SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 09 Aug, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

3, 6, 15, 42, 123,?

The logic followed in the given series is:

Here, the missing number is '366'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

H ÷ O + A - M + N → H is husband of O, O is daughter of A, A is brother of M, M is daughter of N.

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Clearly, M is O's aunt, i.e., father's sister.

Hence, ‘Fathers sister’ is the correct answer.

Given equation: 11 ÷ 42 × 3 - 69 + 25 = ?

If ‘+’ and '-' are interchanged and ‘×' and '÷' are interchanged:

11 × 42 ÷ 3 + 69 - 25 = ?

⇒ 11 × 14 + 69 - 25 = ?

⇒ 154 + 69 - 25 = ?

⇒ 223 - 25 = ?

⇒ 198 = ?

Hence, ‘198’ is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN is shown below:

Hence, ‘option 1’ is the correct answer.

The number of rectangles in the given figure is shown below:

Hence, ‘8’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number × (First number - 5) = Second number

15 : 150 → 15 × (15 - 5) = 15 × 10 = 150

18 : 234 → 18 × (18 - 5) = 18 × 13 = 234

Similarly,

7 : ? :: 7 × (7 - 5) = 7 × 2 = 14

Hence, '14' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number × 7) - 5 = Second number

• 16, 107 → (16 × 7) - 5 = 112 - 5 = 107
• 12, 79 → (12 × 7) - 5 = 84 - 5 = 79

Similarly,

• 9, 58 → (9 × 7) - 5 = 63 - 5 = 58

Hence, '9, 58' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, '92' is the correct answer.

Code for each letter is shown below:

So, 9 is the code for ‘'N' in the given code language.

Hence, '9' is the correct answer.

An ordinary year has 1 odd day and a leap year has 2 odd days. 

So, the day on the same date for an ordinary year will be 1 day ahead and the day on the same date for a leap year will be 2 days ahead for the next year.

If 22 September 1982 is Wednesday, then the day on these dates will be:

22 September 1983 → Thursday

22 September 1984 → Saturday

22 September 1985 → Sunday

22 September 1986 → Monday

22 September 1987 → Tuesday

22 September 1988 → Thursday

22 September 1989 → Friday

22 September 1990 → Saturday

22 September 1991 → Sunday

Number of days between 22 September to 7 December = (8 + 31 + 30 + 7) = 76

76 when divided by 7, we get 6 as remainder

Sunday + 6 = Saturday

So, it will be Saturday on 7 December 1991.

Hence, ‘Saturday’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Words are synonyms of each other.

• Contain : Hold → Contain is synonym of hold.

Similarly,

• Contrast : Disparity → Contrast is synonym of Disparity.

Hence, 'Contrast : Disparity' is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram is:          

Conclusion (I): Some knives are forks. → Does not follow (As, Some forks are sticks and No stick is a knife → Some forks are not knives)

Conclusion (II): No stick is a spoon. → Does not follow (As, there is no definite relation between stick and spoon. Hence, false)

Hence, ‘Neither conclusion I nor II follows’ is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram is:          

Conclusions:

(I): Some yellow are brown → Does not follow (As, there is no definite relation between yellow and brown. Hence, false)

(II): All yellow are cars. → Does not follow (As, All cars are yellow → So, some yellow are cars)

Hence, ‘Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. BEF → B + 3 = E; E + 1 = F
2. SUV → S + 2 = U; U + 1 = V
3. KNO → K + 3 = N; N + 1 = O
4. XAB → X + 3 = A; A + 1 = B

Hence, 'SUV' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, 'YG81' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, 'KDRU' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'OJ 19' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number + 30 = Second number; First number + 15 = Third number

1. 14 - 44 - 29 → 14 + 30 = 44; 14 + 15 = 29
2. 36 - 66 - 51 → 36 + 30 = 66; 36 + 15 = 51
3. 29 - 44 - 14 → 29 + 30 = 59  ≠ 44; 29 + 15 = 44 ≠ 14
4. 21 - 51 - 36 → 21 + 30 = 51; 21 + 15 = 36

Hence, '29 - 44 - 14' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, '47' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. PTSPTSSPT → P P S / T T S / P P T / P T S / S T P / P T S
2. PPTSSTPST → P P S / P T T / P S S / P T T / P T S / P T S
3. TPSTPSTSS → P T S / P T S / P T P / P T S / T T S / P S S
4. TPSTSSPST → P T S / P T S / P T S / PT S / P T S / P T S

• In option 4, PTS is repeated.

Hence, ‘TPSTSSPST’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'WKDAYAK' is the correct answer.

An ordinary year has 1 odd day and a leap year has 2 odd days. 

So, the day on the same date for an ordinary year will be 1 day ahead and the day on the same date for a leap year will be 2 days ahead for the next year.

If 21 July 2000 is Friday, then the day on these dates will be:

21 July 2001 → Saturday

21 July 2002 → Sunday

21 July 2003 → Monday

21 July 2004 → Wednesday

21 July 2005 → Thursday

21 July 2006 → Friday

21 July 2007 → Saturday

21 July 2008 → Monday

21 July 2009 → Tuesday

21 July 2010 → Wednesday

21 July 2011 → Thursday

21 July 2012 → Saturday

Number of days between 15 July 2012 to 21 July 2012 = 6

Saturday - 6 = Sunday

So, it will be Sunday on 15 July 2012.

Hence, ‘Sunday’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

From Figure (1) to (2):

One line is added inside the triangle.

From Figure (2) to (3):

One line is added outside of the triangle.

From Figure (3) to (4):

One line is added inside the triangle.

From Figure (4) to Answer Figure:

One line is added outside of the triangle.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN is shown below:

Hence, 'option 2' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number + (First number - 11) = Second number

1. 52 ∶ 93 → 52 + (52 - 11) = 52 + 41 = 93
2. 40 ∶ 69 → 40 + (40 - 11) = 40 + 29 = 69
3. 38 ∶ 65 → 38 + (38 - 11) = 38 + 27 = 65
4. 61 ∶ 133 → 61 + (61 - 11) = 61 + 50 = 111 ≠ 133

Hence, '61 ∶ 133' is the correct answer.

The correct answer is praseodymium.

Key Points

• Praseodymium:-
• The soft, malleable, and silvery-yellow metal with atomic number 59 in the lanthanide series is praseodymium.
• Praseodymium is a rare earth element that is used in magnets, lasers, and other electronic devices.

Additional Information

• Neodymium:-
• It is another rare earth element that is commonly used in magnets, particularly in high-performance motors and speakers.
• Promethium:-
• It is a radioactive rare earth element that is used in nuclear batteries and other specialized applications.
• Gadolinium:-
• It is a silvery-white rare earth element that is commonly used in medical imaging and other applications.

The correct answer is Northern railway zone.

Key Points

• Northern railway zone:-
• New Delhi is the headquarters of the Northern railway zone.
• The Northern railway zone is one of the 18 railway zones in India.
• The Northern railway zone covers states such as Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and parts of Jammu and Kashmir.

 Additional Information

• Southern railway zone:-
• The Southern railway zone covers states such as Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Puducherry, and parts of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
• The Southern railway zone has its headquarters in Chennai.
• Eastern railway zone:-
• The Eastern railway zone has its headquarters in Kolkata.
• The Eastern railway zone covers states such as West Bengal, Jharkhand, Bihar, and parts of Odisha.
• Central railway zone:-
• The Central railway zone has its headquarters in Mumbai.
• The Central railway zone covers states such as Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and parts of Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka.

The correct answer is Shot Put,

Key Points

• Glide Technique:-
• The Glide Technique is used in the Shot Put event in track and field.
• The technique involves a series of steps where the athlete moves forward while simultaneously turning their body and pushing the shot put away from their neck.
• The Glide Technique is preferred by many athletes as it allows for a greater distance to be covered in the throw.

Additional Information

• Pole Vault:-
• It is a track and field event where athletes use a pole to jump over a bar.
• 4 x 100 m Relay:-
• It is a track and field event where four athletes run a relay race covering a total distance of 400 meters.
• Long Jump:-
• It is a track and field event where athletes jump for distance from a running start.

The correct answer is cytokinesis;

Key Points

• Cytokinesis:-
• It is a critical step in cell division that follows karyokinesis.
• During cytokinesis, the cytoplasm divides into two daughter cells, each with a complete set of chromosomes.
• Cytokinesis involves the formation of a contractile ring around the cell, which constricts and separates the cytoplasm into two parts.
• The contractile ring is made up of actin and myosin filaments that help in the division of the cytoplasm.

Additional Information

• Karyokinesis:-
• It is the division of the nucleus during cell division.
• Cytoskeleton:-
• It is a network of protein filaments that provide structural support and shape to the cell.
• Cytosol:-
• It is the fluid portion of the cytoplasm that surrounds the organelles.

The correct answer is 2023.

Key Points

• Nitu Ghanghas won India’s first gold medal at the 2023 IBA Women’s World Boxing Championships.
• The event was held in New Delhi, India, showcasing India as a significant host for global boxing events.
• She competed in the 48 kg minimum weight category and delivered a stellar performance in the final match.
• Her opponent in the finals was Lutsaikhan Altantsetseg from Mongolia, whom she defeated convincingly.
• This victory marked her as one of India’s prominent boxing talents and added to India’s legacy in international boxing.

Additional Information

• IBA Women’s World Boxing Championships
• Organized by the International Boxing Association (IBA), it is one of the most prestigious events in women’s boxing.
• Started in 2001, it is held biennially and features multiple weight categories.
• India has been a dominant force in this championship, with legends like Mary Kom winning multiple titles.
• India's Contribution to Boxing
• India has produced several world-class boxers such as Mary Kom, Vijender Singh, Lovlina Borgohain, and Nikhat Zareen.
• The country has hosted major international boxing events, including the Women’s World Boxing Championships in 2006 and 2023.
• Weight Categories in Boxing
• Boxing matches are divided into weight categories to ensure fairness, such as flyweight, bantamweight, lightweight, and more.
• Nitu Ghanghas competed in the minimum weight category (48 kg), which is one of the lightest categories in boxing.
• Role of Boxing Federations
• The Boxing Federation of India (BFI) is responsible for promoting and organizing boxing events in India.
• It plays a crucial role in identifying and nurturing talent at the grassroots level and ensuring representation in global championships.

The correct answer is Gobardhan.

Key Points

• Gobardhan:-
• It is a central government scheme launched in 2018, which aims to promote the management of cattle dung and solid waste in rural areas.
• The scheme promotes the establishment of bio-gas plants, which convert cattle dung and other organic waste into bio-gas, which can be used for cooking and lighting purposes.
• The bio-gas plants also produce organic fertilizers, which can be used in agriculture, thereby reducing the use of chemical fertilizers.
• The establishment of 500 new waste-to-wealth plants under the Gobardhan scheme is a significant step towards achieving the goal of clean energy and sustainable development.

Additional Information

• GOBAR se GARV:-
• It is a related scheme launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, which aims to promote the use of bio-gas in rural areas.

The correct answer is Cooperative Federalism.

Key Points

• Cooperative Federalism
• ​This feature is explicitly mentioned in Article 1 of the Indian Constitution
• It refers to the sharing of power between the central government and the state governments in India
• It is a key principle of Indian federalism and is reflected in the division of powers between the Union and the states in the Constitution

 Additional Information

• Independence of the Judiciary
• This feature is not explicitly mentioned in Article 1 of the Indian Constitution
• However, the Constitution does provide for an independent judiciary in other articles, such as Article 50 which calls for the separation of the judiciary from the executive
• Secularism
• This feature is not explicitly mentioned in Article 1 of the Indian Constitution
• However, it is mentioned in the Preamble which declares India to be a secular nation
• The Constitution also provides for religious freedom and prohibits discrimination on the basis of religion
• Parliamentary sovereignty
• This feature is not explicitly mentioned in Article 1 of the Indian Constitution
• However, it is implied in the Constitution as the Parliament is the supreme law-making body in India
• The Constitution also provides for a system of checks and balances to prevent the abuse of parliamentary power

The correct answer is Only i and iii.

Key Points

• Budgetary deficit:-
• It refers to a situation where the government spends more money than it earns through revenue collection.
• Deficit adds to the stock of debt as the government borrows money to finance the deficit.

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

• Sarhul:-
• It is a popular tribal festival of dance celebrated in the state of Jharkhand.
• It is celebrated during the spring season, usually in the month of March or April, to worship the Sal tree.
• The festival is marked by traditional dance performances, music, and offerings to the deity.
• The festival signifies the bond between nature and the tribal community living in the state of Jharkhand.

The correct answer is reflecting telescope.

Key Points

• Reflecting telescope:-
• ​It was invented by Isaac Newton in the 17^th century.
• This telescope uses a concave mirror to collect and reflect light, which eliminates the problem of false colours that occur due to the dispersion of light in a simple lens.
• Reflecting telescopes are widely used in modern astronomy and are used to study celestial objects such as stars, galaxies, and planets.
• The first reflecting telescope was built by James Gregory in the 17^th century, before Newton's version.
• The reflecting telescope is also known as a Newtonian telescope and has a wide range of applications in astronomy and astrophysics.

Additional Information

• Infrared telescope:-
• It uses infrared radiation to detect objects in space.
• Monocular telescope:-
• It is a small, handheld telescope used for terrestrial observation.
• Graphic telescope:-
• It is not a commonly used term in astronomy or optics.

The correct answer is Net Domestic Product.

Key Points

• Gross Domestic Product:
• GDP is the total value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders in a given time period.
• Depreciation is the decrease in value of an asset over time due to wear and tear, obsolescence, or other factors.
• NDP:-
• It is a measure of the net output of the economy and is considered a more accurate indicator of economic growth than GDP.
• Gross Domestic Product less Depreciation is called Net Domestic Product (NDP). It represents the value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders minus the value of the capital goods (machinery, equipment, buildings, etc.) that were used up in the production process.

Additional Information

• Gross Domestic Investment:-
• It refers to the total amount of money spent on capital goods (machinery, equipment, buildings, etc.) within a country's borders in a given time period.
• Net National Product:-
• It is the value of all goods and services produced by a country's residents, including those living abroad, minus depreciation.
• Gross National Product:-
• It is the value of all goods and services produced by a country's residents, including those living abroad, without subtracting depreciation.

The correct answer is 1935.

Key Points

• Government of India Act, 1935:-
• The Government of India Act, 1935 was a major constitutional reform that provided for the establishment of a Federation of India comprising British India and the princely states. It introduced the concept of a bicameral legislature, abolished dyarchy, and provided for the establishment of a Federal Court. It remained in force until India became independent in 1947.
• The Act referred to in question is the Government of India Act, 1935.
• This Act divided the powers between the Central and provincial governments in terms of three lists - Federal List, Provincial List, and Concurrent List.
• The Federal List included subjects that were exclusively under the jurisdiction of the Central government, such as defense, foreign affairs, and currency.
• The Provincial List included subjects that were exclusively under the jurisdiction of the provincial governments, such as education, health, and local government.
• The Concurrent List included subjects that were under the jurisdiction of both the Central and provincial governments, such as criminal law, marriage and divorce, and economic and social planning.

Additional Information

• Indian Councils Act, 1861:- 
• The Indian Councils Act, 1861 was an important milestone in the history of Indian constitutional development. It introduced the concept of representative government in India by allowing the nomination of Indians as non-official members of the legislative councils at the central and provincial levels.
• Government of India Act, 1919:-
• The Government of India Act, 1919 was passed by the British Parliament to introduce some reforms in the governance of India. It expanded the size and scope of the legislative councils, introduced the concept of dyarchy, and provided for the establishment of a public service commission.
• Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909:-
• The Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909 were introduced by the British government to address the growing demand for political representation by the Indian National Congress and other political organizations. It increased the number of Indians in the legislative councils and provided for separate electorates for Muslims.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Bihar.

Key Points

• Uttar Pradesh:-
• It is the most populated state in India with a population of over 199 million.
• Maharashtra:-
• It has a population of over 112 million.
• Bihar:-
• It has a population of over 103 million.

Additional Information

• Himachal Pradesh:-
• It is a northern Indian state with a population of around 7 million.
• Goa:-
• It is one of the smallest states in India with a population of around 1.5 million and is not among the top three most populated states.
• Andhra Pradesh:-
• It is one of the larger states in India with a population of over 49 million but is not among the top three most populated states.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Jallikattu:-
• It is a famous bull-taming festival that is celebrated in the state of Tamil Nadu.
• It is a traditional sport where a bull is released into a crowd of people, and the participants try to grab and hold onto the bull's hump for as long as possible.
• The festival has been a part of Tamil Nadu's culture for centuries and is usually held during the Pongal festival.
• Jallikattu has been a controversial sport due to concerns over animal cruelty, and there have been calls to ban it.

The correct answer is Tapi.

Key Points

• Tapi river:-
• The river that flows through a rift valley is the Tapi river.
• The Tapi river originates in the Satpura range in Madhya Pradesh and flows through Maharashtra and Gujarat before emptying into the Arabian Sea.
• The rift valley through which the Tapi river flows is known as the Tapi Valley or the Narmada-Tapi rift zone.
• The Tapi Valley is a geological formation that was created due to tectonic movements in the earth's crust.

Additional Information

• Brahmaputra:
• The Brahmaputra river flows through the northeastern part of India and into Bangladesh.
• Sabarmati:
• The Sabarmati river flows through Gujarat and empties into the Arabian Sea.
• Ganga:
• The Ganga river is one of the major rivers of India and flows through several states.

The correct answer is Beas.

Key Points

• Beas River:-
• The Beas River is a tributary of the Indus River that originates near the Rohtang Pass at an altitude of 4,000 metres above mean sea level.
• It flows through the states of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab, and is approximately 470 kilometres long.
• The river is an important source of irrigation and hydroelectric power generation for the region.
• The Beas River is also famous for its scenic beauty and is a popular destination for adventure sports like river rafting and kayaking.

Additional Information

• Chenab River:
• It is one of the major rivers in India and Pakistan, and is formed by the confluence of two rivers, the Chandra and the Bhaga, near the town of Tandi in Himachal Pradesh.
• Musi River:
• It is a tributary of the Krishna River that flows through the city of Hyderabad in Telangana, and is known for its historical significance and pollution.
• Indravati River:
• It is a tributary of the Godavari River that flows through the states of Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh and Odisha, and is known for its scenic beauty and wildlife.

The correct answer is Virat Kohli.

Key Points

• Virat Kohli:-
• He scored the maximum runs in the 8^th ICC Men's T20 World Cup held in October and November 2022.
• ICC Men's T20 World Cup:
• It is an international cricket tournament organized by the International Cricket Council (ICC) for the men's national teams of the member countries.
• The tournament is played in the T20 (Twenty20) format, which is a short form of cricket consisting of 20 overs per team.
• Maximum runs:
• It refers to the highest number of runs scored by a player in the tournament.
• Runs are the basic unit of scoring in cricket, and they are earned by the batsman when he hits the ball and runs between the wickets.

Additional Information

• Shikhar Dhawan:
• He is an Indian cricketer who plays as a left-handed opening batsman. He has represented India in all three formats of cricket (Test, ODI, and T20).
• He was the leading run-scorer in the 2018 edition of the IPL (Indian Premier League) and has also scored heavily in domestic cricket.
• Rohit Sharma:
• He is an Indian cricketer who plays as a right-handed opening batsman.
• He has represented India in all three formats of cricket (Test, ODI, and T20) and is known for his aggressive batting style.
• He holds the record for the highest individual score in ODIs (One Day Internationals) and has also won several IPL titles as captain of the Mumbai Indians team.
• Surya Kumar Yadav:
• He is an Indian cricketer who plays as a right-handed middle-order batsman.
• He made his debut for India in T20Is in 2021 and has also played in the IPL for various teams.
• He is known for his flamboyant strokeplay and has been a consistent performer in domestic cricket.

The correct answer is Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs.

Key Points

• CBIC stands for Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs.
• CBIC is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance in India.
• It is responsible for the administration of indirect taxes such as Goods and Services Tax (GST), Customs, and Central Excise.
• CBIC also plays a crucial role in preventing smuggling and enforcing trade laws and regulations.
• The board is headed by a Chairperson and has several members who oversee different departments and functions related to indirect taxes and customs.

Additional Information

• Central Bureau of Investigation and Committee:-
• The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is a premier investigation agency in India that deals with high-profile cases of corruption, economic offenses, and other serious crimes.
• A committee is a group of people appointed to perform a specific task or function.

The correct answer is Redistribution of income and wealth.

Key Points

• Redistribution of income and wealth:
• This is one of the primary functions of the government budget.
• It involves the allocation of resources and funds to promote social and economic equity.
• The government can achieve this through progressive taxation, welfare programs, and subsidies.

Additional Information

• Management of money supply:
• This refers to the control and regulation of money supply in the economy.
• The government can adjust the money supply through various tools like open market operations, reserve requirements, and discount rates.
• This helps in maintaining stable economic growth and controlling inflation.
• Maintaining strict budgetary balance:
• This refers to the practice of keeping government spending in line with revenue generated.
• A strict budgetary balance is important to avoid a fiscal deficit, which can lead to inflation and a decrease in the value of the currency.
• Price fixation:
• This refers to the government's role in regulating the prices of goods and services in the economy.
• The government can control prices through price ceilings or price floors. However, this is not a primary function of the government budget.

The correct answer is Ibrahim Lodi.

Key Points

• First battle of Panipat:-
• The first battle of Panipat took place between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi.
• Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire, invaded India in 1526 and defeated the Sultan of Delhi, Ibrahim Lodi, in the first battle of Panipat.
• The battle was fought on April 21, 1526, near Panipat, which is now in the state of Haryana, India.
• The Mughal army was equipped with advanced weaponry, including artillery, which gave them an advantage over the Sultan's army.
• Ibrahim Lodi was killed in the battle, and Babur went on to establish the Mughal Empire in India.

Additional Information

• Medini Rai:
• Medini Rai (d. 1528) was a Rajput ruler of Chanderi state. The Battle of Chanderi was fought between Medini Rai and Babar in 1528. In this Babar was victorious and Medini Rai was killed.
• Sikandar Lodi:
• He was the second Sultan of the Lodi dynasty, who ruled from 1489 to 1517. He was not involved in the first battle of Panipat.
• Rana Sanga:
• He was a Rajput ruler of Mewar, who fought against Babur in the Battle of Khanwa in 1527.

The correct answer is 1958.

Key Points

• DRDO:-
• It is India's premier defence research and development organization, responsible for developing technology for the country's defence forces.
• It was established in 1958 after the amalgamation of the Technical Development Establishment (TDEs) and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation (DSO).
• DRDO has played a crucial role in the development of India's missile technology, including the Agni and Prithvi missiles.
• It has also developed a range of other defence technologies, including radars, electronic warfare systems, and unmanned aerial vehicles.

The correct answer is Lord Cornwallis.

Key Points

• Lord Cornwallis:-
• He is known as the "father of civil services in India" because he introduced the concept of a permanent civil service in India. Before him, civil servants were appointed on a temporary basis, and there was no clear career path for them.
• Lord Cornwallis established the Civil Service Commission in 1786, which was responsible for recruiting and training civil servants. This commission laid the foundation for a professional and efficient civil service in India.
• Lord Cornwallis also introduced the concept of a hierarchy in the civil service, with different grades and ranks for different levels of responsibility. This helped to create a clear career path for civil servants and incentivized them to work harder.
• Lord Cornwallis's reforms were instrumental in creating a modern and efficient administrative system in India, which helped to lay the foundation for British rule in India.

 Additional Information

• William Bentinck:-
• He was the Governor-General of India from 1828 to 1835.
• He is known for his social reforms, such as banning Sati and promoting Western education.
• However, he did not make any significant contributions to the civil service during his tenure.
• Lord Dalhousie:-
• He was the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856.
• He is known for his ambitious infrastructure projects, such as building railways and telegraph lines. He also introduced the Doctrine of Lapse, which allowed the British to annex Indian states that did not have a male heir.
• However, he did not make any significant contributions to the civil service during his tenure.
• John Shore:-
• He was the Governor-General of India from 1793 to 1798.
• He is known for his administrative reforms, such as introducing the office of the Governor-General and creating a separate department for revenue.

The correct answer is Kathakali.

Key Points

• Kottakkal Nandakumaran Nair:-
• He is a recipient of the Sangeet Natak Akademi award in 2019 for his contribution to Kathakali.
• Kathakali:-
• It is a traditional dance-drama form that originated in the state of Kerala, India. It is characterized by elaborate costumes, facial makeup, and hand gestures.

Additional Information

• Bharatanatyam:-
• It is a classical dance form that originated in the southern state of Tamil Nadu, India. It is characterized by intricate footwork, hand gestures, and facial expressions.
• Contemporary dance:-
• It is a genre of dance that emerged in the mid-20^th century and encompasses various styles and techniques.
• Odissi:-
• It is a classical dance form that originated in the eastern state of Odisha, India. It is characterized by fluid movements, intricate footwork, and expressive facial expressions.

The correct answer is Veena.

Key Points

• Veena:-
• It is a stringed instrument with a long hollow neck and a resonating chamber made of gourd.
• It is played by plucking the strings with one hand and sliding the fingers of the other hand along the frets to produce different notes.
• Veena is considered to be one of the oldest and most revered instruments in Indian classical music.
• Dr APJ Abdul Kalam used to play Veena, which is a traditional Indian musical instrument.

 Additional Information

• Guitar:-
• It is a western musical instrument.
• Sarod:-
• It is a stringed instrument from North India.
• Piano:-
• It is a keyboard instrument.

The correct answer is Agriculturists produce primarily for themselves.

Key Points

• Subsistence agriculture:-
• It refers to a type of farming where farmers produce primarily for themselves and their families, rather than for the market.
• Farmers who practice subsistence agriculture typically have small plots of land and use traditional farming methods.
• The crops they grow are usually basic staples like rice, corn, or beans, which they consume themselves or trade with other farmers for other goods.
• Subsistence agriculture is often associated with rural or developing areas where people may not have access to modern technology or infrastructure.
• While subsistence agriculture can provide a reliable food source for farmers and their families, it may not generate enough income to support a higher standard of living or promote economic growth.

Given:

a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca

Concept used:

If a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca, a = b = c

Calculation:

⇒ $\rm \frac{11a^4+13b^4+15c^4}{16a^2b^2+19b^2c^2+17c^2a^2}$

Put a = b = c everywhere in the expression,

⇒ $\rm \frac{11a^4+13a^4+15a^4}{16a^2a^2+19a^2a^2+17a^2a^2}$

⇒ $\rm \frac{39a^4}{52a^4}$ = $\rm \frac{39}{52}$ = $\rm \frac{3}{4}$

∴ The correct answer is $\rm \frac{3}{4}$

Calculation :

Amount spent on labour = 90°

Amount spent on cement = 72° 

Difference = 90° - 72° = 18°

Now we know 360° = 100%

⇒ 18° = (100% / 360°) × 18° = 5%

∴ The amount spent on labour exceeds the amount spent on cement by 5% of total cost.

Given :

The radius of the circle OA = 8 cm

Distance of the point from the center of the circle OP = 17 cm

Concept Used :

The tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.

Calculation :

In right-angled Δ OAP using the Pythagorean theorem, OP² = OA² + PA²

⇒ 17² = 8² + PA²

⇒ 289 - 64 = PA²

⇒ 15² = PA²

⇒ 15 = PA

∴ The length of tangent = 15 cm.

Given :

The average of 18 integers = 41

By mistake 127 was copied as 341

Formula Used :

Average = Sum of all values / Total no of values

Calculation :

Using formula, sum of integers = 18 × 41 = 738

Difference between actual value and copied value = 341 - 127 = 214

So, the actual sum = 738 - 214 = 524

Thus, the correct average = 524 / 18 = $29 \frac{1}{9}$

∴ The correct average of integers = $29 \frac{1}{9}$.

Given:

$\left[\frac{1}{5}\ of\ (35-5)+4\right]^2-[9-{7+(2-3)}+5]^2$

Concept:

Calculation:

$\left[\frac{1}{5}\ of\ (35-5)+4\right]^2-[9-{7+(2-3)}+5]^2$

⇒ $\left[\frac{1}{5}\ of\ 30+4\right]^2-[9-{7+(-1)}+5]^2$

⇒ (6 + 4)² - [9 - 6 + 5]²

⇒ 10² - 8² 

⇒ 100 - 64 = 36

∴ The simplified value is 36

Given:

MP = Rs. 1600

SP = Rs. 1056

Successive discounts = y%, z%

Formula Used: 

Effective discount = a + b - ab/100

SP = MP - MP × D/100

⇒ D = (MP - SP)/MP × 100

Where, D = Discount

Calculation: 

According to the question,

Total discount = (1600 - 1056)/1600 × 100 = 34%

Now,

Checking with option 1:

Discount = 22 + 15.5 - (22 × 15.5)/100 = 34.09%

Checking with option 2:

Discount = 4 + 31.25 - (4 × 31.25)/100 = 34%

Checking with option 3:

⇒ 20 + 17.5 - (20 × 17.5)/100 = 34%

Checking with option 4

⇒ 12 + 25 - (12 × 25)/100 = 34%

So, except option 1, all the options give the same value.

∴The set of values that cannot be a solution is y = 22, z = 15.5.

Formula used: 

sin²θ + cos²θ = 1     ---(1)     

cos2θ = cos2θ - sin2θ     (2)

Calculation:

According to the formula,

⇒ cos2θ = cos2θ - sin2θ 

Putting the value of sin²θ from eqn(1),

⇒ cos2θ = cos2θ - (1 - cos²θ)      [∵ sin2θ + cos2θ = 1 ⇒ sin2θ = 1 - cos2θ]

⇒ cos2θ = 2cos2θ - 1

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

Formula Used :

x² - y² = (x + y) (x - y)

Calculation:

⇒ (c + d)2 - (c - d)2

⇒ (c + d + c - d) (c + d -(c - d))

⇒ 2c × (c + d - c + d)

⇒ 2c × 2d = 4cd

∴ The simplified value is 4cd.

Alternate MethodFormula Used :

(x + y)² = x² + y² + 2xy

(x - y)2 = x2 + y2 - 2xy

Calculation:

⇒ (c + d)2 - (c - d)2

⇒ c² + d² + 2cd - (c2 + d2 - 2cd)

⇒ c2 + d2 + 2cd - c2 - d2 + 2cd

⇒ 4cd

∴ The simplified value is 4cd.

Given:

Spent on traveling = 15%

Spent on food = 20% of remaining

Donated amount = Rs. 380

Money saved = Rs. 2000

Calculation:

Let, Total income = 100 unit

Income left after spending on travelling 

⇒ 100 - 100 × 15% = 85 unit

Income left after spending on food

⇒ 85 - 85 × 20% = 68 unit

According to the question,

⇒ 68 units = Rs. (2000 + 380)

⇒ 68 units = Rs. 2380

⇒ 1 unit = Rs. 35

⇒ 100 unit = Rs. 3500

∴ The total income is Rs. 3500

Given :

Two sides of a triangle are 14cm and 9 cm

Concept used :

To form a triangle,

(a) The sum of any two sides of a triangle will be greater than the third side of that triangle.

(b) The difference of any two sides of a triangle will be smaller than the third side of that triangle.

Solution:

Checking option (1):

Condition (1)

⇒14 + 9 > 17 ⇒ 23 > 17

⇒14 + 17 > 9  ⇒ 31 > 9

⇒17 + 9 > 14 ⇒ 26 > 14

Condition (2)

⇒14 - 9 < 17

⇒17 - 14 < 9

⇒17 - 9 < 14

Both the conditions are satisfied.

Checking option (2):

14 + 9 > 23 ⇒ 23 = 23

Condition (1) is not satisfied.

Checking option (3):

24 - 9 < 14 ⇒ 14 = 14

Condition (2) is not satisfied.

Checking option (4):

9 + 5 > 14 ⇒ 14 = 14

Condition (1) is not satisfied.

∴ The length of the third side is 17 cm.

Given:

MP of a school bag = Rs. 550

MP = CP + CP × 10/100

Discount on MP = 10%

Formula used:

Loss % = ((CP - SP) / CP ) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ 550 = (100 + 10)/100 × CP

⇒ CP = 550 × 100 / 110 = Rs. 500

According to the given data,

⇒ SP = MP ×  $\frac{(100 - 10)}{100}$

⇒ SP = 550 × $\frac{90}{100}$ = Rs. 495

Now, Loss% = (500 - 495)/500 × 100

⇒ Loss% = 5/500 × 100 = 1

∴ The loss percentage is 1%.

Given: 

tan θ  = 3 / 4

Formula Used:

Tan θ = P/B

sin θ = P/H

H = $\sqrt{P^2+B^2}$

Calculation:

tan θ = 3/4 = P/B

P = 3, B = 4

⇒ H = $\sqrt{3^2+4^2}$ = $\sqrt{9+16}$ = $\sqrt25$ = 5

Now,

$\rm \frac{1+\sin θ}{1-\sin θ}$

⇒ (1+ 3/5) / (1 - 3/5)

⇒ (5 + 3)/5 / (5 - 3)/5

⇒ 8/2 = 4

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Amount after 2 years = Rs. 9360

The rate = 20%  . 

Formula used:

Amount ( A ) = Principal ( P ) × (1 + r / 100)ⁿ

Calculation:

The present value is 9360 ( after 2 years ). In compound interest,

⇒ A= P × (1 + r / 100)n

⇒ 9360 = P × ( 1 + 20/100)²

⇒ 9360= P × 36/25

⇒ P = 9360 × 25 / 36 = 6500 

∴ The  present value of Rs. 9,360 at an interest rate 20% at the end of two years compounded annually is 6500.

Given:

Marked price = 18% more than its cost price

Discount = 24%

Formula used:

S.P. = [(100 - Discount%)/100] x C.P.

Loss% = [(C.P. - S.P.)/C.P.] x 100

Where, C.P. = Cost price, S.P. = Selling price

Calculation:

Let, the cost price = Rs. 100

So, the marked price = 100+ (18% of 100) = Rs. 118

Then, the selling price = 118 x (76/100) = Rs.89.68

Loss percentage = [(100 - 89.68)/100] × 100 = 10.32%

∴ The loss percentage is 10.32%.

Given:

One litre milk costs = Rs.40

Water is mixed with milk and mixture sold at Rs.30 per litre.

Calculation:

According to the question,

By the applying the rule of the allegation,

The ratio of water & milk = (40 - 30) : (30 - 0) = 1 : 3

So, the ratio of water and milk in the mixture is 1:3.

∴ Correct Answer is 1:3.

Given:

Δ ABC is an equilateral triangle.

BC = CD

Calculation:

According to the question,

∠ABC = ∠BCA = ∠BAC = 60°

So, ∠ACD = 180°- 60° = 120°

BC = CD  --------------------------(1)

AC = BC  --------------------------(2)

From eq. (1) & (2)

AC = CD

∠ADC = ∠CAD 

In Δ ACD,

∠ADC + ∠CAD + ∠ACD = 180°

⇒ ∠CAD + ∠CAD = 180° - 120°

⇒ 2∠CAD = 60°

⇒ ∠CAD = 30°

∴The degree measure of angle CAD is 30°.

Concept Used:

tan (90 - θ) = cot θ

tan θ × cot θ = 1

Calculation:

7(cot 11° cot 13° cot 19° cot 29° cot 61° cot 71° cot 77° cot 79°)

⇒ 7(cot 11° cot 13° cot 19° cot 29° tan (90°- 61°) tan (90°- 71°) tan (90°- 77°) tan (90°-79°))

⇒ 7(cot 11° cot 13° cot 19° cot 29° tan29° tan 19° tan 13° tan 11°)

⇒ 7 × 1 = 7

∴ The correct answer is option 1

Given:

a + b + c = 13 and ab + bc + ca = 45

Formula Used:

(a + b + c)² = a² + b² + c² + 2(ab + bc + ca)

Calculation:

According to the formula,

(a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ca)

⇒ 13² = a² + b² + c² + 2 × 45

⇒ a² + b² + c² = 169 - 90 = 79

∴ The correct answer is option 1

Given:

In 1997 the total number of households was 830 million

Concept Used:

Million consists of six zeroes after a number

1 million = 1000000

Calculation:

40% of households using RO

So, the number of RO users

⇒ 830,000000 × (40/100)

⇒ 332,000000 = 332 million

∴ The correct answer is option 1

Given

The marked price of 85 items is the cost price of 153 items

The selling price of 104 items equals the marked price of 65 items

Formula used:

Profit percentage = $\frac{SP-CP}{CP}$× 100

Calculation

Let the marked price be M, the selling price be S, and the cost price be C.

⇒ MP × 85 = 153 × CP 

⇒ MP/CP = 153 / 85  = 9/5 

⇒  SP × 104 = MP × 65 

⇒ SP/MP = 65 /104 = 5/8 

Solving this we get the ratio = CP : SP : MP = 40:45:72

∴ Profit percentage = $\frac{45-40}{40}$× 100 = 12.5% profit

Given:

Principal = Rs. 450

Rate = 4.5%

SI = Rs. 81

Formula used:

SI = (P× R × T)/100

Calculation:

According to the question

⇒ 81 = (450 × 4.5 × T)/100

⇒ 81 = 2025T/100

⇒ 2025T = 8100

⇒ T = 4 years

∴ The required time will be 4 years

Given:

The ratio of Ram's salary to Shyam's salary = 3 ∶ 4

The ratio of Shyam’s salary to Ghanshyam's salary = 5 ∶ 6

Concept used:

a : b , b : c 

a:c = ( a / b ) × (b / c )

Calculations:

Ram's salary : Shyam's salary = 3 : 4

Shyam's salary : Ghanshyam's salary = 5 : 6 

⇒ Ram's salary : Ghanshyam's salary = (Ram's salary /  Shyam's salary) ×  ( Shyam's salary / Ghanshyam's salary )

⇒ Ram's salary : Ghanshyam's salary = (3 / 4) × ( 5 / 6 )

⇒ Ram's salary : Ghanshyam's salary = 5 / 8 = 5: 8

Given:

Length (l) of cuboidal box = 25 cm

Breadth (b) of cuboidal box = 15 cm

Volume of box = 1875 cm³

Formula Used:

Volume of cuboid = Length × Breadth × Height

Calculation:

Volume of the box = l × b × h

⇒ 1875 = 25 × 15 × h

⇒ h = 15 cm

∴ The correct answer is 5 cm.

Given:

Number of students in statistics discipline in college A = 250

Number of students in statistics discipline in college B = 320

Number of students in statistics discipline in college C = 400

Number of students in statistics discipline in college D = 250

Calculation:

From the data given in the table, we can say that,

Number of students in statistics discipline in college C = 400 is the highest among 250, 320, 400,250

∴ The correct answer is college C has the maximum number of students in Statistics.

Given:

AB = 16 cm

PB = 6 cm

PD = 12 cm

Concept Used:

When two chords of a circle intersect within the circle, the product of the segments of one chord is equal to the product of the segments of the other chord.

Solution:

AP = AB - PB = 16 - 6 = 10 cm

According to the concept,

⇒ AP × PB = PC × PD

⇒ 10 × 6 = PC × 12

⇒ PC = (10 × 6)/12 = 5 cm

∴ The value of PC is 5 cm.

The correct answer is "Accomodate."

Key Points

• The correct spelling of the word is "Accommodate."
• The word "Accommodate" means to provide lodging or to fit in with someone's wishes or needs. (एक विशेष संख्‍या में लोगों के कहीं बैठने या ठहरने की पर्याप्त सुविधा होना)
• Example: Each apartment can accommodate up to six people.
• It is often misspelt as "Accomodate" due to confusion with the double "m" and double "c."
• The correct spelling can be remembered by breaking it down into "accommodate" and "ate", with two "m"s and two "c"s in the first part.
• The correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (Ambassador) is correctly spelled and refers to a high-ranking diplomat. (राजदूत; विदेश में किसी देश का आधिकारिक प्रतिनिधि)
• Option 2 (Architecture) is correctly spelled and refers to the design and construction of buildings. (भवन निर्माण का अध्ययन या विज्ञान; वास्‍तुकला, स्‍थापत्‍यकला)
• Option 3 (Awful) is correctly spelled and means extremely bad or unpleasant. (बहुत बुरा, अत्‍यधिक अरुचिकर)

The correct answer is 'accused in.'

 Key Point

• The error lies in the usage of "in" after the verb "accuse."
• The correct preposition to use after 'accused' is 'of', not 'in.'
• Example: It had provided the opportunity for him to accuse her of being unfaithful.
• So, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct sentence: "The government has been accused of not doing enough to combat climate change."

The correct answer is "Fleeting."

 Key Points

• The word "transient" means lasting only for a short time or temporary. (कुछ अवधि तक जारी रहनेवाला; क्षणिक, क्षणभंगुर, अस्थायी)
• Example: She shows transient anger.
• The synonyms of "transient" include fleeting, temporary, brief, and short-lived.
• "Fleeting" means lasting for a very short time. (बहुत कम समय तक चलने वाला)
• Example: For a fleeting moment, I saw the face of a boy.
• In the given sentence, the word "transient" is used to describe the rains, which means that they were not long-lasting and caused harm to the crops in the north.
• Therefore, the most appropriate synonym for "transient" in this context is "fleeting."
• The correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (Perpetual) means continuing indefinitely or never-ending. (लगातार लंबे समय तक बना रहने वाला; अविरल, शाश्‍वत)

• Option 2 (Long) means lasting or taking a great amount of time. (लंबे समय तक)

• Option 4 (Stable) means not likely to change or move. (स्थिर, मज़बूत और जिसमें परिवर्तन संभावित नहीं; अनबदला)

The correct answer is "DACB."

 Key Points

• The sentence is about talented people and their dialogue skills.
• The first part of the sentence is missing, so we need to start with the part that makes sense: "It is." So, the first part is D.
• The next logical part is "not the least talented", which sets up a comparison. So, the next part is A.
• The third part should be the one that contrasts with "not the least talented", which is "the most talented people". So, C must follow A.
• Finally, we need to add the part that explains what the most talented people are doing, which is "who are continually trying to improve their dialogue skills". So, the last part is B.
• The correct answer is option 1.
• Correct sentence:

It is the most talented people who are continually trying to improve their dialogue skills, not the least talented.

The correct answer is "since."

 Key Points

• The word "since" is used to indicate the starting point of a period of time.
• It refers to a time (an action that begun in the past and is still continuing).
• In this sentence, "since" is the most appropriate option as it indicates that the rain started in the morning and is still continuing.
• Example: We have been married since 1996.
• The word "from" is used to refer to a place or time at which any event/action/journey starts/initiates. The word since is used to refer to the time passed between then and now.
• Example: The movie will run from 10:00 a.m to 12:00 p.m.
• The word "for" would indicate a duration of time, but it doesn't fit the context of the sentence as it doesn't convey that the rain is still ongoing.
• Example: I was waiting for an hour.
• The correct answer is Option 3.

Correct sentence: It has been raining since morning.

Additional Information

• Option 1: "For" indicates a duration of time.
• Example: "I have been waiting for two hours."
• Option 2: "Though" indicates a contrast or concession.
• Example: "Though it was raining, we still went for a walk."
• Option 4: "Till" indicates an end point.
• Example: "The store is open till 10 PM."

The correct answer is "dishonesty."

 Key Points

• "Decent" means conforming to standards of propriety, good taste, or morality. (शालीन; उचित, उपयुक्त)
• Example: All she wants is a decent job with decent wages.
• "Dishonesty" means the practice of being dishonest; lack of straightforwardness. (बेईमानी, धोखा)
• Example: Mistakes and misunderstandings are a far more common cause of complaint than deliberate dishonesty.
• Therefore, "dishonesty" is the most appropriate antonym for "decent."
• The correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 2, "ethical" means relating to moral principles or the branch of knowledge dealing with these. (उचित-अनुचित के विचार से संबंधित; नैतिक)
• Option 3, "downfall" means a sudden loss of power, prosperity, or status. (धन, सत्ता, समाज में आदर आदि की हानि, अधःपतन; अधःपतनकारी वस्‍तु)
• Option 4, "true" means in accordance with fact or reality. (ठीक या सही)

The correct answer is "Let me read the book."

 Key Points

• The rules for changing an imperative sentence from passive to active voice is as follows:
• In passive voice, the object of the active sentence becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• The subject of the active sentence becomes the agent (or doer) of the action in the passive sentence.
• To form the passive voice, use the auxiliary verb "be" + past participle of the main verb.
• In this sentence, "let" is already in the passive form, so we only need to change the subject and object.
• An imperative sentence in the passive voice has the following form:
• Structure:
• Let + subject + V1 + object. (Active voice)
• Let + object + be + past participle of the verb. (Passive voice)
• Example: ​
• Let us call Riya. (Active Voice)
• Let Riya be called by us. (Passive Voice)
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct sentence: Let me read the book.

The correct answer is "to make an attempt."

 Key Points

• "Have a bash" is an idiom that means to try something. (कुछ प्रयास करना)
• Example: I've never done it before, but I'll have a bash at it.
• The word "bash" can also mean a party or celebration, but in this context, it means to attempt something.
• This idiom is commonly used in informal settings.
• It can be used in a positive or negative sense, depending on the context.
• The correct answer is Option 2.

The correct answer is "D, A, C, B."

 Key Points

• The subject of the sentence is "Catherine and David," so the first part must be D.
• Part A has the verb "said," so A must follow D.
• The first part of the object is "that they are," so C must follow A.
• The second part of the object is "very sorry to hear this news," so the last part is B.
• The correct answer is Option 2.

Correct sentence: Catherine and David said that they are very sorry to hear this news.

The correct answer is "is not enough big to meet."

 Key Points

• The error lies in the part "enough big" of the sentence.
• The correct phrase is "is not big enough to meet" instead of "is not enough big to meet."
• The error is in the placement of the words "enough" and "big."
• "Enough" should come after the adjective "big" to modify it.
• The correct answer is Option 2.

Correct sentence: The food container is not big enough to meet the demands of the affected people.

The correct answer is "Gift of the gab."

 Key Points

• "Gift of the gab" is an idiom that means the ability to speak easily and confidently. (आसानी से और आत्मविश्वास से बोलने की क्षमता)
• Example: My friend had the gift of the gab and gradually defused the situation.
• The sentence suggests that Meera may not have many qualifications, but she is skilled at speaking.
• The use of this idiom emphasizes Meera's speaking abilities as a valuable asset.
• The correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 2, "Hope against hope", means to continue hoping for something even when it seems unlikely. (किसी चीज़ की आशा तब भी जारी रखना जब वह असंभावित लगे)
• Option 3, "An acid tongue", refers to someone who speaks harshly or critically. (कोई व्यक्ति जो कठोर या आलोचनात्मक ढंग से बोलता हो)
• Option 4, "A lick of paint", means a fresh coat of paint on something. (किसी चीज़ पर पेंट का ताज़ा कोट)

The correct answer is "in the movie theater was reduced."

 Key Points

• The error lies in the part "theater were reduced."
• According to the subject-verb agreement, a singular subject takes a singular verb and a plural subject takes a plural verb.
• The subject "number of seats" is singular, so the verb should also be singular ("was" instead of "were").
• "Of the movie theater" is grammatically incorrect because "number of seats" is not a possession of the theater.
• "Were being reduced" implies a continuous action, which is not necessary in this context.
• "Are reduced" is present tense, which is incorrect because the action has already happened in the past.
• The correct answer is Option 1.

Correct sentence: The number of seats in the movie theater was reduced to comply with the new social distancing guidelines.

The correct answer is "shody."

 Key Points

• The correct word is "shoddy."
• "Shoddy" means made of poor quality or inferior workmanship. (लापरवाही या घटिया माल से बना)
• Example: Those were shoddy goods.
• "Shody" is not a word in the English language.
• The correct answer is Option 2.

Correct sentence: "The lack of mutual bonding was conspicuous from their shoddy body language in the marriage party."

Additional Information

• Option 1, "conspicuous," is a correct word meaning easily noticeable or standing out. (सुस्‍पष्‍ट, प्रकट, साफ़, प्रत्‍यक्ष)
• Option 3, "marriage," is a correct word referring to a union between two people. (पति-पत्‍नी होने की स्थिति; विवाह, शादी)
• Option 4, "mutual," is a correct word meaning shared or common between two or more parties. ((कोई मनोभाव या क्रिया) दोनों पक्षों द्वारा समान रूप से एक दूसरे के प्रति अनूभूत या संपादित, पारस्‍परिक, आपसी)