SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 14 Aug, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: '6' is added to the positional value of each alphabet.

ADEC is related to GJKI →

HKLJ is related to NQRP →

Similarly, MPQO will be related to:

Here, 'MPQO' is related to 'SVWU'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Logic: Second no. = [(First no. × 7) - 2]

Checking the given options:

(1) 31 : 215 →

​⇒ [(31 × 7) - 2]

​⇒ (217 - 2) = 215

(2) 29 : 201 →

​⇒ [(29 × 7) - 2]

​⇒ (203 - 2) = 201

(3) 21 : 145 →

​⇒ [(21 × 7) - 2]

​⇒ (147 - 2) = 145

(4) 25 : 177 →

​⇒ [(25 × 7) + 2]

​⇒ (175 + 2) = 177

Here, '25 : 177' is different from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

From Figure (1) to (2):

The upper triangle rotates 90º in the clockwise direction, the middle triangle rotates 90º in the anticlockwise direction and the lower triangle rotates 180º in the clockwise direction.

From Figure (2) to (3):

The upper triangle rotates 90º in the clockwise direction, the middle triangle rotates 90º in the anticlockwise direction and the lower triangle rotates 180º in the clockwise direction.

From Figure (3) to (4):

The upper triangle rotates 90º in the clockwise direction, the middle triangle rotates 90º in the anticlockwise direction and the lower triangle rotates 180º in the clockwise direction.

From Figure (4) to Answer Figure:

The upper triangle rotates 90º in the clockwise direction, the middle triangle rotates 90º in the anticlockwise direction and the lower triangle rotates 180º in the clockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: '4' is subtracted from the positional value of the first alphabet and '6' is added to the positional value of the second alphabet.

Checking the given options:

1. QMS →

2. HDC →

3. VRX →

4. DZF →

Here, 'HDC' is different from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

Given expression: 'P × Q - R ÷ S + T'

P is the mother of Q, Q is the father of R, R is the wife of S and S is the brother of T.

Checking the given options:

1. T is the brother of R → False 2. P is the mother of R → False 3. T is the sister of S → False 4. Q is the son of P → True

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Logic: Rearrangement of the alphabet.

FAP is related to PAF →

JFM is related to MFJ →

Similarly, 'NKT' will be related to:

Here, 'NKT' is related to 'TKN'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Given: 'NETWORK'

After arranging in alphabetical order:

NETWORK → EKNORTW

The letter 'O' is fourth from the left and the letter 'T' is second from the right, four letters P, Q, R and S come between O and T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Logic: Second no. = [(First no. × 3) + 1]

31 is related to 94 →

​⇒ [(31 × 3) + 1]

​⇒ (93 + 1) = 94

37 is related to 112 →

​⇒ [(37 × 3) + 1]

​⇒ (111 + 1) = 112

Similarly, 63 will be related to:

​⇒ [(63 × 3) + 1]

​⇒ (189 + 1) = 190

Here, 63 is related to 190.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Given:

141, 152, 143, 155, 145, 158,?

The logic followed in the given series is:

Here, the missing term is '147'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Given:

CN_F F_ZE ILC_ KFC OJI

Logic: '3' is added to the positional value of the first and third alphabet and '1' is subtracted from the positional value of the second and third alphabet.

Here, 'WMDLB' will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

1. L is the daughter of H and H is married to K.

2. K is the mother of I and I is the father of J.

3. J is married to M. M is the sister of N.

Here, 'J' is the son's son of H.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Statements:

Some buses are motorbikes.

All motorbikes are vans.

All buses are cars.

The Venn diagram as per the given statements:

Conclusions:

(I) Some cars are vans. → True (Because all buses are cars, some buses are motorbikes and all motorbikes are vans, which means some cars are vans is definitely true)

(II) Some vans are buses. → True (Because some buses are motorbikes and all motorbikes are vans, which means some vans are buses is definitely true)

(III) Some vans are motorbikes. → True (Because all motorbikes are vans, which means some vans are motorbikes is definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "All conclusions I, II and III follow".

The mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Given:

16, 19, 25, 34, 46, X

The logic followed in the given series is:

Here, the missing term is '61'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

​⇒ 53 ÷ 4 - 21 × 7 + 14 = ?

After interchanging '+' and '-' and '×' and '÷' →

​⇒ 53 × 4 + 21 ÷ 7 - 14

Apply BODMAS rule

​⇒  53 × 4 + 3 - 14

​⇒ 212 + 3 - 14

​⇒ 215 - 14 = 201

​⇒ '53 × 4 + 21 ÷ 7 - 14 = 201'

Here, the value of the equation is '201'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: Sum of the positional value of the alphabet.

'DOG' is coded as '26' →

'BIN' is coded as '25' →

Similarly, 'JAM' will be coded as:

Here, 'JAM' is coded as '24'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Logic: Second no. = [(First no. × 4) - 16]

Checking the given options:

(1) 216 : 40 →

​⇒ [(40 × 5) + 16]

​⇒ (200 + 16) = 216

(2) 112 : 32 →

​⇒ [(32 × 4) - 16]

​⇒ (128 - 16) = 112

(3) 312 : 82 →

​⇒ [(82 × 4) - 16]

​⇒ (328 - 16) = 312

(4) 72 : 22 →

​⇒ [(22 × 4) - 16]

​⇒ (88 - 16) = 72

Here, '216 : 40' is different from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

​⇒ 81 M 46 P 72 V 12 Z 12 = ?

As per the given information:

After putting the sign:

​⇒ 81 + 46 - 72 ÷ 12 × 12

Apply BODMAS rule:

​⇒ 81 + 46 - 6 × 12

​⇒ 81 + 46 - 72

​⇒ 127 - 72 = 55

​⇒ '81 + 46 - 72 ÷ 12 × 12 = 55'

Here, the value of the equation is '55'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Logic: Second no. = [(First no. × Third no.) - 4]

Given:

12 : 92 : 8 →

​⇒ [(12 × 8) - 4]

​⇒ (96 - 4) = 92

16 : 92 : 6 →

​⇒ [(16 × 6) - 4]

​⇒ (96 - 4) = 92

Checking the given options:

(1) 9 : 122 : 14 →

​⇒ [(9 × 14) - 4]

​⇒ (126 - 4) = 122

(2) 13 : 60 : 5 →

​⇒ [(13 × 5) - 5]

​⇒ (65 - 5) = 60

(3) 15 : 184 : 12 →

​⇒ [(15 × 12) + 4]

​⇒ (180 + 4) = 184

(4) 8 : 109 : 14 →

​⇒ [(8 × 14) - 3]

​⇒ (112 - 3) = 109

Here, '9 : 122 : 14' is similar to the given sets of numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Given:

12 April 2004 = Monday

24 May 2012 = ?

As we know odd days in a normal year and a leap year are '1' and '2'.

Odd days up to 24 May 2012 = (1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 18 + 24) = 52

Odd days up to 24 May 2012 = (52 ÷ 7) =3 (Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday)

24 May 2012 = Thursday

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

As per the given information:

The letters 'A', 'F' and 'L' are common in the given code language.

Here, the code for 'G' is '9'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The number of triangles in the given figure is:

Here, the number of triangles is '16'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Given:

R _ R _ D _ _ DR _ _ R _ D _

Checking the given options:

1. DRDDDRRD

RDR / RDD / DDR / DRR / RDD

2. RDRRDRDD

RRR / DDR / RDR / DRR / DDD

3. DRRRRDRR

RDR / RDR / RDR / RDR / RDR

Here, the series is completed.

4. RDDRDDRD

RRR / DDD / RDR / DDR / RDD

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: '10' is added to the positional value of each alphabet.

Given:

BFG : LPQ →

HKM : RUW →

Checking the given options:

1. MPO : WZY →

2. GKN : TPM →

3. ABC : FGH →

4. JRS : IQR →

Here, 'MPO : WZY' is similar to the given sets of the alphabet.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

The correct answer is Non-profit MFIs.

Key Points

• Non-profit MFIs are not regulated by the RBI.
• Small Finance Bank-led MFIs are regulated by the RBI as they are categorized as banks.
• Bank-led MFIs are also regulated by the RBI as they are subsidiaries of banks.
• NBFC MFIs are regulated by the RBI as they are categorized as Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).
• Non-profit MFIs are typically registered as societies or trusts and operate on a not-for-profit basis.
• They are not required to be registered with the RBI.

Additional Information

• RBI (Reserve Bank of India) is the central bank of the country and is responsible for regulating and supervising the financial sector.
• Small Finance Banks are a new category of banks in India that provide financial services to the unbanked and underbanked sections of the society.
• Bank-led MFIs are microfinance institutions that are owned by banks.
• NBFC MFIs are microfinance institutions that are registered as Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) and provide microcredit to the underserved and unbanked segments of the society.

The correct answer is Kathak.

Key Points

• Pandit Birju Maharaj is associated with the classical Indian dance form of Kathak.
• He is a renowned Kathak dancer, choreographer, and instructor from India.
• Kathak is a North Indian classical dance form that involves intricate footwork, pirouettes, and facial expressions to depict various emotions and stories.
• Pandit Birju Maharaj is the torchbearer of the Lucknow gharana of Kathak and has been honored with several prestigious awards for his contribution to Indian classical dance.

Additional Information

• Chhau is a semi-classical dance form from eastern India.
• It involves acrobatics and martial arts.
• Kuchipudi is a classical dance form from the state of Andhra Pradesh.
• It involves storytelling and intricate footwork.
• Kathakali is a classical dance form from the southern state of Kerala.
• It involves elaborate makeup, costumes, and facial expressions to depict mythological stories.

The correct answer is the Golgi apparatus.

 Key Points

• Golgi apparatus is known as the cell's post office because it packages and distributes molecules (proteins and lipids) to different parts of the cell and outside the cell.
• It modifies, sorts, and packages the molecules in vesicles and sends them to their intended destinations.
• The Golgi apparatus is composed of stacks of flattened membranous sacs called cisternae, which are responsible for carrying out the aforementioned functions.
• The Golgi apparatus is present in eukaryotic cells, which include animal and plant cells.

Additional Information

• The nucleus is known as the control center of the cell, as it contains genetic material (DNA).
• It is responsible for regulating cell growth, division, and metabolism.
• Ribosomes are responsible for synthesizing proteins in the cell,
• They are either free in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum.
• Plastids are organelles found only in plant cells and are responsible for functions such as photosynthesis, storage, and pigment synthesis.
• Plastids include chloroplasts, chromoplasts, and leucoplasts.

The correct answer is Nihonium.

Key Points

• The element with atomic number 113 belongs to group 13 of the periodic table, which is also known as the boron group.
• The electronic configuration [Rn] 5f¹⁴6d¹⁰7s²7p¹ belongs to the element Nihonium, which was officially named in 2016 and is a synthetic element that is not found naturally on Earth.
• Nihonium is a highly unstable and radioactive element, with a very short half-life of only a few seconds, and its properties are still being studied by scientists.

Additional Information

• Group 13 elements are characterized by having three valence electrons in their outermost shell, which makes them reactive and able to form compounds with other elements.
• Gallium is a soft, silvery metal that has a low melting point and is used in a variety of applications, such as in semiconductors, LEDs, and alloys.
• Indium is a rare, silvery-white metal that is used in electronics, as well as in coatings, alloys, and other industrial applications.
• Thallium is a toxic, bluish-white metal that is used in electronics, as well as in pesticides, rodenticides, and other chemicals.
• It is also a radioactive isotope that is used in medical imaging.
• Thallium is also a group 13 element, but it has a higher atomic number than Nihonium and a different electronic configuration.

The correct answer is Agriculture.

Key Points

• According to the Census of India 2011, 54.69% of the total workforce is engaged in agriculture and allied sector activities.
• Agriculture is the primary occupation for a majority of the rural population in India and contributes significantly to the country's economy.
• It is worth noting that the Census of India 2011 also found that the percentage of the workforce engaged in agriculture has been declining over the years, indicating a shift towards other sectors of the economy.

Additional Information

• Hunting and gathering is not a significant occupation in India and is mostly carried out by tribal communities in remote areas.
• Manufacturing is a growing sector in India but employs a smaller percentage of the workforce compared to agriculture.
• Mining is a relatively small sector in India and employs a small percentage of the workforce.
• The home listing and population enumeration stages of the 2011 Indian census, also known as the 15^th Indian census, were carried out separately.
• As per the provisional reports that were made public on March 31, 2011, the population of India grew by 17.70% over a decade to reach 1.21 billion people.
• With a decadal growth of 9.21%, the adult literacy rate rose to 74.04%.
• "Our Census, Our Future" served as the census's motto.

The correct answer is Royal Challengers Bangalore.

Key Points

• Royal Challengers Bangalore bid 3.4 crore for Smriti Mandhana in the Women's Indian Premier League in 2023.
• Smriti Mandhana is a left-handed opening batter who has represented India in all formats of the game and has been a consistent performer for the country.
• The Women's Indian Premier League (WIPL) is a professional Twenty20 cricket league for women in India, which was announced in 2020 and is expected to start in 2023.

Additional Information

• The Board of Control for Cricket in India is the organization that organized the 2023 Women's Premier League.
• Five teams competed in the tournament, which took place from March 4–26, 2023.
• Mumbai Indians won the competition by defeating Delhi Capitals in the final.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Maharashtra won the Indian Olympic Association's 'Best State' award at the 36^th National Games in 2022.
• Maharashtra won a total of 256 medals, including 102 gold, 78 silver, and 76 bronze medals.

Additional Information

• The 36^th National Games of India was the 36^th edition of the National Games of India.
• It took place in Gujarat state from September 29 to October 12, 2022, in the cities of Ahmedabad, Gandhinagar, Surat, Vadodara, Rajkot, and Bhavnagar.
• Uttar Pradesh finished second in the medal tally at the 36^th National Games, winning a total of 164 medals, including 43 gold, 44 silver, and 77 bronze medals.
• Punjab finished third in the medal tally at the 36^th National Games, winning a total of 151 medals, including 41 gold, 50 silver, and 60 bronze medals.
• Haryana finished fourth in the medal tally at the 36^th National Games, winning a total of 117 medals, including 36 gold, 33 silver, and 48 bronze medals.

The correct answer is the contribution of various sectors to the GDP.

Key Points

• Structural composition of the economy refers to the contribution of various sectors to the GDP.
• It is a measure of the percentage of economic activity that each sector contributes to the overall GDP of a country.
• The sectors typically include agriculture, manufacturing, services, and others.
• The structural composition of the economy can vary significantly between countries and can be an indicator of the level of development.
• Changes in the structural composition of the economy can have significant impacts on employment, income, and economic growth.

Additional Information

• Male-female distribution of the population refers to the proportion of males and females in a population.
• Private and public sector classification refers to the types of organizations that operate in the economy, with private sector organizations being owned and operated by individuals or groups, and public sector organizations being owned and operated by the government.
• Rural and urban distribution of the population refers to the proportion of the population that lives in rural versus urban areas.

The correct answer is Chalukya.

Key Points

• Chalukya dynasty ruled over parts of present-day Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh from the 6^th to the 12^th century CE.
• The Chalukya rulers were known for their patronage of Jainism, as well as Hinduism and Buddhism.
• Some of the notable Jain scholars who flourished under their patronage were Akalanka, Siddharshi, and Hemachandra.
• Hemachandra was a renowned Jain monk, poet, and scholar who lived during the 12^th century CE.
• He is said to have converted the Chalukya king Kumarapala to Jainism and wrote several works on Jain philosophy, grammar, and literature.

Additional Information

• Pratihara dynasty:
• This Rajput dynasty ruled over parts of present-day northern and central India from the 6^th to the 11^th century CE.
• While they were known for their military prowess and patronage of the arts, there is no record of their significant association with Jainism.
• Parmar dynasty:
• This was another Rajput dynasty that ruled over parts of present-day Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan from the 9^th to the 14^th century CE.
• They were known for their patronage of Hinduism and Jainism, as well as their architectural achievements such as the famous Khajuraho temples.
• Chahman dynasty:
• This Rajput dynasty ruled over parts of present-day Rajasthan and Gujarat from the 6^th to the 12^th century CE.
• They were known for their patronage of Jainism, as well as their military exploits and architectural achievements such as the fort of Taragarh.

The correct answer is Kathak dance.

 Key Points

• Nalini-Kamalini Asthana belongs to the art genre of Kathak dance, which is a classical Indian dance form that originated in the northern region of India.
• Kathak dance is known for its intricate footwork, graceful hand movements, and storytelling through dance.
• Nalini-Kamalini Asthana is a Padma Shri awardee of 2022, which is a prestigious civilian award in India given for distinguished service in various fields, including arts and culture.

Additional Information

• Painting involves creating art on a two-dimensional surface using various mediums, such as oil paints, watercolors, or acrylics.
• Painting has been shown to enhance emotional development and emotional intelligence in addition to brain health.
• Sculpture involves creating three-dimensional art using materials such as stone, wood, or metal.
• It belongs to the category of plastic arts.
• Architecture involves designing and constructing buildings and structures.
• Classical architecture, modern architecture, and contemporary architecture are the three main categories of architecture.

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• Goa has been the permanent venue for IFFI since 2004.
• International Film Festival of India (IFFI) is an annual film festival organized by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India.
• The festival was started in 1952 and has been held in different cities across India.
• The festival showcases a wide range of films from across the world, including feature films, documentaries, and short films.
• The festival also includes panel discussions, workshops, and masterclasses with industry experts.

Additional Information

• Under the support of India's first prime minister, the Films Division of the Government of India hosted the inaugural edition of IFFI.
• The Festival was first held in Mumbai from January 24 to February 1, 1952, and it thereafter traveled to Madras, Delhi, Calcutta, and Trivandrum.
• The 35^th edition of the International Film Festival of India marked the festival's transition to a permanent location in Goa and global competition beginning in 2004.
• Every year, it takes place in the months of November and December.

The correct answer is Muhammad Yunus.

Key Points

• Muhammad Yunus is a prominent member of civil society, banker, economist, and social entrepreneur from Bangladesh.
• In recognition of his creating the Grameen Bank and developing the ideas of microcredit and microfinance, he was granted the Nobel Peace Prize in 2006.
• Entrepreneurs who are too impoverished to be eligible for conventional bank loans are granted these loans.
• Together, Yunus and Grameen Bank received the Nobel Peace Prize "for their efforts to create economic and social development from below through microcredit."

Additional Information

• Grameen Bank is a microfinance organization that provides small loans to impoverished individuals who lack collateral or credit history.
• Microcredit refers to the provision of small loans to low-income individuals or groups who are unable to access traditional banking services.
• Microfinance is a broader term that encompasses a range of financial services, including microcredit, savings, insurance, and remittances, that are provided to low-income individuals or groups.

The correct answer is expenditure.

Key Points

• Exports of mangoes by India contribute to the expenditure method of measuring its national income because it represents a portion of the country's total exports, which is a component of its overall expenditure.
• The expenditure method of measuring national income is one of three primary methods used, along with the income method and the value-added method.

Additional Information

• The income method measures national income by adding up all of the income earned by individuals and businesses in a country, while the value-added method calculates national income by subtracting the cost of inputs from the revenue generated by businesses.
• Circular income refers to the flow of money between different sectors of an economy.
• Value-added measures the increase in value of a product at each stage of production, rather than simply the final sale price.

The correct answer is Goa.

 Key Points

• According to the Census of India 2011, Goa has the highest proportion of its population living in urban areas.
• The urban population of Goa is 62.17% of the total population.
• Goa is followed by Tamil Nadu with an urban population of 48.45%.
• Kerala has an urban population of 47.72% and Haryana has an urban population of 34.91%.

Additional Information

• The term "urban areas" refers to areas with a population density of at least 400 persons per square kilometer and with a minimum of 75% of the male working population engaged in non-agricultural activities.
• Kerala is known for its high literacy rate and quality healthcare facilities.
• Haryana has a relatively low urban population compared to other states in India.
• The state is known for its agricultural production and industrial development.
• Tamil Nadu has a high urban population and is one of the most urbanized states in India.
• The state is known for its manufacturing industries and tourism.
• Goa has a high urban population due to its small geographical area and high tourism industry.
• The state is also known for its beaches and nightlife.

The correct answer is Subansiri.

Key Points

• Subansiri is the biggest tributary of the upper Brahmaputra.
• It originates in the Tibetan Himalayas and flows through Arunachal Pradesh before joining the Brahmaputra in Assam.
• The Brahmaputra River is one of the major rivers in Asia, flowing through China, India, and Bangladesh.
• It is also known as the Tsangpo-Brahmaputra River system.
• Some of the other tributaries of the Brahmaputra include the Lohit, Dibang, and Kameng rivers.

Additional Information

• A tributary of the Krishna River is the Yerala River.
• It comes from the far north of Khatav taluka in Satara district, near the Mhaskoba highlands.
• The Musi River flows through Telangana, India, and is a significant tributary of the Krishna River in the Deccan Plateau.
• Hyderabad is located along the Musi River's banks.
• One of the rivers that flows through the Tapti River Basin is the Aner River.
• It is situated in the Indian state of Maharashtra, close to Hisale.
• The Brahmaputra river basin is home to a diverse range of flora and fauna, including the endangered Gangetic dolphin and the one-horned rhinoceros.
• The Brahmaputra River is an important source of water for irrigation, fishing, transportation, and hydropower generation in the northeastern region of India.

The correct answer is Red.

Key Points

• The energy of light is inversely proportional to its wavelength.
• Therefore, the light with the longest wavelength, i.e. red, has the least energy.
• The colours of VIBGYOR are arranged in increasing order of their wavelengths.
• Hence, violet has the highest energy and red has the least.
• Green is the colour of light with a wavelength between yellow and blue.
• It has more energy than yellow but less than blue.
• Yellow is the colour of light with a wavelength between green and orange.
• It has less energy than green but more than orange.

Additional Information

• VIBGYOR stands for Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, and Red.
• These are the seven colours of the visible spectrum of light.
• Violet has the shortest wavelength and the highest energy among the colours of VIBGYOR.
• Indigo is a colour that lies between blue and violet in the spectrum.
• It is not always distinguishable from blue and is not considered a separate colour by some people.
• Orange is a colour that lies between yellow and red in the spectrum.
• It has more energy than red but less than yellow.

The correct answer is Srinagar.

Key Points

• The Tulip Festival is an annual event organized in Srinagar, the capital city of Jammu and Kashmir state in India.
• The festival is held during the spring season, usually in the months of March and April**,** when the tulip gardens in Srinagar are in full bloom.
• The festival attracts a large number of tourists from all over the world who come to witness the colorful display of tulips in the gardens of Srinagar.
• The festival also includes cultural programs, handicraft exhibitions, and other activities to showcase the rich cultural heritage of Jammu and Kashmir.

Additional Information

• Agra is famous for the Taj Mahal, a UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of the Seven Wonders of the World.
• Agra is also known for its Mughal-era forts, palaces, and gardens.
• Famous festivals of Agra are Taj Mahotsav, Ram Barat, and Kailash Fair and Festival.
• Allahabad is a city in the northern state of Uttar Pradesh, India.
• It is famous for the confluence of three rivers, Ganga, Yamuna, and Saraswati, known as Triveni Sangam.
• The festivals of Kumbh Mela, Makar Sakranti, Mahashivratri, and Magh Purnima are observed in Allahabad when a sizable number of visitors congregate.
• Ludhiana is a city in the northwestern state of Punjab, India.
• It is known for its textile industry, hosiery goods, and sports goods manufacturing.
• The main celebrations of Ludhiana include Lohri, Baisakhi, Holi, and Basant Panchami.

The correct answer is 105^th.

Key Points

• The One Hundred and Fifth Amendment (or 105^th Constitutional Amendment) to the Constitution of India- officially known as The Constitution (One Hundred and Fifth Amendment) Act, 2021- restored the power of State governments to recognise socially and educationally backward classes (SEBCs).
• SEBCs, which includes the groups commonly known as Other Backward Classes (OBCs), are communities for which the State can provide 'special provisions' or affirmative action in India.

Additional Information

• The 103^rd Constitution Amendment Act deals with the provision of reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS) in educational institutions and government jobs.
• The 104^th Constitution Amendment Act provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
• 102^nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018 provides constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)

The correct answer is Government account.

 Key Points

• Transfer payments are included in the government account of economic accounts.
• Transfer payments are payments made by the government to individuals or businesses without any expectation of goods or services in return.
• Examples of transfer payments include social security, welfare, and unemployment benefits.
• The inclusion of transfer payments in the government account helps in measuring the government's role in income redistribution and social welfare.

Additional Information

• The household account refers to the income and expenditure of households.
• Parents and kids who live with you are considered immediate family members and can use the account.
• The appropriation account refers to the allocation and utilization of funds by the government for specific purposes such as infrastructure development or defense spending.
• An appropriation account for a business indicates how profits are allocated and held.
• It displays the way in which profits are split up among partners in a partnership.
• The production account refers to the value of goods and services produced by different sectors of the economy.
• It is designed for both industry and institutional sectors.
• Transfer payments are an important tool for governments to address income inequality and provide a safety net for vulnerable sections of society.

The correct answer is 2005.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was first enacted in the year 2005.
• The Act is a social security scheme that provides a legal guarantee for 100 days of employment in a financial year to adult members of rural households who are willing to do unskilled manual work.
• The Act aims to address the issues of poverty and unemployment in rural India by providing a source of livelihood to the rural poor and strengthening the rural economy.

Additional Information

• A third of the employment made available under the MGNREGA are guaranteed to women.
• It is worth noting that the idea of a rural employment guarantee was first proposed in the 1990s by the National Commission on Rural Labour, which recommended a minimum of 100 days of employment for rural households.
• It is worth noting that the Act has undergone several amendments since its enactment in 2005, including the inclusion of women as a separate category of workers in 2008 and the introduction of a provision for unemployment allowance in 2013.

The correct answer is To promote harmony and spirit of common brotherhood.

 Key Points

• Celebrating festivals of different religions in school promotes the idea of unity in diversity, which is the essence of promoting harmony and common brotherhood.
• By participating in these celebrations, children learn to respect and appreciate different cultures and religions, which is important for building a cohesive society.
• This fundamental duty also promotes the idea of secularism, which is a key feature of our constitution.
• By learning about different festivals, children also learn about the history and traditions associated with them, which is a form of cultural education.

Additional Information

• "To defend the country and render national service," is related to the duty of citizens to protect the sovereignty, integrity, and security of the country.
• This includes serving in the armed forces, volunteering for national service, and being prepared to defend the country in times of crisis.
• "To develop the scientific temper," is about the duty of citizens to have a rational and scientific outlook towards life.
• This includes promoting scientific research, fostering a spirit of inquiry, and rejecting superstitions and blind faith.
• "To safeguard public property and to abjure violence," is about the duty of citizens to respect public property and to refrain from using violence as a means of achieving their goals.
• This includes protecting public property from damage or destruction, and resolving conflicts through peaceful means.

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• The Peninsular Plateau in India is a large region of elevated land that lies to the south of the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
• It is mainly composed of Precambrian rocks that are millions of years old.
• The plateau covers parts of several Indian states, including Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Kerala.
• However, Punjab is not a part of the Peninsular Plateau.
• It is located in the northwest of India and is mainly composed of alluvial plains and river valleys.

Additional Information

• The Peninsular Plateau is characterized by its composition of ancient crystalline, igneous, and metamorphic rocks.
• Maharashtra is a part of the Peninsular Plateau and includes the Deccan Plateau, which is a large volcanic plateau that covers much of central and southern India.
• Madhya Pradesh is also a part of the Peninsular Plateau and includes the Vindhya and Satpura mountain ranges, as well as parts of the Deccan Plateau.
• Tamil Nadu is a state in the south of India that is also a part of the Peninsular Plateau.
• It includes the Eastern Ghats mountain range and the Nilgiri Hills.

The correct answer is Article 47.

Key Points

• Article 47 states that "the State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties".
• This article emphasizes the importance of improving the overall health and well-being of the citizens of India, including their nutritional status.
• Poshan Abhiyaan is a flagship scheme of the Government of India launched in 2018 to improve the nutritional status of children and pregnant women.
• The scheme aims to reduce stunting, undernutrition, and low birth weight by 2% annually and focuses on the first 1,000 days of a child's life.
• The scheme covers various interventions such as the promotion of breastfeeding, complementary feeding, micro-nutrient supplementation, and hygiene and sanitation.

Additional Information

• Article 44 pertains to the Uniform Civil Code and aims to promote the welfare of the people by securing a uniform civil code throughout the country.
• Article 46 provides for the promotion of educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of society, including Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
• Article 45 provides for free and compulsory education for all children until they complete the age of 14 years.

The correct answer is Manisha Kalyan.

Key Points

• Manisha Kalyan is the first Indian female football player to play in the Union of European Football Association (UEFA) women's Champions League.
• She played for Gokulam Kerala FC in the 2018-19 season.
• Manisha Kalyan is a forward player and has represented India in various international tournaments.
• She has also played for the Indian Women's League teams like Rising Student Club and Sethu FC.

Additional Information

• Shanti Mallick is a former Indian women's football team captain who represented India in the 1980s and early 1990s.
• She was one of the pioneers of women's football in India and played for teams like Orissa and Bengal.
• Bala Devi is a current Indian women's football team captain who has won many awards and accolades in her career.
• She has played for teams like Manipur Police Sports Club and Rangers Women's FC in Scotland.
• Oinam Bembem Devi is a former Indian women's football team captain who has represented India in various international tournaments.
• She has played for teams like Eastern Sporting Union and Sethu FC in the Indian Women's League.

The correct answer is Rudra Veena.

Key Points

• Ustad Asad Ali Khan played the Rudra Veena, which is a stringed instrument used in Indian classical music.
• The Rudra Veena is known for its deep, resonant sound and is considered one of the oldest instruments in India.
• The Hindu referred to Khan, who played in the dhrupad style, as the greatest rudra veena player alive in India.
• In 2008, he received the Indian civilian distinction of Padma Bhushan.

Additional Information

• The Rudra Veena is often played by dhrupad musicians, who are known for their slow and meditative style of singing.
• The Algoza is typically played by two musicians simultaneously, with one playing the melody and the other playing the drone.
• Algoza is a double flute used in Punjabi folk music, while the Sitar is a plucked string instrument commonly used in Indian classical music.
• The Sitar is known for its distinctive sound and is often used in film music as well as classical performances.
• Ravanahatha is traditionally played by a community of musicians known as Bhopas, who use the instrument to accompany their epic storytelling performances.
• Ravanahatha is a bowed string instrument used in Rajasthan, India, and is believed to be one of the oldest stringed instruments in the world.

Given:

In ΔXYZ, L and M are the middle points of the sides XY and XZ, respectively. 

LN ∶ NM = 1 ∶ 2 and

LN = 5 cm

Formula:

If ΔABC ∼ ΔPQR, then

AB/PQ= BC/QR = AC/PR

Calculation:

LN ∶ NM = = x : 2x

LN = 5 cm, then

x = 5 cm

Hence, 2x =5 × 2 = 10 cm

LM = LN + NM

⇒ LM = 5 +10 = 15 cm

In ΔXYZ and in ΔXLM

∠X = ∠X [common]

∠XYZ = ∠XLM

∠XZY = ∠XML

∴ ΔXYZ ∼ ΔXLM

Now,

LM/YZ = XL/XY

⇒ 15/YZ = XL/2XL  [∵ L is midpoint of XY]

⇒ 15/YZ = 1/2

⇒ YZ = 15 × 2 

∴ YZ = 30 cm

The answer is 30 cm.

Given

tan θ + cot θ = 2

Formula used

tan 45° = cot 45° = 1

Calculation

tan θ + cot θ = 2

To suffice this equation θ = 45°

 2 tan2θ + cot2θ + tan4θ cot4θ

⇒ 2 tan245° + cot245° + tan445° cot445°

= 2  + 1 + 1

⇒ 4

The answer is 4.

Given

cosec A + cot A = 7

Formula used

cosec A + cot A = 1/cosec A - cot A 

cosec² A - cot² A = (cosec A + cot A)(cosec A - cot A)

Calculation

cosec A + cot A = 7  ....(1)

cosec A - cot A = 1/7    ...(2)

Adding both eq(1) and eq(2),

2 cosec A = 7 + 1/7

2 cosec A = 50/7

cosec A = 25/7 

The answer is 25/7.

Given

In a right-angled triangle ABC, ∠A = 30°

Formula used

Sin 30° = 1/2

Calculation

3 sin A - 4 sin3A

⇒ 3 sin 30° - 4 sin330°

⇒ 3 × 1/2 - 4 × (1/2)3

⇒ 3/2 - 4/8

⇒ 2/2 = 1

The value is 1.

Given

Principal = 30000

Rate = 8% and 9%

Interest =  2650

Formula used

S.I. = (P × R × T)/100

Calculation

Let money lender lend Rs. 'a' at 8% and Rs. (30000 – a) at 9% interest

S.I. = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ 2650 = (a × 8 × 1)/100 + ((30000 – a) × 9 × 1)/100

⇒ 265000 = a × 8 × 1 + (30000 – a) × 9 × 1

⇒ 265000 = 8a + 270000 – 9a

⇒ a = 5000

The amount of money lent at the rate of 8% is 5000.

Calculation

The total number of patients in four different categories in hospital A = 5 + 3 + 2 + 4

= 14

The total number of patients in four different categories in hospital B = 3 + 2 + 5 + 2

= 12

The total number of patients in four different categories in hospital C = 5 + 3 + 2 + 2

= 12

The total number of patients in three hospitals A, B and C, respectively, are 14, 12 and 12.

Given

A can finish a work in 9 days

B can finish a work in 12 days

C can finish a work in 18 days

Concept

Men × efficiency = work

Calculation

Work done by A  in one day(A) = (1/9)      ---- (1)

work done by B in one day(B) = 1/12      ---- (2)

work done by C in one day(C) = 1/18      ---- (3)

Adding (1), (2) and (3)

⇒ A + B + C = (1/9) + (1/12) + (1/18)

⇒ A + B + C = (4 + 3 + 2)/36

⇒ (A + B + C) = 9/36

⇒ (A + B + C) = 1/4

⇒ A + B + C = 1/4

1/4^th work is done by A, B and C in one day. so, Total work done by A, B and C in 4 days.

∴ A, B and C finish the work together in 4 days.

Shortcut Trick  

LCM of (9,12 and 18) = Total work done = 36

Efficiency of A = 36/9 = 4

Efficiency of B = 36/12 = 3

Efficiency of A = 36/18 = 2

Together, work will be done in = 36/(4 + 3 + 2) = 4 days.

Given:

Arun brought 50 kg of rice at a discount of 15% on the marked price.

The shopkeeper offered 5 kg of wheat for free.

Formula used:

Profit % = (Profit/Cost price) × 100

Calculation:

Let the cost of rice be Rs. x per kg

Price of 50 kg rice = Rs. 50x

But he bought it at a discount of 15%

Cost Price of rice for arun = Rs. (50x × 85/100 )

= Rs. 42.5x

The price of an extra 5 kg wheat sold at 60% M.p of rice = 5 × 0.6x

= Rs. 3x

Retailer didn’t paid Rs. 3x though he got (50 + 5) kg = 55 kg of weight

But he sold the 55 kg mix at a price Rs. 53x

Profit gained by him = (53x – 42.5x) = 10.5x

Profit percentage = (10.5x/42.5x) × 100

⇒ 24.7 %

∴ The answer is 24.7%.

Shortcut Trick

Total initial expenditure = 25% (food) + 15% (books) = 40%

Remaining income = 100% − 40% = 60%

Income left after uniform expense = (100% − 75%) of remaining income

⇒ Income left = 25% of 60% = 15%

∴ The correct answer is 15%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expenditure on food = 25%

Expenditure on children's books = 15%

Expenditure on uniforms = 75% of the remaining income

Total = 100%

Food+Books 40%

Remaining 60%

Uniforms 45%

Left 15%

Calculations:

⇒ Total initial expenditure = 25% + 15% = 40%

⇒ Remaining income = 100% − 40% = 60%

⇒ Expenditure on uniforms = 75% of remaining income

⇒ Expenditure on uniforms = (75 ÷ 100) × 60% = 45%

⇒ Percentage of income left = Remaining income − Expenditure on uniforms

⇒ Percentage of income left = 60% − 45% = 15%

∴ The correct answer is 15%.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When calculating percentages on remaining values, multiply the successive remaining percentage parts. Formula: Final Value = Initial Value × (1 − r₁/100) × (1 − r₂/100).

Percentage Base Identification

Always identify the base on which the percentage is calculated. Expenditures on total income are added together first, whereas expenditures on the remaining income require updating the base before calculation.

Fractional Equivalents

Memorizing common fractions accelerates percentage calculations. For example, 25% = 1/4 and 75% = 3/4. This allows quick mental math, making tasks like computing 1/4 of 60% instantly yield 15%.

Given:

The marked price of a book is Rs. 250

And gave a discount of 12%.

Formula:

S.P = M.P × (100 - D%)/100

Where,

S.P = Selling price

M.P = Marked price

D = Discount%

Calculation:

S.P = M.P × (100 - D%)/100

⇒ 250 × (100 - 12)/100

⇒ 250 × 0.88 = 220

∴ The selling price of a book is Rs. 220

Given

The ratio of TVs and rice cookers is 2 ∶ 3.

Concept used

Percentage = Part/Whole × 100

Calculation

Let the total appliance be = 2x + 3x = 5x

Rice cooker = 3x/5x

The percentage of rice cookers in the showroom = 3x/5x × 100

= 60%

The answer is 60%.

Calculation

The difference in sales of items in 3^rd quarter and 4^th quarter = 17% - 11%

= 6%

6% → 36

44% → 6 × 44 = 264

The total sale of the 1^st quarter is 264.

Given:

x + 3y = 6

Formula used:

(a + b)³ = a³ + 3a²b + 3ab² + b³

Calculation:

 x + 3y = 6

By cubing both sides

⇒ x³ + 3 × x × 3y(x + 3y) + 27y³ = 216

⇒ x3 + 39xy(6) + 27y3 = 216

⇒ x3 + 27y3 + 54xy = 216

The answer is 216.

Given

$\frac{(381+119)^2+(381-119)^2}{(381)^2+(119)^2}$

Formula used

(a + b)² + (a - b)² = 2(a² + b²)

Calculation

Let a = 381 and b = 119

⇒ [(a + b)2 + (a - b)²]/(a² + b²)

⇒ 2(a2 + b2)/(a2 + b2)

⇒ 2

The answer is 2.

Given:

Distance = 1725

Raju's speed = 72 km/h

Sohan's speed = 90 km/h

Racing in the same direction

Formula used

Relative speed(S2 - S1) = Distance/Time

Calculations:

The relative speed of both in the same direction = S2-S1

= 90 - 72 =18 km/h

= 18 × (5/18) = 5 m/s.

So,

Time is taken by them to meet for the first time on the track while running in the same direction = Length of track / relative speed in the same direction

= 1725/5

= 345 seconds 

Hence, The Required time is 345 seconds.

Given:

Amount = Rs.9826

Time = 18 months 

Rate = 5/2% Per annum 

Formulas used:

Compound Interest = Amount - Principal 

Amount = P × (1 + R/100)ⁿ

Calculation:

Time period = 3/2 × 2 = 3

Rate as per half- yearly basis = (5/2)/2 = (5/4)% 

9826 = P × [1 + (5/4)/100]³

⇒ P = 9826 × (400/405)³

⇒ P = 9466.55

∴ The sum is Rs. 9466.55

Given:

The ratio of the slant height and radius of the right circular cone are 28 cm and 21 cm, respectively.

Formula used:

Volume of cone = 1/3πr2h

TSA = πr(r + l)

h2 = √l2 – r2

Calculation:

According to the question

TSA = πr(r + l)

= 22/7 × 21 × (21 + 28)

⇒ TSA = 22 × 3 × 49

⇒ 3234

∴ The required total surface area of the right circular cone is 3234 cm

Given

The sides of a triangle are of length 8 cm, 15 cm and 17 cm

Concept used

If the sum of squares of side of the triangle is equal to the square of the largest side of the triangle, then it is a right right-angle triangle

Calculation

The sides of a triangle are 8 cm, 15 cm and 17 cm.

As we know,

17 = 8 + 15

289 = 64 + 225

289 = 289

Now we can say triangle is right angled triangle

Area of right angled triangle = (1/2) × Base × height = (1/2) × 8 × 15 = 60 cm²

The answer is 60 cm2

Given:

The average weight of a class of 45 students is 55 kg.

On inclusion of the teacher's weight, the average weight becomes 500 g.

Formula used:

Average weight = (Sum of weight of all people)/(Number of people)

Calculations:

The sum of weight of 45 students = 45 × 55

⇒ 2475     ----(1)

The sum of weight of 46 students and teacher = 46 × 55.5

⇒ 2553      ----(2)

From (1) and (2),

Weight of teacher = 2553 - 2475

⇒ 78

∴ The weight of the teacher is 78 kg.

Calculation

The total number of students in all the subjects = 110 + 70 + 50 + 40 + 80 + 90

= 440

The answer is 440.

Calculation

= (125 × 10^-5)/(25 × 10^-4)

= 12.5/25

= 0.5

The answer is 0.5

Given:

The distance between the center of circles is equal to 6 cm.

Calculation:

Let the common chord AB perpendicular bisect the distance between the center XY at O

⇒ XO = XY/2 = 6/2 = 3 cm

⇒ AX = radius = 6 (The circles pass through each other’s center)

Now, in triangle XAO right angled at O

⇒ AX² = AO² + XO²

⇒ 6² = AO² + 3²

⇒ AO² = 36 - 9

⇒ AO = 3√3

⇒ AB = 2 × AO = 6√3 cm

∴ The correct answer is 6√3 cm.

Given:

The perimeter of the FAX triangle = 36 units

The perimeter of the GST  triangle = 48 units

FA = 12 cm

Formula used:

(Perimeter of the first triangle)/(perimeter of the second triangle) = (Side of the first triangle)/(side of the second triangle).

Calculation:

(Side of the first triangle)/(side of the second triangle) = (perimeter of the first triangle)/(perimeter of the second triangle)

Side of the first triangle/side of second triangle = 36/48 = 3/4 

3 → 12 cm

4 → 12/3 × 4 = 16 cm 

∴ The GS is 16 cm.

Given

The cost of 4 rings and 2 bangles of gold = Rs. 40,000.

Calculation

10 rings and 5 bangles = 2.5 × (4 rings and 2 bangle)

Since quantities are double and a half price will also double and a half.

The cost of 10 rings and 5 bangles = 2.5 × 40,000

= 1,00,000

The answer is 1,00,000.

Given

Discount = 25%

Marked Price = 32

Formula

S.P = M.P (1 - d/100)

Calculation

Rebate on single item = 32 - 32 × 75%

= 32 - 24 = 8

For the rebate to be rs 40, the no. of items to be bought = 40/8

= 5

The answer is 5.

The correct answer is: To show indifference.

Key Points

• The idiom "throw cold water on" means to discourage or show disapproval towards something. (किसी चीज़ के प्रति हतोत्साहित करना या अस्वीकृति दिखाना)
• It can also mean to dampen someone's enthusiasm or excitement about something.
• The phrase is often used in a negative context.
• Example: Don't throw cold water on my plans.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is: Harsh.

Key Points

• Harsh means unpleasantly rough or sharp, especially to the senses, and can also mean cruel or severe. (अप्रिय रूप से कठोर या तीखा, विशेष रूप से इंद्रियों के लिए, और इसका मतलब क्रूर या गंभीर भी हो सकता है)
• It is a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
• Example: The harsh wind made it difficult to walk outside.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Haslet: A piece of meat from the lower part of a pig's leg. (सुअर के पैर के निचले हिस्से से मांस का एक टुकड़ा)
• Hart: A male deer, especially a male red deer over five years old. (एक नर हिरण, विशेषकर पाँच वर्ष से अधिक उम्र का नर लाल हिरण)
• Hasp: A metal fastening for a door or lid that consists of a hinged metal strap that fits over a staple and is secured by a pin or padlock. (दरवाजे या ढक्कन के लिए एक धातु का बंधन जिसमें एक टिका हुआ धातु का पट्टा होता है जो एक स्टेपल पर फिट होता है और एक पिन या पैडलॉक द्वारा सुरक्षित होता है)

The correct answer is: Deliberate.

Key Points

• Inadvertent means unintentional or accidental. (अनजाने या आकस्मिक)
• Example: The spill was inadvertent, occurring unexpectedly during routine maintenance.
• Marked option Deliberate is the opposite of inadvertent, meaning intentional or on purpose. (जानबूझकर)
• Example: His actions were deliberate, carefully planned to achieve a specific outcome.
• Clear and deliberate manner means speaking with intention and purpose, making sure that what is being said is clear and easily understood.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Unintentional means not done on purpose. (जानबूझकर नहीं किया गया)
• Peevish means easily irritated or annoyed. (आसानी से चिढ़ जाना या परेशान होना)
• Impious means lacking respect or showing disrespect for something sacred. (किसी पवित्र चीज़ के प्रति सम्मान की कमी या अनादर दिखाना)

The correct answer is: Taller

Key Points

• In the given sentence, "Syamala is more taller than her sister," the correct option is "taller."
• The reason for this is that the word "taller" already conveys the comparative degree, so adding "more" before it is redundant and grammatically incorrect.
• The correct comparative form of the adjective "tall" is "taller."
• When comparing two things, people, or objects, we use the comparative form to indicate that one has a greater degree of the quality expressed by the adjective than the other.
• Therefore, the sentence should be: "Syamala is taller than her sister."

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Tall: The positive form "tall" when not comparing two or more things, and simply want to describe the height of a single person or object.
• Most Taller: This is incorrect in standard English. The correct form is "taller," not "most taller."
• Tallest: The superlative form "tallest" is used when comparing more than two things or people, and indicates that one has the greatest degree of height among them.

The correct answer is: what I was looking for.

Key Points

• The use of "what" instead of "that" is incorrect as "what" is used to ask for information and not to refer to a specific object.
• "What" is often used in non-restrictive relative clauses or in indirect questions.
• For example, "I got what I wanted." In this case, "what I wanted" is not essential to understanding the main clause.
• "That" is used to introduce restrictive relative clauses, providing essential information to identify or define the noun it modifies.
• The use of "as" is correct as it shows the reason for the gift.
• The correct relative pronoun to use in this case is "that**"** when referring to a specific thing.
• The correct sentence should be "Hurray! Here is the toy that I was looking for as my birthday gift."

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is: "and lied about it."

Key Points

• The error lies in the verb tense.
• The part that contains an error is: "and lied about it to the public."
• The correct usage is "lying" instead of "lied" in this context.
• When listing actions in the past using "and" it's important to maintain consistency in the verb tense.
• In this case, both actions (accepting bribes and lying) should be in the same form, which is the present participle "lying."
• The correct form would be: "The politician was accused of accepting bribes and lying about it to the public."

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: Epitome.

Key Points

• Paragon means a perfect example of something or someone. (किसी चीज़ या व्यक्ति का एक आदर्श उदाहरण)
• Example: She is a paragon of beauty and grace.
• Marked option Epitome means a perfect example of a particular quality or type. (किसी विशेष गुणवत्ता या प्रकार का एक आदर्श उदाहरण)
• Example: He is the epitome of success and hard work.

Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Transient means temporary or passing quickly. (अस्थायी या जल्दी से गुजरने वाला)
• Associate means to connect or link with something or someone. (किसी चीज़ या व्यक्ति से जुड़ना)
• Grumpy means bad-tempered or irritable. (बुरे स्वभाव वाला या चिड़चिड़ा)

The correct answer is: BDCA.

Key Points

• Sentence B: This sentence introduces Sarah's dream of travelling and the circumstances that led her to fulfill that dream after graduating from college.
• Sentence D: This sentence follows up on the previous one by explaining how Sarah, after graduating from college, embarked on a backpacking adventure across Europe to fulfill her dream of travelling.
• Sentence C: This sentence provides details about Sarah's experiences during her travels, emphasizing the diversity of people she met and the different perspectives she encountered.
• Sentence A: The final sentence concludes the paragraph by highlighting the positive impact of Sarah's travels. It states that through these experiences, she gained appreciation and returned home with a renewed sense of purpose and passion.
• The paragraph follows a logical and chronological order, starting with Sarah's dream, her decision to travel after college, her experiences during the journey, and the positive impact it had on her.

So, the correct answer is option 4. ​

The correct answer is: Essence

Key Points

• Crux means the most important or essential part of something. (किसी चीज़ का सबसे महत्वपूर्ण या आवश्यक भाग)
• Example: The crux of the matter is that communication is key.
• Marked option Essence means the intrinsic nature or indispensable quality of something. (किसी चीज़ की आंतरिक प्रकृति या अपरिहार्य गुण)
• Example: The essence of the story is the relationship between the two main characters.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Peel means to remove the outer layer of something. (किसी चीज़ की बाहरी परत को हटाना)
• Subsistence means the minimum amount of resources needed for survival. (जीवित रहने के लिए आवश्यक संसाधनों की न्यूनतम मात्रा)
• Blueprint means a detailed plan or design. (एक विस्तृत योजना या डिज़ाइन)

The correct answer is: Flaw

Key Points

• Flaw means an imperfection or a blemish. (एक अपूर्णता या दोष)
• It is a noun that can be used to describe any kind of fault or defect.
• It can also be used as a verb to mean to mar or spoil the perfection or excellence of something.
• Example: The diamond had a flaw in it, which reduced its value.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Flaunt means to display or show off something in a conspicuous way. (किसी चीज़ को सुस्पष्ट तरीके से प्रदर्शित या प्रदर्शित करना)
• Fleck means a small patch or spot of colour or material. (रंग या सामग्री का एक छोटा सा धब्बा)
• Flea is a small wingless jumping insect that feeds on the blood of mammals and birds. (एक छोटा पंखहीन कूदने वाला कीट जो स्तनधारियों और पक्षियों का खून खाता है)

The correct answer is: Indecisiveness

Key Points

• Procrastination means delaying or postponing something. (किसी बात को टालना)
• Example: His procrastination led to a last-minute rush to complete the project.
• Marked option Indecisiveness means the inability to make decisions quickly or efficiently. (जल्दी या कुशलता से निर्णय लेने में असमर्थता)
• Example: Her indecisiveness made it challenging to finalize plans for the weekend.
• The sentence implies that the person missed a good opportunity because of their habit of delaying things or not taking prompt actions.

Therefore, option 1 is the most appropriate synonym for "procrastination" in this context.

Additional Information

• Impulsiveness means acting or deciding without thinking or planning ahead. (बिना सोचे-समझे या आगे की योजना बनाए कार्य करना या निर्णय लेना)
• Inquisitiveness means having a strong desire to learn or know about something. (किसी चीज़ के बारे में जानने या सीखने की तीव्र इच्छा होना)
• Submissiveness means being obedient or willing to yield to authority or control of others. (आज्ञाकारी होना या दूसरों के अधिकार या नियंत्रण के आगे झुकने को तैयार होना)

The correct answer is Meddle

Key Points

• Intervene means to involve oneself in a situation where one is not wanted or invited. (अपने आप को ऐसी स्थिति में शामिल करना जहां कोई वांछित या आमंत्रित नहीं है)
• Example: The teacher had to intervene to stop the argument between the students.
• Marked option Meddle means to interfere in someone else's business or affairs without being asked or invited. (बिना पूछे या आमंत्रित किए किसी दूसरे के व्यवसाय या मामलों में हस्तक्षेप करना)
• Example: It's best not to meddle in other people's personal affairs without their consent.
• Therefore, 'meddle' is the most appropriate synonym for 'intervene' in this sentence.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Speak means to say something or express one's thoughts or opinions. (कुछ कहना या अपने विचार या राय व्यक्त करना)
• Trouble means to cause problems or difficulties for someone. (किसी के लिए समस्याएँ या कठिनाइयाँ पैदा करना)
• Help means to assist or support someone in need. (किसी जरूरतमंद की सहायता या समर्थन करना)

The correct answer is: Alludes

Key Points

• Implies means to suggest or indicate something without explicitly stating it. (किसी बात को स्पष्ट रूप से बताए बिना सुझाव देना या इंगित करना) 
• Example: His hesitation when asked about the project completion date implies that it might not be finished on time.
• Marked option Alludes means to suggest or indirectly refer to something. (किसी चीज़ का सुझाव देना या परोक्ष रूप से संदर्भित करना)
• Example: The author alludes to the character's tragic past without directly stating it.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Deceives means to mislead or trick someone. (किसी को गुमराह या बरगलाना)
• Embellishes means to make something more attractive or interesting by adding decorative details. (सजावटी विवरण जोड़कर किसी चीज़ को अधिक आकर्षक या दिलचस्प बनाना)
• Apprehends means to arrest or take someone into custody. (किसी को गिरफ़्तार करना या हिरासत में ��ेना)

The correct answer is: "are slautered".

Key Points

• The correct spelling is "slaughtered", with the letter "u" after the "g".
• This is a common spelling mistake, as the word is pronounced with a silent "u".
• Slaughtered means the killing of animals, especially for food, or the killing of a large number of people or animals in a brutal or violent manner. (जानवरों की हत्या, विशेषकर भोजन के लिए, या क्रूर या हिंसक तरीके से बड़ी संख्या में लोगों या जानवरों की हत्या)
• Example: The farmer slaughtered the chickens for fresh meat.
• The sentence should read "are slaughtered" instead of "are slautered".
• The error is a spelling mistake, not a grammatical one.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is: "A greenhorn."

Key Points

• Inexperienced means lacking experience or knowledge. (अनुभव या ज्ञान की कमी)
• Example: As an inexperienced driver, he was nervous about navigating through heavy traffic.
• "A greenhorn" is an idiom that means a person who is new to or inexperienced in a particular activity or field. (ऐसा व्यक्ति जो किसी विशेष गतिविधि या क्षेत्र में नया या अनुभवहीन हो)
• Example: Being a greenhorn in the corporate world, he sought guidance from more seasoned colleagues.
• The word "greenhorn" is often used in the context of someone who is new to a job or profession.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• "In great hands" is an idiom that means to be in a safe or capable situation. (सुरक्षित या सक्षम स्थिति में होना)
• "A sore thumb" is an idiom that means to stand out or be conspicuous in a negative way. (नकारात्मक तरीके से अलग दिखना या प्रमुख होना)
• "Hang fire" is an idiom that means to delay or hold off on taking action. (कार्रवाई करने में देरी करना या रोकना)