SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 17 Aug, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number + 1) × 3 = Second number.

Now,

Option 1) 32 : 99

⇒ (32 + 1) × 3 = 99

⇒ 33 × 3 = 99

⇒ 99 = 99

Option 2) 42 : 123

⇒ (42 + 1) × 3 = 123 

⇒ 43 × 3 = 123 

⇒ 132 ≠ 123 

Option 3) 24 : 75

⇒ (24 + 1) × 3 = 75

⇒ 25 × 3 = 75

⇒ 75 = 75

Option 4) 64 : 195

⇒ (64 + 1) × 3 = 195

⇒ 65 × 3 = 195

⇒ 195 = 195

Thus, Odd pair is 42 : 123.

Hence, the correct answer is " Option 2".

The correct mirror image of the given combination when mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (1)".

Given statements:

Some clowns are scary.

All scary are ghosts.

Some ghosts are friendly.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

All ghosts are friendly - False (Because, some ghosts are friendly. So, all ghosts are friendly can be possible only).

All clowns are ghosts - False (Because, some clowns are ghosts. So, all clowns are ghosts can be possible only).

Thus, neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Given Sequence: LMN _ LMN _ LM _ NL _ MMNN

Now, putting the letters in the blank spaces given in the option one by one:

Option 1) LMLM → L M N / L L M N / M L M L N / L M M M N N

Option 2) LLML → L M N / L LM N / L LM M N / L L M M N N

Here, L L M Followed the pattern.

Option 3) LMNL → L M N / L LM N / M L M N N / L L M M N N

Option 4) LLLM → L M N / L LM N / L LM L N /L M M M N N

Hence, the correct answer is " Option 2".

Given word: 'TOUCHED'

After arranged in alphabetical order:

After arranged in alphabetical reversed order,

Letter at the Centre is " H ".

There are three letters at the left of H (U T O) and three letters are at the right of H (C D E).

Hence, the correct answer is " Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answwer is "Option 2".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 55 + 42 × 7 ÷ 11 - 30 = ?

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

⇒ 55 - 42 ÷ 7 × 11 + 30 = ?

⇒ 55 - 6 × 11 + 30 = ?

⇒ 55 - 66 + 30 = ?

⇒ 85 - 66 = 19

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number × 13) + 4 = 2^nd number

• 8, 108 → 8 × 13 + 4 = 104 + 4 = 108
• 14, 186 → 14 × 13 + 4 = 182 + 4 = 186

Now,

Option 1) 5, 73

⇒ 5 × 13 + 4 = 65 + 4 = 69

⇒ 69 ≠ 73

Option 2) 11, 147

⇒ 11 × 13 + 4 = 143 + 4 = 147

⇒ 147 = 147

Option 3) 16, 204

⇒ 16 × 13 + 4 = 208 + 4 = 212

⇒ 212 ≠ 204

Option 4) 9, 107

⇒ 9 × 13 + 4 = 117 + 4 = 121

⇒ 121 ≠ 107

So, the correct pair is '11, 147'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

‘towards the main gate’ is written as ‘nt zb ps cq’,

‘main purpose of this' is written as ‘rq kl bt zb'.

Here, The code for 'main' is 'zb'. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

Given: F + G × H ÷ I - J

It means: F is Mother of G, G is wife of H, H is Father of I, I is Brother of J.

So, F is the 'Mother's mother' of J.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given equation: 43 B 2 C 12 D 82 A 2 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 43 × 2 + 12 - 82 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 43 × 2 + 12 - 41 = ?

⇒ 86 + 12 - 41  = ?

⇒ 98 - 41 = 57

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 04".

The logic followed here is:

So, '535' is the missing number in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The curve line rotated one place anticlockwise

and the curve line increased by 1 every time.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number × 2) + 7 = 2^nd number

Now,

Option 1) 9 : 26

→ (9 × 2) +7

→ 18 + 7 = 25 ≠ 26.

Option 2) 5 : 17

→ (5 × 2) + 7

→ 10 + 7 = 17.

Option 3) 3 : 13

→ (3 × 2) + 7

→ 6 + 7 = 13.

Option 4) 8 : 23

→ (8 × 2) + 7

→ 16 + 7 = 23.

So, odd number pair is '9 : 26'.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

For, ‘NPQS is written as JLMO’,

For, 'JLMO is written as FHIK',

Similarly, for 'PRSU'

So, 'PRSU' will be written as 'LNOQ'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) SRP

Option 2) JIG

Option 3) HGE

Option 4) FCB

Here, 'FCB' is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For, BEGC is written as ILNJ.

For, LOQM is written as SVXT.

Similarly,

For, DGIE is written as '?'.

Given word: 'GASOLINE'.

After arranged in alphabetical order:

After arranged in alphabetical order,

Only one letter is remained unchanged that is " L ".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Given Sequence: A_CCD_BCCDA_CCDABC_D

Now, put the letters in the blank spaces given in the option one by one:

Option 1) CACB → ACCCD / ABCCD / ACCCD / ABCBD

Option 2) DACB → ADCCD / ABCCD / ACCCD / ABCBD

Option 3) BABC → ABCCD / ABCCD / ABCCD / ABCCD

Here, 'ABCCD' followed a pattern.

Option 4) BBBB → ABCCD / BBCCD / ABCCD / ABCBD

Hence, the correct answer is "Option(3)".

Given: T if ' P + Q - R × S ÷ T'

Given:' P + Q - R × S ÷ T'.

It means: P is mother of Q. Q is the brother of R. R is the wife of S. S is the father of T.

So, Q is the mother's brother of T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

For, 'GB 13 is related to HD 17' 

For, 'DK 18 is related to EM 22'

Similarly, for 'RE 16'

So, 'RE 16' will be related to 'SG 20'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 2^nd number × 3^rd number = 1^nd number.

Given,

(377, 13, 29)

⇒ 13 × 29 = 377

(564, 12, 47) 

⇒ 12 × 47 = 564

Now, checking the options:

Option 1): (227, 25, 9),

⇒ 25 × 9 = 225 ≠ 227

Option 2): (304, 19, 16),

⇒ 19 × 16 = 304 

Option 3): (475, 28, 17),

⇒ 28 × 17 = 476 ≠ 475

Option 4): (274, 9, 31),

⇒ 9 × 31 = 279 ≠ 274

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Let's count the number of triangles in the figure,

So, there are '14' triangles in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

The logic followed here is:

‘Come with me’ is written as ‘mx zt rq’

‘With your permission’ is written as ‘pr sn zt’

So, ‘With’ will be written as 'zt'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option(1)".

The correct answer is revenue deficit.

Key Points

• Revenue deficit arises when a government's revenue expenditure surpasses its revenue receipts.
• Revenue expenditure encompasses spending on items like salaries, pensions, and interest payments, while revenue receipts comprise income from taxes and fees.
• This deficit serves as a crucial gauge of the government's fiscal condition, with elevated deficits potentially triggering issues like inflation and economic instability.
• Various strategies exist to alleviate revenue deficits, including augmenting revenue receipts through tax hikes or fee adjustments, as well as curbing expenditure by implementing cost-saving measures or terminating certain programs.

Important Points

• A budget deficit occurs when a government's total expenditures surpass its total revenues over a specified period, usually a fiscal year.
• This signifies that the government is spending more funds than it is generating through diverse channels like taxes, fees, and other revenue sources.
• Revenue receipts denote the income a business garners from its routine operations.
• They are recurrent and have an impact on the business's profit and loss as reflected in the income statement.

The correct answer is Doubling of farmers’ income.

Key Points

• "Doubling of farmers' income," is not directly related to the industrial sector.
• Increasing farmers' income typically involves agricultural policies, improvements in farming techniques, infrastructure development in rural areas, and market reforms to ensure fair prices for agricultural products.
• While industrialization may indirectly contribute to overall economic growth and development, specifically doubling farmers' income is not a direct outcome attributed to the industrial sector.

Important Points

• The industrial sector primarily focuses on manufacturing goods and providing employment opportunities in factories and production facilities.
• The outcomes typically associated with a strong industrial sector include:
• Provision of relatively stable employment: A robust industrial sector often leads to the creation of jobs in manufacturing industries, providing stable employment opportunities for workers.
• Promotion of modernization: Industrialization drives technological advancements and promotes modernization by encouraging the adoption of new production techniques, machinery, and processes.
• Provision of mass consumption manufactured goods: A well-developed industrial sector produces a wide range of manufactured goods, including consumer products, which are essential for meeting the demands of the population and driving economic growth through increased consumption.

The correct answer is Parsi.

Key Points

• The newspaper Rast Goftar, also known as Truthteller, advocated for social and religious reforms within the Parsi community.
• Founded in 1854 as an Anglo-Gujarati newspaper by Dadabhai Naoroji and Kharshedji Cama, its primary aim was to promote social reform initiatives among Parsis in Western India and to elucidate Zoroastrian concepts.
• Acting as the primary voice of the Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha, a Religious Reform Association established in 1851, the paper was supported by influential figures such as Naoroji Furdonji, Dadabhai Naoroji, K.R. Cama, and S.S. Bengalee.
• The movement spearheaded by these leaders sought to rejuvenate social conditions and restore religion to its original purity.

Important Points

• The socio-religious reform movements in India were driven by the objectives of advocating for social justice, advancing women's education, and combating prevalent social ills.
• These movements actively confronted bigotry, superstitions, and the entrenched influence of the priestly class within society.
• Rooted in religious beliefs, they were committed to rectifying inhumane practices and dispelling superstitions. Moreover, these movements espoused the principle of religious unity, emphasizing the commonalities and interconnectedness among various faiths.

Additional Information

• The Parsi community, alternatively spelled Parsee, comprises individuals residing in India who adhere to the Zoroastrian faith.
• The term "Parsi" translates to "Persians," reflecting the community's Persian origins.
• These individuals trace their ancestry to Zoroastrian migrants who sought refuge in India, fleeing religious persecution inflicted by Muslims in Persia.

The correct answer is Manipur.

Key Points

• Manipur secured the top spot in the Northeast Olympic Games for the second consecutive time, clinching a total of 237 medals, with an impressive tally of 85 golds.
• Assam closely followed in second place, accumulating 201 medals, including 81 golds.
• The event, featuring athletes from eight states in the northeast region, took place on November 10.
• This victory marks Manipur's continued dominance in the Games, building upon their previous success when they hosted the inaugural edition in October 2018 and topped the medal tally with 80 golds.
• Renowned for producing Olympic medalists like boxer MC Mary Kom and weightlifter Mirabai Chanu, Manipur further solidified its position by securing an additional 17 medals, including seven golds, on the final day of competition.

Important Points

• Arunachal Pradesh secured the third position, while the host state Meghalaya claimed the fourth spot with a total of 149 medals (36 gold, 35 silver, 78 bronze).
• This performance marked a significant improvement for Meghalaya compared to their sixth-place finish in the first edition, where they secured only 39 medals.
• Meanwhile, as preparations for the "Manipur Olympic Games 2022" were underway, Manipur's Chief Minister Nongthombam Biren Singh unveiled the official mascot of the event, named Nongin after the state bird of Manipur, Mrs. Hume's pheasant.
• Recognizing the importance of preserving this bird species and raising public awareness in Manipur, the Government of Manipur, led by Chief Minister Biren, officially adopted Nongin as the mascot for the sports event.

The correct answer is Tropical Deciduous Forests.

Key Points

• Tropical deciduous forests, also referred to as monsoon forests, thrive in regions receiving an annual rainfall ranging from 70 to 200 cm.
• These forests exhibit lush greenery and dense vegetation during the wet summer months but transform during the dry winters, characterized by leaf shedding and a drier landscape.
• Found in regions such as India, northern Australia, and central America, tropical deciduous forests are particularly widespread in India, covering vast areas including Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Orissa, and parts of Maharashtra.
• In India, these forests hold significant economic importance as they serve as abundant sources of valuable timber species like teak, sal, sandalwood, and rosewood.
• These trees are extensively utilized in the lumber industry for various purposes such as construction, railway infrastructure, and furniture manufacturing.

Important Points

• Littoral and swamp forests, commonly referred to as wetland forests, thrive in coastal regions, along seashores, creeks, river estuaries, and deltas. They can also be observed at the edges of swampy islands and along sandy beaches.
• Tropical thorn forests, characterized by scrub-like vegetation, are typically found in desert regions. These forests are prevalent in tropical and subtropical areas and thrive in semi-arid regions receiving less than 70 cm of annual rainfall.
• Montane ecosystems are situated on mountain slopes, where the alpine climate significantly influences the ecosystem. As elevation increases, temperatures drop, leading to distinct stratification within the ecosystem due to varying environmental conditions.

The correct answer is 12.

Key Points

• A Kho Kho team comprises 12 players, with nine players participating in a game while the remaining three serve as substitutes.
• During a game, the chasing team sends nine players onto the field who assume a kneeling position. Meanwhile, the defending team, comprised of the remaining three players, aims to evade being touched by members of the opposing team.
• Each match consists of two innings, with each team allotted seven minutes for both chasing and defending.
• This format allows for strategic gameplay as teams alternate between chasing and defending roles to score points and outmanoeuvre their opponents.

Important Points

• In August 2022, India introduced the inaugural league of Ultimate Kho Kho, marking the first of its kind.
• Derived from the Marathi language, the name "kho kho" (खोखो) is an onomatopoeia representing the sound generated during gameplay.
• The field dimensions measure 27 by 16 meters (89 by 52 feet), with a 24-meter (79-foot) separation between the two poles.
• Additionally, the central lane boasts a width of 30 centimetres (12 inches), providing the setting for intense and dynamic matches within this traditional Indian sport.

The correct answer is Tea.

Key Points

• Tea is a plantation crop found abundantly in Assam.
• Tea cultivation is a prominent industry in Assam, one of India's northeastern states.
• The region's favourable climate, with abundant rainfall and rich, loamy soil, provides optimal conditions for tea cultivation.
• Additionally, the low elevation and high humidity levels further contribute to the ideal environment for tea plantations. Assam's tea plantations are typically situated in the Brahmaputra River valley, where the lush greenery of the landscape is dotted with tea estates. These estates cultivate varieties of the Camellia sinensis plant, from which black tea, Assam's most renowned tea variety, is produced.
• The tea industry plays a significant role in Assam's economy, employing a large number of people, both directly and indirectly.
• Additionally, Assam's tea estates attract tourists interested in exploring the scenic beauty and heritage of tea cultivation in the region.

Important Points

• Uttar Pradesh holds the distinction of being the largest producer of wheat in India.
• In the year 2021, the state produced an impressive quantity of over 35 million metric tons of wheat. West Bengal stands out as the leading rice-producing state in India, annually yielding approximately 146.05 lakh tons of rice.
• As of July 2023, Karnataka has emerged as the top maize-producing state in India, making a significant contribution of 16.45% to the nation's total maize yield.

The correct answer is Only A.

Key Points

• An externality refers to the occurrence of a cost or benefit resulting from the actions of one party, yet borne or enjoyed financially by another.
• These effects may impact individuals or entire organizations and can be classified as either private or societal.
• Positive externalities arise when they provide a benefit to a third party. For instance, the construction of infrastructure like flyovers or highways can decrease transportation expenses and travel duration for users.
• Conversely, negative externalities occur when they impose a cost on third parties. For example, the construction of roads may lead to erosion and chemical runoff, subsequently polluting water sources downstream.

Important Points

• Real national income, also referred to as national income at constant prices, denotes the total income of a country adjusted for inflation.
• This measure, also known as nominal or money national income, reflects the actual purchasing power of a currency at a particular juncture.
• Constant prices, representing real value, are adjusted for price fluctuations concerning a baseline or reference point.
• In contrast, current prices, denoting nominal value, are those prevailing at a specific moment.
• Real national income offers a more precise evaluation of the real shifts in production and economic activity over time, enhancing the accuracy of comparisons.

The correct answer is Rice.

Key Points

• Oryzenin, a storage protein present in rice grains, constitutes the primary glutelin found in rice, comprising approximately 75–90% of the total protein content in rice grains.
• Extracting oryzenin from rice grains and rice flour involves the process of sonification.
• Renowned for its high quality, oryzenin boasts a complete amino acid profile.
• Widely utilized across various food and beverage sectors, including sports nutrition, meat substitutes, bakery, and confectionery, oryzenin serves as a versatile ingredient.
• It emerges as an appealing option for individuals seeking lactose-free and non-allergenic protein sources.
• Moreover, it is favoured by those susceptible to gluten sensitivity, as it does not induce digestive complications.

Additional Information

• Rice, a cereal grain, serves as the primary dietary staple for more than half of the global population, especially prevalent in Asia and Africa.
• It originates from the seeds of two grass species: Oryza sativa (Asian rice) and, less frequently, O. glaberrima (African rice).
• Asian rice was cultivated in China approximately 13,500 to 8,200 years ago, while African rice saw domestication in Africa around 3,000 years ago. Rice has gained widespread acceptance across diverse cultures worldwide.
• In 2021, global rice production reached 787 million tons, ranking it fourth among agricultural crops, following sugarcane, maize, and wheat.

The correct answer is Both a and b.

Key Points

• The Sonepur Cattle Fair, also known as Harihar Kshetra Mela, takes place on Kartik Poornima (the full moon day) spanning the months of November and December in Sonepur, Bihar, situated at the confluence of the Ganges and Gandak rivers.
• Originally, the fair was held in Hajipur, with only the puja performed at the Harihar Nath temple in Sonpur.
• However, during the reign of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb, the fair's location shifted to Sonpur.
• Legend suggests that the Harihar Nath temple was initially constructed by Lord Rama during his journey to King Janak's court to seek Mata Sita's hand.
• Subsequently, Raja Man Singh undertook repairs to the temple, while its current form owes to the efforts of Raja Ram Narain, a prominent figure during the late Mughal era.

Important Points

• Currently, the Sonepur Cattle Fair stands as one of the largest such fairs in Asia, extending from fifteen days to a month in duration.
• Its roots trace back to ancient times when Chandragupta Maurya (340-297 BCE) engaged in the procurement of elephants and horses across the Ganges River. Over time, it has evolved into a blend of traditional and contemporary activities.
• These include historical rituals like snan (ritual bathing) at various ghats and temple visits, alongside the addition of modern elements such as stalls and amusement parks.
• The fair encompasses a diverse array of attractions, featuring stalls representing various government departments, as well as exhibitions showcasing the talents of local artists and the merchandise of cattle traders.

The correct answer is 6.25 × 10¹⁸.

Key Points

• The proper number of electrons in 1 ampere (1 A) of current can be calculated using the elementary charge, which is the charge carried by a single electron.
• The elementary charge is approximately 1.602×10⁻¹⁹ coulombs.
• To find the number of electrons, we need to divide the total charge (which is 1 coulomb for 1 ampere of current) by the elementary charge:

Number of electrons= Elementary charge/Total charge ​

Number of electrons = 1 C/1.602×10⁻¹⁹ C/electron

Number of electrons = 1 C/1.602×10⁻¹⁹ C/electron

Number of electrons ≈ 6.25 × 10¹⁸ electrons

So, the proper number of electrons in 1 ampere of current is approximately 6.25 × 1018 electrons.

The correct answer is social media influencers.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution, through the Department of Consumer Affairs, has issued a guide titled 'Endorsements Know-hows!' targeting celebrities, influencers, and virtual influencers active on social media platforms.
• The guide's primary objective is to ensure transparency and prevent audience deception during product or service endorsements.
• It emphasizes adherence to the Consumer Protection Act and relevant regulations.
• It addresses individuals or groups with the ability to influence their audience's purchasing decisions or opinions due to their authority, expertise, position, or relationship with their followers.
• The guide particularly highlights situations where there exists a material connection between an advertiser and a celebrity/influencer, potentially impacting the credibility or significance of the endorsement made by the celebrity/influencer.

Important Points

• Social media influencers are individuals who have established credibility and expertise in a particular subject matter.
• Through consistent posts on their preferred social media platforms, they attract sizable followings of enthusiastic and engaged individuals who value their opinions.
• Brands often favour social media influencers due to their ability to initiate trends and persuade their followers to purchase the products they endorse.

The correct answer is To organise village panchayat.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Duties are integral sections of the Constitution of India, delineating the essential obligations of the state towards its citizens, as well as the rights and duties of citizens towards the State.
• These sections are regarded as fundamental components of the constitution, which was crafted by the Constituent Assembly of India between 1947 and 1949.
• The Fundamental Duties encompass the moral obligations of all citizens to foster patriotism and uphold India's unity, as outlined in Part IV–A of the Constitution.
• These duties, akin to the Directive Principles, are not directly enforceable by courts unless enacted into law by the legislature, impacting both individuals and the nation as a whole.

Important Points

• List of Fundamental Duties:
• Abide by the Constitution and respect the national flag & National Anthem
• Follow the ideals of the freedom struggle
• Protect the sovereignty & integrity of India
• Defend the country and render national services when called upon
• Spirit of common brotherhood
• Preserve composite culture
• Preserve natural environment
• Develop scientific temper
• Safeguard public property
• Strive for excellence
• Duty fo all parents/guardians to send their children in the age group of 6-14 years to school.

The correct answer is More than access to credit poor need subsidies.

Key Points

• Microfinance services cater to unemployed or low-income individuals who often lack access to traditional financial institutions due to poverty or limited financial resources, enabling them to secure small business loans safely and ethically.
• While microfinance initiatives are global, the majority are concentrated in developing nations like Bangladesh, Cambodia, India, Afghanistan, Democratic Republic of Congo, Indonesia, and Ecuador, where they play a crucial role in fostering economic empowerment and poverty alleviation.
• The advantages of microfinance extend beyond merely providing capital to individuals; entrepreneurs who establish successful businesses through microfinance can further contribute to their communities by generating employment opportunities and facilitating trade, thereby fostering overall socio-economic development.

Important Points

• While certain microfinance interest rates may be lower compared to traditional banks, critics argue that some operations are profiting from the impoverished population.
• Moreover, the involvement of major financial institutions and large corporations in launching for-profit microfinance departments has raised concerns that higher interest rates imposed by these entities could potentially lead to a debt trap for low-income borrowers, overshadowing the intended benefits.
• Nevertheless, microfinance serves as a crucial form of banking service for low-income individuals or groups who lack access to conventional financial services.

The correct answer is Padma Shri.

Key Points

• In 2006, Ileana Citaristi, an Italian Odissi dancer, was awarded with the Padma Shri.
• Ileana Citaristi, an Italian dancer proficient in Odissi and Chhau, as well as a dance instructor based in Bhubaneswar, India, was honored with the 43^rd National Film Award for Best Choreography for her work in the film Yugant in 1995.
• Notably, in 2006, she became the first dancer of foreign origin to receive the Padma Shri award for her remarkable contributions to Odissi.
• Additionally, she has been bestowed with the 'Raseshwar Award' by the Sur Singar Sansad, Mumbai.
• Recognizing her significant impact on Odissi, the Government of India conferred upon her the Padma Shri in 2006.
• Furthermore, in 2008, the Italian government bestowed upon her the title of a member of the Order of the Star of Italian Solidarity.

Important Points

• Padma Bhushan is a distinguished civilian award bestowed by the Government of India to individuals for their exceptional service and contributions in various fields.
• Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, is conferred upon individuals for their outstanding achievements and contributions to the nation's progress and welfare.
• Padma Shri, a prestigious civilian honour, is awarded by the Government of India to individuals in recognition of their distinguished service and significant accomplishments in various spheres.
• Padma Vibhushan, one of India's highest civilian honours, is bestowed upon individuals for their exceptional contributions and achievements in diverse fields, recognizing their outstanding impact on the nation's development and welfare.

The correct answer is Phenylalanine.

Key Points

• Phenylalanine is a type of amino acid, which exists in three forms: L-, D-, and DL-phenylalanine. L-phenylalanine is naturally occurring and can be found in foods like meat and eggs.
• Amino acids serve as the fundamental building blocks of proteins, with L-phenylalanine being classified as an essential amino acid. It is the sole form of phenylalanine present in proteins.
• Conversely, D-phenylalanine is not considered an essential amino acid, and its physiological role remains unclear.
• DL-phenylalanine is synthesized in laboratory settings. Phenylalanine is utilized by individuals for various purposes, including the treatment of vitiligo (a condition characterized by white patches on the skin), attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), chronic pain, signs of aging skin, depression, and numerous other conditions.

Important Points

• Leucine is among the three essential branched-chain amino acids. These amino acids play a crucial role in providing energy to skeletal muscle during exercise.
• Tryptophan is an essential amino acid vital for normal growth in infants and for the synthesis and maintenance of the body's proteins, muscles, enzymes, and neurotransmitters.
• Valine, another essential branched-chain amino acid, is utilized by the body to aid in energy production.

The correct answer is Nehruvian.

Key Points

• Nehruvian is NOT included in the category of Directive Principles of State Policy of the Indian Constitution.
• The Directive Principles of State Policy in India are categorized into several groups: Economic and Socialistic, Political and Administrative, Justice and Legal, Environmental, Protection of Monuments, Peace and Security.
• These principles serve as guidelines for the governance of the country by the government of India.
• While not enforceable by any court, they are deemed fundamental in the administration of the nation, making it the responsibility of the State to incorporate these principles into the formulation of laws to establish a fair society.
• These principles draw inspiration from similar directives outlined in the Constitution of Ireland, which pertain to social justice, economic welfare, foreign policy, and legal and administrative affairs.

Important Points

• In 1928, the Nehru Commission, which included representatives from all Indian political parties, put forward constitutional reforms for India.
• These reforms advocated for dominion status for India, elections conducted through universal suffrage, and the assurance of fundamental rights.
• Additionally, the proposals aimed to provide representation for religious and ethnic minorities while also restraining the powers of the government.
• In 1931, the Indian National Congress, the predominant political party at the time, adopted resolutions affirming its commitment to safeguarding fundamental civil rights.
• Furthermore, the Congress pledged to promote socio-economic rights such as establishing a minimum wage and abolishing untouchability and serfdom. These resolutions demonstrated the Congress's dedication to the principles of socialism.

The correct answer is Ghazal.

Key Points

• Jagjit Singh was a renowned Indian composer, singer, and musician recognized for his contributions across multiple languages.
• He is widely credited with revitalizing and popularizing ghazal, a traditional Indian art form, by selecting poetry that resonated with the masses and composing it in a manner that emphasized the significance of words and the melodies they invoked.
• His approach to composing and singing, characterized by a focus on lyrical content, is regarded as Bol-pradhan in the realm of Indian classical music.
• In recognition of his outstanding achievements, Jagjit Singh was honoured with the Padma Bhushan, one of India's highest civilian awards, bestowed upon him by the government in 2003.
• Additionally, in February 2014, the government released a commemorative set of two postal stamps as a tribute to his enduring legacy and contributions to music.

Important Points

• The ghazal, originating from Arabic poetry, is a form of amatory poem or ode. These poetic compositions typically explore themes of spiritual and romantic love, offering a nuanced reflection on the complexities of human emotions.
• Classical music typically denotes the sophisticated and complex art music of the Western world, which is traditionally distinguished from Western folk music or popular music traditions.
• Western music, also known as Western or cowboy music, is a genre of music that originated in the Western United States and Western Canada, reflecting the experiences, lifestyles, and landscapes of the people who settled and worked in these regions.

The correct answer is Sattriya Nritya.

Key Points

• Sattriya Nritya is the classical dance of Assam.
• Sattriya Nritya holds a significant position among Indian classical dances. Initially conceived as part of Bhaona, performances of Ankiya Nat, one-act plays, the art form was pioneered by Sankardev, a polymath from Assam during the 15^th-16^th century.
• These dances are integral to the living traditions of Sattra communities, which comprise devotees adhering to the Ekasarana Dharma, a Hindu sect established by Sankardev.
• The themes depicted in Sattriya Nritya revolve around Krishna, along with other avatars of Vishnu like Rama, and narratives from revered epics such as the Mahabharata and the Ramayana.
• In a significant recognition, the Sangeet Natak Akademi of India conferred classical status upon Sattriya on November 15, 2000, thereby acknowledging it as one of the eight classical dances of India.
• Modern iterations of Sattriya delve into various themes and narratives, and its performances enjoy global stages, captivating audiences worldwide.

Important Points

• Bharatanatyam is a revered Indian classical dance form with its origins rooted in Tamil Nadu. Recognized by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, it serves as a medium for conveying South Indian religious themes and spiritual concepts.
• Kathak, another esteemed ancient Indian classical dance, is believed to have evolved from the wandering bards of North India known as Kathakars, or storytellers.
• Kuchipudi, one of the eight major Indian classical dances, traces its roots to the village of Kuchipudi in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.

The correct answer is Buddhist.

Key Points

• The Pala Dynasty rulers were primarily patrons Buddhist.
• The Pāla Empire emerged as a dominant force in the Indian subcontinent during the post-classical period, with its roots in the Bengal region.
• Named after its ruling dynasty, characterized by rulers bearing names ending with the suffix Pāla, which signifies "protector" in Prakrit, the empire's foundation can be traced back to the late eighth century CE, with the ascension of Gopāla as the emperor of Gauda.

Important Points

• The Pāla Empire exerted its influence primarily in Bengal and eastern Bihar, encompassing key cities such as Gauḍa, Vikramapura, Pāṭaliputra, Monghyr, Somapura, Ramavati (Varendra), Tāmralipta, and Jaggadala.
• This period is regarded as one of the golden eras in Bengali history, marked by stability and prosperity brought forth by the Palas after centuries of internal strife and civil war among rival factions.
• Under Pāla rule, there was significant advancement in various aspects of Bengali civilization, with notable contributions to arts and architecture.
• The Palas not only built upon the achievements of preceding Bengali civilizations but also produced remarkable works of art and architectural marvels, further enriching the cultural heritage of the region.

The correct answer is Disguised Unemployment.

Key Points

• Disguised unemployment refers to a situation where a portion of the labour force either remains jobless or is employed in a manner that contributes negligibly to productivity.
• Despite being technically unemployed, these workers do not impact the overall output of the economy.
• This phenomenon arises when productivity levels are low, and an excessive number of workers are engaged in jobs that do not require their full capacity.
• Disguised unemployment is commonly observed in developing countries, where the sizeable population results in a surplus of labour.
• It is typically associated with low productivity and often coincides with informal and agricultural labour markets, which can absorb a significant number of workers.

Important Points

• Frictional unemployment arises from the transition period between leaving one job voluntarily and securing another. It reflects the time gap between job changes, during which individuals actively seek new employment opportunities.
• Technological unemployment occurs when advancements in technology, such as automation and artificial intelligence (AI), lead to the displacement of human workers from their jobs.
• Structural unemployment is a type of involuntary unemployment caused by a fundamental mismatch between the skills possessed by the workforce and the demands of the job market.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Tamil Nadu set a pioneering precedent in India by instituting mandatory rooftop rainwater harvesting in 2001, a policy that remains unique to the state.
• Amendments were introduced to the Tamil Nadu District Municipalities Act of 1920 and the Building Rules of 1973, mandating the incorporation of rainwater harvesting structures in all new constructions.
• Furthermore, the Ministry of Urban Affairs and Poverty Alleviation has extended this mandate nationally, requiring rainwater harvesting for new buildings with a roof area exceeding 100 square meters and plots larger than 1,000 square meters.
• The implementation of Tamil Nadu's rainwater harvesting model has yielded notable results, evidenced by a 50% increase in water levels in Chennai within five years.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu, situated in the southernmost part of India, stands as the tenth-largest state in terms of area and the sixth-largest in terms of population.
• It is predominantly inhabited by the Tamil people, who speak the Tamil language—a language of ancient lineage and official status.
• The capital and largest city of Tamil Nadu is Chennai.
• Geographically, Tamil Nadu is positioned on the southeastern coast of the Indian peninsula. It is bordered by the Western Ghats and Deccan Plateau to the west, the Eastern Ghats to the north, and the Eastern Coastal Plains along the Bay of Bengal to the east.
• To the southeast, it is bounded by the Gulf of Mannar and the Palk Strait, while the southernmost tip is washed by the Laccadive Sea. The river Kaveri traverses the state, dividing it into distinct regions.

The correct answer is 2015.

Key Points

• The concept of Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices originates from the United Nations System of National Accounts (SNA), which was introduced in 1993 and maintained in the SNA 2008 revision as part of the overhaul of compilation and classification systems.
• This framework was subsequently adopted by the Central Statistical Office (CSO) during its base revision in January 2015.
• Gross Value Added (GVA) is defined as the value of output minus the value of intermediate consumption.
• It represents the contribution of both labour and capital to the production process.
• When taxes on products (net of subsidies on products) are included, the sum of value added across all resident units yields the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a nation.
• Hence, the GDP of any country reflects the total Gross Value Added (GVA) across all sectors of the economy during the specified year, adjusting for taxes and subsidies, without accounting for capital consumption or depreciation.

Important Points

• In India, the estimation of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is undertaken by the Central Statistical Office (CSO).
• The Ministry of Finance utilizes the GDP figures (at current prices) to establish fiscal targets by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act of 2003 and its associated regulations.
• As part of this process, the Ministry of Finance formulates its projections regarding GDP for the upcoming two years while delineating future fiscal objectives.
• Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices is delineated as the output valued at basic prices minus the intermediate consumption valued at purchasers' prices. In this context, GVA is identified by the price at which the output is appraised.

The correct answer is Mirabai Chanu.

Key Points

• Mirabai Chanu, the silver-medallist weightlifter from the Tokyo Olympic Games, has clinched the prestigious 2022 'BBC Indian Sportswoman of the Year award, securing the honour through a public voting process.
• Remarkably, Chanu, hailing from Manipur and aged 28, has achieved the distinction of winning this award for the second consecutive year, having also claimed the title in 2021.
• The 'BBC Indian Sportswoman of the Year award, established in 2019, aims to recognize and celebrate the accomplishments of Indian sportswomen who have left a significant impact on the global stage.
• In addition to Chanu's achievement, table tennis player Bhavina Patel emerged victorious in the inaugural 'BBC Para Sportswoman of the Year' category, introduced this year.

Important Points

• Furthermore, Pritam Siwach, former captain of the Indian women's hockey team, was honoured with the esteemed 'BBC Lifetime Achievement Award for her substantial contributions to Indian sports and her role in inspiring generations of players.
• Finally, boxer Nitu Ghanghas was bestowed with the title of 'BBC Emerging Player of the Year'.

Additional Information

• Nikhat Zareen is an Indian boxer renowned for her achievements, having clinched the title of world champion twice. Notably, she secured a gold medal at the 2011 AIBA Women's Youth & Junior World Boxing Championships held in Antalya.
• Pusarla Venkata Sindhu, a prominent figure in Indian badminton, is celebrated as one of the nation's most accomplished athletes. With an impressive track record, Sindhu has garnered medals at prestigious events like the Olympics and various tournaments on the BWF circuit, including a noteworthy gold at the 2019 World Championships.
• Saina Nehwal, another stalwart in Indian badminton, boasts an illustrious career as a professional player. Formerly ranked as world no. 1, Nehwal has secured an impressive tally of 24 international titles, among which are ten Superseries titles, marking her as one of the most successful players in the sport.

The correct answer is 37.

Key Points

• The Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), renowned for its forefront research and development (R&D) expertise across various scientific and technological domains, stands as a modern R&D institution.
• CSIR boasts a vibrant network comprising 37 national laboratories, 39 outreach centers, 1 Innovation Complex, and three units with a widespread presence throughout India.
• Encompassing a broad spectrum of scientific and technological fields, CSIR's areas of focus span from oceanography, geophysics, chemicals, and drugs to genomics, biotechnology, and nanotechnology, as well as extending to mining, aeronautics, instrumentation, environmental engineering, and information technology.
• CSIR plays a crucial role in providing significant technological advancements across numerous societal domains, including environment, health, drinking water, food, housing, energy, and both farm and non-farm sectors.
• Moreover, CSIR contributes significantly to the development of human resources in science and technology, underscoring its pivotal role in shaping the landscape of scientific and technological innovation.

Additional Information

• According to the Scimago Institutions Ranking World Report 2021, CSIR is distinguished as the sole Indian institution ranked within the top 100 global government institutions, securing the 37^th position out of 1,587 government organizations worldwide.
• In the Asian region, CSIR holds an impressive 7^th rank, solidifying its leadership within India as the top-ranked institution.

Given:

Capacity of cask (total mix) = 600 litres

First replacement = y litres

Second replacement = 120 litres

Third replacement = 120 litres

After final replacement, the ratio of wine to water = 12 : 13

Formula used :

Remaining quantity = Initial quantity(1 - Replaced quantity/ Total mix)ⁿ

Where, n = no of replacement performed

Calculation :

Let the remaining quantity of wine = 12x, and quantity of water = 13x

So, Initial quantity of mixture = 12x + 13x = 25x

According to the formula,

12x = 25x $(1 - \frac{y}{600})(1- \frac{120}{600})(1- \frac{120}{600})$

⇒ 12 = 25 $(1 - \frac{y}{600})(1- \frac{1}{5})(1- \frac{1}{5})$

⇒  25 $(\frac{600-y}{600})$ × $\frac{4}{5}× \frac{4}{5}$ = 12 

⇒ $(\frac{600-y}{24})$ × $\frac{16}{25}$ = 12

⇒ (600 - y) ×16 = 12 × 24 × 25

⇒ (600 - y) = (12 × 24 × 25)/16

⇒ 600 - y = 3 × 6 × 25

⇒ 600 - y = 450

⇒ y = 600 - 450

⇒ y = 150 litres

∴ The value of y is 150 litres.

Shortcut Trick

Given :

Simple Interest (SI) = Rs. 888

Time (t) = 36 months = 3 years

Amount (P) = Rs. 7400

Formula used :

SI = P × r × t/100

Where, P = Principal, t = Time (in years), r = rate of interest

Calculation : 

According to the question,

⇒ 888 = 7400 × 3 × r /100

⇒ 888 = 222 × r

⇒ r = 4

∴ The rate percentage of interest per annum is 4%

Given:

CP of 1^st article = Rs. 48,000

Loss on 1^st article = 12%

CP of 2^nd article = SP of 1^st article

Gain on 2^nd article = 20%

Formula used:

SP = CP × (100 + Profit)/100

SP = CP × (100 - Loss)/100

Calculation :

SP of 1^st article = 48000 × (100 - 12)/100

⇒ 48000 × 88/100 = Rs. 42240

SP of 2^nd article = 42240 × (100 + 20)/100

⇒ 42240 × 120/100 = Rs.50688

So, Overall gain = 50688 - 48000 = Rs. 2668

∴ The overall gain is Rs. 2688

Shortcut Trick

12% = 3/25

20% = 1/5

Overall gain = 132 - 125 = 7 unit

⇒ 125 unit = 48000

⇒ 1 unit = 48000/125 = 384

⇒ 7 unit = 7 × 384 = Rs. 2688

∴ The overall gain is Rs. 2688

Formula used:

(sin6 θ + cos6 θ)  = 1 - 3 sin²θcos²θ 

Calculation:

sin θ cos θ = $\frac{\sqrt2}{3}$

Squaring  both sides and multiplying both sides by 3,

⇒ 3 × sin² θ cos² θ = 3 × ( $\frac{\sqrt2}{3}$ )² = 3 × $\frac{2}{9}$ = $\frac{2}{3}$

According to the formula,

⇒ (sin6 θ + cos6 θ)  = 1 -  3 sin2θcos2θ

⇒ $1- \frac{2}{3}$ = $\frac{1}{3}$

∴ The required value is 1/3.

Given:

(d + e + f) = 14

(d2 + e2 + f2) = 96

Formula Used:

(a + b + c)² = 2 × (ab + bc + ca) + a2 + b2 + c2

Calculation:

⇒ (d + e + f)2 = 2 × (de + ef + fd) + d2 + e2 + f2

⇒ ( 14)² = 2× (de + ef + fd) + 96

⇒ 2 × (de + ef + fd) = 196 - 96 = 100

⇒ (de + ef + fd) = 100/2 = 50

∴ The value of (de + ef + fd) is 50.

Given:

Selling price = Rs. 2325

Discount = 22.5 %

Concept used:

Selling price = Marked price – Discount

Calculations:

Let the marked price be X

⇒ 2325 = X – (X × 22.5/100)

⇒ 2325 = 77.5X/100

⇒ 2325 × 100 = 77.5X

⇒ X = (2325 × 100)/77.5 = 3000

So, Discount = 3000 – 2325 = Rs. 675

∴ The  discount offered  is Rs. 675

Given:

∠CAB = 90° 

AD ⊥ BC.

AC = 24 cm, AB = 10 cm

Calculation:

BC² = AC² + AB²

⇒BC² = (24)² + (10)²

⇒BC = $\sqrt{(576+100)}$ = $\sqrt{676}$

⇒BC = 26 cm

Now,

Area of Δ ABC = 1/2 × AC × AB

⇒ 1/2 × BC × AD = 1/2 × 24 × 10

⇒ 26 × AD = 24 × 10

⇒ AD = 240/26 = 120/13

⇒ AD =  9.23 cm

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Calculation:

By Pythagoras theorem,

AC² = AB² + BC²

⇒(17)² = (8)² + (BC)²

⇒(BC)²  = 225

⇒BC = 15 cm

∴ tan A = 15/8

Correct Answer:2)15/8

Shortcut Trick

According to the Circle Geometry Theorem, angles subtended by the same arc at the circumference (in the same segment) are always equal.

From the given figure, ∠ACB and ∠ADB are subtended by the same arc AB.

Given: ∠ACB = 80°ree;

∴ ∠ADB = ∠ACB = 80°ree;.

∴ The correct answer is 80°ree;.

Alternate Method

Given:

Points A, B, C, and D lie on the circumference of the circle.

∠ACB = 80°ree;.

Theorem Used:

The angles in the same segment of a circle are equal to each other.

Calculation:

⇒ Arc AB subtends ∠ACB and ∠ADB on the major segment of the circle.

⇒ By the property of angles in the same segment:

⇒ ∠ADB = ∠ACB

⇒ Given that ∠ACB = 80°ree;

⇒ ∴ ∠ADB = 80°ree;

∴ The correct answer is 80°ree;.

Additional Information

Angle at Center Theorem

The angle subtended by an arc at the center of a circle is double the angle subtended by it at any point on the remaining part of the circle (∠AOB = 2 × ∠ACB).

Angle in a Semicircle

The angle subtended by a diameter at the circumference is always a right angle (90°ree;).

Cyclic Quadrilateral Property

In a cyclic quadrilateral (where all four vertices lie on the circle), the sum of the opposite angles is 180°ree; (∠A + ∠C = 180°ree; and ∠B + ∠D = 180°ree;).

Given:

g = (2 - √3)

Formula Used:

a³ - b³ = (a - b)³ + 3ab (a - b)

Calculation:

g = 2 - √3

⇒ 1/g = 2 + √3

According to the formula,

g³ - 1/g³

⇒ (g - 1/g)³ + 3 × g × 1/g (g - 1/g)

⇒ (2 - √3 - 2 - √3)³ + 3 (2-√3 - 2 - √3)

⇒ (-2√3)3 + 3(-2√3)

⇒ - 24√3 - 6√3

⇒ -30√3

∴ The correct answer is option 1

Given:

A 40% discount is offered on an item that is marked 50% above the cost price

The selling price of the item is Rs. 1305

Concept Used:

Selling Price (SP) = $\frac{100-d}{100}$× MP

Where ' d ' is discount and ' MP ' is Marked Price

Calculation:

Let, the cost price (CP) is 100a

The marked price (MP) is 50% above the CP

So, MP = 150a

Now a 40% discount is offered

So, SP = 150a × (100 - 40) / 100 = 90a

According to the question,

90a = 1305

⇒ 100a = 100 × 1305 / 90 = 1450

∴ The cost price of the article is Rs. 1450

Given:

XY = x cm and PQ = 10 cm

Concept Used:

When two chords of a circle intersect externally then,

LP × LQ = LX × LY

Calculation:

LP = (10 + 6) = 16 cm and, LQ = 6 cm

LX = (x + 4) cm and LY = 4 cm

According to the formula,

⇒ 16 × 6 = (x + 4) × 4

⇒ x = 20 cm

∴ The length of XY is 20 cm.

Given:

Height of cylindrical pillar = 5m 

Diameter of cylindrical pillar = 84cm

Formula used:

The curved surface area of the cylinder = 2πrh 

Diameter = 2r 

Calculation:

The curved surface area of the cylindrical pillar 

⇒ 2 × (22/7)× (84/200) ×  5             ∴ 1m = 100cm

⇒ 13.2 m

Total cost = 13.2 × 15 = Rs. 198

Calculation:

Total percentage of pie chart = 100%

According to the given data,

⇒ 100% = 42,76,80,000

⇒ 1% = 427680000 / 100 = 4276800

Total allocation of percents for Hockey, Basketball, and Gymnastics

⇒ 22% + 5% + 8% = 35% 

Total allocation of percent for Football, Kabaddi, and Golf

⇒ 13% + 10% + 5% = 28%

(Total allocation of percent for Hockey, Basketball, and Gymnastics ) - (Total allocation of percent for Football, Kabaddi, and Golf )

⇒ 35% - 28% = 7% 

Now,  7% = 4276800× 7% = 29937600

∴ The answer is option (3).

Concept used:

cosec2θ - cot2θ = 1

Calculation:

⇒ cot²θ - cosec²θ 

⇒ cot2θ - (1 + cot2θ)

⇒ cot2θ - 1 - cot2θ

⇒ - 1 

∴ The simplified value is (- 1)

Given:

Total number of eligible voter = 10000

Total casted votes = 85% of eligible voter

Total invalid votes = 6% of casted votes

Votes received by winning candidate = 60% of valid votes.

Calculation:

Total casted votes = 85% of eligible voter = $\frac{85\ \times\ 10000 }{100}$ = 8500

Total invalid votes = 6% of casted votes = $\frac{8500\ \times\ 6}{100}$ = 510

Total valid votes = casted votes - invalid votes = 8500 - 510 = 7990

Votes received by winning candidate = 60% of valid votes = $\frac{60\ \times\ 7990}{100}$ = 4794 votes

∴ The correct answer is 4794 votes.

Given:

Number of students getting more than 10 marks in mathematics = 92

Calculation:

Total number of students = 100

Number of students getting more than 10 marks in mathematics = 92

Number of students getting less than 10 marks in mathematics = Total Students - Number of students getting more than 10 marks in mathematics

⇒ 100 - 92 = 8

∴ Number of students getting less then 10 marks in mathematics is 8.

Given:

Total number of boys pursuing B. Ag = 58

Total number of girls pursuing B. Ag = 48

Formula Used:

Percentage = (Given value/Whole value) × 100

Calculation:

Total number of students pursuing B. Ag = 58 + 48 = 106

Percentage of B. Ag students that are girls = (Number of girls/total number of students) × 100

⇒ (48/106) × 100 = 45.28%

∴ The correct answer is 45.28%.

Given:

Rate = 8%

CI - SI = 56

Formula Used:

CI - SI = (PR²)/100²

Calculation: 

⇒ 56 = (P × 8 × 8)/100²

⇒ P = $\frac{56 \times 100 \times 100}{8 \times 8}$

⇒ P = 8,750

∴ The sum = 8,750. Option 1) is correct.

Calculation:

⇒ (2x + 13 - y) (2x - 13 - y)

⇒ 4x² - 26x - 2xy + 26x - 169 - 13y - 2xy + 13y + y²

⇒ 4x² + y² - 4xy - 169

∴ The correct answer is Option 3)

Concept used:

In a Δ ABC, A + B + C = 180° 

Calculation:

Let ΔABC be an isosceles triangle, where side AB = AC

So, ∠B = ∠C

Let ∠B = ∠C = x

According to the given data,

∠A = 4 (x + x) = 4 × 2x = 8x

according to the concept,

⇒ 8x + x + x = 180∘

⇒ 10x = 180∘

⇒ x = 18∘

∴ The value of each equal angle is 18°

Shortcut Trick

Number N = 4a6b9c must be divisible by 9 and 11.

Sum of digits (4 + a + 6 + b + 9 + c) = 19 + a + b + c must be a multiple of 9.

Maximum possible sum of digits for any six-digit number is 54, but here it is 19 + a + b + c.

Since a, b, c ≤ 9, max (19 + a + b + c) = 19 + 27 = 46. Possible sums divisible by 9 are 27, 36, 45.

For divisibility by 11: (c + b + a) − (9 + 6 + 4) = (a + b + c) − 19 must be 0 or a multiple of 11.

If (a + b + c) − 19 = 0 ⇒ a + b + c = 19. Total sum = 19 + 19 = 38 (not divisible by 9). If (a + b + c) − 19 = 11 ⇒ a + b + c = 30. Total sum = 19 + 30 = 49 (not divisible by 9). If (a + b + c) − 19 = −11 ⇒ a + b + c = 8. Total sum = 19 + 8 = 27.

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Alternate Method

Given: Number N = 4a6b9c is divisible by 99.

Formula: For divisibility by 99, the number must be divisible by 9 and 11.

⇒ Divisibility by 9: 4 + a + 6 + b + 9 + c = 19 + a + b + c must be divisible by 9.

⇒ Divisibility by 11: Sum of digits at odd places − Sum of digits at even places = (c + b + a) − (9 + 6 + 4) = (a + b + c) − 19.

⇒ For divisibility by 11, (a + b + c) − 19 must be 0, 11, 22... or −11, −22...

⇒ Case 1: a + b + c − 19 = 0 ⇒ a + b + c = 19. Sum of digits = 19 + 19 = 38 (Not divisible by 9).

⇒ Case 2: a + b + c − 19 = 11 ⇒ a + b + c = 30. Sum of digits = 19 + 30 = 49 (Not divisible by 9).

⇒ Case 3: a + b + c − 19 = −11 ⇒ a + b + c = 8. Sum of digits = 19 + 8 = 27 (Divisible by 9).

⇒ Maximum possible value for (a + b + c) is 27. Checking if sum of digits can be 36 or 45: if sum = 36, a+b+c = 17. 17−19 = −2 (not div by 11). If sum = 45, a+b+c = 26. 26−19 = 7 (not div by 11).

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Additional Information

Divisibility Rule of 9

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9.

Divisibility Rule of 11

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits at odd positions and the sum of digits at even positions is 0 or a multiple of 11.

Composite Divisibility

If a number is divisible by two co-prime numbers a and b, then it is also divisible by their product (a × b).

Concept:

When two quantities are directly proportional to each other, then their ratio is constant.

x ∝ y

⇒ x / y = k

where k is the constant of proportionality.

Calculation:

As per the given data,

⇒ $\frac{45}{ 9}$ = k

⇒ k = 5

So, $\frac{x}{y}$ = 5     ---(1)

Putting y = 50 in equation (1),

⇒ $\frac{x}{50}$ = 5

⇒ x = 250

∴ The value of x when y is 50 is 250.

Given:

Length of trains = 125 m and 99 m 

Speed of trains = 40 km/h and 32 km/h

Formula used:

Speed = $\frac{Distance}{Time}$

1 km/h = $\frac{5}{18}$ m/s

Calculations:

Total distance travelled by both the trains = 125 + 99 = 224 m

Total speed of both the trains (km/h) = 40 + 32 = 72 m 

⇒ Total speed of both the trains (m/s) = 72 × $\frac{5}{18}$

⇒ Total speed of both the trains (m/s) = 20

Time taken = $\frac{Total \ Distance}{Total \ Speed}$

⇒ Time taken = $\frac{224}{20}$

⇒ Time taken = 11.2 s

∴ The time taken is 11.2 seconds.

GIVEN:

Raju and Ramu together can do a piece of work = 8 days

Raju alone can do it = 12 days

CALCULATION:

(Raju + Ramu) → 8

Raju → 12

The LCM of 8 and 12 is 24 (24 is the total work)

⇒Work efficiency of Raju and Ramu = 24/8 = 3

⇒Work efficiency of Raju = 24/12 =2

⇒The work efficiency of Ramu = 3-2 = 1

Now, Ramu can alone do it = 24/1 = 24 days.

Option 4 is the correct.

The correct answer is: Added fuel to the fire.

Key Points

• The idiom "Made them at loggerheads" refers to causing two or more people to be in strong disagreement or dispute. (उन्हें गंभीर विवाद में डालना)
• Example: The debate over property rights made the two brothers at loggerheads for years.
• The idiom "Added fuel to the fire" is used to describe an action that worsens an already bad or volatile situation. (आग में घी डालना)
• Example: Commenting on the controversial topic on social media only added fuel to the fire.
• Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate idiom for the given sentence is 'Added fuel to the fire'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Added fuel to the fire.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Pulled someone's legs (किसी का मजाक उड़ाना): Teasing or joking with someone in a friendly way.
• Example: They were just pulling your leg; they didn't mean what they said.
• Budged up (गलती करना): This phrase is not a standard idiom in English and seems to be a typographical error or a misinterpretation. Typically, "budge up" means to move over and make space for someone else.
• Example: Could you budge up a bit so I can sit down?

The correct answer is: Suppress.

Key Points

• The word "Quell" means to put an end to (a rebellion or other disorder), typically by the use of force. It can also mean to subdue or silence someone. (दबाना)
• Example: The police acted swiftly to quell the riot.
• "Suppress" refers to forcibly put an end to something or prevent the development, action, or expression of something; it carries a similar meaning to quell. (दबाना)
• Example: The government tried to suppress the facts from becoming public.
• Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate synonym for 'Quell' is 'Suppress'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Suppress.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Invite (आमंत्रित करना): To request the presence or participation of someone.
• Example: She decided to invite all her friends to the party.
• Beseech (विनती करना ): To ask (someone) urgently and fervently to do or give something.
• Example: He beseeched his colleagues for help in the project.
• Encourage (प्रोत्साहित करना): To give support, confidence, or hope to (someone).
• Example: The coach encouraged his players to do their best.

The correct answer is: Out of gear.

Key Points

• The idiom "Need of the hour" means something that is very much needed at the present time; it emphasizes the urgency or necessity of a situation. (वर्तमान समय में बहुत आवश्यक)
• Example: With the increasing pollution, planting more trees is the need of the hour.
• "Out of gear" refers to something that is not functioning properly or is in a state of disorder; it can be used literally, like machinery not working, or metaphorically, like plans going awry. (अव्यवस्थित)
• Example: After the power outage, the entire production line was out of gear.
• Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate idiom to describe the factory and its machinery being in disorder due to the recent strike of the employees is 'Out of gear'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Out of gear.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Pin-money (खर्च के लिए छोटी रकम): A small amount of money for spending on personal things, traditionally given to a wife by her husband.
• Example: She saved her pin-money to buy a new dress for the party.
• Lock and key (सुरक्षित रखना): To keep something secure and protected, often used metaphorically.
• Example: He keeps his documents under lock and key to prevent any unauthorized access.

The correct answer is: Ballad.

Key Points

• The word "epic" refers to a long narrative poem, often written about a hero or heroes and their adventures, embodying the values of a culture. (महाकाव्य)
• Example: The Iliad and The Odyssey by Homer are classic examples of epic poetry.
• "Ballad" is a type of poem or song that narrates a story in short stanzas. Ballads are known for their simplicity, narrative quality, and often a repeated refrain; they are typically set to music. (गीतिकाव्य)
• Example: “A Red, Red Rose” by Robert Burns is a beautiful ballad that expresses deep love and affection.
• Hence, given the description, a poem that tells a story with a regular rhythm and rhyme scheme aligns with the definition of a 'ballad'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Ballad.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Haiku (हाइकु): A very short form of Japanese poetry typically characterized by three lines with a syllable pattern of 5-7-5.
• Example: Haikus often capture a moment in nature with a profound sense of simplicity and beauty.
• Sonnet (सॉनेट ): A poem of fourteen lines using any of several rhyme schemes, typically expressing a single, complete thought or idea.
• Example: Shakespeare's "Sonnet 18" is one of the most famous love sonnets ever written.
• Epic (महाकाव्य): Already explained above.

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. ceiling is the correct homonym to fill in the blank.

Key Points

• The word "ceiling" refers to the upper interior surface of a room or other similar compartment.
• It makes logical sense in the context of shopping for a household item, as fans are often mounted on the ceiling.
• The other options are not homonyms that fit the context of the sentence related to household items or installations.
• Homonyms are words that sound alike but have different meanings, and "ceiling" is the correct choice because it sounds like the other options but is the only one that fits the context of installing a fan.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Correct answer

Additional Information

• "Sealink" is a fabricated term and does not relate to the context of home improvement or fans.
• "Sealing" refers to the act of making something airtight or watertight, which is unrelated to the type of fan being discussed.
• "Selling" is the act of giving or handing over something in exchange for money, which does not fit the context of specifying a type of fan.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. No error in the sentence.

Key Points

• The sentence is grammatically correct as it stands.
• The subject 'A crocodile' is singular, and it correctly uses the singular form of the verb 'was swimming'.
• The prepositional phrase 'in a river' correctly indicates the location of the action.
• There is no error with verb tense, subject-verb agreement, or prepositional use in the sentence.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct sentence: 'A crocodile was swimming in a river.'.

Additional Information

• Option 1 'A crocodile' is the subject of the sentence and is correctly used.
• Option 2 'was swimming' correctly matches the singular subject 'A crocodile' in number and is in the past continuous tense, indicating an action that was happening at a specific time in the past.
• Option 4 'in a river' correctly provides additional information about the location of the action, using the preposition 'in' to indicate where the swimming was taking place.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. worse than expected is the correct usage.

Key Points

• The original sentence uses "rather worst than expected," which is grammatically incorrect.
• The comparative form "worse" should be used instead of the superlative form "worst" when making comparisons between two states.
• "Worse than expected" correctly conveys that the performance did not meet the audience's expectations.
• The correction maintains the meaning of the original sentence while correcting its grammatical structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Correct answer

Additional Information

• "Worst than expectation" is incorrect because "worst" is a superlative form and the phrase is awkwardly constructed.
• "Worse was expected" changes the sentence structure unnecessarily and does not fit grammatically into the original sentence.
• "Bad as expected" does not convey the comparative degree that is needed to show that the performance was below expectations.
• The correct usage of comparative and superlative forms is crucial for maintaining the grammatical integrity of a sentence.

The correct answer is: Destruction.

Key Points

• The word "Damage" refers to physical harm that impairs the value, usefulness, or normal function of something. (नुकसान)
• Example: The storm caused significant damage to the coastal buildings.
• "Destruction" refers to the act of causing so much damage to something that it no longer exists or cannot be repaired; it is about making something completely unusable or annihilating it. (विनाश)
• Example: The wildfire led to the destruction of thousands of acres of forest.
• Therefore, we can infer that the synonym for 'Damage' is 'Destruction'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Destruction.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Satisfied (संतुष्ट): Feeling that one's needs or desires have been met.
• Example: She was satisfied with the results of her hard work.
• Greed (लालच): Intense and selfish desire for something, especially wealth, power, or food.
• Example: Greed for money can lead to unethical behavior.
• Originates (उत्पन्न होना): To begin, arise, or be derived from.
• Example: The concept of democracy originates from ancient Greece.

The correct answer is: Consequence.

Key Points

• The word "Repercussion" means an unintended consequence occurring some time after an event or action, especially an unwelcome one. (प्रतिक्रिया)
• Example: The financial market faced severe repercussions after the sudden change in government policy.
• "Consequence" refers to a result or effect of an action or condition, highlighting the outcome aspect. (परिणाम)
• Example: Failing to prepare adequately for the examination had the consequence of a poor grade.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym for 'Repercussion' is 'Consequence'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Consequence.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Duplication (प्रतिकृति): The action or process of duplicating something.
• Example: The duplication of the files ensured that we had a backup in case of a system failure.
• Recusation (No direct Hindi translation as the word seems incorrect or highly uncommon; possibly a typographical error for "recusation," which is not a standard English word. The explanation for a correctly spelled word would be provided if known.)
• Example: Not applicable.
• Apprehension (आशंका): Anxiety or fear that something bad or unpleasant will happen.
• Example: She felt a deep sense of apprehension before making her speech.

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the passive voice, indicated by the structure "It will be done by me."
• To convert it into active voice, the subject who performs the action (in this case, "I") should be placed at the beginning of the sentence.
• The main verb should change from "be done" (passive) to "do" (active), and the object of the action ("it") follows the verb.
• The correct active voice conversion maintains the future tense, as indicated by "will do."

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: I will do it.

Additional Information

• Option 2: "I do it." suggests a general or habitual action in the present tense, which doesn't convey the future aspect of the original sentence.
• Option 3: "I did it." changes the sentence to past tense, which is not consistent with the future intention of the original sentence.
• Option 4: "I have done it." uses the present perfect tense, which indicates an action completed at an unspecified time before now, not a future action.

The correct answer is: Postpone.

Key Points

• The word "adjourn" means to break off (a meeting, legal case, or game) with the intention of resuming it later; it is often used in the context of formal meetings or assemblies. (स्थगित करना)
• Example: The chairperson decided to adjourn the meeting until the following week due to the absence of key members.
• "Postpone" refers to causing or arranging for (something) to take place at a time later than that first scheduled. It conveys a similar meaning of delaying something to a later time. (स्थगित करना)
• Example: Due to unforeseen circumstances, we had to postpone our plans for the picnic until next month.
• Therefore, "Postpone" is the most appropriate synonym for "adjourn" in the given sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Postpone.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Prohibit (निषेध करना): To formally forbid (something) by law, rule, or other authority.
• Example: The new policy will prohibit smoking in all public areas.
• Stimulate (उत्तेजित करना ): To raise levels of physiological or nervous activity in (the body or any biological system).
• Example: Coffee can stimulate the nervous system, making you feel more awake and alert.
• Expedite (शीघ्रता करना): To make (an action or process) happen sooner or be accomplished more quickly.
• Example: We've requested the courier service to expedite the delivery of our package.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. DBCA forms a coherent sentence.

Key Points

• The correct arrangement starts with the observation about a common historical fallacy.
• Option D provides the subject of the sentence, "many people wrongly believe," which is a logical continuation.
• Option B provides a contrasting statement, "that the past was so different," which adds to the argument.
• Option C provides a reason, "from the present that," which builds upon the contrast introduced in Option B.
• Option A concludes the sentence with a specific detail, "only some specialists can unravel its inscrutable mysteries," which finalizes the thought process initiated in the first part of the sentence.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct sentence: "As for the first historical fallacy, many people wrongly believe that the past was so different from the present that only some specialists can unravel its inscrutable mysteries."

Additional Information

• Option 1 (BCDA): This order does not logically follow because it places the detail about "some specialists" too early in the sentence, before establishing the main premise.
• Option 2 (DCBA): This order disrupts the logical flow by concluding the sentence with the belief statement, which should instead introduce the fallacy.
• Option 4 (ABCD): This sequence fails to create a meaningful sentence as it does not logically build up the argument regarding the historical fallacy.

The correct answer is: Repulsive.

Key Points

• The word "Hideous" means something that is very ugly or disgusting to look at; it provokes horror. (भयानक)
• Example: The monster in the movie was so hideous that it gave me nightmares for weeks.
• "Repulsive" refers to something that causes intense aversion or disgust; it is something that one finds particularly offensive or unacceptable. (घृणास्पद)
• Example: The sight of the spoiled food was so repulsive that it made me gag.
• Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate synonym for 'Hideous' is 'Repulsive'.