

Calculation:

Time to cover the first distance = 210/70 = 3 hours

Time to cover the second distance = 170/85 = 2 hours

Average speed = total distance/total time taken

⇒ (210 + 170)/(3 + 2)

⇒ 380/5 = 76 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 76 km/h.

Concept used:

Calculation:

$\frac{3+8× 8÷8\ \rm of \ 8+7÷ 7× 2}{5÷ 5\rm \ of\ 4+3× 3÷3-3+2}$

⇒ (3 + 8 × 8 ÷ 64 + 7 ÷ 7 × 2)/(5 ÷ 20 + 3 × 3 ÷ 3 - 3 + 2)

⇒ (3 + 8 × (1/8) + 1 × 2)/((1/4) + 3 × 1 - 3 + 2)

⇒ (3 + 1 + 2)/((1/4) + 2)

⇒ (6× 4)/(1 + 8)

⇒ 24/9

⇒ 8/3 = 2$\frac{2}{3}$

∴ The correct answer is 2$\frac{2}{3}$.

Formula used:

Sec (90° - θ) = cosec θ

tan (90° - θ) = cot θ

tan 45° = 1   

Calculation:

$\rm \frac{\sec54^{\circ}}{cosec 36^{\circ}}+\frac{\tan70^{\circ}}{\cot20^{\circ}}-2\tan45^{\circ}$

⇒ $\rm \frac{\sec(90^\circ - 36^\circ )}{cosec 36^{\circ}}+\frac{\tan(90^\circ - 20^\circ )}{\cot20^{\circ}}$ - 2 × tan 45°

⇒ $\rm \frac{cosec36^\circ }{cosec 36^{\circ}}+\frac{\cot20^\circ}{\cot20^{\circ}}$ - 2

⇒ 1 + 1 - 2 = 0

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Given:

a : b = 5 : 7

Calculation:

(6a2 - 2b2) ∶ (b2 - a2)

Now, putting the value of 'a' and 'b' 

⇒ {6 × (5)²} - {2 × (7)²} : 7² - 5²

⇒ {6 × 25} - {2 × 49} : 49 - 25

⇒ 150 - 98 : 24

⇒ 52 : 24

⇒ 13 : 6

∴ The correct option is 3.

Concept used:

⇒ $\frac{a+b}{a-b}$

By rationalisation

⇒ $\frac{a+b}{a-b}$ × \(\frac{a~+b}{a+~b}\)

Calculation:

⇒ $\frac{√3+√2}{√3-√2}$

⇒ $\frac{√3+√2}{√3-√2}$ × $\frac{√3+√2}{√3+√2}$

⇒ (√3 + √2)²/{(√3)² - (√2)²}

⇒ {(√3)2 + (√2)2 + 2 × √6}/(3 - 2)

⇒ 3 + 2 + 2 × 2.45

⇒ 5 + 4.9 = 9.9

∴ The correct answer is 9.9.

Given:

Marked price (M.P) = 125% × cost price (C.P)

Formula used:

C.P/M.P = (100 - D%)/(100 ± P/L%)

Calculation:

C.P : M.P = 125 : 100 = 5 : 4

⇒ C.P/M.P = (100 - D%)/(100 + P%)

⇒ 4/5 = 90/(100 + P%)

⇒ (100 + P%) = (90 × 5)/4

⇒ (100 + P%) = 450/4

⇒ (100 + P%) = 112.5

⇒ P% = (112.5 - 100) = 12.5

∴ The correct answer is 12$\frac{1}{2}\%$.

Alternate MethodCalculation:

Discount% = M.P : S.P = 10 : 9 ------ (1) 

M.P : C.P = 125 : 100 = (5 : 4) × 2

M.P : C.P = 10 : 8 ------- (2)

From eq. (1) & (2)

C.P : M.P : S.P = 8 : 10 : 9

Gain % = {(9 - 8) × 100}/8

⇒ 100/8 = 12$\frac{1}{2}\%$ 

∴ The correct answer is 12$\frac{1}{2}\%$.

Given:

∠BAP = ∠CAP

BP = x ; PC = 3y

AB = 4x ; AC = (5y + 21)

Concept used:

Angle bisector bisects the third side into their two corresponding side ratio.

Calculation:  

⇒ BP/PC = AB/AC

⇒ x/3y = 4x/(5y + 21)

⇒ 5y + 21 = 12y

⇒ 7y = 21

⇒ y = 3

Now,

In △ APB & △ APC

AP = AP (Common)

∠P = ∠P = 90° 

∠BAP = ∠CAP

∴ △ APB ≅ △ APC (By ASA)

By C.P.C.T

x = 3y

⇒ x = 3 × 3 = 9

Now, x + y = 9 + 3 = 12

∴ The value of (x + y) is 12.

Given:

Sec A = 17/15

Formula used:

Sec θ = H/B

By Pythagoras theorem:

⇒ H² = P² + B²

Where H = hypotenuse ; P = perpendicular

and B = base

Calculation:

Sec A = 17/15 = H/B

By Pythagoras theorem:

⇒ H2 = P2 + B2

⇒ 17² = P² + 15²

⇒ P = √(289 - 225)

⇒ P = √64 = 8

So, cot A = B/P 

⇒ 15/8

∴ The correct answer is 15/8.

Given:

Speed of first train = 80 km/h

Speed of second train = 26 km/h

Concept used:

If both trains moving in the same direction then,

Relative speed = difference of speed of both trains

Formula used:

Distance = relative speed × time

Calculation:

Let the length of the first train = T₁

Length of second train = T₂

Distance = relative speed × time

⇒ T1 + T2 = (80 - 26) × (5/18) × 30

⇒ 54 × (5/18) × 30

⇒ 15 × 30 = 450 m

∴ The correct answer is 450 m.

Calculation:

Checking the value with options:

Option 1:

Taking the value of S;

Physics number by S = 60

Mathematics number by S = 78

Physics : Mathematics = 60 : 78 = 10 : 13

∴ The correct option is 1.

Given:

sec θ - tan θ = $\frac{1}{√3}$

Concept used:

If sec θ - tan θ = P, then

sec θ + tan θ = 1/P

Calculation:

sec θ - tan θ = $\frac{1}{√3}$ -------- (1)

sec θ + tan θ = √3 --------- (2)

From eq (1) + (2)

⇒ sec θ - tan θ + sec θ + tan θ = $\frac{1}{√3}$ + √3 

⇒ 2 × sec θ = (1 + 3)/√3

⇒ sec θ = 2/√3

So, θ = 30

cot θ + cos θ

Putting the θ value in the equation:

cot 30° + cos 30° = √3 + (√3/2)

⇒ (2√3 + √3)/2 = $\frac{3\sqrt3}{2}$

∴ The correct answer is $\frac{3\sqrt3}{2}$.

The correct answer is: Diciplinary.

Key Points

 

• The correct spelling of the word is 'disciplinary'.
• The error is the missing of 's' before 'c'.
• 'Disciplinary' refers to something related to discipline or punishment. (अनुशासनात्मक)
• Example: The company has established disciplinary measures to ensure a productive and respectful work environment.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Interrogation refers to the act of questioning someone, often in a formal setting. (पूछताछ)
• Magistrate refers to a civil officer who administers the law, often in a lower court. (न्यायाधीश)
• Preliminary refers to something done or occurring before the main action or event. (प्रारंभिक)

The correct answer is: Occasionally

Key Points

• The correct spelling of the word is 'occasionally'.
• It means at infrequent or irregular intervals; now and then. (कभी-कभार या अनियमित अंतराल पर; जब तब)
• The word is an adverb and is used to describe the frequency of an action.
• Example: She occasionally visits her grandparents who live in the countryside.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is: "to plan our course careful."

Key Points

• The error is in the word "careful,"
• It should be "carefully" to correctly modify the verb "plan."
• "Carefully" is the adverb form that appropriately modifies the action of planning.
• Adverbs are used to modify verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs.
• Adverbs play a crucial role in providing additional information and detail in sentences.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Corrected sentence: In this world of competitions, every one of us is required to plan our course carefully.

The correct answer is: the newly released books.

Key Points

 

• The word "realised" in the original sentence means "made real or actual." (वास्तविक बनाया गया)
• The word "released" means "made available to the public." (जनता के लिए उपलब्ध कराया गया)
• The context of the sentence suggests that the books are being made available for people to borrow or read.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Corrected sentence: She makes sure that all the newly released books are available in her personal library.

Additional Information

• Regaled is a verb that means "entertained or amused with talk or stories." (बातचीत या कहानियों से मनोरंजन या आनंदित करना)
• Relieved is a verb that means "made someone feel happy or satisfied again." (किसी को फिर से खुश या संतुष्ट महसूस कराया)
• Reverberated is a verb that means "be repeated several times as an echo." (एक प्रतिध्वनि के रूप में कई बार दोहराया जाना चाहिए)