SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 11 Aug, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Logic : (Cube of 1st number - 7) = 2nd number

Given :

• (7, 336)

$(7)^3$ - 7 = 336

343 - 7 = 336

336 = 336 (LHS = RHS)

And,

• (9, 722)

$(9)^3$ - 9 = 722

729 - 7 = 722

722 = 722 (LHS = RHS)

So, 

• Option - (1) : (5, 132)

$(5)^3$ - 7 = 132

125 - 7 = 132

118 ≠ 132 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (2) : (11, 1331)

$(11)^3$ - 7 = 1331

1331 - 7 = 1331

1324 ≠ 1331 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : (4, 57)

$(4)^3$ - 7 = 57

64 - 7 = 57

57 = 57 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (4) : (12, 1735)

$(12)^3$ - 7 = 1735

1728 - 7 = 1735

1721 ≠ 1735 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given combination when mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Detailed Explanation:

• The line MN is the mirror
• The word "kme27a" the second letter is "m". So, the mirror image should be "

"  ⇒ Option 1 is eliminated.

• The word "kme27a" the first letter is "k". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 3 is eliminated..

• The word "kme27a" the third letter is "e". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 4 is eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (2)".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some lilies are tulips → Does not follow (As some daisies are lilies and some tulips are daisies. So, it is possible but not definitely true)

II. Some roses are daisies → Does not follow (As some daisies are lilies and all roses are lilies. So, it is possible but not definitely true)

∴ Here, Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows".

Logic : $(1st number)^4$ - 1001 = 2nd number

So,

• 6 : 295

$(6)^4$ - 1001 = 295

1296 - 1001 = 295

295 = 295 (LHS = RHS)

And,

• 7 : 1400

$(7)^4$ - 1001 = 1400

2401 - 1001 = 1400

1400 = 1400 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

• 8 : ?

$(8)^4$ - 1001 = ?

4096 - 1001 = ?

3095 = ?

Hence, "3095" is the correct answer.

Given : word → NEUTRAL

So, according to question rearranging the word in alphabetic : 

Thus, according to the final arrangement two letter i.e 'E' and 'R' remains unchanged.

Hence, "Two" is the correct answer.

According to the question,

Given that: 39 A 3 B 11 C 57 D 29 = ?

After replacing the symbols with their meanings, we get :-

39 ÷ 3 × 11 + 57 - 29 = ? 

13 × 11 + 57 - 29 = ?

143 + 57 - 29 = ?

200 - 29 = ?

171 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is "171".

According to the given information,

Thus, according to the given codes 'mat' is the code for the word 'black'.

Hence, the correct answer is "mat".

According to the question,

Given that: 37 C 28 B 6 D 322 A 23 = ?

After replacing the symbols with their meanings, we get :-

37 + 28 × 6 - 322 ÷ 23 = ? 

37 + 28 × 6 - 14 = ?

37 + 168 - 14 = ?

205 - 14 = ?

191 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is "191".

Logic : Consecutive whole number series is added subsequently.

Hence, "23" is the correct answer.

Given : word → DIALECT

So, according to question rearranging the word in alphabetic : 

Thus, according to the final arrangement only one letter i.e 'T' remains unchanged.

Hence, "One" is the correct answer.

Logic : No specific pattern is followed here, random codes are assigned to each letter.

So,

• 'PELT' is coded as '8257'
• 'TAPE' is coded as '5712'

As some letters are common, so the codes will be :

​Therefore,

• 'L' will be coded as:

'L' is coded as '8'.

​Hence, "8" is the correct answer.

So,

• Looking at a woman sitting next to him, Gaurav said, "She is the sister of the husband of my wife."

​

As, it is clear from the family tree that the women is the sister of Gaurav.

Hence, "Sister" is the correct answer.

Given :

Given statement : K ÷ L × M - N + O

So,

• K ÷ L → K is the father of L.

• L × M → L is the wife of M.

• M - N → M is the brother of N.

• N + O → N is the mother of O.

​

Thus, according to the final family tree M is the maternal uncle i.e mother's brother of O.

Hence, "Mother's brother" is the correct answer.

Logic : Opposite letter according to English alphabetic series.

​​So,

• GMRW is related to TNID

​ 

​And,

• AJQV is related to ZQJE

​ 

​Similarly,

• ITZB is related to ?

​ 

Hence, "RGAY" is the correct answer.

Logic : Decreasing odd number series is subtracted from each number along with common difference of (4).

Hence, "255" is the correct answer.

Logic : (1st number × 2) + 11 = 2nd number

So, 

• Option - (1) : 63 : 137

(63 × 2) + 11 = 137

126 + 11 = 137

137 = 137 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (2) : 70 : 151

(70 × 2) + 11 = 151

140 + 11 = 151

151 = 151 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (3) : 47 : 83

(47 × 2) + 11 = 83

94 + 11 = 83

105 ≠ 83 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (4) : 34 : 79

(34 × 2) + 11 = 79

68 + 11 = 79

79 ≠ 79 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (4)".

Logic : 

• First and third letter → (3) is subtracted from the position value according to English alphabetic series.
• Second letter → (4) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.

​​So,

​

Hence, "MDT" is the correct answer.

Logic :- (5) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.

Given :

• CGJ : HLO

And,

• KPS : PUX

​So,

• Option - (1) : FKL : KPQ

• Option - (2) : WXY : GEF

• Option - (3) : DEF : ABC​

• Option - (4) : HGK : SQP​

Thus, out of all options only 'FKL : KPQ' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (1)".

Logic : 

• Difference between first letter and second letter position value according to English alphabetic series is (1).
• Difference between second letter and third letter position value according to English alphabetic series is (3).

So,

• Option - (1) : NOR

• Option - (2) : LNP

​

• Option - (3) : DEH

• Option - (4) : LMP

Thus, out of all options only 'LNP' doesn't follow the same logic as others.

​Hence, "DJP" is the correct answer.

Logic : 

• First and second letter → (2) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.
• Third letter → (2) is subtracted from the position value according to English alphabetic series.

​​So,

​

Hence, "IJR" is the correct answer.

Logic : 

• First letter → (1) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.
• Number → Alternately (3) is subtracted and multiplied by (2).
• Third letter → (2) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.

​​So,

Hence, "U 26 L" is the correct answer.

Logic : (1st number + 3rd number) = 2nd number 

So, 

• Option - (1) : 84 : 294 : 210

84 + 210 = 294

2 = 30 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (2) : 68 : 238 : 170

68 + 170 = 238

238 = 238 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (3) : 96 : 336 : 192

96 + 192 = 336

288 ≠ 336 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (4) : 52 : 182 : 130

52 + 130 = 182

182 = 182 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

The number of triangles in the given figure is shown below :

   

   

   

Thus, there are total 9 triangles in the given figure.

Hence, "9" is the correct answer.

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1. For 'P' element → Shifting in the forward direction subsequently.

2. For 'E' element → → Shifting in the forward direction subsequently.

3. For 'N' element → Shifting in the forward direction subsequently.

4. For 'C' element → Shifting in the forward direction subsequently.

5. For 'I' element → Shifting in the forward direction subsequently.

6. For 'L' element → Shifting diagonally and then diagonally in downward direction subsequently.

Final series is

Hence, ‘option - (1)’ is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 9th.

Key Points

• Sulaiman, also known as Sulaiman al-Tajir, visited India in the 9^th century.
• He was an Arab traveler and merchant who wrote about his travels in a book called "Kitab al-Masalik wa al-Mamalik" (Book of Roads and Kingdoms).
• Sulaiman's account of his journey provides valuable information about the political, social, and economic conditions of India during that time.

Additional Information 

• The 15^th century was a significant period in Indian history, marked by the rise of the Vijayanagara Empire and the arrival of the Portuguese.
• The 11^th century saw the reign of King Rajendra Chola, who expanded the Chola Empire through conquest and trade.
• The 6^th century was a time of political and social upheaval in India, with the decline of the Gupta Empire and the emergence of regional kingdoms.

The correct answer is Mridangam.

Key Points

• Ramnad V Raghavan is associated with the Mridangam, which is a percussion instrument commonly used in Carnatic music.
• In Madurai, Tamil Nadu, India, he was born into P. Vaidyanatha Ayyar and Brhannayaki, in the Kooniyur village of the Tirunelveli district.
• Renowned Carnatic vocalist Ramnad Krishnan was his older brother.

Additional Information

• The flute is a wind instrument that is used in many different types of music, including classical, folk, and popular music.
• The bansuri gained international recognition thanks to the performances and compositions of Indian flutist Hariprasad Chaurasia.
• The sitar is a stringed instrument that is commonly used in Hindustani classical music.
• Indian musician, sitarist, composer, and National Orchestra of India founder Ravi Shankar had a significant impact in promoting Western awareness of Indian music.
• The sarod is another type of stringed instrument that is also commonly used in Hindustani classical music.
• In India, Amjad Ali Khan is a well-known sarod player.

The correct answer is Manika Batra.

Key Points

• Manika Batra is the first Indian paddler who win a medal at the ITTF-ATTU Asia Cup 2022.
• The International Table Tennis Federation (ITTF) is the governing body of table tennis worldwide.
• Asian Table Tennis Union (ATTU) is the governing body of table tennis in Asia.

Additional Information

• Mouma Das is a former Indian table tennis player from Kolkatta.
• At the 2018 Commonwealth Games, Das took home several medals, including a gold in the women's team competition.
• Manti Ghosh is an Indian table tennis player who has won several national level tournaments.
• Naina Jaiswal is not a known Indian table tennis player.

The correct answer is Padmaja Reddy.

 Key Points

• Padma Shri Award 2022 was given to Padmaja Reddy, a Kuchipudi dancer from Telangana.
• She presents ballets that explore modern societal challenges and mythological themes.
• She directed the Kuchipudi visual dance style known as Kakatiyam.
• Padma Shri Award is one of the highest civilian awards given by the Government of India.
• Kuchipudi is a classical dance form of Andhra Pradesh, India.

Additional Information

• Pallavi Krishnan is a Bharatanatyam dancer.
• She is from Kerala.
• Sunanda Nair is a Mohiniyattam dancer.
• She is also from Kerala.
• Sitara Devi was a Kathak dancer from Uttar Pradesh.
• She passed away in 2014.

The correct answer is I < Br < F < CI.

Key Points

• The electron affinity of halogens is the energy change that occurs when an electron is added to a neutral atom to form a negative ion.
• The correct order of electron affinity of halogens is I < Br < F < CI.
• This is because as we move down the group, the atomic radius increases, and the distance between the nucleus and the valence electrons increases, leading to a decrease in the attraction between the nucleus and the added electron.

Additional Information

• The chemical element iodine has the atomic number 53 and the symbol I.
• The heaviest stable halogen, it is a semi-lustrous, non-metallic solid at ordinary circumstances.
• At normal temperature, bromine is a naturally occurring liquid element.
• It dissolves in water and has a brownish-red color and bleach-like smell.
• The chemical element fluorine has an atomic number of nine and the symbol F.
• Fluorine is a gas at room temperature and is categorized as a halogen.
• The chemical element chlorine has the atomic number 17 and the symbol Cl.
• The second-lightest of the halogens, it is found on the periodic table between fluorine and bromine, with most of its properties falling in the middle of the two.

The correct answer is Article 21.

Key Points

• Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which includes the right to live with dignity.
• The government is responsible for ensuring the protection of fundamental rights and the welfare of its citizens, especially those who are vulnerable and marginalized.

Additional Information

• Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes the practice of untouchability and prohibits its enforcement in any form.
• Article 15 prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• This article is important for ensuring social justice and equality.
• Article 19 protects the freedom of speech and expression, the right to assemble peaceably and without arms, the right to form associations or unions, and the right to move freely throughout the territory of India.

The correct answer is Lala Lajpat Rai.

 Key Points

• Lala Lajpat Rai was a prominent Indian freedom fighter and leader of the Indian National Congress.
• He was a vocal opponent of British rule in India and played a key role in the Indian independence movement.
• In 1928, he led a protest against the Simon Commission, a British government initiative to review the Indian constitution, which was seen as an attempt to prolong British rule.
• During the protest, Lala Lajpat Rai was brutally beaten by the police and sustained serious injuries.
• He died a few weeks later.
• His death sparked widespread outrage and further fuelled the Indian independence movement.

Additional Information

• Lala Hardayal was another Indian freedom fighter and founder of the Ghadar Party, which was dedicated to the overthrow of British rule in India.
• He died March 4, 1939.
• Bhagat Singh was a revolutionary socialist who played a key role in the Indian independence movement.
• He was executed by the British government in 1931.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a prominent Indian nationalist and social reformer who advocated for Indian self-rule and played a key role in the Indian National Congress.
• He died in 1920.

The correct answer is National Statistical Office (NSO).

Key Points

• The National Statistical Office (NSO) conducts a survey on household consumption expenditure every five years to estimate the poverty line in India.
• The poverty line is defined as the minimum level of income required to meet the basic needs of an individual.
• The survey collects data on various parameters such as food and non-food consumption, health and education expenditure, and housing conditions.
• The poverty line is calculated based on the cost of a minimum food basket plus expenditure on non-food items.
• The poverty line is used to identify households that are eligible for various welfare schemes such as food subsidies, rural employment guarantee schemes, and housing programs.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Finance:
• It is responsible for preparing the Union Budget of India and managing the country's public finances.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• It is the central bank of India and is responsible for regulating the country's monetary policy and managing its foreign exchange reserves.
• Ministry of Rural Development:​
• ​It is responsible for implementing various rural development programs such as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme, Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana, and Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.
• The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) is a wing of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation and is responsible for conducting large-scale sample surveys in diverse fields on an All India basis.

The correct answer is A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III.

Key Points

• The correct answer matches Bihar with Chhath, Arunachal Pradesh with Tam Ladu, Assam with Bihu, and Goa with Fatorpa Zatra.
• Chhath is a popular festival in Bihar, where people worship the sun god and take dips in rivers and ponds.
• Tam Ladu is a festival in Arunachal Pradesh that celebrates the harvest season, and people offer prayers and sacrifices to the deities.
• Bihu is a set of three cultural festivals in Assam that mark the beginning of the agricultural season and involve dance, music, and feasting.
• Fatorpa Zatra is a carnival-like festival in Goa that honors the village deity and includes parades, music, and fireworks.

Additional Information

• Bihar is also known for other festivals like Makar Sankranti, Holi, and Diwali.
• Arunachal Pradesh has several other festivals like Losar, Dree, and Si-Donyi.
• Assam also celebrates festivals like Durga Puja, Eid, and Christmas.
• Goa is famous for its Carnival, Christmas, and New Year celebrations.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Rajasthan has the highest share of limestone production in India, accounting for about 29% of the total production in the country.
• With 27% of the total resources, Karnataka is the most resource-rich state, followed by Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh (12% each), Gujarat (10%), and Meghalaya (9%).
• Limestone is a sedimentary rock composed mainly of calcium carbonate and is used in various industries, including cement, steel, and chemicals.
• The two minerals that make up limestone's majority are aragonite and calcite, which are distinct crystal forms of CaCO₃.
• When these minerals separate from water that has dissolved calcium, limestone is created.

Additional Information

• Telangana has only a small share of about 1% of the total production.
• Chhattisgarh is the second-largest producer of limestone in India.
• It is accounting for about 17% of the total production.
• Madhya Pradesh is also a significant producer of limestone.
• It has a share of about 13% of the total production.

The correct answer is Fifth.

 Key Points

• Sunil Chhetri became the fifth-highest goal scorer in international football appearances as of March 2023.
• He surpassed the legendary Lionel Messi, who was in the sixth position with 72 goals.
• Sunil Chhetri has scored 74 goals in 117 appearances for India.
• He is regarded as one of the greatest footballers in Indian history and has won numerous awards and accolades.
• Sunil Chhetri is known for his exceptional skills, speed, and agility on the field.

Additional Information

• Football is a family of team sports where goal-scoring is achieved through kicking a ball to differing degrees.
• The Football League, the first of many professional football associations, was established in England in 1888.
• The worldwide governing organization of futsal, beach soccer, and association football is called the Fédération internationale de football association.
• It was established in 1904 to supervise national associations from Belgium, Denmark, France, Germany, the Netherlands, Spain, Sweden, and Switzerland in their international rivalry.
• 211 national associations currently make up its membership, which is headquartered in Zürich, Switzerland.

The correct answer is The Planning Commission. 

Key Points

• The Planning Commission was established in 1950 to formulate and implement economic plans and policies for the country.
• It was responsible for creating five-year plans for the development of various sectors in India.
• The first five-year plan was launched in 1951 and focused on agriculture, irrigation, power, and transport.
• Subsequent plans addressed issues such as poverty alleviation, industrialization, and education.

Additional Information

• The Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog in 2015.
• The new organization is responsible for providing strategic and technical advice to the government on various policy matters.
• The Parliament is the supreme legislative body of India, consisting of the President, the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), and the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
• It is responsible for enacting laws and overseeing the functioning of the government.
• The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that is responsible for recommending the distribution of tax revenues between the central and state governments.
• It is also responsible for recommending measures to improve the financial position of the states.

The correct answer is To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife.

 Key Points

• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment was passed in 1976 during the emergency period in India.
• It was a controversial amendment as it granted more powers to the central government and curtailed the powers of the state governments.
• The amendment added several new principles to the Indian Constitution, including the protection and improvement of the environment.
• This principle is important as India is a country with diverse ecological systems and wildlife, and environmental degradation has become a major issue in recent years.

Additional Information

• The State shall provide free and compulsory education - which was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002.
• This amendment made education a fundamental right for children aged 6-14 years.
• Organizing agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines - is a directive principle of state policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution.
• DPSPs are non-justiciable principles that the state is expected to follow but cannot be enforced by courts.
• Reservation of SCs and STs in services - is a provision made in the Indian Constitution to provide affirmative action to historically marginalized communities.

The correct answer is 'October - December'

Key Points

• Rabi crops:
• Rabi crops are typically sown at the beginning of the winter season, around October, and harvested in spring, around March or April.
• The sowing period is crucial because the crops depend on the winter rains brought by the western disturbances.
• Common rabi crops include wheat, barley, peas, gram, and mustard, which are suited to the cooler growing conditions.

Additional Information

• Kharif crops:
• Kharif crops are sown with the onset of the monsoon in different parts of India, usually from June to July, and harvested from September to October.
• These crops depend largely on rainwater and include paddy, maize, sorghum, and millets.
• Zaid crops:
• This season includes crops like watermelon, cucumber, and other vegetables and fruits that are heat-tolerant and require short growing periods.

The correct answer is tide.

 Key Points

• Tides are the periodic rise and fall of sea water levels caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and the sun.
• The cycle of high tides and low tides occurs twice a day, with a period of about 12 hours and 25 minutes.
• Tides are important for navigation, fishing, and other marine activities.
• They also play a role in shaping coastlines and ecosystems.

Additional Information

• Waves are the movement of energy through the water caused by wind, earthquakes, or other disturbances.
• They can be large or small and travel long distances.
• Sea currents are the continuous flow of water in the ocean caused by differences in temperature, salinity, and wind patterns.
• They can be surface currents or deep currents and have a significant impact on climate and marine life.
• A brief influx of water onto ordinarily dry terrain is known as flooding.
• Rain, snow, storm surges, coastal storms, river overflows, and dam failure can all cause flooding.
• Floods are not always safe.

The correct answer is 1772.

Key Points

• East India Company abolished the diarchy system of Bengal in 1772.
• The Diarchy system refers to the dual system of administration where the British East India Company shared power with the Nawabs of Bengal.
• The diarchy system was abolished due to various reasons, including the Company's desire for more direct control over Bengal and the inefficiency and corruption of the system.
• The Company's officials believed that the system was hindering their efforts to extract maximum revenue from Bengal.
• After the abolition of the diarchy system, the Company took direct control over Bengal's administration and introduced various reforms to improve the efficiency and transparency of the system.

Additional Information

• The system was introduced in 1765 through the Treaty of Allahabad signed between the Company and the Mughal Emperor.
• The diarchy system gave the Company control over revenue collection and civil administration, while the Nawabs retained control over the police and criminal justice system.
• Year 1757 is the year when the Battle of Plassey took place and the Company gained control over Bengal.

The correct answer is the Ministry of Finance.

 Key Points

• The Ministry of Finance is responsible for issuing coins of all denominations in India.
• The coins are minted by the government-owned Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL) and its four mints located in Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, and Noida.
• The coins are issued on behalf of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which is the country's central bank.
• The coins are legal tender and can be used for transactions in India.

Additional Information

• The Ministry of External Affairs is responsible for India's foreign policy, diplomatic relations with other countries, and international trade and cooperation.
• It was formed on 2 September 1946.
• The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for maintaining internal security, law and order, disaster management, and border management.
• It was formed on 15 August 1947.
• The Ministry of Mines is responsible for the development and regulation of the mining sector, including exploration, production, and marketing of minerals.
• Its headquarter is in New Delhi.

The correct answer is Only i and ii.

 Key Points

• Currency notes do not have intrinsic value, meaning they are not valuable in and of themselves, but rather are valuable because they are widely accepted as a medium of exchange.
• Currency notes are often referred to as fiat money because their value is derived from government decree rather than being backed by a physical commodity such as gold or silver.
• Currency notes are legal tender, meaning they must be accepted as payment for debts and taxes.

Additional Information

• The official currency of India is the rupee.
• One rupee is divided into one hundred paise.
• The Reserve Bank of India is in charge of currency issuance.
• The Reserve Bank of India Act, of 1934, provides the Reserve Bank of India with the authority to manage money in India.

The correct answer is GDP - Depreciation.

 Key Points

• Net domestic product (NDP) is the total value of goods and services produced within a country's borders, minus the depreciation of capital goods.
• Depreciation is the decrease in value of an asset over time due to wear and tear, obsolescence, or other factors.
• GDP - Depreciation is the correct answer because it subtracts the amount of capital goods that have been consumed or used up in the production process from the gross domestic product (GDP).

Additional Information

• GNP - Depreciation is incorrect because it subtracts the amount of capital goods used up in the production process from the gross national product (GNP), which measures the total value of goods and services produced by a country's residents, regardless of their location.
• Gross domestic product (GDP) is the total value of goods and services produced within a country's borders, regardless of the nationality of the producers.
• Gross national product (GNP) is the total value of goods and services produced by a country's residents, regardless of their location.
• Net income earned from abroad is the difference between the income earned by a country's residents from abroad (such as from foreign investments or employment) and the income earned by foreigners within the country.
• Depreciation is an important factor to consider in calculating NDP because it reflects the decrease in the value of capital goods over time and the need for reinvestment in new capital goods to maintain or increase production levels.

The correct answer is From S-pole to N-pole of the magnet.

Key Points

• The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet run from the South pole to the North pole of the magnet.
• This is because the magnetic field is oriented in such a way that it flows from the South pole to the North pole.
• The strength of the magnetic field is greatest at the poles of the magnet and gradually decreases as you move away from them.
• The orientation of the magnetic field is determined by the orientation of the magnetic domains within the magnet, not its shape or size.

Additional Information

• Magnetic lines of force are also known as magnetic field lines or flux lines.
• They represent the direction and strength of the magnetic field at each point in space.
• The direction of the magnetic field is defined as the direction that a compass needle would point if placed at that point in space.
• The strength of the magnetic field is proportional to the density of the magnetic field lines, with more lines indicating a stronger field.
• Magnetic fields are created by the movement of electric charges, such as the flow of electrons in a wire or the spinning of electrons within atoms.

The correct answer is Hotels and restaurants.

 Key Points

• Hotels and restaurants are a component of the tertiary sector of an economy.
• The tertiary sector is also known as the service sector, and it includes all activities that provide services to consumers and other businesses.
• In the three-sector model, the third economic sector is the tertiary sector.
• The primary and secondary sectors are the others.

Additional Information

• Mining and quarrying is a component of the primary sector of an economy, which includes all activities related to natural resources extraction.
• Water supply is a component of the utility sector of an economy, which includes all activities related to the provision of public utilities such as water, electricity, and gas.
• Electricity is also a component of the utility sector of an economy, as it is a public utility that is essential for many other economic activities.
• All operations with the ultimate goal of using up natural resources—agricultural, fishing, forestry, mining, and deposits—are included in the primary sector.
• The portion of the economy centered on manufacturing is known as the secondary sector.
• Construction, fabrication, assembly, distillation, and purification are examples of secondary sector activities.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• The first Asian Games were held in India in 1951.
• The event was officially called the First Asian Games, and it was held in New Delhi.
• The Indian Olympic Association was responsible for organizing the event.
• The Asian Games are now held every four years, and they feature athletes from all over Asia.

Additional Information

• Thailand hosted the Asian Games in 1966 and 1998.
• Indonesia hosted the Asian Games in 1962, and 2018.
• Japan hosted the Asian Games in 1958 and 1994.
• The most recent iteration of the games took place from September 23, 2023, to October 8, 2023, in Hangzhou, China.
• With the most medals earned, People's Republic of China is in the lead in the medal standings.
• India has so far taken home 107 medals, including 28 gold ones.

The correct answer is Trypanosoma brucei.

Key Points

• Sleeping sickness is caused by the microscopic parasite Trypanosoma brucei.
• The disease is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected tsetse flies, which are found in sub-Saharan Africa.
• If left untreated, sleeping sickness can cause serious neurological damage and eventually lead to death.
• Treatment involves medication that targets the parasite, but early diagnosis is critical as the disease becomes more difficult to treat as it progresses.

Additional Information

• Balantioides coli is a protozoan parasite.
• It can infect humans and animals.
• Giardia duodenalis is a parasite that causes a diarrheal illness called giardiasis.
• These have a pear-like form and are between 10 and 20 micrometers long.
• Cyclospora cayetanensis is another parasitic pathogen that can cause diarrhea.
• Numerous fresh vegetable varieties, such as raspberries, mesclun and romaine lettuce, snow peas, basil, and cilantro, have been connected to foodborne outbreaks.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Chari dance is a popular folk dance of Rajasthan, which is mainly performed by women of the Kanjar community.
• It is a celebratory dance that is performed during weddings and other festive occasions.
• The word "chari" means a pot or a vessel, and in this dance form, the women balance brass pots on their heads while dancing.
• The pots are often lit with cotton and ghee, which creates a beautiful effect in the dark.
• The dance is accompanied by traditional Rajasthani music, which is played on instruments like dholak, harmonium, and manjeera.
• The dancers move in a circular formation, and the dance is characterized by graceful movements and twirls.
• Chari dance is also considered a form of worship, as it is performed to please the deity Baba Ramdeo, who is believed to have magical powers.
• The dance is often performed in his honor at his temple in Rajasthan.

Additional Information

• Odisha is known for its rich cultural heritage and has several traditional dance forms like Odissi, Chhau, and Gotipua.
• Karnataka is famous for its classical dance form, Bharatanatyam, as well as folk dances like Yakshagana and Dollu Kunitha.
• Jharkhand has a rich tribal culture and is known for its folk dances like Jhumar, Paika, and Chhau.

The correct answer is lymphatic filariasis.

Key Points

• Lymphatic filariasis is a parasitic infection that can cause severe swelling and disability, known as elephantiasis.
• It is spread by mosquitoes and affects over 120 million people worldwide, with the majority of cases in India.
• The Sarva Dawa Sevan program aims to eliminate lymphatic filariasis by administering drugs to entire populations in high-risk areas, regardless of whether they are infected or not.
• This approach is known as mass drug administration.

Additional Information

• Thalassemia is a genetic blood disorder.
• It affects the production of hemoglobin, which can lead to anemia.
• Zika virus is a mosquito-borne virus.
• It can cause birth defects and neurological problems.
• Multi-drug resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is a form of tuberculosis that is resistant to the two most powerful anti-TB drugs.
• It is a serious public health threat in India.

Given:

1st principal (P₁) = Rs.4400

Rate (R₁) = 10% ; Time (T) = 12 years

2nd principal (P₂) = 7500

Rate (R₂) = 8% ; Time (T) = 12 years

Formula used:

S.I = (P × R × T)/100

Where, S.I = simple interest

R = rate% ; T = time

Calculation:

Total S.I = (4400 × 10 × 12)/100 + (7500 × 8 × 12)/100

⇒ 440 × 12 + 75 × 96

⇒ 5280 + 7200

⇒ Rs.12480

Total amount = total S.I + total principal

⇒ 12480 + 4400 + 7500

⇒ Rs.24380

∴ The correct answer is Rs.24380.

Calculation:

The number of employees who use bus = 150 × 20% = 30

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Given:

Distance between cities P and Q = 181 km

Speed of P = 30 km/h

Speed of Q = 35 km/h

Formula used:

Distance = relative speed × time

Calculation:

Distance covered by P in 24 minutes = (30 × 24)/60 = 12 km

Remaining distance between P and Q = 181 - 12 =  169 km

Distance = relative speed × time

⇒ 169 = (35 + 30) × time

⇒ Time = 169/65

⇒ Time = 13/5 = 2 hours 36 minutes

Required time = 8 hours 54 minute + 2 hours 36 minutes

⇒ 11 hours 30 minutes 

∴ The correct answer is 11:30 A.M.

Given:

The angle subtended by an arc at circumference = 55°

Concept used:

The angle subtended by an arc at the circumference is half 

the angle subtended by it at the centre of the circle.

Calculation:

 

∠ACB = 55°

∠AOB = 2 × ∠ACB

⇒ 2 × 55 = 110°

∴ The correct answer is 110°.

Given:

Father's age : son's age = 5 : 3

Father's age × son's age = 960

Calculation:

Let father's age = 5x

And son's age = 3x

According to the question:

⇒ 5x × 3x = 960

⇒ 15x² = 960

⇒ x² = 960/15 = 64

⇒ x = √64 = 8

Father's age = 5x = 5 × 8 = 40 years

Son's age = 3x = 3 × 8 = 24 years

Required ratio = 40 + 6 : 24 + 6

⇒ 46 : 30 = 23 : 15

∴ The correct option is 1.

Given:

Cost price (C.P) = 72% marked price (M.P)

Discount% = 6%

Formula used:

If discount = D% then

Selling price (S.P) = M.P × (100 - D)%

Profit = S.P - C.P

Profit% = (profit × 100)/C.P 

Calculation:

⇒ C.P = 72% × M.P

⇒ C.P/M.P = 72/100

So, C.P = 72 and M.P = 100

Selling price (S.P) = 100 × (100 - 6)%

⇒ 100 × 94% = Rs.94

Profit% = {(94 -72) × 100}/72

⇒ (22 × 100)/72

⇒ 275/9 =  30.55 ≈ 30.56%

∴ The correct answer is 30.56%.

Formula used:

(a² - b²) = (a + b) × (a - b)

Calculation:

$\frac{36a^2 - 49b^2}{6a + 7b}$

⇒ {(6a)² - (7b)²}/(6a + 7b)

⇒ {(6a + 7b) × (6a - 7b)}/(6a + 7b)

⇒ (6a - 7b)

∴ The correct answer is (6a - 7b).

Given:

A shopkeeper sells 930 grams instead of 1000 grams

Formula used:

Gain = (S.P - C.P)

Gain % = (P × 100)/C.P

Where, C.P = cost price

S.P = selling price ; P = profit

Calculation:

Let the price of 1 gram = Rs.1

The price of 1000 grams = Rs.1000

The price of 930 grams = Rs.930

Profit % = {(1000 - 930) × 100}/930

⇒ 700/93 = $7\frac{49}{93}$ %

∴ The correct answer is  $7\frac{49}{93}$ %.

Calculation:

Total number of teachers in Mathematics = 600 × 20% = 120

Total number of teachers in Biology = 600 × 20% = 120

Total number of teachers in Social Studies = 600 × 20% = 120

Total number of teachers in Mathematics, Biology and Social Studies:

120 + 120 + 120 = 360

∴ The correct answer is 360.

Given:

First discount (D₁)% = 20%

Second discount (D₂) = 30%

Formula used:

Equivalent discount% = D₁% + D₂% - (D₁ × D₂)/100

Calculation:

Equivalent discount% = D1% + D2% - (D1 × D2)/100

⇒ 20 + 30 - (20 × 30)/100

⇒ 50 - 6 = 44%

∴ The correct answer is 44%.

Calculation:

The % number of students qualified to applied from University B in the year 2016

⇒ (720 × 100)/7500 = 144/15 = 9.6%

The % number of students qualified to applied from University B in the year 2017

⇒ (900 × 100)/8400 = 225/21 = 10.71%

The % number of students qualified to applied from University B in the year 2018

⇒ (600 × 100)/6500 = 120/13 = 9.23%

The % number of students qualified to applied from University B in the year 2019

⇒ (1000 × 100)/7200 = 125/9 = 13.88%

The % number of students qualified to applied from University B in the year 2020

⇒ (1200 × 100)/9000 = 40/3 = 13.33%

∴ The correct answer is 2019.

Given:

(4/5) × (5/6) × (1/8) × certain number = 4365

Calculation:

Let the number be N.

According to the question:

⇒ (4/5) × (5/6) × (1/8) × N = 4365

⇒ N = 4365 × 12

Now,

N × 65% = 4365 × 12 × 65%

⇒ 52380 × 65% = 34047

∴ The correct answer is 34047.

Shortcut Trick

Simplify the trigonometric expression: sec C + sin C sec C = sec C + tan C.

Given ∠C = 45°, substitute the standard values.

sec 45° = √2 and tan 45° = 1.

Result = √2 + 1.

∴ The correct answer is 1 + √2.

Alternate Method

Given: In a right-angled ΔABC, ∠A = 90° and ∠C = 45°.

Formula Used: sec θ = 1 / cos θ and sin θ / cos θ = tan θ.

⇒ In ΔABC, ∠C = 45°.

⇒ Expression = sec C + sin C × (1 / cos C)

⇒ Expression = sec C + tan C

⇒ Value = sec 45° + tan 45°

⇒ Value = √2 + 1

∴ The correct answer is 1 + √2.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Ratios for 45°

For a 45° angle, sin 45° = 1/√2, cos 45° = 1/√2, and tan 45° = 1.

Fundamental Identity

The relation sec² θ − tan² θ = 1 implies sec θ + tan θ = 1 / (sec θ − tan θ).

Angle Sum Property

In any triangle, the sum of all internal angles is 180°. In a right triangle, the two acute angles are complementary.

Given:

$\rm \left(3y+\frac{3}{y}\right)=8$

Concept used:

If x + 1/x = P then,

x² + (1/x²) = P² - 2

Calculation:

$\rm \left(3y+\frac{3}{y}\right)=8$

⇒ 3 × {y + (1/y)} = 8

⇒ {y + (1/y)} = 8/3

⇒ {y² + (1/y²)} = (8/3)² - 2

⇒ {y2 + (1/y2)} = (64/9) - 2

⇒ {y2 + (1/y2)} = (64 - 18)/9

⇒ {y2 + (1/y2)} = 46/9 = 5$\frac{1}{9}$ 

∴ The correct answer is 5$\frac{1}{9}$.

Given:

(4 sin θ + 5 cos θ) = 3

Concept used:

a sinθ + b cos θ = c then

a cosθ - b sin θ = √(a² + b² - c²)

Calculation:

(4 sin θ + 5 cos θ) = 3

(4 cos θ - 5 sin θ) = √{(4)² + (5)² - (3)²}

⇒ √{16 + 25 - 9}

⇒ √32 = 4√2

∴ The correct answer is 4√2.

Given:

Diameter of hemisphere = 14 cm

Formula used:

Total surface area of hemisphere = 3 × π × r²

Calculation:

Radius of hemisphere = 14/2 = 7 cm

Total surface area of hemisphere = 3 × π × r2

⇒ 3 × (22/7) × 7 × 7

⇒ 3 × 22 × 7 = 462 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 462 cm2.

Given:

30 women working 5 hours can complete a work = 18 days

Concept used:

W₁ × H₁ × D₁ = W₂ × H₂ × D₂

Total work = efficiency × time

Calculation:

Let the efficiency of a woman = W

According to the question:

⇒ 21W × 8 × D = 30W × 5 × 18

⇒ D = (30 × 5 × 18)/(21 × 8)

⇒ D = (5 × 5 × 9)/14

⇒ D = 16$1\over 14$ days

∴ The correct answer is 16$1\over 14$ days.

Given:

Length of chords = 6 cm

Diameter of circle = 10 cm

Concept used:

Equal chords of a circle are equidistant from the centre.

The perpendicular drawn from the centre of a circle bisects the chord.

Calculation:

Diameter = 10 cm

Radius = 10/2 = 5 cm.

OF⊥ AB

AF = AB/2 = 6/2 = 3 cm

In △AOF

AO² = OF² + AF²

⇒ (5)² = OF² + (3)²

⇒ 25 = OF2 + 9

⇒ OF2 = 25 - 9 

⇒ OF = √16 = 4 cm

Distance between chords = 2 × 4 = 8 cm

∴ The correct answer is 8 cm.

Given:

Sum of the cubes of two numbers = 10234

Sum of the two given numbers = 34

Formula used:

(a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab × (a + b)

a3 - b3 = (a - b) × (a2 + ab + b2)

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

(a - b)2 = a2 + b2 - 2ab

Calculation:

Let 1st number = a

And second number = b

From question:

a³ + b³ = 10234

and a + b = 34

Using algebraic identity:

⇒ (a + b)³ = a³ + b³ + 3ab × (a + b)

⇒ (34)³ = 10234 + 3ab × 34

⇒ 39304 = 10234 + 102ab

⇒ 102ab = (39304 - 10234)

⇒ ab = 29070/102 = 285

Now,

⇒ (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

⇒ (34)² = a2 + b2 + 2 × 285

⇒ 1156 - 570 = a2 + b2

⇒ a2 + b2 = 586

and

⇒ (a - b)2 = a2 + b2 - 2ab

⇒ 586 - 2 × 285

⇒ 586 - 570

⇒ (a - b) =  √16 = 4

Putting the required value in the equation:

 

⇒ a³ - b³ = (a - b) × (a² + ab + b²)

⇒ 4 × (586 + 285)

⇒ 4 × 871

⇒ 3484

∴ The correct answer is 3484.

Shortcut Trick

If cosec θ − cot θ = x, then cosec θ = (x + 1/x) ÷ 2.

Here, x = 7/2.

⇒ cosec θ = (7/2 + 2/7) ÷ 2

⇒ cosec θ = (49/14 + 4/14) ÷ 2

⇒ cosec θ = (53/14) ÷ 2 = 53/28

∴ The correct answer is 53/28.

Alternate Method

Given:

cosec θ − cot θ = 7/2

Formula Used:

cosec² θ − cot² θ = 1

Calculations:

⇒ (cosec θ − cot θ) × (cosec θ + cot θ) = 1

⇒ (7/2) × (cosec θ + cot θ) = 1

⇒ cosec θ + cot θ = 2/7

⇒ Adding the given equation and the derived equation:

⇒ (cosec θ − cot θ) + (cosec θ + cot θ) = 7/2 + 2/7

⇒ 2 × cosec θ = (49 + 4) ÷ 14

⇒ 2 × cosec θ = 53 / 14

⇒ cosec θ = 53 / 28

∴ The correct answer is 53/28.

Additional Information

Core Trigonometric Identities

sin² θ + cos² θ = 1 | sec² θ − tan² θ = 1 | cosec² θ − cot² θ = 1.

Secant & Tangent Shortcut Pattern

Similar to the relation between cosec and cot, if sec θ + tan θ = x, then sec θ − tan θ = 1/x. From this, we can easily deduce sec θ = (x + 1/x) ÷ 2.

Reciprocal Functions

cosec θ = 1 ÷ sin θ | sec θ = 1 ÷ cos θ | cot θ = 1 ÷ tan θ.

Given:

The population of a city = 12,50,000

Increment in population in the years 2011 & 2012 = 2%

Decrement in population in the year 2013 = 1%

Concept used:

If population increment = P% then,

Increased % = population × (100 + P)%

If population decrement = D% then,

Decreased % = population × (100 - D)%

Calculation:

Population of city at the end of 2013 = 1250000 × 102% × 102% × 99% 

⇒ 5 × 51 × 51 × 99 = 12,87,495

∴ The correct answer is 12,87,495.

Shortcut Trick

Total increase in weight = 30 × 200 g = 6000 g = 6 kg

Weight of new student = Weight of replaced student + Total increase

New weight = 48.5 kg + 6 kg = 54.5 kg

∴ The correct answer is 54.5 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of students in the class = 30

Weight of the replaced student = 48.5 kg

Increase in average weight = 200 g = 0.2 kg

Formula Used:

Weight of new person = Weight of replaced person + (Total members × Increase in average)

Old Weight = 48.5 kg

Increase = 6 kg 30 × 0.2 kg

New Student Weight = 54.5 kg

Calculation:

⇒ Total weight increase = Total students × Increase in average weight

⇒ Total weight increase = 30 × 0.2 kg

⇒ Total weight increase = 6 kg

⇒ Weight of the new student = Weight of the replaced student + Total weight increase

⇒ Weight of the new student = 48.5 kg + 6 kg

⇒ Weight of the new student = 54.5 kg

∴ The correct answer is 54.5 kg.

Additional Information

Replacement Concept in Averages

When one person is replaced by another, the total change in the group's aggregate value depends entirely on the difference between the new and old person. If the average increases, it implies the new person brings more value (is heavier). If the average decreases, the new person brings less value.

Average Decrease Scenario

If the average had decreased by a value 'x', the formula would simply reverse the sign: New Weight = Old Weight − (Total Members × x).

Combined Average

If two distinct groups of sizes N₁ and N₂ have their respective averages as A₁ and A₂, their combined class average is calculated using the formula: (N₁A₁ + N₂A₂) ÷ (N₁ + N₂).

Given:

ΔABC ≅ ΔPQR

∠Q = 35° ; ∠R = 90°

Concept used:

If two triangles are congruent then their angles are equal.

The sum of all angles of a triangle is 180°. 

Calculation:

In ΔPQR,

⇒ ∠P + ∠Q + ∠R = 180°

⇒ ∠P + 35 + 90 = 180°

⇒ ∠P = 180 - 125 = 55°

⇒ ∠P = ∠A = 55° (∵ ΔABC ≅ ΔPQR)

∴ The correct answer is 55°.

Given:

Radius of circle = 5 cm

The perimeter of a minor sector = 15.5 cm

Formula used:

Perimeter of minor sector = 2 × radius + length of arc

Area of minor sector = (1/2) × radius ×  length of arc 

Calculation:

Perimeter of minor sector = 2 × radius + length of arc

⇒ 2 × 5 + length of arc = 15.5

⇒ Length of arc = 15.5 - 10 = 5.5 cm  

Area of minor sector = (1/2) × radius ×  length of arc

⇒ (1/2) × 5 × 5.5

⇒ 27.5/2 = 13.75 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 13.75 cm2.

Calculation:

Let the missing number = x

3x7440 number is already divisible by 4.

We have to check the divisibility rule for 3.

3x7440 = 3 + x + 7 + 4 + 4 + 0 = 18 + x

The least value that should be added is 0.

∴ The correct option is 0.

The correct answer is: "Egging on."

<br>

Key Points

• "Egging on" means to encourage or provoke someone to do something, often something negative or harmful. (किसी को कुछ करने के लिए प्रोत्साहित करना या उकसाना, अक्सर कुछ नकारात्मक या हानिकारक)
• Example: The group of friends was egging him on to take the dare, even though they knew it was risky.
• The sentence suggests that Richa was intentionally trying to turn her neighbours against her maid, Shanta.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• "Smelling a rat" means to suspect that something is wrong or suspicious. (यह संदेह करना कि कुछ गलत या संदिग्ध है)
• "Carrying the conviction" means to have a strong belief or opinion about something. (किसी चीज़ के बारे में दृढ़ विश्वास या राय रखना)
• "Rising like a phoenix" refers to the idea of something or someone being reborn or rising from the ashes. (किसी चीज़ या किसी व्यक्ति के पुनर्जन्म या राख से जीवित होने का विचार)

The correct answer is: Rotund

<br>

Key Points

• Corpulent means excessively fat or overweight. (अत्यधिक मोटा होना या अधिक वजन होना)
• Example: Despite his best efforts to maintain a healthy lifestyle, his sedentary job and poor eating habits made him corpulent.
• Marked option Rotund means having a rounded or plump figure. (गोल या मोटा शरीर होना)
• Example: The jolly old man with a rotund belly laughed heartily at the children's jokes.
• The sentence suggests that the player needs to lose weight to get in shape.
• Corpulent and rotund both describe someone who is overweight or obese.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Lanky means tall and thin. (लंबा और पतला)
• Deformed means having a disfigured or distorted appearance. (विकृत रूप होना)
• Plush means luxurious or comfortable. (आलीशान या आरामदायक)

The correct answer is: ACBD

<br>

Key Points

• Sentence A: This sentence introduces the central theme of the paragraph, highlighting the importance of human relationships.
• Sentence C: This sentence provides a reason for the significance of human relationships, emphasizing the positive impact they have on our lives.
• Sentence B: This sentence introduces the idea that social scientists have identified various elements contributing to a good social life, expanding on the notion mentioned in the previous sentence.
• Sentence D: This sentence concludes the paragraph by suggesting that the current generation, despite the insights of social scientists, may neglect these elements, leading to a risk of loneliness and jeopardizing happiness.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: "Far and wide."

<br>

Key Points

 

• "Far and wide" means over a large area or distance, and is an appropriate substitute for "all around the world." (किसी बड़े क्षेत्र या दूरी पर)
• Example: News of the rare comet spread far and wide, attracting stargazers from different countries to witness the celestial event.
• The phrase is often used to describe the reach or scope of something, such as a person's influence or a product's availability.
• Grammatically, "far and wide" functions as an adverbial phrase modifying the verb "visit."

Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• "Ever and anon" means occasionally or from time to time. (कभी-कभी या समय-समय पर)
• "Cut and dried" means something that is straightforward or settled. (कुछ ऐसा जो सीधा या सुलझा हुआ हो)
• "Few and far" means scarce or hard to come by. (दुर्लभ या कठिन होना)

The correct answer is: When will they announce the results of the dance competition?

<br>

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the passive voice.
• To convert it to active voice, we need to identify the subject (the doer of the action) and make it the grammatical subject of the sentence.
• Passive Sentence Structure: Interrogative word + Modal verb + Subject + Main verb + '?'
• Active Sentence Structure: Subject + Modal verb + Main Verb + Object + Interrogative word + '?'
• In this format, the subject "They" is placed before the auxiliary/modal verb "will," and the main verb "announce" follows.
• The rest of the sentence structure remains similar to the original interrogative sentence.

Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: Epitome

<br>

Key Points

• Epitome means a perfect example or representation of something. (किसी चीज़ का आदर्श उदाहरण या प्रतिनिधित्व)
• Example: Her grace and poise were the epitome of elegance.
• It is a suitable substitute for the underlined segment in the sentence.
• The word is commonly used to describe something that is the best or most typical example of a particular category.
• In this sentence, "epitome" emphasizes that the castle embodies all the characteristics of a medieval fortress.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Epicentre means the central point of something, usually a disaster or an event. (किसी चीज़ का केंद्रीय बिंदु, आमतौर पर कोई आपदा या घटना)
• Crux means the most important or decisive point of an issue or problem. (किसी मुद्दे या समस्या का सबसे महत्वपूर्ण या निर्णायक बिंदु)
• Antithesis means the direct opposite or contrast of something. (किसी चीज़ का सीधा विपरीत या विरोधाभास)

The correct answer is: Effect

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Key Points

• The word "effect" means the result or consequence of something. (किसी बात का परिणाम)
• It is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank in the given sentence as it fits grammatically and contextually.
• Example: The effect of the new policy on the economy is yet to be seen.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete sentence: The effect of the new legislation has sparked a heated debate among lawmakers.

Additional Information

• Affectation means behaviour that is artificial or designed to impress others. (ऐसा व्यवहार जो कृत्रिम है या दूसरों को प्रभावित करने के लिए बनाया गया है)
• Effection is not a commonly used word in the English language.
• Affect means to have an impact on something or someone. (किसी चीज़ या व्यक्ति पर प्रभाव डालना)