SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 11 Aug, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

After replacing letters by their meaning, we get:

124 ÷ 4 + 13 × 12 - 28 = ?

⇒ 31 + 13 × 12 - 28 = ?

⇒ 31 + 156 - 28 = ?

⇒ 187 - 28 = ?

⇒ 159 = ?

Hence, ‘159’ is the correct answer.

If '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged, then the equation becomes:

84 ÷ 7 + 21 × 4 - 29 = ?

⇒ 12 + 21 × 4 - 29 = ?

⇒ 12 + 84 - 29 = ?

⇒ 96 - 29 = ?

⇒ 67 = ?

Hence, ‘67’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number ÷ 9 = Second number

1. 153 - 17 → 153 ÷ 9 = 17
2. 261 - 29 → 261 ÷ 9 = 29
3. 94 - 11 → 94 ÷ 9 = 10.44 ≠ 11
4. 207 - 23 → 207 ÷ 9 = 23

Hence, '94 - 11' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number × 8) - 20 = Second number

• 40 ∶ 300 → (40 × 8) - 20 = 320 - 20 = 300
• 27 ∶ 196 → (27 × 8) - 20 = 216 - 20 = 196

Similarly,

• 200 ∶ 1580 → (200 × 8) - 20 = 1600 - 20 = 1580

Hence, '200 ∶ 1580' is the correct answer.

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

From Figure (1) to (2):

A new shape is added to the existing form.

From Figure (2) to (3):

A new shape is added to the existing form.

From Figure (3) to (4):

A new shape is added to the existing form.

From Figure (4) to Answer Figure:

A new shape is added to the existing form.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, '118' is the correct answer.

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

​

W is father of C and P is son of C.

Therefore, P is W's son's son.

Hence, ‘Son's son’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'FGDKV' is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram is: 

Conclusions:

(I): Some movies are bottles. → Follows (As, All movies are bottles, which implies some movies are bottles is definitely true)

(II): Some cupboards are steel. → Follows (As, All steel are cupboards, which implies some cupboards are steel is definitely true)

Hence, ‘Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow’ is the correct answer.

A # K + J @ T → A is mother of K, K is father of J, J is brother of T.

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

J is grandson of A, or we can say that J is A's son's son.

Hence, ‘Son's son’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, '38' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First letter + 2 = Second letter; Second letter + 4 = Third letter; Third letter + 2 = Fourth letter

1. TVZB → T + 2 = V; V + 4 = Z; Z + 2 = B
2. OPRS → O + 1 = P; P + 2 = R; R + 1 = S
3. GIMO → G + 2 = I; I + 4 = M; M + 2 = O
4. JLPR → J + 2 = L; L + 4 = P; P + 2 = R

Hence, 'OPRS' is the correct answer.

6^th day after Tuesday is Monday.

20 June → Monday

Number of days between 20 June to 11 August = (10 + 31 + 11) = 52

52 when divided by 7, leaves 3 as remainder.

Monday + 3 = Thursday

So, the day on 11 August of the same year will be Thursday.

Hence, ‘Thursday’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'OL 19' is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram is:          

Conclusions:

(I) Some stars are ribbons. → Follows (As, Some stars are buttons and All buttons are ribbons, which implies that some stars are ribbons)

(II) Some ribbons are buttons. → Follows (As, All buttons are ribbons, it implies that some ribbons are buttons)

Hence, ‘Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, 'GMJZ' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First Number)² - 1 = Second number

• 9 : 80 → 9² - 1 = 81 - 1 = 80
• 17 : 288 → 172 - 1 = 289 - 1 = 288

Similarly,

• 23 : ? → 232 - 1 = 529 - 1 = 528

Hence, '528' is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN is shown below:

Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. TUWW → TUTUUXWX / TWTUWXWX
2. TUTU → TUTUUXWX / TTTUWXUX
3. TWTW → TUTUWXWX / TTTUWXWX
4. TWUW → TUTUWXWX / TUTUWXWX

• In option 4, TUTUWXWX is repeated.

Hence, 'TWUW' is the correct answer.

The number of rectangles in the given figure is shown below:

Hence, '6' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'WCFA' is the correct answer.

An ordinary year has 1 odd day and a leap year has 2 odd days. 

So, the day on the same date for an ordinary year will be 1 day ahead and the day on the same date for a leap year will be 2 days ahead for the next year.

If 18 September 1998 is Friday, then the days on these dates will be:

18 September 1999 → Saturday

18 September 2000 → Monday

18 September 2001 → Tuesday

18 September 2002 → Wednesday

18 September 2003 → Thursday

18 September 2004 → Saturday

18 September 2005 → Sunday

18 September 2006 → Monday

18 September 2007 → Tuesday

18 September 2008 → Thursday

18 September 2009 → Friday

Number of days between 15 September 2009 and 18 September 2009 = 3

Friday - 3 = Tuesday

Clearly, it was Tuesday on 15 September 2009.

Hence, 'Tuesday' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, '47' is the correct answer.

The code for each letter is shown below:

Clearly, '3'  is the code for 'E' in the given code language.

Hence, '3' is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN is shown below:

Hence, 'option 2' is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 107.

Key Points

• Bohrium is a synthetic chemical element with the symbol Bh and atomic number 107.
• It was first synthesized in 1981 by a team of Soviet and German scientists.
• Bohrium is a highly radioactive element that does not occur naturally on Earth.
• It is named after physicist Niels Bohr, who made significant contributions to the field of quantum mechanics.

Additional Information

• 117 is the atomic number of Tennessine.
• It is a synthetic chemical element that was first synthesized in 2010.
• 113 is the atomic number of Nihonium
• It is another synthetic chemical element that was first synthesized in 2003.
• 101 is the atomic number of Mendelevium.
• It is a synthetic chemical element that was first synthesized in 1955.

The correct answer is Mediterranean Climate.

Key Points

• The Mediterranean climate zone is characterized by mild, wet winters and hot, dry summers.
• This climate zone is typically located on the western coasts of continents, including regions such as California, the Mediterranean Basin, and parts of Australia and South Africa.
• The 35-90 cm of rainfall received in this climate zone is typically concentrated in the winter months.
• Other characteristics of this climate zone include vegetation such as chaparral, sclerophyll forests, and cork oak forests.

Additional Information

• The Humid Subtropical climate zone is characterized by hot, humid summers and mild winters.
• It is typically found in regions such as the southeastern United States, eastern China, and parts of South America.
• The Subtropical Steppe climate zone is characterized by hot, dry summers and mild winters.
• It is typically found in regions such as the Great Plains of the United States, parts of Australia, and southern Africa.
• The Highland climate zone is characterized by cooler temperatures at higher elevations.
• It can include a variety of sub-climates such as alpine, tundra, and boreal forests.

The correct answer is transaction cost in withdrawing money.

 Key Points

• Opportunity cost is the cost of the next best alternative forgone in order to pursue a certain action.
• Holding money also has an opportunity cost, which is the loss of potential benefits that could have been obtained by using that money for something else.
• Transaction costs are the expenses incurred in buying or selling goods or services and are not related to the opportunity cost of holding money.

Additional Information

• Loss of utility from goods that could have been purchased with the same amount of money is a common opportunity cost of holding money.
• This is because money can only provide utility when it is used to purchase goods or services that satisfy a need or want.
• Loss of interest-earning on cash holdings is another opportunity cost of holding money.
• This is because money that is held in cash does not generate any returns, unlike money that is invested in stocks, bonds, or other financial instruments.
• Loss of purchasing power of money due to inflation is also a significant opportunity cost of holding money.
• Inflation reduces the value of money over time, making it less valuable in terms of the goods and services it can purchase.

The correct answer is Equatorial current.

 Key Points

• Equatorial current is not a reason for excessive cold in north India.
• It is a warm ocean current that flows towards the west and affects the climate of regions near the equator.
• The Himalayas are the highest mountain range in the world and play a significant role in shaping the climate of north India.
• The region is also influenced by the monsoon winds that bring rainfall during the summer months.​

Additional Information

• Distance from the sea is a reason for excessive cold in north India because the absence of a moderating influence of the sea makes the winters harsh and the summers hot.
• Cold winds from the Caspian Sea are a reason for excessive cold in north India because they bring dry and cold air to the region and cause a drop in temperature.
• Snowfall in the Himalayas is a reason for excessive cold in north India because it leads to the formation of glaciers and snow cover that reflect sunlight and reduce the amount of heat absorbed by the ground.

The correct answer is Solid to gas.

 Key Points

• When camphor is heated, it sublimates directly from a solid to a gas state without passing through the liquid state.
• This is because camphor has a low melting point and a high vapor pressure, which means that it can easily transition from a solid to a gas without melting into a liquid first.
• Camphor is a white crystalline substance that is commonly used in medicine, as well as in the production of plastics, fragrances, and insecticides.

Additional Information

• The wood and bark of the camphor tree were the primary sources of the powder known as camphor.
• Nowadays, synthetic camphor predominates.
• It is present in some skin care products, including as treatments that have FDA approval.
• It's a typical component of topical treatments for skin irritation and cough.

The correct answer is Shanti Bardhan.

Key Points

• Shanti Bardhan is associated with synthesizing classical and modern Indian dance through Ranga Sri Little Ballet Troupe.
• Guru Bipin Singh was a Manipuri dancer and choreographer.
• Pandit Birju Maharaj is a Kathak dancer and choreographer.
• Remo Fernandes is a musician and choreographer known for his work in Bollywood films.

Additional Information

• Classical Indian dance forms include Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Kuchipudi, Manipuri, Mohiniyattam, Odissi, and Sattriya.
• Modern Indian dance forms include Bollywood, contemporary, and fusion styles.
• Ranga Sri Little Ballet Troupe was founded in Kolkata in the 1950s by Shanti Bardhan.

The correct answer is 8.5 meters.

 Key Points

• The women's 100m hurdles race consists of 10 hurdles, and the distance between each hurdle is 8.5 meters.
• The women's 100m hurdles race is a popular event in athletics, and it requires a combination of speed, agility, and technique to clear the hurdles successfully.
• Thirteen meters are run up from the starting line to the first hurdle.
• The final stretch from the last hurdle to the finish line is 10.5 meters long, while the next 9 hurdles are spaced 8.5 meters apart.

Additional Information

• The hurdles are weighed down, making it detrimental for the runner to bump against them and cause them to topple over.
• As long as runners do not intentionally collide with fallen hurdles, they are not penalized.
• The 100-meter hurdlers who run the fastest clock in about 12.5 seconds.
• At 12.12 seconds, Tobi Amusan set the world record.

The correct answer is Prachi Yadav.

Key Points

• Prachi Yadav won the bronze medal in the 2022 International Canoe Federation's Paracanoe World Cup.
• Para Canoeing is a Paralympic sport that involves athletes with physical disabilities paddling kayaks or canoes in a race against each other.

Additional Information

• Ramya Smruti is an Indian Para Swimmer who has won several medals at national and international events.
• Sarita Rao is a former Indian national champion in canoeing and kayaking.
• Pranshi Rawal is an Indian Para Badminton player who has won several medals at national and international events.
• All of the sports played during the Summer and Winter Paralympic Games are referred to as Paralympic sports.
• In 2020, there were 22 sports and 539 medal events in the Summer Paralympics, and roughly 80 events in 5 sports and disciplines in the Winter Paralympics.

The correct answer is 7,00,000.

Key Points

• The Finance Bill 2023 has proposed an increase in the threshold limit for total income eligible for rebate under Section 87A for assesses who opt for the new tax regime.
• Section 87A provides a rebate of up to Rs.12,500 to taxpayers whose total income does not exceed a certain limit.
• This limit has been increased from Rs. 5,00,000 to Rs. 7,00,000 for assesses opting for the new tax regime.
• The new tax regime was introduced in the Union Budget 2020 and offers lower tax rates to taxpayers who forego certain deductions and exemptions.

Additional Information

• The tax rates under the new regime are as follows:
• For income up to Rs. 2.5 lakhs: Nil
• For income between Rs. 2.5 lakhs and Rs. 5 lakhs: 5%
• For income between Rs. 5 lakhs and Rs. 7.5 lakhs: 10%
• For income between Rs. 7.5 lakhs and Rs. 10 lakhs: 15%
• For income between Rs. 10 lakhs and Rs. 12.5 lakhs: 20%
• For income between Rs. 12.5 lakhs and Rs. 15 lakhs: 25%
• For income above Rs. 15 lakhs: 30%
• 11,00,000 is the threshold limit for availing the standard deduction for salaried individuals.
• The standard deduction is a fixed deduction allowed to salaried individuals in lieu of certain expenses such as conveyance, medical expenses, etc.
• 8,00,000 is the threshold limit for senior citizens to avail of tax exemption on interest income from deposits with banks, post offices, and cooperative banks.
• 10,00,000 is the threshold limit for tax exemption on long-term capital gains arising from the sale of equity shares or equity-oriented mutual funds.

The correct answer is Frazer Commission.

 Key Points

• The Frazer Commission was appointed by Lord Curzon in 1902 to enquire into the workings of the police administration in British India.
• The commission was headed by Sir James Frazer, a retired judge of the Calcutta High Court, and had six other members.
• The commission submitted its report in 1903, which recommended several reforms in the police system, including the separation of investigation and law and order functions, the establishment of a central training institution, and the improvement of working conditions for police personnel.
• The recommendations of the Frazer Commission were implemented in various parts of British India and laid the foundation for the modern police system in India.

Additional Information

• The Kitchener Commission was appointed in 1913.
• It was made to enquire into the military system of British India and recommend reforms.
• The Hunter Commission was appointed in 1919.
• Its goal was to enquire into the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Punjab disturbances of 1919.
• The MacDonnell Commission was appointed in 1924.
• Its aim was to enquire into the communal riots in Kohat and Peshawar in the North-West Frontier Province of British India.

The correct answer is There is a legal sanction against their violation.

 Key Points

• The fundamental duties mentioned in the Indian Constitution do not have a legal sanction against their violation.
• They are non-enforceable in nature.
• Fundamental duties are a part of the Indian tradition, as they reflect the values and principles that have been upheld by Indian society for centuries.
• Through the 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976, the essential responsibilities of citizens were enumerated in this constitution.

Additional Information

• Fundamental duties are indeed civic duties that citizens are expected to perform.
• These duties include respecting the national flag and the Constitution, protecting the sovereignty and integrity of India, promoting harmony and brotherhood among all people, etc.
• Fundamental duties are based on Indian tradition and culture.
• They reflect the values and principles that have been upheld by Indian society for centuries.
• Fundamental duties are not sacrosanct or permanent.
• They can be amended or repealed by the Parliament if necessary.

The correct answer is D Gukesh.

Key Points

• The Indian who won the title at the World Chess Armageddon Asia Oceania event in Berlin, Germany in April 2023 is D Gukesh.
• D Gukesh is a 16-year-old Indian chess player who became the world's second-youngest Grandmaster in 2019.
• In the September 2023 rating list, Gukesh officially surpassed Viswanathan Anand as the top-ranked Indian player.

Additional Information

• Abhimanyu Mishra is another Indian chess player who holds the record for being the youngest-ever Grandmaster in the world at the age of 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days.
• R Praggnanandhaa is also an Indian chess player who became the world's second-youngest Grandmaster in 2018 at the age of 12 years, 10 months, and 13 days.
• Nihal Sarin is yet another Indian chess player who became the world's youngest International Master in 2016 at the age of 12 years, 9 months, and 11 days.

The correct answer is 36 months.

Key Points

• The maximum tenure of a microfinance loan in India under the current regulatory framework is 36 months, which means a borrower can take a loan for up to 3 years.
• Microfinance loans are typically small loans given to people who do not have access to traditional banking services, especially in rural areas.
• These loans are used for various purposes such as starting a small business, buying essential goods, or paying for education.

Additional Information

• The shorter the tenure of a loan, the higher the monthly installments, which can be difficult for borrowers to repay.
• Therefore, a longer tenure allows for smaller monthly installments, making it easier for borrowers to pay back the loan.
• It is important to note that microfinance institutions may have their own policies regarding loan tenure, which may be different from the regulatory framework.
• It is also worth mentioning that microfinance institutions in India are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and must comply with its guidelines to operate.
• These guidelines are periodically reviewed and updated to ensure that microfinance institutions operate in a fair and transparent manner.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• According to the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2021, Bihar has the highest poverty rate in India.
• The MPI is a measure of acute poverty that captures the various deprivations experienced by individuals at the same time.
• Bihar has consistently ranked among the poorest states in India, with a high percentage of people living below the poverty line.
• The state has also been affected by various socio-economic challenges such as low literacy rates, lack of access to basic amenities, and limited job opportunities.
• Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Uttar Pradesh are also among the poorest states in India, but they have a relatively lower poverty rate compared to Bihar.

Additional Information

• India's MPI value decreased by almost half between 2015–16 and 2019–21, from 0.117 to 0.066.
• Madhya Pradesh:
• The state has made significant progress in reducing poverty in recent years, but still faces challenges related to malnutrition, low literacy rates, and inadequate infrastructure.
• Jharkhand:
• The state has a high poverty rate and faces challenges related to low literacy rates, lack of basic amenities, and limited job opportunities.
• However, it has made progress in reducing poverty through various government initiatives.
• Uttar Pradesh:
• The state has a large population and a high poverty rate, with a significant proportion of people living in rural areas.
• It faces challenges related to low literacy rates, inadequate infrastructure, and limited job opportunities.
• However, the state government has launched several poverty alleviation programs to address these issues.

The correct answer is Mame Khan.

 Key Points

• Mame Khan became the first Indian folk artist to attend the Cannes Film Festival 2022.
• He is a renowned Rajasthani folk singer who belongs to the Manganiyar community.
• Mame Khan has been associated with the music industry for over 20 years and has performed on various national and international platforms.
• He has also collaborated with several Bollywood music composers and has lent his voice to many popular songs.

Additional Information

• Indian singer-songwriter-actor Gurdas Maan is primarily known for his work in Punjabi movies and music.
• In 1980, he became well-known across the country because of the song "Dil Da Mamla Hai".
• Indian singer, author, composer, and record producer Daler Mehndi.
• He has contributed to the global popularity of Bhangra.
• As a practitioner of the ancient performing art form known as pandavani, Teejan Bai narrates stories from the Mahabharata while accompanied by music.
• Teejan Bai is a folk artist from Chhattisgarh, who has received several awards for her contribution to the field of folk music.

The correct answer is Gandhinagar Railway Station, Jaipur.

Key Points

• India's first all-women-managed railway station is Gandhinagar Railway Station, Jaipur.
• It is a historic step towards women's empowerment in the male-dominated railway industry.
• The station is managed by a team of 40 women, including station master, ticket collectors, and security personnel.
• The initiative was launched by the North Western Railway zone in 2017 to promote gender equality and women's participation in the workforce.
• The station has various facilities designed for the convenience of women passengers, such as a separate waiting room, washroom, and baby feeding room.

Additional Information

• Chennai Egmore Railway Station is one of the busiest railway stations in South India.
• The South Indian Railway Company's terminus was constructed at the station between 1906 and 1908.
• Trivandrum Central Railway Station, Thiruvananthapuram is the largest railway station in Kerala.
• It is the busiest train station in Kerala and a major Southern Railway rail hub.
• Matunga Railway Station, Mumbai is the first railway station in India to be entirely operated by women, but it is not an all-women-managed station.
• The station is managed by a team of 41 women, but it also has male staff working in other departments.

The correct answer is JC Bose.

Key Points

• Jagadish Chandra Bose was a multi-talented personality who made significant contributions to the fields of physics, biology, and archaeology.
• He is credited with inventing the first wireless communication device, known as the "coherer", and for demonstrating the response of plants to various stimuli, such as light, sound, and electricity.
• Bose's research on plant physiology laid the foundation for modern biophysics and helped advance the understanding of how plants respond to their environment.

Additional Information

• CV Raman was a physicist who discovered the Raman Effect.
• It won him a Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930.
• CNR Rao is a chemist who has made significant contributions to the field of solid-state chemistry.
• One of the first people to synthesize two-dimensional oxide materials, like La₂CuO₄, was Rao.
• JRD Tata was a pioneering Indian industrialist and philanthropist.
• He was given the French Legion of Honour in 1983, and the Padma Vibhushan and Bharat Ratna, two of India's highest civilian honors, were given to him in 1955 and 1992.

The correct answer is Article 32.

Key Points

• Article 32 of the Indian Constitution deals with the right to move to the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental rights.
• This article is considered as the heart and soul of the Indian Constitution as it provides the citizens with a powerful tool to safeguard their fundamental rights.
• This article empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights, which include the right to life and personal liberty, the right to equality, the right against exploitation, the right to freedom of religion, and cultural and educational rights.

Additional Information

• Article 30 deals with the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
• This article provides a framework for the protection of minority rights in the field of education.
• Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of armed forces, police, intelligence agencies, and other similar organizations.
• This provision is necessary to maintain the discipline and effectiveness of these organizations.
• Article 31 deals with the right to property, which was removed from the list of fundamental rights by the 44^th Amendment Act of 1978.
• This amendment was made to ensure that the government could acquire private property for public use without any hindrance.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• Kamsale is a folk dance form from the state of Karnataka.
• It is primarily performed by the devotees of Lord Mahadeshwara, a deity worshipped in the southern parts of Karnataka.
• The dance involves the use of small bronze discs, called kamsale, tied to the ankles of the dancers.
• The dancers produce rhythmic sounds by striking the kamsale against each other.
• Kamsale is considered to be a sacred dance form and is performed during religious festivals and fairs in Karnataka.

Additional Information

• Folk dances of Jharkhand include Chhau, Jhumar, Santhal, and Karma.
• Folk dances of Kerala include Kathakali, Mohiniyattam, Thullal, and Theyyam.
• Folk dances of Bihar include Jat-Jatin, Jhijhian, and Bidesia.

The correct answer is Security.

 Key Points

• The Five-Year Plans were a series of economic plans implemented in the Soviet Union between 1928 and 1991, aimed at developing the country's economy.
• The goals of the plans were to achieve rapid industrialization, increase agricultural production, improve transportation and communication infrastructure, and develop the country's natural resources.
• Self-reliance was a key goal of the plans, as the Soviet Union wanted to reduce its dependence on foreign imports and technology.
• Equity was also a goal, as the Soviet Union aimed to reduce income inequality and provide basic necessities to all citizens.
• Growth was a central goal, as the plans aimed to increase the country's GDP and improve living standards.

Additional Information

• Security was not a stated goal of the Five-Year Plans, although it could be argued that the plans were aimed at strengthening the Soviet Union's military and geopolitical power.
• Other goals of the plans included improving education and healthcare, promoting cultural development, and advancing science and technology.
• The Five-Year Plans were controversial, as they often involved forced labor, collectivization of agriculture, and suppression of dissent.
• Despite their flaws, the plans did lead to significant industrial and technological advancements in the Soviet Union, but also contributed to environmental degradation and economic inefficiencies.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• Ambubachi Fair is an annual religious festival held at the Kamakhya Temple in Guwahati, Assam.
• The festival celebrates the menstruation of the goddess Kamakhya and is considered to be a symbol of fertility and womanhood.
• During the festival, the temple remains closed for three days and reopens on the fourth day, which is considered to be the most auspicious day.
• The fair attracts a large number of devotees and tourists from all over the country and is a major cultural event in Assam.

Additional Information

• Manipur is known for its rich cultural heritage and is famous for its traditional dance forms like Manipuri and Nata Sankirtana.
• Famous festivals of Manipur are the Yaoshang Festival, Kut Festival, Gang Ngai Festival, Cheiraoba Festival, Kang Rath Yatra, Lui Ngai Ni Festival.
• Arunachal Pradesh is known for its scenic beauty and is home to a diverse range of tribes and cultures.
• Arunachal Pradesh celebrates a number of events, including the Mopin Festival, the Losar Festival, the Dree Festival of Apatani, Chalo-Loku of Nocte, Solung of Adis, the Ziro Festival of Music, the Pangsau Pass Winter Festival, and Siang River Festival.
• Nagaland is known for its vibrant tribal culture and is famous for its traditional festivals like Hornbill Festival and Moatsu Festival.
• Famous festivals of Nagaland are The Hornbill Festival, Ngada Festival, Hega Festival, Mim Kut Festival, Bushu Festival, Tsukhenye Festival, Sukrenye Festival and Yemshe Festival.

The correct answer is Transfer of funds.

 Key Points

• Transfer of funds is not a primary function of commercial banks, but rather a secondary function.
• The primary functions of commercial banks include creating credit, lending loans to the public, and receiving deposits from the public.
• The creation of credit involves the bank lending money to borrowers, which increases the money supply in the economy.
• Lending loans to the public includes providing various types of loans such as personal loans, home loans, and business loans.
• Receiving deposits from the public involves accepting money from individuals and businesses and holding it in accounts such as savings accounts, current accounts, and fixed deposit accounts.

Additional Information

• Transfer of funds is a secondary function of commercial banks that involves facilitating the movement of funds from one account to another, either within the same bank or between different banks.
• The creation of credit is an important function of commercial banks as it helps to stimulate economic growth by providing access to capital for businesses and individuals.
• Lending loans to the public is a key way in which commercial banks generate revenue, by charging interest on the loans they provide.
• Receiving deposits from the public is an important function of commercial banks as it provides a source of funds that can be used for lending and other activities.

The correct answer is Cold Desert.

 Key Points

• Cold Desert was declared as India's 16^th Biosphere Reserve in 2009.
• The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve is located in the state of Himachal Pradesh and covers an area of 7,770 square kilometers.
• The reserve is home to several endangered species including the Red Fox, Blue Rock Pigeon, and Lammergeier (also known as Bearded Vulture).
• The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve is also known for its unique landscape, with cold deserts, alpine meadows, and high-altitude lakes.

Additional Information

• The Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh and is known for its rich biodiversity.
• The area is drained by the Penneru River's tributaries.
• Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve is located in the southern Western Ghats and is known for its cultural and ecological significance.
• 2,000 different types of medicinal plants call it home, at least 50 of which are rare and endangered species.
• The Dehang Debang Biosphere Reserve is located in the state of Arunachal Pradesh and is known for its diverse flora and fauna.
• Dehang-Debang was established in 1998 as a biosphere reserve.

The correct answer is Net indirect taxes.

 Key Points

• The basic difference in the aggregates at market price and factor cost is net indirect taxes.
• The taxes that a nation's government levies on the creation and sale of products and services are known as indirect taxes.
• One such tax is the GST (Goods and Services Tax).

Additional Information

• Depreciation:
• It is the decrease in the value of an asset over time due to wear and tear, obsolescence, or other factors.
• It is considered in the calculation of national income at factor cost, but not at market price.
• Indirect taxes:
• These are taxes levied on goods and services rather than on income or profits.
• Examples include GST, excise duty, customs duty, etc.
• They are included in the calculation of national income at market price, but not at factor cost.
• Direct taxes:
• These are taxes levied on the income or profits of individuals or companies.
• Examples include income tax, corporate tax, etc.
• They are not considered in the calculation of national income at either market price or factor cost.

The correct answer is Amir Khusrau.

Key Points

• Amir Khusrau was the first to mention the incident of Jauhar in the Persian language.
• He was a famous poet, musician, and scholar in the court of the Delhi Sultanate.
• Jauhar was a practice in which women of a besieged fort committed mass suicide to avoid being captured by the enemy.

Additional Information

• Ibn Battuta was a Moroccan traveler and scholar who visited India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq. 
• Ibn Battuta observed that the land's soil was very fruitful, enabling farmers to cultivate the two crops of Rabi and Kharif each year.
• The most well-known piece by Ziauddin Barani is "Tarikh-i-Firuz Shahi."
• He placed a strong emphasis on using primary materials and historical authenticity.
• Hasan Nizami was also a famous historian of the Delhi Sultanate.
• After moving to Delhi, India, from Nishapur, he wrote Tajul-Ma'asir, the Delhi Sultanate's first official history.

Given:

Discount % = 15%

Mark-up = 30%

Formula:

SP - CP = Profit

Profit % = (SP - CP)/CP × 100

Selling price = Marked price × Discount/100

Calculation:

Let the cost price of goods be Rs.100

Marked price of goods = 100 × 130/100 = Rs.130

The selling price of goods = 130 × (100 - 15)/100

= 130 - 19.5 = Rs.110.5

Profit % = (110.5 - 100)/100 × 100

= 10.5%

∴ His profit percentage is 10.5

Given:

The radius and slant height of a cone = 5 ∶ 7

Curved surface area = 1347.5 cm2

Formula used:  

Volume of cone = (1/3) π r2 h

Slant height = √(h2 + r2) 

Where,

r = Radius of the cone

h = Height of the cone

l = slant height

Curved surface area = πrl

Calculation

let the radius and height of the cone be 5x and 7x.

Curved surface area = πrl = 1347.5 

⇒ 22/7 × 5x × 7x = 1347.5 

⇒ 2 × 5x × x = 122.5 

⇒ x² = 12.25

⇒ x = 3.5 cm

5x → 5 × 3.5 = 17.5 cm

The radius of a cone is 17.5 cm.

Given

x2 - 3.2 x + 1 = 0 

Formula used

(a - b)2 = (a + b)2 - 4ab

(a² - b²) = (a + b)(a - b)

Calculation

If we simplify the given equation,x2 - 3.2 x + 1 = 0, by dividing it by x.

⇒ x + 1/x = 3.2

Applying the above-mentioned formula:

⇒ (x - 1/x)2 = (3.2)2 - 4

⇒ (x - 1/x)2 = 10.24 - 4

⇒ (x - 1/x)2 = 6.24

⇒ x - 1/x = √ (16 × 0.39)

⇒ x - 1/x = 4√ 0.39

⇒ (x2 - 1/x2) = 3.2 × 4√ 0.39

⇒ (x2 - 1/x2) = 12.8√ 0.39

The answer is 12.8√ 0.39.

Given:

Principal = Rs. 12000

Amount = Rs. 15000

Time = 5 years

Formula used:

SI = (PRT)/100

A = P + SI

where, 

SI = Simple interest, P = Principal, R = Rate, T = Time and A = Amount

Calculations:

According to the question, we have

Simple interest 

⇒ SI = Rs. 15000 - Rs. 12000

⇒ SI = Rs. 3000

Now, according to the formula used

⇒ SI = (PRT)/100

⇒ 3000 = (12000 × R × 5)/100

⇒ 3000 = 600R

⇒ R = 5

⇒ R = 5%

∴ The Rate of interest per annum is 5%.

Shortcut Trick SI = Rs. 15000 - Rs. 12000 = 3000

The rate in SI is the interest of one year on the given principle.

Rs. 3000 is the interest of 5 years, hence for one year:

⇒ 3000/5 = 600

Rate = 600/12000 × 100 = 5%

GIVEN:

weight of metal A = 19 × weight of water

weight of metal B = 9 × weight of water

CALCULATION:

Let the ratio of metal A and metal B be a : l

(19a + 9l)/(a + l) ​= 15/1​

⇒ 19a + 9l = 15a + 15l

⇒ 19a − 15a = 15l − 9l

⇒ 4a = 6l

⇒ 2a = 3l

⇒ l : a​ = 3 : 2

∴ Metal A and metal B  are taken in the ratio 3: 2.

       

∴ Metal A and Metal B  are taken in the ratio 3: 2

Shortcut Trick

The ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Marked Price (MP) can be calculated directly using the profit and discount percentages.

CP : MP = (100 − D%) : (100 + P%)

CP : MP = (100 − 10) : (100 + 20) = 90 : 120 = 3 : 4

Since 3 units represent the given CP of ₹540, 1 unit = 540 ÷ 3 = ₹180.

Therefore, MP = 4 units = 4 × 180 = ₹720.

∴ The correct answer is ₹720.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹540

Discount (D) = 10%

Profit (P) = 20%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (100 + P%) ÷ 100

Marked Price (MP) = SP × 100 ÷ (100 − D%)

CP = 540

SP = 648

MP = 720

+20% Profit

-10% Discount

CP : MP = (100 − 10) : (100 + 20) = 3 : 4 3 units = ₹540 → 4 units = ₹720

Calculations:

⇒ SP = 540 × (100 + 20) ÷ 100

⇒ SP = 540 × 120 ÷ 100 = ₹648

⇒ Since Selling Price is also equal to Marked Price minus Discount:

⇒ 648 = MP × (100 − 10) ÷ 100

⇒ 648 = MP × 90 ÷ 100

⇒ MP = 648 × 100 ÷ 90

⇒ MP = ₹720

∴ The correct answer is ₹720.

Additional Information

Marked Price (MP)

It is the price printed on an article or list price. Any discount offered by a seller is always computed on the Marked Price unless stated otherwise.

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts of a% and b% are given sequentially, the equivalent overall discount is calculated using the formula: Equivalent Discount = (a + b − ab ÷ 100)%.

Dishonest Dealer

If a dealer claims to sell goods at his Cost Price but uses false weights to cheat buyers, his actual Profit % = (True Weight − False Weight) ÷ False Weight × 100.

Given:

Δ PQR and Δ MNY are congruent to each other

 PQ = 8 cm,

∠Q = 55° and ∠P = 72°.

Concept Used:

If two triangle is congruent to each other then the corresponding angle is are equal to the other triangle

Calculations:

As the triangle is congruent 

⇒ ∠R = ∠Y

⇒ ∠R = 180 - (55 + 72)

⇒ ∠R = 180 - 127

⇒ ∠R = 53°

similarly,

PQ = NM

⇒ NM = 8 cm

Hence, The value of NM is 8 cm and ∠Y equal to 53º

Calculation

The number of respondents lies in high = 12.6% of 208

= 12.6 × 20.8

The number of respondents lies in low = 13% of 208

= 13 × 20.8

The ratio of the number of respondents lies in high to the number of respondents lies in low:

⇒ 12.6 × 20.8 : 13 × 20.8

⇒ 12.6 : 13 

⇒ 63 : 65

The answer is 63 : 65.

Given

sinθ = $\frac{6}{10}$ 

cosθ = $\frac{8}{10}$

Formula used:

sin 2θ = 2 × sinθ × cosθ

Calculation

From the above-mentioned formula:

sin 2θ = 2 × sinθ × cosθ

= 2 × 6/10 × 8/10

= 24/25

The value is  24/25.

Calculation:

The total number of workers in a company = 960

The number of female workers in the company = 420

The number of male workers in the company = 960 - 420

= 540

The respective ratio of the total number of male workers to the total number of female workers in the company = 540 : 420

= 9 ∶ 7

The answer is 9 ∶ 7.

Given

The lengths of the two sides adjacent to the right angle are 1.6 cm and 6.3 cm.

Concept used

The two sides adjacent to the right angle of a right-angled triangle are perpendicular and base.

P² + B² = H²

Calculation

P2 + B2 = H2

H² = 1.6² + 6.3²

H2 = 2.56 + 39.69

H2 = 42.25

H = 6.5 cm

The length of the hypotenuse is 6.5 cm.

Shortcut Trick

Total time for the journey = 750 ÷ 50 = 15 hours.

Time spent on the first 200 km = 200 ÷ 40 = 5 hours.

Remaining time for the next 550 km = 15 − 5 = 10 hours.

Required speed for remaining distance = 550 ÷ 10 = 55 kmph.

∴ The correct answer is 55 kmph.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total distance = 750 km

Distance of 1^st part = 200 km, Speed of 1^st part = 40 kmph

Distance of 2^nd part = 550 km

Overall average speed = 50 kmph

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

200 km 550 km Total Distance: 750 km (Avg Speed: 50 kmph)

Speed = 40 kmph Time = 5 hrs

Speed = ? kmph Time = 10 hrs

Calculations:

⇒ Total Time = Total Distance ÷ Average Speed

⇒ Total Time = 750 ÷ 50 = 15 hours

⇒ Time taken for the first 200 km = Distance ÷ Speed = 200 ÷ 40 = 5 hours

⇒ Time remaining for the next 550 km = Total Time − Time taken for the first part

⇒ Time remaining = 15 − 5 = 10 hours

⇒ Required speed for the next 550 km = Distance ÷ Time

⇒ Required speed = 550 ÷ 10 = 55 kmph

∴ The correct answer is 55 kmph.

Additional Information

Average Speed

Average speed is the total distance traveled divided by the total time taken. It is not simply the arithmetic mean of the different speeds.

Average Speed for Equal Distances

If an object covers two equal distances at speeds x and y, the average speed over the entire journey is directly calculated using the formula 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Relative Speed

When two objects move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds. When moving in the same direction, it is the difference between their individual speeds.

Given

x2 + y2 + z2 = 2(x + z - 1)

Formula used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Calculation

x² + y² + z² = 2(x + z - 1)

⇒ x² + y² + z² = 2x + 2z - 2

⇒ x² - 2x + 1 + z² – 2z + 1 + y² = 0

⇒ (x - 1)² + (z – 1)² + y² = 0

As we know square of any real number is never negative, ∴ only way above sum will add up to 0 is individual squares are of value 0.

∴ (x - 1)² = 0

⇒ x = 1

& (z – 1)² = 0

⇒ z = 1

y² = 0

⇒ y = 0

∴ x³ + y³ + z³ = (1)³ + 0³ + 1³

⇒ x³ + y³ + z³  = 2

The answer is 2.

Given

The area of a sector of a circle = 346.5 cm2

Central angle = 22.5°

Formula used:

Area of sector whose central angle is θ =  (πr2 / 360) × θ

Calculation

⇒ (πr2 / 360) × 22.5 = 346.5

⇒ 22/7 × r × r × (1/16) = 346.5

⇒ r × r = 56 × 31.5

⇒ r² = 1764

⇒ r = 42

∴ The radius is 42 cm.

Given:

Radii are 7 cm and 4 cm

The length of the transverse common tangent = 13 cm

Formula used:

Length of transverse common tangent = √(d² - (r₁ + r₂)²)

Where d = distance between their centers

r₁ and r₂ are radii of circles

Calculation:

 

PA = 7

QB = 4

PQ = 13

Length of transverse common tangent = √(d2 - (7 + 4)2)

⇒ 13 =  √d² - 11² 

⇒ 169 = d² - 121 

⇒ d² = 290

⇒ d = √290

∴ The distance between the two centres is √290 cm.

Given

Distance = 600 m

Speed = 24 km/h

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation

Time = 600/(24 × 5/18)

Time = 90 sec or 1.5 minutes

The answer is 1.5 minutes.

Given

Trade discount = 10%

Cash discount = 10%

Formula used:

Selling price = M.P × (1 - d/100)

Calculation

Selling price after both the discount = 1000 × (1 - 10/100) × (1 - 10/100)

= 1000 × (9/10) × (9/10)

Selling price after discount = 810

The answer is 810.

Given

tan A = 12/5 

Formula used:

P² + B² = H²

tan A = P/B

Calculation

From the above-mentioned formula:

tan A = 12/5 = P/B

122 + 52 = H2

⇒ H² = 144 + 25

⇒ H2 = 169

⇒ H = 13

cosec A = H/P = 13/12

sec A = H/B = 13/5

The answer is 13/12 and 13/5.

Calculation

The production of all types of bikes in July = 58 + 89 + 54 + 72 = 273

The production of all types of bikes in August = 38 + 46 + 64 + 53 = 201

The production of all types of bikes in September = 56 + 45 + 76 + 65 = 242

The production of all types of bikes in October = 15 + 26 + 80 + 37 = 158

The production of all types of bikes in November = 45 + 36 + 54 + 21 = 156

The production of all types of bikes in December = 33 + 40 + 41 + 44 = 158

We can clearly conclude the production was lowest in November.

Given

4x2 + y2 = 40

xy = 6

Formula used:

(a - b)2 = a2 + b2 - 2ab

Calculation

(2x - y)2 = 4x2 + y2 - 4xy

Putting the given value in the expression:

(2x - y)2 = 40 - 4 × 6

(2x - y)2 = 40 - 24 = 16

2x - y = 4

∴ The answer is 4.

Calculation

The total number of laptops Dell sold by A

= 18% of 11200 × 5/9

= 1120

The total number of laptops Dell sold by C

= 20% of 11200 × 1/5

= 448

The total number of laptops Dell sold by D

= 12% of 11200 × 11/21

= 704

The total number of laptops Dell sold by E

= 14% of 11200 × 4/7

= 896

The average of Dell laptops sold by stores A, C, D and E together:

= (1120 + 448 + 704 + 896)/4

= 280 + 112 + 176 + 224 = 792

Shortcut Trick

Given cos θ − sin θ = 0, which implies tan θ = 1.

This means the angle θ = 45°.

At θ = 45°, sin θ = 1/√2 and cos θ = 1/√2.

Substitute the values: (1/√2)⁸ + (1/√2)⁸

⇒ 1/16 + 1/16 = 2/16 = 1/8.

∴ The correct answer is 1/8.

Alternate Method

Given:

cos θ − sin θ = 0

Calculations:

⇒ cos θ = sin θ

Squaring both sides, we get:

⇒ cos² θ = sin² θ

Using the standard trigonometric identity:

⇒ sin² θ + cos² θ = 1

Substituting cos² θ with sin² θ:

⇒ sin² θ + sin² θ = 1

⇒ 2sin² θ = 1

⇒ sin² θ = 1/2   and   cos² θ = 1/2

Now, we need to find the value of (sin⁸ θ + cos⁸ θ):

⇒ (sin² θ)⁴ + (cos² θ)⁴

⇒ (1/2)⁴ + (1/2)⁴

⇒ 1/16 + 1/16

⇒ 2/16 = 1/8

∴ The correct answer is 1/8.

Additional Information

Pythagorean Identities

sin²θ + cos²θ = 1 | sec²θ − tan²θ = 1 | cosec²θ − cot²θ = 1

Important Higher Power Expansions

sin⁴θ + cos⁴θ = 1 − 2sin²θ cos²θ | sin⁶θ + cos⁶θ = 1 − 3sin²θ cos²θ

Equalities at 45°

In the first quadrant, sin θ = cos θ only when θ = 45°. Similarly, tan θ = cot θ and sec θ = cosec θ are equal at θ = 45°.

Given

Increases = 10% annually

The present population of this city = 1,33,100

Formula used

Final = Initial(1 + r/100)ⁿ

where, r= percentage increase and n = no.of years

Calculation

Let the population two years ago be P.

133100 = P(1 + 10/100)²

⇒ 133100 = P(11/10)2

⇒ 133100 = P × 121/100

⇒ P = 1,10,000

The answer is 1,10,000.

Given: 

Brijesh can complete a work in 4 days.

Ashish can complete the same work in 5 days.

Anand can complete the same work in 10 days.

Concept used:

Entire work = Work done each day × Time taken to finish the entire work 

Calculation:

LCM (4, 5 and 10) = 20

Let the entire work be given by the LCM of the time taken by Brijesh, Ashish & Anand

So, the entire work = 20 units

Now,

Brijesh does each day = 20 ÷ 4 = 5 units

Ashish does each day = 20 ÷ 5 = 4 units

Anand does each day = 20 ÷ 10 = 2 units

Together they will do the remaining work = 20/11

= 1(9/11) days

The answer is 1(9/11) days

Given:

A sold an item to B at a gain of 25%

B sold it to C at a loss of 10%

Total money paid by C = Rs. 6520

Formula used

S.P = C.P(1 +/- r/100)

where, r = gain/loss%

Calculation:

Let, the A paid for the item = x

So, x × (125/100) × (90/100) = 6520

⇒ x = 6520 × (100/125) × (100/90)

⇒ x = 5795$\frac{5}{9}$

∴ A paid Rs. 5795$\frac{5}{9}$ (in Rs.) for the item.

The correct answer is: "The poor undergoes"

Key Points

• The error in the original sentence arises from a subject-verb agreement issue.
• The subject "the poor" is a plural noun phrase, but the verb "undergoes" is in the singular form.
• In English, verbs must agree in number with their subjects.
• So, "The poor undergo" should be corrected to "The poor undergo".
• The correct form would be "The poor undergo," where the verb "undergo" is in the plural form to match the plural subject "the poor."
• The correct sentence should be: "The poor undergo several problems in life that could be solved with money."
• In this corrected version, "undergo" is used correctly with the plural noun "problems," and the verb "undergo" agrees with the plural subject "the poor."

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is: Repel.

Key Points

• Attract means to draw something towards oneself. (किसी चीज़ को अपनी ओर आकर्षित करना)
• Example: The sweet aroma of fresh flowers can attract bees.
• Marked option Repel means to push something away from oneself. (किसी चीज़ को अपने से दूर धकेलना)
• Example: The negative charge on the balloon repels the positive charge and causes it to move away from the balloon.
• As a result, Attract and Repel are antonyms of each other.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Entice means to attract or tempt someone with a desirable offer or promise. (किसी को वांछनीय प्रस्ताव या वादे से आकर्षित या प्रलोभित करना)
• Knock means to strike a surface with a sharp blow. (किसी सतह पर तेज़ प्रहार करना)
• Influence means to have an effect on someone or something. (किसी व्यक्ति या वस्तु पर प्रभाव डालना)

The correct answer is: I could not find it anywhere.

Key Points

• The structure of the sentence is: 
• Subject: "I" (first-person singular pronoun)
• Verb: "could not find" (a compound verb phrase indicating the inability to locate something)
• Object: "it" (a pronoun representing the thing that couldn't be found)
• Adverb: "anywhere" (modifying the verb phrase, indicating the lack of a specific location where the speaker could find the object)
• The sentence is grammatically complete and makes sense on its own.
• The sentence follows the English word order (subject-verb-object) and effectively communicates the idea that the speaker was unable to locate the object in any place.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is Option: Joins

Key Points

• The sentence is in the present tense, so the correct answer should also be in the present tense.
• "Joins" is in the present simple tense, which is often preferred for general statements and facts.
• In this case, it is describing a characteristic of the road—it joins two villages.
• The present simple is suitable for such timeless or habitual situations.
• Therefore, "joins" is preferred because it aligns with the timeless nature of the road connecting two villages, fits well within the defining relative clause, and contributes to a clear and concise expression.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Corrected sentence: The road which joins two villages is repaired by local authorities.

The correct answer is: "where the city park is?"

Key Points

• The overall structure of the sentence is an interrogative sentence, starting with the auxiliary verb "can".
• It's asking someone else to provide information. An embedded indirect question "where the city park is" is used, and this follows English rule of structure for indirect questions.
• In indirect questions or embedded questions, the usual word order of a statement is kept. That's why we use "where the city park is" instead of "where is the city park?" which is how the question would be posed directly.
• The subject (the city park) precedes the auxiliary verb (is) in indirect questions, hence 'where the city park is' is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Can you please tell me where the city park is ?

The correct answer is: Laison

Key Points

• The correct spelling of the word is "Liaison".
• The word means a person who acts as a link to assist communication or cooperation between groups of people.
• Example: Liaison between departments improved efficiency.
• The word is commonly used in military and diplomatic contexts.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'option 1.'

 

Additional Information

• Lieutenant refers to a deputy or subordinate officer in the armed forces. (सशस्त्र बलों में एक उप या अधीनस्थ अधिकारी)
• Entrepreneur refers to a person who sets up a business or businesses, taking on financial risks in the hope of profit. (वह व्यक्ति जो लाभ की आशा में वित्तीय जोखिम उठाते हुए कोई व्यवसाय स्थापित करता है)
• Fluorescents refers to a type of light bulb that produces visible light by using a mercury vapour discharge. (एक प्रकार का प्रकाश बल्ब जो पारा वाष्प निर्वहन का उपयोग करके दृश्य प्रकाश उत्पन्न करता है)

The correct answer is: B, A, D, C.

Key Points

• B: This part introduces the subject (he) and sets the tone for the sentence by describing the subject's capability in writing.
• A: This part provides additional information about the subject's writing style, specifying that he writes with a supreme sense of rhythm and word appeal.
• D: This part introduces a contrast or contradiction in the subject's writing style, mentioning that despite his capability to write angelic or weird poetry, he also writes about a problem of morbid psychology.
• C: This part concludes the sentence by further expanding on the subject's diverse writing style, stating that he can also write about the outlines of an unrelenting plot in a hard and dry style.
• So, the sequence flows logically from introducing the subject's capability, providing additional details about his writing style, introducing a contrast, and then concluding with another aspect of his writing style.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is: Stabilise.

Key Points

• Falter means to hesitate or waver in action, speech, or purpose. (कार्य, भाषण या उद्देश्य में झिझकना या डगमगाना)
• Example: His confidence began to falter.
• Marked option Stabilise means to make something stable or steady. (किसी चीज़ को स्थिर या स्थिर बनाना)
• Example: The economy started to stabilize.
• An antonym is a word that has the opposite meaning to the given word.
• Therefore, Stabilise is the most appropriate antonym of Falter.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Suspect means to have doubts or mistrust about someone or something. (किसी व्यक्ति या वस्तु के बारे में संदेह या अविश्वास होना)
• Haunt means to continually disturb or distress someone. (किसी को लगातार परेशान या परेशान करना)
• Transfer means to move from one place to another. (एक स्थान से दूसरे स्थान पर जाना)

The correct answer is: Damage.

Key Points

• Salvage means to rescue or save something, especially from damage or destruction. (किसी चीज़ को बचाना या बचाना, विशेषकर क्षति या विनाश से)
• Example: After the flood, the volunteers worked tirelessly to salvage belongings from the damaged houses.
• Marked option Damage means to harm or spoil something. (किसी चीज़ को हानि पहुँचाना या बिगाड़ना)
• Example: The storm's strong winds and heavy rain caused significant damage to the crops.
• The sentence suggests that the person's reputation was negatively affected by the scam, so the correct antonym is "damage".

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Claim: To demand or take as rightful or legal. (उचित या वैध मान कर माँग करना या लेना)
• Recover: To regain or get back something lost or taken. (कोई खोई हुई या छीनी हुई वस्तु पुनः प्राप्त करना या प्राप्त करना)
• Rescue: To save someone or something from a dangerous or difficult situation. (किसी खतरनाक या कठिन परिस्थिति से किसी को या वस्तु को बचाना)

The correct answer is: Testimony.

Key Points

• An antonym is a word that has the opposite meaning of the given word.
• Allegation means a claim or assertion that someone has done something illegal or wrong. (यह दावा या दावा कि किसी ने कुछ अवैध या गलत किया है)
• Example: The police are investigating the allegation of fraud against the company.
• Marked option Testimony means evidence or a statement given by a witness under oath. (किसी गवाह द्वारा शपथ के तहत दिया गया साक्ष्य या बयान)
• Example: During the trial, the witness provided crucial testimony that helped the jury reach a verdict.
• Therefore, the antonym of allegation is testimony.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Incriminating: Providing evidence or suggesting involvement in a crime. (साक्ष्य प्रदान करना या किसी अपराध में शामिल होने का सुझाव देना)
• Designed: Planned or created with a specific purpose in mind. (किसी विशिष्ट उद्देश्य को ध्यान में रखकर योजना बनाई या बनाई गई)
• Tactics: Strategic actions or plans for achieving a specific goal. (किसी विशिष्ट लक्ष्य को प्राप्त करने के लिए रणनीतिक कार्य या योजनाएँ)

The correct answer is: Meagre

Key Points

• The word copious means abundant or plentiful. (प्रचुर या भरपूर)
• Example: The garden produced copious amounts of vegetables during the harvest.
• The sentence suggests that to be a successful writer, one needs to have a lot of words.
• The word 'meagre' is an antonym of 'copious' and means lacking in quantity or quality. (मात्रा या गुणवत्ता में कमी)
• Example: The hiker had only a meagre supply of food for the long trek.
• Therefore, the sentence implies that if a writer has too few words, their novel will be meagre and not receive a good response from readers.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Successful: Achieving the desired outcome or achieving one's goals. (वांछित परिणाम प्राप्त करना या किसी के लक्ष्य को प्राप्त करना)
• Plenty: A large or sufficient amount of something. (किसी चीज़ की बड़ी या पर्याप्त मात्रा)
• Response: A reaction or reply to a stimulus or situation. (किसी उत्तेजना या स्थिति पर प्रतिक्रिया या उत्तर)