SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 17 Aug, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

So, EWD will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given:

'clothes are dirty' is written as 'kq pl ns' 

'wear your clothes' is written as 'ns mk jl'

So, ns is the code for clothes.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Family Chart:

Given Expression: H - I × J ÷ K + G

It Implies: H is wife of I, I is son of J, J is husband of K, K is daughter of G.

So, I is daughter's son of G.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given:

'KNEW' is coded as '1493'

'NECK' is coded as '8319'

So, C is coded as 8.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is: (Second number - third number) + 10 = First number.

Now, 

For, (122, 136, 24)

(136 - 24) + 10

112 + 10

122 = 122.

(222, 248, 36)

(248 - 36) + 10

212 + 10

222 = 222.

Let's check each option One by One:

Option 1) (301, 367, 78)

(367 - 78) + 10

389 + 10

399 ≠ 301.

Option 2) (189, 213, 32)

(213 - 32) + 10

181 + 10

191 ≠ 189.

Option 3) (145, 244, 89)

(244 - 89) + 10

155 + 10

165 ≠ 145.

Option 4) (212, 258, 56)

(258 - 56) + 10

202 + 10

212 = 212.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Number of triangles in the given figure are shown below:

So, there are 11 triangles in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given Series: BC_F GH_K L_NP RSU VWX

Let's check each option One by One:

Option 1) DIMQZ

B C D / F G H I / K L M N / P Q R S / U V W X / Z → Follows a pattern of consecutive English alphabets and one letter is skipped.

Option 2) EJOQY

B C E / F G H J / K L O N / P Q R S / U V W X / Y → Does not follow pattern.

Option 3) EJMQZ

B C E / F G H J / K L M N / P Q R S / U V W X / Z → Does not follow pattern.

Option 4) DJOQY

B C D / F G H J / K L O N / P Q R S / U V W X / Y → Does not follow pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given:

Statements:

All triangles are squares.

Some squares are circles.

Some triangles are pyramids.

The least possible Venn Diagram for the given statements is:

Conclusion (I): Some circles are pyramids. → False (There is no definite relationship is given between these two terms, so it can be possible only.)

Conclusion (II): All pyramids are triangles.  → False (It is given that some triangle are pyramid, it also implies that some pyramid are triangles. So, all pyramid cannot be triangles, it can be possible only.)

So, Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II true.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN:

Hence, the correct answer 'Option 1'.

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) TVY

Option 2) QSV

Option 3) YAC

Option 4) CEH

So, YAC is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Family Chart:

Given: K is married to L. M is the son of L. N is the brother of M. O is the daughter of M and married to P. Q is the mother of M's mother who has only one daughter L. R is married to Q. 

So, R is wife's Father of K.

Hence. the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

So, 68 will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is: (First number)² - 9 = Second Number.

Now,

For (17, 280)

(17)² - 9

289 - 9 = 280

(22, 475)

(22)² - 9

484 - 9 = 475

Let's check each option One by One:

Option 1) (21, 450)

(21)² - 9

441 - 9

432 ≠ 450.

Option 2) (26, 485)

(26)² - 9

686 - 9

677 ≠ 485.

Option 3) (13, 160)

(13)² - 9

169 - 9

160 = 160.

Option 4) (12, 137)

(12)² - 9

144 - 9

135 ≠ 137.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

Given Word: BITUMEN

Now,

Each of the letter in the word 'BITUMEN' is arranged in alphabetical order

After arranging the letters of the given word in alphabetical order, there is only one letter position of which remain unchanged, i.e., B

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

BODMAS Table:

Decoding the symbols given:

Given Equation: 468 A 52 B 34 D 126 C 83 = ?

After replacing the symbols equation becomes:

468 ÷ 52 × 34 -126 + 83 = ?

9 × 34 -126 + 83 = ?

306 -126 + 83 = ?

389 -126 = ?

263 = ?.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Step I: The position of 

is moving in anticlockwise direction.

Step 2: The 

 is moving upside down alternatively.

Step 3: The position of 

 is changing in increasing order of images.

Step 4: The 

 is moving horizontally after each two images alternatively.

So, Image 5 will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

So, 26 will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given:

Statements:

All bottles are medicines.

Some doctors are bottles.

Some medicines are capsules.

The least possible Venn Diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusion (I): Some doctors are medicines. → True (It is given that all bottles are medicines and some doctor are bottles. So, the part of medicines which is bottles is also doctors.)

Conclusion (II): Some bottles are capsules. → False (There is no any definite relation is given between these two terms, so it can be possible only.)

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

For, CARROT is related to TRIIFK

For, QUILL is related to HLZCC

Similarly, for PIEGION

So, PIEGION will be written as GZVXZFE.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given Expression: 79 C 15 A 5 B 3 D 11 = ?

Decoding the given information:

Now, replacing the sign from left to right and using BODMAS rule, we get :

New Equation: 79 + 15 ÷ 5 × 3 - 11 = ?

Calculation:

79 + 15 ÷ 5 × 3 - 11 = ?

79 + 3 × 3 - 11 = ?

79 + 9 - 11 = ?

88 - 11 = ?

77 = ?.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

20 - 5 ÷ 2 + 4 × 12 = ?

After converting the symbols with given code the equations will be:

→ 20 ÷ 5 - 2 × 4 + 12

=  4 - 2 × 4 + 12

=  4 - 8 + 12

= 16 - 8

= 8

Hence, the correct answer is '8'.

The logic followed here is: Prime Number in ascending order is added to each successive term in the given series.

So, 51 will come in place of Question Mark.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Words are antonyms of each other.

Absence : Existence → Absence is the antonym of Existence.

Similarly,

Blunt : Sharp → Blunt is the antonym of Sharp.

Calm : Furious → Calm is the antonym of Furious.

Abundant : Lacking → Abundant is the antonym of Lacking.

But,

Careful : Cautious → Careful is the synonym of Cautious.

So**, Careful : Cautious** does not share the same relationship.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Given: 14 March 2007 was a Wednesday.

Now, 12 April 2013 will be on:

Number of years between 2007 and 2013 = 6 years.

In 6 years, there is 2 Leap Year (2008 and 2012) and 4 are ordinary years.

Number of Odd Days between 14 March 2007 and 14 March 2013 = (2 × 2) + (4 × 1) = 4 + 4 = 8

8 days = 8/7 = 1 Week 1 odd day

So, On 14 March 2013 will be = Wednesday + 1 = Thursday.

There will be Thursday on 14 March 2013. 

Now, No. of days between 14 March 2013 and 12 April 2013 = 29 days. 

No. of Odd Days between 14 March 2013 and 12 April 2013 = 29/7 = 4 Weeks 1 odd day.

So, 12 April 2013 will be on =  Thursday + 1 odd day = Friday.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The correct answer is Monthly Status Approach.

Key Points

• Monthly Status Approach is NOT an approach for measuring unemployment in India.
• Methods/measures for assessing unemployment:
• Usual status unemployment: This method estimates the number of individuals who remained unemployed for a significant portion of the year. It typically provides the lowest estimates of unemployment.
• Current weekly status: This measure evaluates unemployment based on a single week. An individual is classified as unemployed if they were unable to work for any duration during the survey week.
• Current daily status: Under this approach, individuals who were unable to secure employment on one or more days during the survey week are considered unemployed. The daily status method is often seen as a comprehensive measure of unemployment.

Important Points

• The unemployment rate is calculated by dividing the number of unemployed individuals by the total labour force.
• The labour force comprises both employed and unemployed individuals. Individuals who are neither employed nor actively seeking employment, such as students and those engaged in unpaid domestic work, are categorized as being out of the labour force.
• According to the International Labour Organisation (ILO), unemployment is defined as being without a job, being available to work, and actively searching for employment.

The correct answer is 36^th National Games of India.

Key Points

• Saavaj is the official mascot of 36^th National Games of India.
• The 36^th National Games is drawing to a close, marking the culmination of a spectacular showcase of athletic prowess and the spirit of sportsmanship.
• Gujarat proudly hosted the National Games for the first time in 2022, with the event spread across six vibrant cities: Ahmedabad, Gandhinagar, Surat, Vadodara, Rajkot, and Bhavnagar.
• Nearly 7,000 athletes from 28 Indian states, eight Union Territories, and the Services, including the sports teams of the Indian Armed Forces, vied for medals across 36 different sports.
• The Official mascot for the 36^th National Games, "SAVAJ," embodies the most prominent qualities of a sportsman: self-confidence, vigor, unwavering motivation, a drive to succeed, focused determination, natural leadership, and the ability to set and achieve goals.
• In Gujarati, "Savaj-taranhar" translates to "Savior" in English. Savaj, representing the Asiatic Lion, serves as a poignant reminder of this majestic species, which now thrives solely in the wilds of India.

Important Points

• The 6^th Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) 2023 occurred from January 19–31, 2024, at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, with additional venues in Madurai, Trichy, and Coimbatore.
• The 2023 Men's FIH Hockey World Cup was the 15^th edition of the tournament, organized by the International Hockey Federation.
• The Commonwealth Games is a multi-sport event held every four years among athletes from the Commonwealth of Nations, originating in 1930.

The correct answer is Northern Odisha.

Key Points

• High-grade iron ore deposits are primarily found in Northern Odisha in India.
• Northern Odisha in India is renowned for its abundant reserves of high-grade iron ore deposits.
• These deposits are concentrated in regions such as Keonjhar, Sundargarh, and Mayurbhanj districts.
• The iron ore found in this area typically exhibits high iron content and relatively low impurities, making it suitable for various industrial applications, including steel production.
• The presence of these valuable deposits has contributed significantly to the economic development of the region and has made Odisha one of the leading iron ore producing states in India.

Additional Information

• Iron ore is a mineral substance essential for producing metallic iron through heating processes, serving as the primary source of iron for the global steel and iron industries.
• It typically comprises iron oxides and can exhibit various colors such as dark gray, bright yellow, deep purple, or rusty red. Iron ore exists in several forms, including magnetite, hematite, goethite, limonite, or siderite, with each form varying in composition and properties.
• Most iron ore deposits are found within sedimentary rocks known as banded iron formations (BIFs), characterized by alternating layers of iron-rich minerals and fine-grained silica rock called chert.
• These formations represent significant reservoirs of iron ore globally and are crucial for sustaining the production of iron and steel worldwide.

The correct answer is night blindness.

Key Points

• The deficiency of Vitamin A causes night blindness.
• Vitamin A deficiency can stem from insufficient dietary intake, issues with fat absorption, or liver-related disorders.
• This deficiency can compromise immune function and the production of blood cells, leading to symptoms such as skin rashes and characteristic eye problems like xerophthalmia and night blindness.
• Diagnosis often relies on identifying these ocular manifestations alongside low levels of vitamin A in the body.
• Treatment typically involves oral supplementation of vitamin A, although in severe cases or when malabsorption is a factor, administration via injection may be necessary.
• Foods rich in preformed vitamin A include fish liver oils, liver, egg yolks, butter, and dairy products fortified with vitamin A.

Important Points

• Beriberi is a condition resulting from a deficiency of thiamine, also known as vitamin B1. The term "beriberi" originates from a Sinhalese word meaning "extreme weakness".
• Scurvy is a disorder caused by a significant deficiency of vitamin C in the diet. It is characterized by severe symptoms of vitamin C deficiency.
• Rickets is a condition characterized by the softening and weakening of bones in children, typically due to prolonged and severe deficiency of vitamin D.

The correct answer is Tuluva.

Key Points

• Krishnadeva Raya (1471 - 1529) belonged to the Tuluva dynasty and served as its third ruler, reigning from 1509 to 1529.
• Under his leadership, the Vijayanagara Empire, which encompassed four prominent dynasties - Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva, and Aravidu - flourished.
• Krishnadeva Raya's literary work, 'Amuktamalyada', provides insights into his profound sense of justice and his dedication to the well-being of his subjects.
• He is revered as one of the most illustrious monarchs in Indian history.
• His reign saw remarkable military successes, as he asserted his dominance by triumphing over formidable adversaries such as the Sultans of Bijapur, Golconda, the Bahmani Sultanate, and the Gajapatis of Odisha.

Important Points

• The Tuluva Dynasty, the third ruling lineage of the Vijayanagara Empire, derives its lineage from Tuluva Narasa Nayaka, a formidable warlord hailing from the Tulu-speaking region in the west.
• His son, Narasimha Nayaka, orchestrated the downfall of the feeble Narasimha Raya II, thus ending the reign of the Saluva dynasty.
• Subsequently, Narasimha Nayaka ascended to the Vijayanagara throne as Viranarasimha Raya, marking the ascendancy of the Tuluva dynasty.
• The dynasty reached its pinnacle under the reign of Krishnadevaraya, the second son of Tuluva Narasa Nayaka.

Additional Information

• The Aravidu Dynasty marked the fourth and final Hindu lineage to govern the Vijayanagara Empire in South India. Its inception was led by Tirumala Deva Raya, with his brother Rama Raya serving as the adept regent during the twilight of the preceding dynasty.
• Originating from the Kalyani region of northern Karnataka in contemporary India, the Saluva dynasty rose to power as the second ruling lineage of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• Founded in the 14^th century by brothers Harihara I and Bukka Raya I, the Sangama dynasty emerged as the inaugural ruling dynasty of the Vijayanagara Empire. They hailed from the lineage of Bhavana Sangama, with roots tracing back to the Yadava heritage.

The correct answer is 1 ∶13.13s.

Key Points

• At the FINA World Swimming Championships 2022 in Melbourne, Australia, Indian swimmer Chahat Arora made headlines by establishing a national record in the women’s 100-meter breaststroke event.
• Clocking in at 1 minute and 13.13 seconds, Arora's performance showcased her prowess in the pool.
• However, Lithuania’s Ruta Meilutyte surged ahead in the overall heats with a remarkable time of 1 minute and 3.81 seconds, outpacing Arora by 9.32 seconds.
• South Africa's 19-year-old Lara Van Niekerk secured second place with a time of 1 minute and 3.93 seconds, while Lilly King from the USA claimed the third spot, finishing in 1 minute and 3.94 seconds.
• Looking ahead, Arora is set to participate in the women’s 50-meter breaststroke event, while Siva Sridhar will represent India in the 100-meter individual medley.

Additional Information

• The Federation Internationale de Natation (FINA) serves as the regulatory authority for a range of aquatic sports, including swimming, diving, water polo, synchronized swimming, and open water swimming.
• Operating as an international non-governmental organization headquartered in Lausanne, Switzerland, FINA was established on July 19, 1908, in London by eight founding entities, including British Swimming, the Hungarian Swimming Association, and the Fédération Française de Natation.
• Affiliated with the Association of Summer Olympic International Federations, FINA holds recognition from the International Olympic Committee for its role in overseeing international competitions within aquatic sports disciplines.

The correct answer is Micro Enterprise Development Programme.

Key Points

• The initial phase of the Micro-Enterprise Development Programme (MEDP), spearheaded by the Ministry of Industry (MOI) and financed by UNDP, concentrated on ten districts.
• Building upon insights gleaned from this phase, the subsequent phase refined the program's beneficiary criteria by prioritizing a significant proportion of the ultra-poor and socially marginalized, while maintaining its goal of ensuring 70 percent female participation.
• This stage extended the program's reach to an additional ten districts, thanks to financial backing from the Department for International Development (DFID) and New Zealand AID (NZAID). In 2006, MEDEP's emphasis on forest-based micro-enterprises received a boost with support from AusAID.
• Midway through 2007, UNDP augmented its funding to implement enterprise development in six districts under the 'Quick Impact for Peace Support Initiative' (QIPSI), as part of its direct contribution to peacebuilding endeavors.
• The third phase of MEDEP (2008-2010) commenced in April 2008 to bolster the national program on micro-enterprise development within the Three Years Interim Plan (2008-2010), with funding from UNDP and AusAID, maintaining a continued emphasis on supporting micro-enterprise development.
• Overall, MEDEP's geographic footprint expanded to cover 36 districts and successfully fostered the emergence of 47,664 micro-entrepreneurs, with 68% being women, 25% Dalits, and 69% youth.

Additional Information

• The objective of the Small and Medium-Sized Enterprise Development Project (SMEDP) is to facilitate the accelerated growth of small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs).
• This initiative particularly focuses on SMEs situated in non-urban and rural regions, aiming to enhance their access to long- and medium-term credit.
• The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, a key ministry within the Government of India, serves as the central executive authority responsible for crafting and implementing regulations, policies, and legislation pertaining to micro, small, and medium enterprises across the country.

The correct answer is Kirana Gharana.

Key Points

• Bhimsen Joshi, a Hindustani classical vocalist of the Kirana Gharana tradition, excelled in the khayal form and gained fame for his renditions of devotional music.
• He toured Afghanistan, Italy, France, Canada, and the USA between 1964 and 1982, becoming the first Indian musician advertised on posters in New York City.
• Joshi organized the Sawai Gandharva Music Festival annually in homage to his guru and received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship in 1998 and the Bharat Ratna in 2009.
• He played a key role in annually organizing the Sawai Gandharva Music Festival as a tribute to his guru, Sawai Gandharva.

Important Points

• The Kirana Gharana is among the Indian classical khyal gharanas, focusing primarily on the intonation of notes (swara). In this style, precision in tuning and expression of individual notes (swaras) is paramount.
• The Kirana Gayaki emphasizes that the swaras of the raga are not merely points in the scale but independent entities capable of expansive musical development.
• Emotional pukars, or calls, in the higher octaves enrich the musical journey. Additionally, the gharana is distinguished by the intricate and ornate utilization of sargam taan, introduced by Abdul Karim Khan under the influence of Carnatic classical music.

Additional Information

• The Delhi or Dilli Gharana, known as the oldest tabla discipleship tradition, was established by Sidhar Khan Dhadi in the early 18^th Century.
• The Banaras Gharana, characterized by its robust sound, is renowned for its tabla players' ability to perform both powerfully and delicately.
• The Jaipur Gharana represents the ancient Hindu style of Kathak dance, which evolved not from one family or location but from numerous families of Kathak dancers throughout Rajasthan.

The correct answer is Article 51A (b).

Key Points

• Article 51-A (b) of the Indian Constitution delineates a fundamental duty incumbent upon every citizen to uphold and abide by the lofty principles that served as the inspiration behind the nation's struggle for independence.
• Article 51 of the Indian Constitution is among the Directive Principles of State Policy, grounded in Liberal-Intellectual principles.
• It focuses on the promotion of international peace and security.
• The state is mandated to:
• Promote international peace and security.
• Maintain just and honorable relations between nations.
• Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized peoples with one another.
• Encourage the settlement of international disputes through arbitration.

Important Points

• Article 51A(c) of the Constitution of India mandates that each citizen has the responsibility to safeguard and preserve the nation's unity, integrity, and sovereignty.
• Article 51A(a) stipulates that citizens are obliged to adhere to the Constitution, honor its principles and institutions, as well as show respect to the National Flag and the National Anthem.
• Article 51A(d) asserts that citizens are duty-bound to protect the country and contribute to national service when required. These provisions were incorporated into the Constitution through the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.

The correct answer is Only C.

Key Points

• In India, commercial banks play a crucial role in credit creation, while the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates this process through various mechanisms such as the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), repo rate, and open market operations.
• Commercial banks generate credit by purchasing securities and extending loans, with the currency thus generated termed as credit money.
• Additionally, the RBI oversees the clearing of cheques among commercial banks and facilitates inter-bank fund transfers.
• Commercial banks are able to facilitate loans by leveraging the deposits acquired from the public.

Important Points

• Credit creation, also referred to as "deposit creation," is the process wherein a country's money supply expands by utilizing a portion of customers' deposits to extend loans to businesses and individuals.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), India's central bank and regulatory authority, oversees the regulation of the Indian banking system. It operates under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, and is tasked with controlling, issuing, and managing the supply of the Indian rupee.
• The Ministry of Finance, a department within the Government of India, focuses on managing the economy of India and functions as the Treasury. Its responsibilities encompass taxation, financial legislation, oversight of financial institutions, management of capital markets, administration of central and state finances, and formulation of the Union Budget.

The correct answer is DK Karve.

Key Points

• Dhondo Keshav Karve (1858 - 1962) founded the Widow Remarriage Association in 1893.
• Also known as Maharshi Karve, he was a notable social reformer and educator advocating for women's education and the remarriage of Hindu widows.
• In 1893, Karve himself married a widow named Godubai, who had been widowed at the age of eight.
• Three years later, in 1896, he established the Hindu Widows Home to provide support for widows to sustain themselves.
• His contributions extended further with the founding of India's first women's university, S.N.D.T. Women's University, in 1916.

Important Points

• Annie Besant, a British socialist, theosophist, freemason, women's rights advocate, Home Rule activist, educationist, and supporter of Indian nationalism, championed the causes of Irish and Indian self-rule. In 1917, she made history as the first female president of the Indian National Congress.
• Keshub Chandra Sen, a Hindu philosopher and social reformer, sought to blend Christian theology with Hindu thought.
• Behramji Merwanji Malabari JP, an Indian poet, publicist, author, and social reformer, is renowned for his fervent advocacy for women's rights protection and his efforts against child marriage.

The correct answer is Violet.

Key Points

• When white light travels through a prism, violet light bends the most, while red light bends the least.
• This occurs because violet light possesses the shortest wavelength among the seven colors in white light, while red light has the longest.
• The dispersion of light, which separates white light into its constituent colors, is responsible for this phenomenon.
• The refractive index of the medium is highest for violet light and lowest for red light. Refraction occurs as light enters the prism at an angle, with the degree of deviation varying based on wavelength. Consequently, different colors deviate at distinct angles, resulting in their separation.

Important Points

• Violet light, with the shortest wavelength among the seven constituent colors of light, experiences the greatest deviation, while red light, with the longest wavelength, undergoes the least.
• Thus, the order of colors, commonly remembered as VIBGYOR (violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, red), reflects this sequence based on their respective wavelengths and degrees of deviation.

The correct answer is a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv.

Key Points

• (a) Habeas corpus - (iii) To have a body of
• Habeas corpus is a legal action that requires a person under arrest to be brought before a judge or into court, especially to secure the person's release unless lawful grounds are shown for their detention. In essence, it protects individuals from being unlawfully detained.
• ​(b) Mandamus - (ii) To command
• Mandamus is a writ issued by a court to compel the performance of a specific act by a lower court or government official. It commands a person or entity to perform a certain action.
• (c) Quo warranto - (i) Enquiring into the legality of claim
• Quo warranto is a legal proceeding in which the court inquires into the legality of a claim to a public office or franchise. It challenges the authority of a person to hold a particular office or position.
• (d) Certiorari - (iv) To be certified
• Certiorari is a writ issued by a higher court to review a decision of a lower court. It essentially certifies or confirms the lower court's records for review.

The correct answer is PANKH Abhiyan.

Key Points

• The Pankh campaign, launched on National Girl Child Day on January 24, 2021, is part of the "Beti Bachao Beti Padhao" Scheme administered by the Madhya Pradesh Government and spearheaded by Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan.
• PANKH stands for Protection, Awareness of rights, Nutrition, Knowledge, and Health, encapsulating the key pillars essential for the holistic development of girls.
• This initiative is dedicated to fostering the overall growth and well-being of the girl child.
• Additionally, the Ladli Laxmi Yojana in Madhya Pradesh represents another noteworthy effort aimed at supporting the welfare of girls in the state.

Important Points

• The Manjhi Kanya Bhagyashree scheme was introduced in 2015 by the Women and Child Development Department of Maharashtra. It aims to support the welfare and development of girls in the state.
• Udaan is a project initiated by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) under the auspices of the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India.
• The Balika Samriddhi Yojana is a government program designed to promote the well-being of girls. It provides financial assistance after the birth of a girl child and upon completion of her education, with the objective of combating negative attitudes towards daughters.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Lotia is a traditional folk music genre originating from Rajasthan, India.
• It finds its cultural expression through the voices of peasants as they toil in the fields, particularly during the Lotia festival, which typically occurs in the Chaitra month of the Hindi calendar.
• Thematically, Lotia revolves around the significance of water. During the festival, women participate by carrying lotas (vessels used for fetching water) and kalash (vessels symbolizing auspiciousness in water-filling rituals) filled with water sourced from ponds and wells.
• These vessels are adorned with vibrant flowers before being brought home, adding to the festive ambiance.

Important Points

• Rajasthan boasts a rich tapestry of regional folk music styles, each with its own unique characteristics and cultural significance:
• Maand: Regarded as one of the most refined forms of folk music in Rajasthan, Maand has its origins in the royal courts where it was performed to honor the Rajput monarchs. It narrates tales of valor and sacrifice associated with Rajasthan's warriors.
• Panihari: This genre of music revolves around the theme of water, featuring songs that often depict the unexpected encounters of lovers amidst its lyrical narratives.
• Kurjaa, Pipli, Rattan Rano, Mumal, Ghughri, Kevda: These are among the many folk songs originating from the Marwar region, each carrying its own distinctive melodies and stories reflective of the local culture and traditions.
• Kamad, Bhopey, Langas, Mirasi, Kalawant: These represent some of the prominent musician castes hailing from the Eastern Plain region of Rajasthan. Each caste brings forth its own musical traditions, contributing to the diverse and vibrant landscape of Rajasthani folk music.

The correct answer is Only i.

Key Points

• The basic circular flow model of the economy operates without government intervention.
• This model illustrates the interconnected flow of money, goods, and services among economic participants.
• It serves as the foundation for national accounting and macroeconomics.
• Additional details about the circular flow model include:
• It delineates the overall structure of the economy, depicting exchanges between households and firms through both the factor and product markets.
• Households contribute land, labor, and capital to firms.
• Households purchase goods and services from firms in the product market.
• Firms compensate households for the resources they supply, which constitute factors of production.
• In reality, the model becomes more intricate with the inclusion of two additional elements: government involvement.

 Additional Information

• Various circular flow models exist, each tracking a different number of sectors.
• The following sectors could be incorporated into a circular flow model. Typically, each sector is denoted by a capital letter, often associated with GDP calculation methods.
• Governments determine their gross national income by monitoring all injections into and withdrawals from the circular flow of income. When leaks match injections, the circular flow of income for a nation is deemed balanced.

The correct answer is Sonal Mansingh.

Key Points

• Sonal Mansingh is a prominent figure in Indian classical dance, specializing in Bharatanatyam and Odissi styles.
• Not only is she a highly respected dancer and Guru, but she has also been nominated by the President of India to serve as a Member of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha.
• Mansingh's contributions to the field have been recognized with prestigious awards, including the Padma Bhushan in 1992 and the Padma Vibhushan in 2003.
• Her illustrious dancing career began in 1962, with her arangetram in Mumbai, and in 1977, she founded the Centre for Indian Classical Dances (CICD) in New Delhi.
• In 2003, she received the Padma Vibhushan, India's second-highest civilian award, becoming only the second woman dancer in the country to be honoured in this manner after Balasaraswati.
• Mansingh's accolades continued with the Kalidas Samman from the Madhya Pradesh government in 2006.

Important Points

• Saswati Sen was honored with a Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 2004 for her contributions to the field.
• Elam Endira Devi was recognized with the Padma Shri award for her excellence in Manipuri classical dance.
• Birju Maharaj, received the Padma Vibhushan, India's second-highest civilian honor, in 1986, in recognition of his exceptional and distinguished service.​

Additional Information

• Established on January 2, 1954, the Padma Vibhushan is bestowed without discrimination of race, occupation, position, or gender.
• The Padma Vibhushan is bestowed for exceptional and distinguished service, the Padma Bhushan for distinguished service of high order, and the Padma Shri for distinguished service in any field. These prestigious awards are announced annually on Republic Day.

The correct answer is Gender development index.

Key Points

• The Physical Quality of Life Index does NOT include Gender development index.
• The Gender Development Index (GDI) is a metric crafted to assess gender equality.
• It, along with the Gender Empowerment Measure (GEM), was introduced in the 1995 Human Development Report by the United Nations Development Program.
• These measures were devised to imbue the Human Development Index (HDI) with a gender-sensitive perspective. The GDI was the initial outcome of this effort.

Important Points

• The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) seeks to gauge a country's well-being by averaging three equally weighted statistics: basic literacy rate at age 15, infant mortality, and life expectancy at age one.
• Developed in the mid-1970s by M.D. Morris for the Overseas Development Council, emerged from dissatisfaction with using Gross National Product (GNP) alone as a development indicator.
• Morris aimed to capture various aspects of development, including health, education, sanitation, and nutrition.
• While PQLI offers an improvement, it faces challenges inherent in quantifying quality of life. Critics point out the overlap between infant mortality and life expectancy as a limitation.

Additional Information

• The level of physical quality of life is often seen as indicative of a country's economic development.
• A country with a higher physical quality of life is typically considered more developed than one with a lower quality.
• This assessment is based on three key standards: the extent of education, life expectancy, and infant mortality rate.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• Rajini Gabra and Harni Gabra are annual festivals observed by the Dimasa tribe.
• These socio-religious events are held before the commencement of new agricultural activities.
• The Rabha tribe celebrates the Baikho festival during the spring season to honor and seek blessings from the goddess of wealth, 'Baikho'.
• During this festival, the village headman, known as the 'Kunang', conducts rituals to appease the family deity by closing the village gate on the day of worship.
• Subsequently, on the same night, the community participates in the 'Harni Gabra' ceremony, dedicated to worshipping the presiding deity for the well-being and protection of the people.

Additional Information

• The major festivals celebrated in Assam are Bihu, Baishagu, Ali-Ai-Ligang, Baikho, Rongker, Rajini Gabra Harni Gabra, Bohaggiyo Bishu, Ambubashi Mela and Jonbill Mela and so on.
• The people of Assam also celebrate Holi, Durga Puja, Diwali, Swaraswati Puja, Lakshmi Puja, Kali Puja, Idd, Muharram, Me-Dam-Me-Phi, the birth and death anniversaries of Vaishnava Saints Srimanta Sankardev and Madhabdev.
• The tribals of Assam have their own colourful festivals like the Kherai Puja of the Bodos, the Baikhu and Pharkantis of the Rabhas, Ali-ai-ligang and Parag of the Mishing tribe, the Sagra-misawa wansawa and laghun of the Tiwas.

The correct answer is Santishree Pandit.

Key Points

• In February 2022, Santishree Dhulipudi Pandit made history as the first woman Vice-Chancellor of Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) in Delhi, appointed by the Ministry of Education.
• She is an alumna of JNU, holds an MPhil and PhD in International Relations from the university.
• Currently serving as the Vice Chancellor of Savitribai Phule University in Maharashtra, she brings a wealth of experience, having also served on prestigious bodies such as the University Grants Commission (UGC) and the Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR), in addition to being a Visitor's nominee to central universities.

Important Points

• Indian development economist Jayati Ghosh has been selected by UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres to join a new high-level advisory board on effective multilateralism.
• Utsa Patnaik, a retired professor of economics from Jawaharlal Nehru University, received the Malcolm Adiseshiah Award in April 2023. This award, established by UNESCO in 1998, recognizes outstanding contributions to education and literacy.

Additional Information

• Jawaharlal Nehru University, a renowned public research institution located in Delhi, India, was established in 1969 through an act of parliament.
• Named after India's first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, the university's founding vice-chancellor was G. Parthasarathy, with Prof. Moonis Raza serving as the Founder Chairman and Rector.
• The bill for its establishment was introduced in the Rajya Sabha on 1 September 1965 by the then-Minister of Education, M. C. Chagla.

The correct answer is Pauling scale.

Key Points

• Electronegativity, a concept pioneered by Linus Pauling in 1932, measures an atom's ability within a molecule to attract electrons towards itself. It's described as "the power of an atom in a molecule to attract electrons to itself."
• On the Pauling scale, fluorine is set as the benchmark with an electronegativity of 3.98, and other elements are gauged relative to this value.
• Essentially, an atom's electronegativity indicates its tendency to pull electron density towards itself when forming bonds.
• Higher electronegativity signifies a stronger pull on electrons during bonding.
• Atomic number and atomic radius largely influence an atom's electronegativity.
• Across the periodic table, electronegativity generally increases from left to right and from bottom to top.
• Consequently, fluorine stands as the most electronegative element, while francium exhibits the least electronegativity.

Important Points

• The Allred-Rochow Electronegativity method quantifies the electrostatic force resulting from the effective nuclear charge acting on the valence electrons of an atom.
• Mulliken's scale of electronegativity defines electronegativity as an inherent characteristic of an element, solely contingent on the valence state of the atom.

Additional Information

• Electronegativity is the measure of an atom's ability to attract shared electrons in a covalent bond. A higher electronegativity value indicates a stronger attraction for the shared electrons.
• This property follows a predictable trend across the periodic table: electronegativity generally increases from bottom to top within groups and from left to right across periods.
• Consequently, fluorine holds the title of the most electronegative element, whereas francium ranks among the least electronegative.

The correct answer is A shift from payment in cash to payment in kind (grain). 

Key Points

• A shift from payment in cash to payment in kind (grain) is NOT one of the impacts of the green revolution.
• Payment-in-kind (PIK) involves utilizing a commodity or service as compensation rather than cash.
• Additionally, it pertains to a financial instrument that provides interest or dividends to bondholders, note holders, or preferred stockholders through the issuance of additional securities or equity instead of cash.
• PIK securities are appealing to companies that wish to avoid cash expenditures and are frequently employed in leveraged buyouts.

Important Points

• The Green Revolution denotes a historical period spanning from the 1940s to the 1960s, characterized by the development of high-yielding varieties of crops, notably wheat and rice, aimed at boosting food production.
• Its primary objective was to mitigate poverty and malnutrition by enhancing crop yields.
• The Green Revolution embraced innovative farming techniques and the introduction of new crop varieties, including: 
• High-yielding variety seeds
• Mechanized farm tools
• Irrigation facilities
• Pesticides
• Fertilizers
• Norman Borlaug is acclaimed as the "Father of the Green Revolution."
• In 1970, he was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in recognition of his efforts in pioneering the development of High Yielding Varieties (HYVs) of wheat.

The correct answer is Hydration.

Key Points

• The hydration step is NOT involved in a Water Cycle.
• Hydration involves replenishing the body fluids that are lost through sweating, exhaling, and waste elimination.
• Typically, the body loses and requires to replacement of approximately 2-3 quarts of water each day.
• Fortunately, many of the foods we consume are predominantly made up of water. Examples of such foods include leafy greens, as well as most fruits and vegetables.

Important Points

• The water cycle, also referred to as the hydrologic cycle or hydrological cycle, illustrates the perpetual movement of water across the Earth's surface, in the atmosphere, and beneath it.
• Throughout this cycle, water undergoes transitions between different states, while the total quantity of water particles remains constant.
• These state changes encompass processes such as evaporation, melting, freezing, sublimation, condensation, and deposition, all of which necessitate the input or release of energy.

Additional Information

• Condensation represents the transformation of water vapor in the atmosphere into liquid water, contrasting with the process of evaporation. This step is pivotal in the water cycle as it leads to the formation of clouds.
• Above 0 degrees Celsius, water vapor condenses into water droplets. However, this condensation doesn't occur spontaneously; it relies on the presence of dust or other impurities. Water vapor adheres to the surface of these particles, eventually forming droplets. As these droplets coalesce, they precipitate out of clouds and onto the ground below, a phenomenon known as precipitation or rainfall.
• The sun serves as the primary energy source, driving much of the evaporation observed on Earth. Evaporation typically occurs when water molecules on the surface of bodies of water become energized and ascend into the atmosphere.

The correct answer is 2023.

Key Points

• At the ISSF World Cup 2023 in Cairo, India’s Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil emerged victorious in the men’s 10m air rifle event.
• He secured the gold medal by defeating Germany’s Maximilian Ullbrich with a score of 16-8 in the thrilling final match.
• Despite finishing seventh in the qualification round with 629.3 points, Rudrankksh Patil progressed to the ranking round, where he excelled with 262.0 points, securing his spot in the final showdown against Ulbrich.
• Croatia’s Miran Maricic, who topped the qualification, claimed the bronze medal in the event.
• Divyansh Singh Panwar and Hriday Hazarika narrowly missed qualifying for the ranking rounds, finishing 11^th and 12^th, respectively.

Additional Information

• At the 2022 Asian Games in Hangzhou, Patil achieved a world-record score en route to securing India's inaugural gold medal on September 25, 2023.
• He secured a Paris 2024 Olympic quota berth by clinching gold in the 10m air rifle event at the 2022 ISSF World Shooting Championships held in Cairo, the new administrative capital, on October 14, 2022.

The correct answer is Lies to the northwest of the Aravali.

Key Points

• The Thar Desert, also referred to as the Great Indian Desert, lies to the northwest of the Aravalli Range, a mountain range extending from Delhi to Gujarat in northwest India.
• It comprises an undulating sandy plain adorned with sand dunes, serving as a natural demarcation between India and Pakistan.
• Acting as a barrier, the Aravalli Range obstructs moisture-laden winds from reaching the Thar Desert, resulting in arid conditions due to the rain shadow effect caused by the range.
• Ranked as the world's 18^th-largest desert and the 9^th-largest hot subtropical desert, the Thar Desert spans an area of 200,000 square kilometers (77,000 square miles) across India and Pakistan.
• Approximately 85% of the desert falls within India's borders, with the remaining 15% located in Pakistan.

Important Points

• The northeastern region of the Thar Desert is situated amidst the Aravalli Hills, extending towards Punjab and Haryana in the north, reaching the Great Rann of Kutch along the coastline, and stretching towards the alluvial plains of the Indus River in the west and northwest.
• A considerable portion of the desert landscape is characterized by expansive, shifting sand dunes that accumulate sediments from the adjacent alluvial plains and coastline.
• These sand dunes exhibit high mobility, driven by the powerful winds that intensify annually before the arrival of the monsoon season.
• Within the desert, the Luni River stands as the sole watercourse.

Given:

Cos θ = $\frac{4}{5}$

Concept used:

Hypotenuse² = Perpendicular² + Base²

H² = P² + B²

Calculation:

Cos θ = $\frac{4}{5}$

⇒ $\frac{B}{H} = \frac{4}{5}$

So, P = √(5² - 4²) = 3

Now,

Cot θ + tan θ = $\frac{B}{P}+\frac{P}{B}$

⇒ $\frac{B^2+P^2}{PB}$

⇒ $\frac{16 + 9}{4 \times 3}$

⇒ $\frac{25}{12}$

∴ The required answer is $\frac{25}{12}$.

Given:

$\frac{143 \times 143 + 143 \times 139 + 139 \times 139 }{143 \times143 \times 143 - 139 \times 139 \times139}$

Concept used:

a³ - b³ = (a - b)(a² + ab + b²)

Calculation:

 $\frac{143 \times 143 + 143 \times 139 + 139 \times 139 }{143 \times143 \times 143 - 139 \times 139 \times139}$

⇒ $\frac{143^2 + 143 \times 139 + 139^2 }{143^3 - 139^3}$

⇒ $\frac{143^2 + 143 \times 139 + 139^2}{(143 - 139)(143^2 + 143 \times 139 + 139^2)}$

⇒ $\frac{1}{(143 - 139)}$

⇒ $\frac{1}{4}$

∴ Ther required answer is $\frac{1}{4}$.

Given:

Marked price of a camera is Rs. 28,500

Discount % = 12

Concept used:

Selling price = Marked price × (100 - Discount)%

Calculation:

According to the question,

Selling price of the camera = 28500 × 0.88

⇒ Rs. 25080

∴ The selling price (in Rs.) of the camera is 25080.

Given:

Selling price = Rs. 19040

Discount percentage = 15%

Concept used:

Marked price × (100 - Discount)% = Selling price

Calculation:

Let the marked price be 100x

According to the question,

100x × (0.85) = 19040

⇒ 85x = 19040

⇒ x = 224

⇒ 100x = 22400

So, the discount offered = 22400 - 19040 = Rs. 3360

∴ The discount on it will be Rs. 3360.

Given:

Cost price = Rs. 450

Gain percentage = 20%

Discount percentage = 10%

Concept used:

Selling price = Marked price × (100 - Discount)%

Selling price = Cost price × (100 + Profit)%

Calculation:

Let the marked price of the article be Rs. X

X × 0.9 = 450 × 1.2

⇒ X = 540 ÷ 0.9

⇒ X = 600

∴ The market price is Rs. 600.

Given:

A man borrows Rs. 4,000 from a bank at 10% per annum simple interest

Installments = Rs. 1,500 and Rs, 2,500

Concept used:

S.I = (P × T × R)/100

Here, P = Principal T = Time R = Rate

Calculation:

Interest after 1^st year = 4,000 × 10% = 400

Principal at the end of 1^st year and at the starting of the 2^nd year = 4,000 - 1,500 = 2,500

Interest after 2^nd year = 2,500 × 10% = 250

Principal at the end of 2^nd year and at the starting of the 3^rd year = 2,500 - 2,500 = 0

Interest after 3^rd year = 0 × 10% = 0

Amount to be paid at the end of 3^rd year = 400 + 250 + 0 = 650

∴ Rs. 650 should be paid at the end of the third year to clear the debt.

Given:

The numbers are 6, 8, and 12

Concept used:

Fourth proportion of three numbers 'a', 'b', and 'c' = (b × c) ÷ a

Calculation:

Fourth proportion = (8 × 12) ÷ 6 = 96 ÷ 6 = 16

∴ The required answer is 16.

Given:

Side of equilateral triangle = 12 cm

Formula used:

Area of the equilateral triangle = (√3/4) × a²

Here a = side of the equilateral triangle

Calculation:

Area of the equilateral triangle = (√3/4) × 12²

⇒ (√3/4) × 144

⇒ 36√3

∴ The required answer is 36√3 cm2.

Given:

Three men or five women can do a work in 57 days

Formula used:

(M1 × D1)/W1 = (M2 × D2)/W2

Calculation:

3 Men = 5 women

1 man = (5/3) women

9 Men = 9 × (5/3) women = 15 women

Total work = 5 × 57 = 285 units

9 men and 4 women = 15 women + 4 women = 19 women

Time taken = 285 ÷ 19 = 15 days

∴ The nine men and four women will do the same work in 15 days.

Calculation:

Total production of motorcycle R in 4 years = 65 + 37 + 50 + 28 = 180

Required degree = (50/180) × 360° = 100°.

∴ The required answer is 100°.

Given:

A mixture contains liquid A and B in the ratio 5 ∶ 3

Calculation:

Let the initial quantity of liquid A and B in the mixture be 5a and 3a, respectively.

According to the question,

$\frac{5a}{3a +3}=\frac{7}{6}$

⇒ 30a = 21a + 21

⇒ 9a = 21

⇒ a = (7/3)

So, the quantity of liquid A in the mixture = 5 × (7/3) = (35/3) = ​$11\frac{2}{3}$ litres

∴ The quantity of liquid A in the mixture is ​$11\frac{2}{3}$ litres.

Given:

sin θ cos θ = $\frac{1}{\sqrt3}$ 

Concept used:

sin2θ + cos2θ = 1

a⁴ + b⁴ = (a² + b²)² - 2a²b²

Calculation:

(sin4 θ + cos4 θ )

⇒ (sin2θ + cos²θ)² - 2sin²θ cos²θ

⇒ (1)2 - 2 × $\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt3}\right)^2$

⇒ 1 - $\frac{2}{3}$

⇒ $\frac{1}{3}$

∴ The value is $\frac{1}{3}$.

Given:

Δ ABC ≅ Δ FDE

AB = 5 cm, ∠B = 40° and ∠A = 80°

Concept used:

Two triangles are said to be congruent if their sides have the same length and their angles have the same measure. Thus, two triangles can be superimposed side to side and angle to angle.

Calculation:

As Δ ABC ≅ Δ FDE,

AB = DF = 5 cm

∠A = ∠F = 80°

∠B = ∠D = 40°

∠C = ∠E = 180° - 80° - 40° = 60°

∴ The required answer is Option 4.

Given:

$\sqrt \frac{1 + cos P}{1 - cos P}$

Concept used:

a² - b² = (a + b)(a - b)

1 - cos²θ = sin²θ

Calculation:

$\sqrt \frac{1 + cos P}{1 - cos P}$

⇒ $\sqrt \frac{(1 + cos P)\times(1 + cos P)}{(1 - cos P)\times(1 + cos P)}$

⇒ $\sqrt \frac{(1 + cos P)^2}{1 - cos^2 P}$

⇒ $\sqrt \frac{(1 + cos P)^2}{sin^2 P}$

⇒ $\frac{(1 + cos P)}{sin P}$

⇒ $\frac{1}{sin P} + \frac{cos P}{sin P}$

⇒ cosec P + cot P

∴ The required answer is cosec P + cot P.

Given:

Three angles of a triangle are (2y + 40°), (5y - 60°), and (3y - 80°)

Concept used:

Sum of three angles of a triangle = 180°.

Calculation:

According to the question,

(2y + 40°) + (5y - 60°) + (3y - 80°) = 180°

⇒ 10y - 100° = 180°

⇒ 10y = 280°

⇒ y = 28°

∴ The value of y is 28°.

Given:

Two circles touch each other internally.

The radius of the inner circle = 3 cm

The radius of the outer circle = 4 cm

Concept used:

When two circles are touch each other internally.

When the largest chord of bigger circle is tangent to the inner circle (smaller circle).

Then, 

Radius of inner circle (PD) = x cm

Radius of bigger circle (OB) = y cm

OP = Distance between two centers =  Radius of bigger circle - radius of inner circle

⇒OP = y - x

CD = Diameter of inner circle  = 2 × (radius of inner circle)

⇒ CD = 2x

OC = Difference between chord and bigger circle centre = CD - PD - OP

OC = CD - PD - OP

⇒ OC = 2x - x - (y - x) = 2x - y

Calculation:

Let the biggest chord of the circle with radii 4 cm which is outside the inner circle = AB

From the figure, we know that

PD = 3 cm 

OD = 4 cm

OP = OD - PD

⇒ OP = 4 - 3 = 1 cm

⇒ CD = 2 x PD = 2 x 3 = 6 cm

OC = CD - PD - OP

⇒ OC = 6 - 3 - 1 = 2 cm

⇒ OB = 4 cm = radius of outer circle

By using Pythagoras theorem, we can write that

OB2 = BC2 + OC2

⇒ 42 = BC2 + 22

⇒ BC2 = 16 - 4

⇒ BC2 = 12

⇒ BC = $\sqrt{12}$ = 2$\sqrt{3}$ cm

Now, 

The length of biggest chord AB = 2 x BC = 2 x 2$\sqrt{3}$ = 4$\sqrt{3}$ cm

∴ The length of the biggest chord of the circle outside the inner circle is 4$\sqrt{3}$ cm.

Given: 

The distance of the circular path race = 1500 m

Anil's speed = 36 km/hr

Bilal's speed = 54 km/hr

Both start from the same point and at the same time and run in the same direction.

Concept used:

When A and B are moving with x km/hr and y km/hr, respectively

In the same direction,

then Relative speed = (x - y) km/hr

In the opposite direction,

then Relative speed = (x + y) km/hr

Formula used:

Conversion of km/hr to m/sec

1 km/hr = (5/18) m/sec

Distance = speed x time

Calculation:

According to the question,

They are moving in the same direction,

Relative speed = (54 - 36) km/hr

⇒ Relative speed = 18 km/hr

⇒ Relative speed = 18 x (5/18) m/sec

⇒ Relative speed = 5 m/sec

As we know that,

Distance = Speed x time

⇒ Time = Distance/speed

⇒ Time = 1500/5 = 300 sec

∴ The answer is 300 sec.

Alternate MethodFormula used:

Time taken to meet for the 1^st time = Length of the track/Relative Speed

Time taken = L/u+v, when moving in the opposite direction.

Time taken = L/u-v, when moving in the same direction.

Where, L = Length of the track

u = Speed of A, v = speed of B

1 km/hr = (5/18) m/sec

Calculation:

Time taken to meet for the 1^st time = 1500/[(54-36) x (5/18)]

So, time taken for meeting for the 1^st time = 1500/5 = 300 sec

∴ The answer is 300 sec.

Given:

Radius of the sphere = 4 cm

Heigth of the cone = 4 cm

Concept used:

Volume of a cone = $\frac{1}{3}\pi R^2h$

Volume of a sphere = $\frac{4}{3}\pi r^3$

Here, R = radius of the cone, r = radius of the sphere, and h = height of the cone

Calculation:

Let the radius of the cone be x cm

According to the question,

$\frac{4}{3}\pi4^3=\frac{1}{3}\pi x^24$

⇒ x² = 64

⇒ x = 8

So, the radius of the cone = 8 cm

∴ The radius of the cone is 8 cm.

Given:

A person bought two goods for Rs. 19,500.

Concept used:

Selling price = Cost price × (100 + Profit)%

Selling price = Cost price × (100 - Loss)%

Calculation:

Let the cost price of two goods be 10x and 10y, respectively

According to the question,

10x × 0.8 = 10y × 1.15

⇒ 8x = 11.5y

⇒ (x/y) = (11.5/8)

Let the value of 'x' and 'y' be 11.5a, and 8a, respectively.

So,

115a + 80a = 19500

⇒ 195a = 19500

⇒ a = 100

So, the cost price of goods sold at profit = 80a = 80 × 100 = 8000

∴ The required answer is Rs. 8,000.

Given:

The shares are in the ratio X ∶ Y = 4 ∶ 5, Y ∶ Z = 7 ∶ 6

Calculation:

X : Y = 4 : 5

⇒ X : Y = 28 : 35

Again,

Y : Z = 7 : 6

⇒ Y : Z = 35 : 30

So, the share of Z = 1488 × (30/93) = 480

∴ The share of Z is Rs. 480.

Given:

65 % of Samita's income = 91 % of Bhairav's income

Samita's new income is 1500 more than her current income 

Bhairav's new income is 500 more than her current income

The new ratio of Samita and Bhairav's income = 3 : 2

Calculation:

Let Samita's current income = p Rs. and Bhairav's current income = q Rs.

According to the question,

65 % of p = 91 % of q

⇒ 65 × p = 91× q

⇒ p/q = 91/65 = 7/5

Let's assume that ,

⇒Samita's current income (p) = 7k

⇒Bhairav's current income (q) = 5k

Samita's new income = 1500 + Samita' s current income

⇒Samita's new income = 1500 + 7k

Bhairav's new income = 500 + Bhairav's current income

⇒Bhairav's new income = 500 + 5k

The new ratio of incomes of Samita and Bhairav = 3:2

⇒(1500 + 7k)/(500 + 5k) = 3/2

⇒3000 + 14k = 1500 + 15k

⇒ k = 1500

The income of Samita = 7k = 7 x 1500 = 10500 Rs.

The income of Bhairav = 5k = 5 x 1500 = 7500 Rs.

The combined incomes of Samita and Bhairav = 10500 + 7500 = 18000 Rs.

∴ The Actual combined income of Samita and Bhairav is 18000 Rs.

Calculation:

Rice of variety C produced the maximum in the year 2021 i.e 98 (in quintals)

∴ The required answer is 2021.

Given:

$\frac{10x^2 + 5x + 2xy +y }{5x + y}$

Calculation:

$\frac{10x^2 + 5x + 2xy +y }{5x + y}$

⇒ $\frac{10 \times (-1)^2 + 5 \times (-1) + 2 \times (-1)y +y }{5 \times (-1) + y}$

⇒ $\frac{10 -5-2y +y }{-5 + y}$

⇒ $\frac{5-y }{-5 + y}$

⇒ - 1 

∴ The required answer is - 1.

Calculation:

According to the question,

30% - 20% = 3780

⇒ 10% = 3780

⇒ 100% = 37,800

∴ His monthly expenses (in Rs.) is 37,800.

Given:

$\frac{a + b}{a - b} \div \frac{(a + b)^2}{(a^2 - b^2)}$

Concept used:

a² - b² = (a + b)(a - b)

Calculation:

$\frac{a + b}{a - b} \div \frac{(a + b)^2}{(a^2 - b^2)}$

⇒ $\frac{a + b}{a - b} \times \frac{(a^2 - b^2)}{(a + b)^2}$

⇒ $\frac{a + b}{a - b} \times \frac{(a - b)(a + b)}{(a + b)^2}$

⇒ $\frac{(a + b)}{(a + b)}$

⇒ 1

∴ The required answer is 1.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'least reliable'.

Key Points

• The phrase 'least reliablest' in the given sentence is redundant and grammatically incorrect because 'least' and 'reliablest' both serve as superlative forms.
• The correct superlative form of 'reliable' is 'least reliable', without the need for an additional superlative suffix.
• Superlative adjectives are used to describe the extreme quality of one in a group of three or more.
• 'Least' is the correct superlative adverb to modify 'reliable', making the phrase 'least reliable' grammatically correct and meaningful.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct sentence: She is the least reliable person of all.

Additional Information

• Leastest reliable: Incorrect because 'leastest' is not a valid word in English. Superlatives should not be double emphasized.
• Less reliable: This is a comparative form, used when comparing two things, not suitable in a context that requires a superlative.
• Lesser reliable: 'Lesser' is often used as a comparative form but adding 'reliable' makes the phrase awkward and grammatically incorrect in this context.