SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 11 Aug, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number)² + (Second number)² = Third number

• (9, 3, 90) → 9² + 3² = 81 + 9 = 90
• (5, 4, 41) → 52 + 42 = 25 + 16 = 41

Similarly,

• (13, 7, 218) → 132 + 72 = 169 + 49 = 218

Hence, '(13, 7, 218)' is the correct answer.

The code for each word is shown below:

Clearly, 'kp' is coded as 'later' in the given language.

Hence, 'kp' is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN is shown below:

Hence, 'option 3' is the correct answer.

After replacing letters by their meaning, we get:

426 ÷ 3 - 12 + 105 × 1 = ?

⇒ 142 - 12 + 105 × 1 = ?

⇒ 142 - 12 + 105 = ?

⇒ 247 - 12 = ?

⇒ 235 = ?

Hence, ‘235’ is the correct answer.

If '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged, then the equation becomes:

143 + 28 ÷ 4 × 5 - 22 = ?

⇒ 143 + 7 × 5 - 22 = ?

⇒ 143 + 35 - 22 = ?

⇒ 178 - 22 = ?

⇒ 156 = ?

Hence, ‘156’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Words are synonym of each other.

• Blaze ∶ Eruption → Blaze is synonym of eruption.

Similarly,

• Bony ∶ Haggard → Bony is synonym of haggard.

Hence, 'Bony ∶ Haggard' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First letter - 2 = Second letter; Second letter + 4 = Third letter

1. RPT → R - 2 = P; P + 4 = T
2. YWA → Y - 2 = W; W + 4 = A
3. FDH → F - 2 = D; D + 4 = H
4. EJN → E + 5 = J; J + 4 = N

Hence, 'EJN' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number)² - 7 = Second number

• 9, 74 → 9² - 7 = 81 - 7 = 74
• 5, 18 → 52 - 7 = 25 - 7 = 18

Similarly,

• 13, 162 → 132 - 7 = 169 - 7 = 162

Hence, '13, 162' is the correct answer.

The number of semi-circles in the given figure is shown below:

Hence, '15' is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram is:          

Conclusions:

(I) Some sticks are bats. → Does not follow (As, All bats are racquets and No stick is a racquet, which implies No sticks are bats)

(II) Some sticks are hockeys is a possibility. → Follows (There is no definite relation between sticks and hockeys, so it is a possibility that some sticks are hockeys)

(III) All hockeys are racquets. → Does not follow (As, Some hockeys are bats and All bats are racquets, which implies some hockeys are racquets)

Hence, 'Only conclusion II follows' is the correct answer.

After replacing the letters by their meaning, we get:

30 × 5 + 246 ÷ 6 - 17 = ?

⇒ 30 × 5 + 41 - 17 = ?

⇒ 150 + 41 - 17 = ?

⇒ 191 - 17 = ?

⇒ 174 = ?

Hence, ‘174’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number + 3) × 5 = Second number

1. 31 ∶ 138 → (31 + 3) × 5 = 34 × 5 = 170 ≠ 138
2. 21 : 120 → (21 + 3) × 5 = 24 × 5 = 120
3. 27 : 150 → (27 + 3) × 5 = 30 × 5 = 150
4. 29 : 160 → (29 + 3) × 5 = 32 × 5 = 160

Hence, '31 ∶ 138' is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram is:          

Conclusion (I): Some therapists are dietitians. → Follows (As, Some dietitians are surgeons and All surgeons are therapists, which implies Some therapists are dietitians)

Conclusion (II): No dietitian is a physician. → Does not follow (As, Some dietitians are surgeons, All surgeons are therapists, and No therapist is a physician, which implies some dietitian are not physician)

Hence, ‘Only conclusion I follows’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'AYCIES' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, '393' is the correct answer.

There are 2 odd days in a month with 30 days and 3 odd days in a month with 31 days. Also, February with 28 days has 0 odd days and February with 29 days have 1 odd day.

Number of odd days between 29 November 2009 to 30 May 2010 = (1 + 3 + 3 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 30) = 42

42 when divided by 7, leaves 0 as remainder.

Sunday + 0 = Sunday

Hence, ‘Sunday’ is the correct answer.

The position of letters that will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word 'DEFORM' is arranged in alphabetical order is shown below:

Clearly, D, E, and F's position remains unchanged.

Hence, 'Three' is the correct answer.

P × Q - R ÷ S + T → P is mother of Q, Q is brother of R, R is father of S, S is sister of T.

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

P is mother of S's father, or we can say P is S's father's mother.

Hence, ‘Father's mother’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. mpnmno → m op p / mo n n / m n pn / mop o
2. mnmopn → m op n / mo m n / n o pn / mop n
3. mnpmon → m op n / mo p n / m o pn / mop n
4. pmnopn → p op m / mo n n / o p pn / mop n

• In option 3, mopn is repeated.

Hence, 'mnpmon' is the correct answer.

L × K + D - S ÷ T → L is son of K, K is mother of D, D is wife of S, S is brother of T.

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

S is brother-in-law of L, or we can say that S is L's sister's husband.

Hence, ‘Sister's husband’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'QML : ZKO' is the correct answer.

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

From Figure (1) to (3):

Two new similar shapes are added to the left and the right side of the existing form.

From Figure (2) to (4):

Two new similar shapes are added to the left and the right side of the existing form.

From Figure (3) to Answer Figure (5):

Two new similar shapes are added to the left and the right side of the existing form.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number + 20 = Second number; Second number + 20 = Third number

1. 25 - 45 - 65 → 25 + 20 = 45; 45 + 20 = 65
2. 8 - 28 - 48 → 8 + 20 = 28; 28 + 20 = 48
3. 38 - 58 - 78 → 38 + 20 = 58; 58 + 20 = 78
4. 17 - 27 - 67 → 17 + 10 = 27; 27 + 40 = 67

Hence, '17 - 27 - 67' is the correct answer.

The paper when unfolded will appear as shown below:

Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'NL676' is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

Key Points

• Bharatanatyam is a classical Indian dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu.
• Hema Malini is a trained Bharatanatyam dancer and has performed in various stage shows and films.
• Actress, director, producer, and politician Hema Malini hails from India and is presently a member of the Lok Sabha.

Additional Information

• Kathakali is another classical Indian dance form that originated in Kerala.
• It is known for its elaborate makeup and costumes.
• Kuchipudi is a classical Indian dance form that originated in Andhra Pradesh.
• It is known for its intricate footwork and expression.
• Kathak is a classical Indian dance form that originated in North India.
• It is known for its graceful movements and storytelling.

The correct answer is Yuki Bhambri and Saketh Myneni.

Key Points

• Yuki Bhambri and Saketh Myneni won the men's doubles title at the Bangkok Open Challenger held at Nonthaburi, Thailand in January 2023.
• Yuki Bhambri is a professional Indian tennis player who has won six singles and 14 doubles titles on the ATP Challenger Tour.
• Saketh Myneni is also a professional Indian tennis player who has won two singles and 16 doubles titles on the ATP Challenger Tour.

Additional Information

• ​Arjun Kadhe is a tennis player from India.
• Kadhe is the four-time ITF Futures singles champion.
• He also holds seven ITF Futures doubles titles and three challenger titles.
• Indian tennis player Rohan Machanda Bopanna plays professionally.
• In 2012 and 2015, he advanced to the ATP World Tour Finals as a finalist.
• Indian tennis player Ramanathan Ramkumar plays professionally.
• He has played in the Davis Cup for India.
• Indian male deaf tennis player Prithvi Sekhar plays the sport.
• In the mixed doubles competition at the 2017 Summer Deaflympics, he and Jafreen Shaik took home a bronze medal.

The correct answer is Jat.

 Key Points

• Rajaram was the leader of the Jat revolt against the Mughals, which took place in the early 18^th century.
• The Jat uprising was mainly a response to the oppressive policies of the Mughal Empire, which had caused widespread discontent among the Jat peasants and soldiers.
• Rajaram was a Jat chieftain who led the rebellion and managed to capture several Mughal forts and cities, including Agra and Mathura.
• However, the Jat revolt was eventually suppressed by the Mughals, and Rajaram was captured and executed in 1707.

Additional Information

• Satnami was a religious sect that rebelled against the Mughals in the late 17^th century.
• In 1657, Birbhan established the first Satnamis, a group of homeowners and mendicants in Narnaul, eastern Punjab.
• They were subdued by Aurangzeb's army in 1672 when they disobeyed him.
• A clan of Rajputs is the Bundela.
• They gained notoriety in 1545 when they defeated Sher Shah of Sur, the Afghan ruler, who was slain during a siege of their stronghold at Kalinjar.
• The Munda people are an ethnic group from the Indian subcontinent who speak Austraasiatic languages. 
• They are native speakers of Mundari.

The correct answer is Meghalaya.

Key Points

• Meghalaya still uses the ancient bamboo drip irrigation method, which is a traditional method of irrigation that involves the use of bamboo pipes to supply water to crops.
• Meghalaya's unique topography, with its hills and valleys, makes it well-suited for this method of irrigation as it allows for the collection and distribution of water to different levels of the terrain.
• This method is eco-friendly, cost-effective, and sustainable as it uses locally available resources and does not require electricity or fuel to operate.

Additional Information

• Telangana primarily uses modern irrigation methods such as sprinkler and drip irrigation.
• Maharashtra also primarily uses modern irrigation methods, although some farmers may still use traditional methods on a small scale.
• Chhattisgarh primarily uses canal irrigation and tube wells for irrigation purposes.
• Bamboo drip irrigation is also known as the "jingkieng ksiar" method in Meghalaya and has been used for centuries by the Khasi tribe.
• The bamboo pipes used in this method are perforated with small holes to allow water to drip slowly onto the roots of the crops.
• Other traditional methods of irrigation used in India include the use of bullock carts to draw water from wells, the construction of earthen embankments to create ponds and the use of traditional water harvesting structures such as stepwells and baolis.

The correct answer is State Governments.

 Key Points

• State Governments are allowed to establish Family Courts under the Family Courts (Amendment) Act, of 2022.
• The Family Courts Act, of 1984 was enacted to provide for the establishment of Family Courts for speedy settlement of family disputes.
• The Act applies to all states and Union Territories of India, except Jammu and Kashmir.
• The District Courts are already established under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and they do not have the specific mandate of dealing with family disputes.
• The Union Government does not have the power to establish Family Courts as it is a subject under the State List of the Constitution of India.
• The District Collector is an administrative officer who is responsible for the collection of revenue and maintenance of law and order in the district.
• Therefore, State Governments are the appropriate authority to establish Family Courts as they have the power to make laws on the subject of family disputes under the State List of the Constitution of India.

Additional Information

• The Family Courts (Amendment) Act, 2022 was passed by the Parliament of India on 17^th March 2022.
• The Act was brought in to amend certain provisions of the Family Courts Act, 1984 to make it more effective and efficient.
• The Family Courts Act, of 1984 defines family disputes as disputes between parties to a marriage, between parents and children, or between other relations.
• The Act provides for the establishment of Family Courts in every city or town with a population of more than 10 lakhs.
• The State Governments have the power to establish Family Courts and appoint judges for a term of three years.
• The judges must have special knowledge in matters relating to family disputes.
• The Act also provides for the appointment of counselors to assist the parties in resolving their disputes amicably.
• The establishment of Family Courts has been a significant step towards addressing the issue of pending cases in the Indian judicial system.
• The Family Courts have been able to provide speedy and effective justice to the parties involved in family disputes.

The correct answer is Swami Dayananda Saraswati.

Key Points

• Arya Samaj is a Hindu reform movement founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswati in 1875.
• The movement aimed to promote monotheism and the study of Vedas, and to oppose idol worship, caste system, and other prevalent customs and practices in Hindu society.
• Swami Dayananda Saraswati believed in the right of individuals to interpret Vedas and advocated for the use of reason and logic in religious matters.
• He also emphasized the importance of education and social reform in uplifting the status of women and lower castes in society.

Additional Information

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a social reformer and founder of Brahmo Samaj.
• It was a monotheistic Hindu movement that rejected idol worship and caste system.
• RG Bhandarkar was a scholar of Sanskrit and ancient Indian history.
• MG Ranade was a social reformer and founder of Prarthana Samaj.
• It was a Hindu reform movement that aimed to promote monotheism and social equality.

The correct answer is Calomel.

Key Points

• The popular name for mercury(I) chloride is Calomel.
• Calomel is a white crystalline powder that is used as a laboratory reagent and as a depolarizer in dry batteries.
• It is also used in medicine as a purgative and as a treatment for syphilis.
• Calomel has been used historically as a laxative and as a treatment for various ailments, but its use has declined due to its toxicity.

Additional Information

• Phosgene is a toxic gas.
• It was used as a chemical weapon in World War I.
• Galena is a mineral.
• It is a source of lead.
• Saltpetre is a common name for potassium nitrate.
• It is used in fertilizer and in the production of gunpowder.

The correct answer is Under declared income.

Key Points

• The parallel economy, also referred to as the shadow economy, black economy, or underground economy, exists alongside the official, legal economy.
• It's characterized by unreported economic activity that deliberately avoids government scrutiny and taxation.
• Under-declared income is money earned through legal activities but not reported to the government to avoid taxes.
• This hidden income fuels the parallel economy.

Additional Information

• The value of domestic work done by housewives is unpaid work and doesn't involve any cash flow. It's not part of the formal economy, but it's not hidden or illegal.
• Payments made to domestic helpers or housekeepers is a legitimate transactions within the formal economy, assuming taxes and regulations are followed.

The correct answer is Z.

Key Points

• The regression coefficient in the given equation is denoted by the letter Z.
• The equation is known as the species-area relationship and is used to predict the number of species present in a given area based on its size.
• The coefficient Z represents the slope of the regression line and measures the rate at which the number of species increases with increasing area.

Additional Information

• The constant C represents the intercept of the regression line and represents the number of species present in a unit area.
• S represents the number of species.
• A represents the size of the area.
• In general, there are more plant and animal species on larger lands than on smaller ones.
• Almost all terrestrial systems that have been investigated, from vast continental regions to island archipelagos, have shown this link to hold true.

The correct answer is Sea floor spreading hypothesis.

 Key Points

• Harry Hammond Hess proposed the seafloor spreading hypothesis in 1962, which explained the mechanism behind continental drift.
• This hypothesis suggested that new oceanic crust is formed at mid-ocean ridges and then moves away from the ridge, carrying the continents with it.
• This theory was supported by evidence such as magnetic anomalies in the oceanic crust and the age of oceanic rocks becoming progressively younger towards the mid-ocean ridges.

Additional Information

• According to Alfred Wegener's theory, the continents were formerly part of a single supercontinent called Pangaea, which means "all of earth" in Greek.
• He proposed that the continents relocated to their present locations when Pangaea broke apart a long time ago.
• He dubbed continental drift his theory.
• The Gaia hypothesis was proposed by James Lovelock in the 1970s.
• It suggests that the Earth is a self-regulating system that maintains conditions necessary for life.
• The geographical cycle hypothesis was proposed by William Morris Davis in the late 19^th century.
• He suggested that landforms were shaped by a cycle of erosion, transportation, and deposition.

The correct answer is It is related to cooperative society.

 Key Points

• Article 43 B is related to cooperative societies.
• It directs the state to promote the formation and autonomous functioning of cooperative societies.
• The objective is to ensure the democratic functioning of cooperatives based on principles of voluntary formation, democratic control, and autonomous management.

Additional Information

• Article 43 B was not added to the 44^th Constitutional Amendment.
• The 44^th Amendment Act of 1978 dealt with various other provisions of the Constitution.
• The right to livelihood is enshrined in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
• Article 43 B was not added in 2002.
• Article 43B was added to the Indian Constitution by the Constitution (Ninety-seventh Amendment) Act, 2011.

The correct answer is Discus throw.

 Key Points

• The first day of the decathlon typically includes five events: 100-meter dash, long jump, shot put, high jump, and 400-meter dash.
• The Discus throw is usually the second event on the second day of the decathlon.
• The Shot put is the first event of the decathlon, which tests the athlete's strength and technique in throwing a heavy ball as far as possible.
• The 100-meter dash is also one of the events on the first day, which tests the athlete's speed and acceleration.

Additional Information

• The Decathlon is a track and field event consisting of ten track and field events, which are completed over two days.
• The ten events are: the 100-metre dash, long jump, shot put, high jump, 400-metre dash, 110-metre hurdles, discus throw, pole vault, javelin throw, and 1500-metre run.
• The Shot put is the first event of the decathlon, which is followed by the Long jump, High jump, 400-metre dash, and 110-metre hurdles.
• The 100-metre dash is the first event of the Heptathlon, which is a women's track and field event consisting of seven events.

The correct answer is Priyanka Goswami.

Key Points

• The athlete who won the bronze medal in the women's category at the 2023 Asian 20 km Walking Championships held in Nomi, Japan is Priyanka Goswami.
• Priyanka Goswami is an Indian racewalker who has been consistently performing well in various national and international events.

Additional Information

• Bhawna Jat is also an Indian racewalker who won a silver medal in the 20 km walk event at the 2019 Asian Race Walking Championships held in Nomi, Japan.
• Khushbir Kaur is another Indian racewalker who has won several medals in national and international events, including a silver medal in the 20 km walk event at the 2014 Asian Games held in Incheon, South Korea.
• Manju Rani is a boxer from India who won a bronze medal in the women's 48 kg category at the 2019 AIBA Women's World Boxing Championships held in Ulan-Ude, Russia.

The correct answer is Bonalu.

Key Points

• Bonalu is a famous festival celebrated in Telangana.
• It is celebrated in the month of Ashada, which falls in July/August.
• The festival is dedicated to the goddess Mahakali and is celebrated with great fervor in Telangana.
• During the festival, women dress up in traditional attire and carry decorated pots on their heads filled with offerings to the goddess.
• The offerings include cooked rice, jaggery, curd, and water.
• The women visit temples and offer these pots to the goddess while dancing to the beat of drums and music.

Additional Information

• Kanuma is a festival celebrated in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
• It is celebrated as a part of the three-day Sankranti festival.
• Elephanta is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• It is located in Maharashtra.
• Konark is a famous temple in Odisha.
• It is dedicated to the sun god Surya.

The correct answer is Calcutta.

Key Points

• The second annual session of the Indian National Congress was held in Calcutta.
• Indian National Congress (INC) is one of the oldest political parties in India, founded in 1885.
• It played a significant role in India's struggle for independence from British colonial rule.
• INC has produced several prominent political leaders, including Jawaharlal Nehru, Indira Gandhi, and Rahul Gandhi.

Additional Information

• Bombay (now Mumbai) hosted the first session of the Indian National Congress in 1885.
• Delhi became the capital of India in 1911, and it was not a major center of political activity during the early years of the Indian National Congress.
• Madras (now Chennai) hosted the third session of the Indian National Congress in 1887.
• An important milestone in the fight for Indian independence from British control was reached in December 1926 when the Indian National Congress conducted its 41^st session in Guwahati, Assam.
• The All-India Congress Committee meeting was arranged in Pandu Nagar, Guwahati, by Tarun Ram Phukan.

The correct answer is Padma Vibhushan.

Key Points

• Yamini Krishnamurthy was honored with the Padma Vibhushan in 2016, which is the second highest civilian award in India.
• She is a legendary figure in Indian classical dance, known for her graceful and expressive performances.

Additional Information

• The Saraswati Samman is a prestigious literary award.
• It is given to Indian writers for their outstanding contribution to literature in any Indian language.
• The Moortidevi Award is another literary award given by the Bharatiya Jnanpith organization.
• It is given for excellence in Indian literature.
• The Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award in India.
• It is given for exceptional service in any field of human endeavor.

The correct answer is a p-type semiconductor.

Key Points

• Silicon doped with gallium forms a p-type semiconductor because gallium is a trivalent impurity and replaces some of the silicon atoms in the crystal lattice, creating a hole in the valence band.
• P-type semiconductors have a majority of holes as their charge carriers and a smaller number of electrons, which are the minority carriers.
• N-type semiconductors, on the other hand, are doped with a pentavalent impurity like phosphorus, which adds an extra electron to the conduction band and creates a surplus of electrons as the majority carriers.
• Superconductors are materials that exhibit zero electrical resistance below a certain temperature, and silicon doped with gallium is not known to exhibit superconductivity.
• Insulators are materials that do not conduct electricity at all and have a very high resistance, which is not the case with p-type semiconductors.

Additional Information

• In a p-type semiconductor, the holes in the valence band can move from one atom to another and act as positive charge carriers, while the electrons in the conduction band are immobile unless excited by an external energy source.
• The doping process is a way to intentionally introduce impurities into a semiconductor crystal to alter its electrical properties and enable the creation of p-n junctions, which are the basis of many electronic devices.
• Some common p-type dopants besides gallium are boron and aluminum, while common n-type dopants include arsenic and antimony.
• The properties of a semiconductor depend not only on its doping but also on its temperature, light exposure, and other environmental factors that can affect its carrier concentration, mobility, and recombination.

The correct answer is Shehnai.

 Key Points

• Bismillah Khan was a renowned Indian classical musician who played the shehnai.
• His expressive virtuosity in playing it led to his rise to prominence as a prominent Hindustani classical music artist.
• The woodwind instrument was inextricably linked to his name.
• The shehnai is a traditional Indian wind instrument that is similar to an oboe.

Additional Information

• A sitar is a stringed instrument that is played by plucking the strings.
• Ravi Shankar is a famous sitar player from India.
• The tabla is a percussion instrument that consists of two drums of different sizes.
• Ustad Allah Rakha is a famous tabla player from India.
• Harmonium is a keyboard instrument that produces sound by blowing air through reeds.
• Pandit Rambhau Bijapure is a famous harmonium player from India.

The correct answer is i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a.

Key Points

• The correct option is primary functions - b, secondary functions - c, evils of money - d, contingent functions - a.
• Money is an essential element of our economy, and it performs several functions that are crucial for the smooth functioning of the economy.
• The primary function of money is to act as a medium of exchange, i.e., it facilitates the exchange of goods and services.
• Money also acts as a measure of value, i.e., it helps in determining the value of goods and services.
• The secondary functions of money include acting as a store of value, i.e., it helps in storing the wealth in the form of money.
• It also acts as a standard of deferred payments, i.e., it facilitates the payment of debts in the future.

Additional Information

• The evils of money include instability of value, i.e., the value of money keeps fluctuating due to various economic factors.
• Money can also create inflation, i.e., the rise in the general price level of goods and services.
• The contingent functions of money include acting as a means of distribution of national income, i.e., it helps in distributing the national income among various sections of the society.
• Money also acts as a source of public revenue, i.e., the government earns revenue by imposing taxes on various economic activities.

The correct answer is protection of monuments and heritage sites.

Key Points

• Protecting public property is a fundamental duty of Indian citizens as it is important for the welfare and development of the society.
• Safeguarding the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of the country is a fundamental duty of Indian citizens.
• Promoting harmony and brotherhood among all people of India is a fundamental duty of Indian citizens.
• The protection of monuments and heritage sites is not listed as a fundamental duty in the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information

• ​The fundamental duties of Indian citizens are listed under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution.
• There are 11 fundamental duties listed in the Constitution.
• These duties were added by the 42^nd Amendment Act in 1976.
• Fundamental Duties were recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee in 1976, and their importance became apparent during the internal emergency of 1975–1977.

The correct answer is increase in tax revenue.

 Key Points

• During a boom, people tend to earn more, which increases their taxable income and, in turn, the government's tax revenue.
• Hence, the deficit of the government will be reduced automatically due to an increase in tax revenue.
• As the economy grows during a boom, businesses also tend to earn more profits, leading to higher corporate tax collections for the government.
• During a boom, the government may also earn more from other sources, such as dividends, royalties, and fees, which can contribute to reducing the deficit.

Additional Information

• A booming economy also leads to more employment opportunities, which reduces the government's expenditure on welfare programs such as unemployment benefits and food assistance.
• A higher GDP indicates a larger economy, which can generate more income for the government.
• However, it is the increase in tax revenue that contributes to reducing the deficit, not the GDP itself.
• A decrease in tax revenue would lead to an increase in the government deficit, not a reduction.
• A Decrease in GDP would lead to a decline in overall economic activity, resulting in lower tax collections and higher government expenditure, leading to an increase in the deficit.

The correct answer is 21.9%.

Key Points

• 21.9% of the Indian population was estimated to be living below the poverty line.
• This means that around 270 million people in India were living below the poverty line in 2011-12.
• The poverty line in India is defined as the minimum level of income required to meet basic needs such as food, clothing, and shelter.

Additional Information

• Poverty in India is a major issue, with a large population struggling to meet their basic needs.
• The poverty line in India is determined by the Planning Commission, which takes into account factors such as the cost of food, health care, and education.
• The poverty line is different for rural and urban areas in India, with the rural poverty line being lower than the urban poverty line.
• Poverty reduction has been a priority for the Indian government, with various schemes and programs aimed at improving the lives of the poor.
• However, progress has been slow and there is still a long way to go in addressing the issue of poverty in India.

The correct answer is cold northern winds.

 Key Points

• The Himalayan Mountains are the highest mountain range in the world and act as a natural barrier that separates the Indian subcontinent from the rest of Asia.
• The mountains act as an effective climatic divide by protecting the subcontinent from the cold northern winds that blow from the Tibetan Plateau and Central Asia.
• The Himalayas also block the warm southern winds that originate from the Indian Ocean, preventing them from entering the subcontinent and making the climate cooler and drier.
• Cyclonic winds are not affected by the Himalayan Mountains and can still enter the subcontinent, causing heavy rainfall and flooding in some regions.
• Western disturbances are weather systems that originate from the Mediterranean region and can enter the subcontinent from the northwest, but their impact is reduced by the Himalayan Mountains.

Additional Information

• The Himalayan Mountains are located in the northern part of the Indian subcontinent and stretch over 2,400 km from Afghanistan to Myanmar.
• The mountains are home to some of the highest peaks in the world, including Mount Everest, which is the highest peak at 8,848 meters.
• The Himalayas are also the source of many major rivers in South Asia, including the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Indus rivers.
• Cyclonic winds are low-pressure systems that form over warm ocean waters and can cause heavy rainfall and strong winds when they make landfall.
• They are common in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea.
• Western disturbances are weather systems that bring rain and snow to the western Himalayan region from November to April.
• They are important for agriculture and water supply in the region.

The correct answer is Globalisation.

 Key Points

• The five-year plans were introduced in India in 1951 to accelerate the pace of economic growth and development.
• Self-reliance, modernization, growth, and equity are the four common goals of five-year plans.
• Self-reliance aims to reduce dependence on foreign aid and promote domestic resources.
• Modernization aims to promote industrialization, technological advancement, and infrastructure development.
• Growth aims to increase the national income and improve the living standards of the people.

Additional Information

• Globalization refers to the integration of economies, cultures, and societies across the world.
• It is not a common goal of five-year plans as it emerged as a concept in the 1990s.
• Self-reliance is an important concept that has been emphasized in India's economic policies since independence.
• It aims to promote indigenous industries, reduce imports, and encourage exports.
• Modernization is critical for achieving sustainable economic growth and development.
• It includes the adoption of new technologies, modernizing infrastructure, and improving the quality of education and healthcare.
• Growth is an essential goal of economic development as it helps to reduce poverty, unemployment, and inequality.
• However, growth must be inclusive and sustainable to benefit all sections of society.

The correct answer is NABARD.

Key Points

• NABARD was the organization that piloted the Self-Help Group Bank Linkage Program (SHG-BLP) project in India.
• NABARD came into existence on 12 July 1982 by transferring the agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC).
• It was dedicated to the service of the nation by the late Prime Minister Smt. Indira Gandhi on 05 November 1982.
• The SHG-BLP project is a microfinance model that involves linking self-help groups of women in rural areas with formal financial institutions like banks, to provide them with access to credit and financial services.
• Full form of NABARD is the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development.

Additional Information

• Microfinance institutions (MFIs) are organizations that provide financial services to low-income individuals or groups who do not have access to traditional banking services.
• Any loan amount in India under one lakh rupees is regarded as a microloan.
• The Ministry of Finance, Government of India, has control over the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India, which is a statutory entity.
• Its job is to license and oversee the insurance and reinsurance sectors in India.
• Under the administrative purview of the Ministry of Finance in the Government of India, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory authority for the securities and commodities market in India.
• SEBI was founded on April 12, 1988, as an executive body, and on January 30, 1992, the SEBI Act, 1992, granted it legislative authority.

Given:

The perimeter of an isosceles right-angled triangle = 30 m

Concept used:

Perimeter of an isosceles triangle = 2x + y

Area of an isosceles right angle triangle = 1/2 × x² × sin θ 

x = equal sides of an isosceles triangle 

θ = angle between equal sides

Calculation:

In an isosceles right-angled △ ABC, 

⇒ BC² = AB² + AC²

⇒ (y)² = x² + x²

⇒ y = √{2 × (x)²}

⇒ y = √2x

Now,

Perimeter of an isosceles triangle = 2x + y

⇒ 2 × x + √2x = 30

⇒ x × (2 + √2) = 30 

⇒ x = 30/(2 + √2)

By rationalisation

⇒ x = 30 ×(2 - √2)/(2 + √2) × (2 - √2)

⇒ x = 30 ×(2 - √2)/{2² - (√2)²}

⇒ x = 30 ×(2 - √2){4 - 2}

⇒ x = 30 ×(2 - √2)/2

⇒ x = 15 × (2 - √2)

Put the value of √2 = 1.414

⇒ x = 15 × (2 - 1.414)

⇒ x = 15 × 0.586 = 8.79 m 

Area of an isosceles right angle triangle = 1/2 × x2 × sin θ

⇒ 1/2 × (8.79)² × sin 90°   

⇒ 1/2 × 77.26 × 1

⇒ 38.63 m² ≈ 39 m²

∴ The correct answer is 39 m2.

Given:

Rate of 1^st quality of rice = Rs.52/kg

Quantity of 2^nd quality of rice = 35 kg

Rate of 2^nd quality of rice = Rs.45/kg

Selling price of mixture = Rs.55/kg

Concept used:

Average rate of product = Total cost of the product/Number of product

Calculation:

Let the 1^st quantity of rice = x

Cost price of mixture of rice = (55 × 100)/110 = Rs.50/kg

According to the question:

⇒ (52 × x + 35 × 45)/(35 + x) = 50

⇒ (52x + 1575) = 50 × (35 + x)

⇒ (52x + 1575) = 1750 + 50x

⇒ 52x + 50x = 1750 - 1575

⇒ 2x = 175

⇒ x = 87.5 kg

∴ The correct answer is 87.5 kg.

Given:

Copper wire bent to square for area = 30.25 cm²

Formula used:

Area of a square = (side)²

Perimeter of square = 4 × side

Circumference of circle = 2 × π × r

Area of circle = π × r²

Calculation:

Area of square = 30.25 cm²

⇒ a² = 30.25

⇒ a = √30.25

⇒ a = 5.5 cm

Perimeter of square = 4 × a

⇒ 4 × 5.5 = 22 cm

Now,

Circumference of circle = 22 cm

⇒ 2 × π × r = 22

⇒ 2 × (22/7) × r = 22

⇒ r = 7/2 = 3.5 cm

Area of circle = π × r²

⇒ (22/7) × 3.5 × 3.5

⇒ 22 × 0.5 × 3.5 = 38.50 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 38.50 cm2.

Given:

Selling price (S.P) = (3/7) × marked price (M.P)

Loss% = 30%

Concept used:

If loss = L%

Cost price (C.P) = (S.P × 100)/(100 - L)

Calculation:

Selling price (S.P) = (3/7) × marked price (M.P)

⇒ S.P = (3/7) × M.P

⇒ S.P/M.P = 3/7

Now, S.P = 300 and M.P = 700

Cost price = (300 × 100)/70 = Rs.3000/7

M.P : C.P = 700 : 3000/7

⇒ 4900 : 3000

⇒ 49 : 30

∴ The correct option is 2.

Calculation:

Amount spent on housing : amount spent on education

⇒ 15 : 12 = 5 : 4

∴ The correct option is 5 : 4.

Given:

Marked price (M.P) = 160% × Cost price (C.P)

Discount% = 20%

Formula used:

If discount = D% then,

Selling price (S.P) = M.P × (100 - D)%

Profit = S.P - C.P

Profit% = (P × 100)/C.P

Calculation:

Marked price (M.P) = 160% × Cost price (C.P)

M.P/C.P = 160/100

M.P = 160 and C.P = 100

Selling price (S.P) = 160 × (100 - 20)%

⇒ 160 × 80% = Rs.128

Profit% = {(128 - 100) × 100}/100

⇒ 28%

∴ The correct answer is 28%.

Given:

A can do a work = 18 days

B can do a work = 24 days

Formula used:

Total work = efficiency × time

Calculation:

According to the question:

Total work done by both A and B = (4 + 3) × 5 = 7 × 5 = 35

Remaining work = 1 - (35/72)

⇒ (72 - 35)/72 = 37/72

∴ The correct answer is 37/72.

Given:

The cost price of 1 kg potato = Rs.20

Selling price of 1 kg potato = Rs.25

Formula used:

Profit = S.P - C.P

Profit% = (P × 100)/C.P

Where, C.P = cost price

S.P = Selling price ; P = profit 

Calculation:

Let the price of 1 gm = Rs.1

The cost price of 800 grams = Rs.800

The selling price of 1000 grams = Rs.1000

Cost price : Selling price = 800 : 1000 = 4 : 5

Cost price : Selling price = 20 × 4 : 25 × 5

⇒ 16 : 25

Profit% = {(25 - 16) × 100}/16

⇒ 900/16 = 56.25%

∴ The correct answer is 56.25%.

Given:

tan 2 θ = cot (θ - 36°)

Concept used:

If tan θ₁ = cot θ₂ then

θ1 + θ2 = 90°

Calculation:

⇒ Tan 2 θ = cot (θ - 36°)

So,2θ + (θ - 36°) = 90°

⇒ 2θ + θ - 36° = 90°

⇒ 3θ = 90 + 36

⇒ θ = 126/3 = 42°

∴ The correct answer is 42°.

Given:

In ΔABC:

BD ⊥ AC

BD = 12 cm ; AD = 6 cm ; CD = 4 cm

Formula used:

Area of triangle = 1/2 × base × height

Calculation:

AC = AD + CD = 6 + 4 = 10 cm

Area of ΔABC = 1/2 × AC × BD

⇒ 1/2 × 10 × 12

⇒ 5 × 12 = 60 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 60 cm2.

Given:

(a + b + c) = 17

And (a2 + b2 + c2) = 115

Formula used:

(a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2 (ab + bc + ca) 

Calculation:

(a + b + c) = 17

Squaring both sides 

⇒ (a + b + c)² = (17)²

⇒ a² + b² + c² + 2 × (ab + bc + ca) = 289

⇒  2 × (ab + bc + ca) = 289 - 115

⇒ 2 × (ab + bc + ca) = 174

Now,

⇒ (a + b)2 + (b + c)2 + (c + a)2

⇒ a² + b² + 2ab + b² + c² + 2bc + c² + a² + 2ca

⇒ 2 × (a² + b² + c²) + 2 × (ab + bc + ca)

⇒ 2 × 115 + 174 = 404

∴ The correct answer is 404.

Given:

△ABC is a isosceles triangle.

∠ABC = 90°

AB = BC ; AC = 12 cm

Formula used:

In a right-angled triangle.

⇒ H² = P² + B²

Where, H = hypotenuse

P = perpendicular ; B = base

Calculation:

In right-angled isosceles △ABC

⇒ H2 = P2 + B2

⇒ (12)²  = BC² + BC²

⇒ BC² = 144/2 = 72

⇒ BC = √72 = 6√2 cm

∴ The correct answer is 6√2 cm.

Given:

Principal = Rs.156250

Time = 2 years ; Rate% = 8% 

Formula used:

S.I = (P × R × T)/100

C.I = P × effective rate for T years

For C.I:

Effective rate for 2 years = R₁ + R₂ + {(R₁ × R₂)/100}

Where, S.I = simple interest ; C.I = compound interest

and P = principal ; R = rate ; T = time 

Calculation:

Effective rate for 2 years = (8 × 2)% = 16%

⇒ S.I = 156250 × 16%

The effective rate for 2 years = 8 + 8 + (8 × 8)/100

⇒ 16 + 0.64 = 16.64%

C.I = 156250 ×  16.64%

Required difference = 156250 × (16.64 - 16)

⇒ 156250 × 0.64% = Rs.1000

∴ The correct answer is Rs.1000.

Formula used:

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

(a - b)2 = a2 + b2 - 2ab

Calculation:

Let a = 379 and b = 276

So, {(a + b)² + (a - b)²}/a² + b²

⇒ (a² + b² + 2ab + a2 + b2 - 2ab)/a2 + b2

⇒ 2 × (a2 + b2)/a2 + b2

⇒ 2

∴ The correct answer is 2.​

Concept used:

Calculation:

25(4 + 3p) ÷ 5 - 3 × 8 = 26

⇒ 5 × (4 + 3p) - 24 = 26

⇒ 20 + 15p - 24 = 26

⇒ 15p = 26 + 4

⇒ p = 30/15 = 2

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Given:

tan(90 – θ) = $\frac{2}{√3}$

Formula used:

Tan (90 - θ) = Cot θ  

Calculation:

Tan(90 – θ) = $\frac{2}{√3}$

⇒ Cot θ = $\frac{2}{√3}$

⇒ Tan θ = √3/2

Putting the value of tan θ in the equation:

 $2\sqrt3$ tan θ + 1 = ($2\sqrt3$ × √3/2) + 1

⇒ 3 + 1 = 4

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Given:

Diameter of a circle = 16 cm

QS is tangent to the circle.

OQ = 17 cm

Concept used:

The radius of a circle is perpendicular to the point of contact

between the tangent and the circle.

In right angled triangle

H² = P² + B²

Where, H = hypotenuse

P = perpendicular ; B = base 

Calculation:

Radius of the circle (OS) = 16/2 = 8 cm

OS ⊥ QS

So △OQS is a right angled triangle.

In △OQS

⇒ OQ² = OS² + QS²

⇒ 17² = 8² + QS²

⇒ QS² = 17² - 8²

⇒ QS = √{289 - 64}

⇒ QS = √225 = 15 cm

∴ The correct answer is 15 cm.

Given:

First number (a) = 8

Second number (b) = 20

Formula used:

Third proportion = b²/a

Calculation:

Third proportion = b2/a

⇒ (20 × 20)/8

⇒ 400/8 = 50

∴ The correct answer is 50.

Given:

Total number of students = 40

25 students had an average score = 60

15 students had an average = 80

Concept used:

Average score of N students = Sum of score of N students/N

Calculation:

According to the question:

⇒ (25 × 60 + 15 × 80)/40

⇒ (1500 + 1200)/40

⇒ 2700/40

⇒ 270/4 = 67.5

∴ The correct answer is 67.5.

Given:

8, P, 16 and 18 are in proportion.

Concept used:

If a , b, c and d are in proportion then,

$a\over b$ = $c\over d$

Third proportion = b²/a

Calculation:

8, P, 16 and 18 are in proportion.

⇒ ​$8\over P$ = ​$16\over 18$

⇒ 16P = 8 ×  18

⇒ P = (8 ×  18)/16

⇒ P = 9

Third proportion for 9 and 12

Third proportion = 12²/9

⇒ 144/9 = 16

∴ The correct answer is 16.

Calculation:

Average production of plant 1 = (35 + 43 + 48 + 32 + 42)/5 = 200/5 = 40

Average production of plant 2 = (25 + 44 + 39 + 40 + 44)/5 = 192/5 = 38.4

Average production of plant 3 = (40 + 44 + 36 + 35 + 30)/5 = 185/5 = 37

Average production of plant 4 = (45 + 40 + 30 + 48 + 42)/5 = 205/5 = 41

∴ The correct option is 2.

Calculation:

Total number of boys = (5 × 8) + (6 × 3) + (7 × 7) + (8 × 2) + (20 × 9)

⇒ 40 + 18 +49 + 16 + 180 = 303

The mean age of the boys = 303/(8 + 3 + 7 + 2 + 20)

⇒ 303/40 = 7.57

∴ The correct answer is 7.57.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the Difference of Squares identity: x² − y² = (x + y)(x − y).

Let x = (2a − 3b − c) and y = (a + 2b + c).

Sum (x + y) = (2a − 3b − c) + (a + 2b + c) = 3a − b.

Difference (x − y) = (2a − 3b − c) − (a + 2b + c) = a − 5b − 2c.

Result = (3a − b)(a − 5b − 2c) = 3a² + 5b² − 16ab + 2bc − 6ac.

∴ The correct answer is 3a² + 5b² − 16ab + 2bc − 6ac.

Alternate Method

Given: (2a − 3b − c)² − (a + 2b + c)²

Formula Used: (x + y + z)² = x² + y² + z² + 2xy + 2yz + 2zx

⇒ (2a − 3b − c)² = (2a)² + (−3b)² + (−c)² + 2(2a)(−3b) + 2(−3b)(−c) + 2(−c)(2a)

⇒ (2a − 3b − c)² = 4a² + 9b² + c² − 12ab + 6bc − 4ac

⇒ (a + 2b + c)² = a² + (2b)² + c² + 2(a)(2b) + 2(2b)(c) + 2(c)(a)

⇒ (a + 2b + c)² = a² + 4b² + c² + 4ab + 4bc + 2ac

⇒ Final Expression = (4a² + 9b² + c² − 12ab + 6bc − 4ac) − (a² + 4b² + c² + 4ab + 4bc + 2ac)

⇒ Final Expression = 3a² + 5b² − 16ab + 2bc − 6ac

∴ The correct answer is 3a² + 5b² − 16ab + 2bc − 6ac.

Additional Information

Algebraic Identity x² − y²

The difference of two squares can be factored into the product of the sum and the difference of the terms: x² − y² = (x + y)(x − y).

Expansion of a Trinomial Square

For any three terms, (a + b + c)² = a² + b² + c² + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca. Care must be taken with the signs of each term during expansion.

Combining Like Terms

Simplification requires identifying like terms (terms with the same variable and exponent) and performing addition or subtraction on their coefficients.

Given:

Distance along the stream = 12 km

Distance against the stream = 8 km

Concept used:

Speed of boat along with stream = U + V

Speed of boat against with stream = U - V

U = speed of boat and V = speed of stream

Calculation:

Speed of boat along with stream = U + V = 12 km/h

Speed of boat against with stream = U - V = 8 km/h

Speed of boat (U) = (12 + 8)/2

⇒ 20/2 = 10 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 10 km/h. 

Alternate MethodGiven:

Distance traveled downstream in one hour = 12 km

Distance traveled upstream in one hour = 8 km

Concept Used:

Speed along the stream (downstream) = speed of boat in still water + speed of stream (u + v)

Speed against the stream (upstream) = speed of boat in still water - speed of stream ( u - v)

Calculation:

Downstream speed:  u + v = 12 km/h

Upstream speed: u - v = 8 km/h

Solve the system of equations:

Adding the equations:

⇒ (u + v) + (u - v) = 12 + 8

⇒ 2u = 20

⇒ u = 10 km/h.

Subtracting the equations:

⇒ (u + v) - (u - v) = 12 - 8

⇒ 2v = 4

⇒ v = 2 km/h.

∴ The speed of the boat in still water (u) is 10 km/h.

Answer: 10 km/h.

Shortcut Trick

If sec θ + tan θ = k, then sec θ − tan θ = 1/k.

Given k = 5, then sec θ − tan θ = 1/5.

Adding both: 2 sec θ = 5 + 1/5 = 26/5 ⇒ sec θ = 13/5.

Using triplet (5, 12, 13): If Hypotenuse = 13 and Base = 5, then Perpendicular = 12.

sin θ = Perpendicular / Hypotenuse = 12/13.

∴ The correct answer is 12/13.

Alternate Method

Given: sec θ + tan θ = 5 --- (i)

Formula Used: sec² θ − tan² θ = 1

⇒ (sec θ + tan θ)(sec θ − tan θ) = 1

⇒ 5 × (sec θ − tan θ) = 1

⇒ sec θ − tan θ = 1/5 --- (ii)

⇒ Adding (i) and (ii): 2 sec θ = 5 + 0.2 = 5.2

⇒ sec θ = 2.6 = 26/10 = 13/5

⇒ Since sec θ = Hypotenuse / Base, let H = 13 and B = 5.

⇒ P = √(H² − B²) = √(169 − 25) = √144 = 12

⇒ sin θ = P / H = 12/13

∴ The correct answer is 12/13.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Identities

Standard identities include sin² θ + cos² θ = 1 and 1 + cot² θ = cosec² θ.

Pythagorean Triplets

Common triplets used in exams: (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), (7, 24, 25), (8, 15, 17), and (9, 40, 41).

Reciprocal Relations

sec θ = 1/cos θ and tan θ = sin θ/cos θ. If sec θ + tan θ = x, then sec θ = (x² + 1)/2x and tan θ = (x² − 1)/2x.

The correct answer is: "The man."

Key Points

• The sentence should read "Man is a social animal." The article "the" is unnecessary.
• When we talk about human beings in a general or abstract sense, we often omit the article.
• The sentence expresses a universal truth about human nature, and in such cases, the article can be omitted to make the statement more concise.
• The error is in the subject of the sentence, not the predicate.
• The sentence is grammatically correct aside from the unnecessary article.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: "watch an movie".

Key Points

• The correct phrase is "watch a movie" instead of "watch an movie".
• The article "an" is used before a word that starts with a vowel sound, while the word "movie" starts with a consonant sound.
• The correct sentence should be "Would you like to watch a movie tonight at eight?"

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is: "makes hay while the sun shines"

Key Points

• The original phrase "he always makes hay when the moon shines" is a play on the traditional idiom "make hay while the sun shines."
• The original idiom means to take advantage of favourable conditions or opportunities. (अनुकूल परिस्थितियों या अवसरों का लाभ उठाना)
• Example: Recognizing the potential for growth, Alex decided to make hay while the sun shines and invested in the booming tech industry.
• In the context of Teja being a successful businessman, it suggests that he seizes opportunities when they arise.
• The suggested substitution, "he always makes hay when the sun shines," adheres more closely to the conventional idiom.
• The phrase "when the sun shines" reinforces the idea of utilizing favourable conditions for one's benefit.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: "Was a new product launched by the company last month?"

Key Points

• To convert an active sentence into a passive voice, the object of the active sentence becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• The verb is changed to its past participle form and "by" is used to introduce the doer of the action in the passive sentence.
• In this case, "the company" is the object of the active sentence, so it becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• "Launch" becomes "launched" in its past participle form.
• The sentence in passive voice becomes "Was a new product launched by the company last month?"

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: "accordance with".

Key Points

• "In accordance with": This phrase is the correct and standard way to express conformity or agreement with something.
• It means in agreement or harmony with a particular recommendation, rule, or suggestion.
• "In according to": This is not a grammatically correct construction.
• The preposition "in" and the phrase "according to" do not go together in this context.
• "According to" is used to introduce a report or statement, not to express compliance or agreement.
• The correct sentence would be: "In accordance with his advice, I took this medicine."
• The correction ensures proper grammar and conveys the intended meaning, indicating that the action of taking the medicine aligns with the advice given.

Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: Small

Key Points

• Trivial means something that is of little importance, significance, or complexity. (कुछ ऐसा जो कम महत्व, महत्व या जटिलता का हो)
• Example: Although the error in the document was minor and trivial, attention to detail is crucial in professional writing.
• Marked option Small means something of little importance or significance. (कम महत्व या महत्त्व की कोई चीज़)
• Example: Great leaders pay attention to even the small details.
• Hence, the synonym for "trivial" is "small."

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Serious means significant or important. (महत्वपूर्ण)
• Informal means casual or relaxed. (आकस्मिक या आरामदेह)
• Urgent means requiring immediate action. (तत्काल कार्रवाई की आवश्यकता है)

The correct answer is: Unwise.

Key Points

• The word 'judicious' means having or showing good judgment. (अच्छा निर्णय लेना या दिखाना)
• Example: He made a judicious decision after carefully weighing the pros and cons.
• The antonym of 'judicious' is 'unwise', which means lacking good judgement or sense. (अच्छे निर्णय या समझ का अभाव)
• Example: Ignoring the warnings proved to be unwise, leading to unforeseen consequences.
• In the given sentence, the protagonist's judicious act made him popular overnight.
• Therefore, the opposite of judicious would be an act that lacks good judgment or sense, making Option 2 the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Criminal: Engaged in illegal activities or behaviour. (अवैध गतिविधियों या व्यवहार में लिप्त होना)
• Loyal: Faithful and committed in allegiance or support. (निष्ठा या समर्थन में वफादार और प्रतिबद्ध)
• Lawful: In accordance with the law or rules; legal. (कानून या नियमों के अनुसार)

The correct answer is: Petulant.

Key Points

• Jovial means cheerful and friendly. (हँसमुख और मिलनसार)
• Example: Despite the challenges, he remained jovial, spreading cheer with his friendly and lighthearted demeanour.
• Petulant means easily irritated or annoyed. (आसानी से चिढ़ जाना या परेशान होना)
• Example: The child became petulant when her request was denied, displaying irritation and impatience.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Cheerful means displaying happiness, optimism, or a positive disposition. (ख़ुशी, आशावाद, या सकारात्मक स्वभाव प्रदर्शित करना)
• Buoyant means cheerful and optimistic. (प्रसन्नचित्त और आशावादी)
• Convivial means friendly and lively. (मिलनसार और जीवंत)

The correct answer is: "but it is impossible."

Key Points

• The original sentence expresses a contrast between the speaker's desire to study and the distracting noise.
• 'But' expresses this contrast and maintains the original meaning.
• The conjunction "but" is used to indicate a contrast or contradiction between the two clauses.
• In this case, the first part of the sentence expresses the effort to study, and the second part introduces the obstacle (noise) that makes studying impossible.
• Using "but" clarifies the relationship between these contrasting elements, resulting in a more coherent and grammatically correct sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• 'If': Used to introduce a condition or a possibility.
• 'That': Often used to introduce a clause, provide additional information, or indicate a consequence.
• 'While': Used to indicate a contrast or simultaneous occurrence.
• 'Unless': Indicates a condition that must be met for a certain outcome to happen.