SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 04 Aug, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Logic: Second no. = [(First no.)³ + 11]

Checking the given options:

(1) 7 : 354 →

⇒ [(7)³ + 11]

⇒ (343 + 11) = 354

(2) 5 : 136 →

⇒ [(5)3 + 11]

⇒ (125 + 11) = 136

(3) 9 : 742 →

⇒ [(9)3 + 13]

⇒ (729 + 13) = 742

(4) 8 : 523 →

⇒ [(8)3 + 11]

⇒ (512 + 11) = 523

Here, '9 : 742' is different from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

As per the given data:

Here, the code for 'you' is 'sq'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Statements:

All bags are pots.

All keys are pots.

No lamps are pots.

The least possible Venn diagram as per the given statements:

Conclusions:

(I) Some bags are keys → Not follow (Because there is no direct relation between bags and keys, so it can be possible but not definitely true)

(II) No keys are lamps → Follow (All keys are pots and no lamps are pots, which means no keys are lamps is definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion (II) follows".

Given:

XWV  TS_Q  ONM  J_HG  ED_B

Checking the options:

1. YRLKA

YXWV  TSRQ  ONML  JKHG  EDAB

2. YRLIC

YXWV  TSRQ  ONML  JIHG  EDCB

3. ZRLKA

ZXWV  TSRQ  ONML  JKHG  EDAB

4. ZRLIA

ZXWV  TSRQ  ONML  JIHG  EDAB

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

Given expression: 'V ÷ W + X - Y × Z'

V is the brother of W, W is the wife of X, X is the father of Y and Y is the sister of Z.

Here, V is the mother's brother of Z.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Logic: [First no.] : [(First no + 2)²]

1. For 169:

• (11+2)²=13²=169

2. For 625:

• (23+2)²=25²=625

Applying the logic to 961:

• Let the number be x such that
• (x+2)²=961
• x+2=√961
• x+2=31
• x=31−2
• x=29

Thus, according to the given logic, 961 is related to 29.

Given:

36, 108, 54, ?, 81, 243

Logic: Multiplication by '3' and division by '2' alternatively.

Here, the missing number is '162'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The given figure when unfolded is as follows:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Given:

DF_ L_P V

Checking all the given options:

1. HJNRTX

Here, the series is completed.

2. GEMRSY

3. HIMSTY

4. GINRSX

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: (Sum of the positional value of each alphabet) + Number of alphabets.

'TARNISH' is coded as '96' →

​⇒ [{T(20) + A(1) + R(18) + N(14) + I(9) + S(19) + H(8)} + 7] = 96

'CORRECT' is coded as '89' →

​⇒ [{C(3) + O(15) + R(18) + R(18) + E(5) + C(3) + T(20)} + 7] = 89

Similarly, 'GENERAL' will be coded as:

​⇒ [{G(7) + E(5) + N(14) + E(5) + R(18) + A(1) + L(12)} + 7] = 69

Here, 'GENERAL' is coded as '69'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Given:

84, 90, 91, 99, ?, 108, 105

The logic followed in the given series is:

Here, '98' is the missing term.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Given:

OCJ, UGL, AKN, GOP,?

Logic: '6', '4' and '2' are added to the positional value of the first, second and third alphabet respectively.

Here, the missing term is 'MSR'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Given: 14 May 1953 is Thursday.

Now,

14 May 1953 to 14 May 1963 = 10 years (2 leap and 8 ordinary year)

→ In 10 years = (2 × 2) + (8 × 1) = 4 + 8 = 12 days.

And, from 14 May 1963 to 27 July 1963 = 17 (May) + 30(June) + 27(July) = 74 days.

Total odd days = 12 + 74 = 86 days = 86/7 = 12 week and 2 odd days.

So, 27 July 1963 was Thursday + 2 = Saturday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Alternate Method

Given:

14 May 1953 = Thursday

As we know:

14 May 1953 = Thursday

14 May 1954 = Thursday + 1 = Friday

14 May 1955 = Friday + 1 = Saturday

14 May 1956 = Saturday + 2 = Monday

14 May 1957 = Monday + 1 = Tuesday

14 May 1958 = Tuesday + 1 = Wednesday

14 May 1959 = Wednesday + 1 = Thursday

14 May 1960 = Thursday + 2 = Saturday

14 May 1961 = Saturday + 1 = Sunday

14 May 1962 = Sunday + 1 = Monday

14 May 1963 = Monday + 1 = Tuesday

Odd days from 14 May 1963 to 27 July 1963 = [May(17) + June (30) + July(27)] = (74 ÷ 7) = 4 Odd days

27 July 1963 = Tuesday + 4 = Saturday

27 July 1963 → Saturday

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

From Figure (1) to (2):

The symbols are moving as shown below and the middle shape rotates 90º in the clockwise direction.

From Figure (2) to (3):

The symbols are moving as shown below and the middle shape rotates 90º in the clockwise direction.

From Figure (3) to (4):

The symbols are moving as shown below and the middle shape rotates 90º in the clockwise direction.

From Figure (4) to Answer Figure:

The symbols are moving as shown below and the middle shape rotates 90º in the clockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Logic: Second no. = [{(First no. + 1) × 2} - 5]

Given:

(1) 39 - 75 →

⇒ [{(39 + 1) × 2} - 5]

⇒ [(40 × 2) - 5]

⇒ (80 - 5) = 75

(2) 43 - 82 →

⇒ [{(43 + 1) × 2} - 6]

⇒ [(44 × 2) - 6]

⇒ (88 - 6) = 82

(3) 55 - 107 →

⇒ [{(55 + 1) × 2} - 5]

⇒ [(56 × 2) - 5]

⇒ (112 - 5) = 107

(4) 64 - 125 →

⇒ [{(64 + 1) × 2} - 5]

⇒ [(65 × 2) - 5]

⇒ (130 - 5) = 125

Here, '43 - 82' is different from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given:

Cancel : Drop → Synonyms

Cancel → call off or drop.

Checking all the given options:

1. Cackle : Giggle → Synonyms

Cackle → Laugh in a loud, harsh way.

Giggle → Laugh lightly.

2.Dingy : Direct

Dingy → Dark or dull.

Direct → Straight.

3. Jaw : Jazzy

Jaw → Part of mouth. (Noun)

Jazzy → Bright, colourful and showy. (Adj.)

4. Resin : Resist

Resin → Sticky material.

Resist → Withstand the action or effect of. (Verb)

Here, 'Cackle : Giggle' is similar to the given word pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Given: 'STRANGE'

After arranging in alphabetical order:

STRANGE → AEGNRST

The alphabet 'S' is second from the right and the alphabet 'N' is fourth from the left, Between N and S has four letters (O, P, Q and R).

Hence, the correct answer is "Four".

The number of triangles:

Here, the number of triangles is '12'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: Addition of '2' and '3' to the positional value of the first and second alphabet.

Checking the options:

1. JLN

2. MOR

3. CEH

4. VXA

Here, 'JLN' is different from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Here, we use the table given below:

As per the given information:

Given:

⇒ 67 C 429 A 11 B 5 D 85 =?

Putting sign as per the equation:

⇒ 67 + 429 ÷ 11 × 5 - 85

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 67 + 429 ÷ 11 × 5 - 85

⇒ 67 + 39 × 5 - 85

⇒ 67 + 195 - 85

⇒ 262 - 85 = 177.

Here, the value of the equation is '177'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given:

8, 16, ?, 38, 41, 82

Logic: Multiplication by '2' and addition of '3' alternatively.

Here, the missing number is '19'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Statements:

All Dances are Art.

Some Walls are Art.

Some Dances are Groups.

The Venn diagram as per the given statements:

Conclusions:

(I) Some Walls are Dances. → Not follow (Because there is no direct relation between walls and dances, so it can be possible but not definitely true)

(II) Some Groups are Art. → Follow (Some dances are groups and all dances are art, which means some groups are art is definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion (II) follows".

Logic: Second no. = [First no. + 179]

352 : 531 →

⇒ [352 + 179] = 531

271 : 450 →

⇒ [271 + 179] = 450

Similarly, for '725 : ?' →

⇒ [725 + 179] = 904

Here, '725 : 904' is the correct pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: '7' is added to the positional value of each alphabet.

BFGD is written as IMNK →

PTUR is written as WABY →

Similarly, 'GKLI' will be written as:

Here, 'GKLI' is written as 'NRSP'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The correct answer is 31.16.

Key Points 

• The total urban population in the country as per Census 2011 is more than 377 million forming 31.16% of the total population.
• The data shows that Goa is the most urbanized state with 62.17% of the population living in urban areas. But if one goes by geographical area and total population, Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized state followed by Kerala (47.7 percent) upstaging Maharashtra (45.2 percent)
• The total rural population in the country as per the census of 2011 is 833.1 million. 
• Himachal Pradesh becomes the most rural state with 89.97 percent of the rural population followed by Bihar.

Additional Information

• The responsibility of conducting the decennial Census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• Census of India 2011 is the 15^th census conducted in India, which is the largest democratic country in the world.
• The census data is collected every 10 years, and it provides important information about the population, literacy rate, occupation, and other demographic factors.
• The percentage of India's population that lives in urban areas has been increasing over the years due to various factors such as urbanization, industrialization, and modernization.
• According to the 2011 census, the percentage of India's population living in urban areas is 31.16%  which is a significant increase from the previous census in 2001.
• Urbanization has both positive and negative impacts on society, and it is important to manage it effectively to ensure sustainable development.

The correct answer is 2015.

Key Points 

• The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India launched the Smart Cities Mission on 25 June 2015.
• The objective of the program is to promote sustainable and inclusive cities that provide core infrastructure and give a decent quality of life to their citizens, a clean and sustainable environment, and the application of ‘Smart’ Solutions.

Additional Information

The core infrastructure elements in a smart city include:

1. Sufficient  water supply
2. Guaranteed electricity supply
3. Sanitation with proper solid waste management
4. Systematic urban mobility and structured public transport
5. Low-cost housing, especially for the poor
6. Strong and vigorous  IT connectivity and digitalization
7. good governance, especially e-Governance and enhanced citizen participation
8. sustainable environment
9. proper safety and security of citizens, especially women, children and the elderly
10. affordable health and education for all.

• This is not, the final list. Each city is free to add more applications as per their requirement.
• The selection process for Smart Cities is based on the idea of Competitive and Co-operative Federalism.
• It follows an All India competition to select cities.

The following are the details:

The correct answer is Article 44.

Key Points

• Article 44 of the Directive Principles in the Constitution says:
• "State shall endeavor to provide for its citizens a uniform civil code (UCC) throughout the territory of India".
• The objective of Article 44 of the Directive Principles in the Indian Constitution was to address the discrimination against vulnerable groups and harmonize diverse cultural groups across the country.
• The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) calls for the formulation of one law for India, which would be applicable to all religious communities in matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption.
• The origin of the UCC dates back to colonial India when the British government submitted its report in 1835 stressing the need for uniformity in the codification of Indian law relating to crimes, evidence, and contracts, specifically recommending that personal laws of Hindus and Muslims be kept outside such codification.

Additional Information

• Article 43 of the Indian Constitution directs the state to secure for all workers a living wage, decent working conditions, and social security.
• Article 45 of the Indian Constitution directs the state to provide free and compulsory education for all children between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
• Article 42 of the Indian Constitution directs the state to make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.

The correct answer is Kalidas Samman.

Key Points

• Kalidas Samman is a prestigious award presented by the government of Madhya Pradesh to recognize contributions in the field of classical arts, literature, and culture.
• The 'Kalidas Samman' is given by the Madhya Pradesh government.
• It is a prestigious award presented annually by the government of Madhya Pradesh.
• The award is named after Kalidasa, a writer of ancient history.
• 'Kalidas Samman was established in the year 1980-81.
• In this award, Rs. 2,00,000 and a citation are presented in the fields of classical music, classical dance, theatre, and visual art.
• First recipients: Semmangudi Srinivasa Iyer and Mallikarjun Mansur
• Dharwad: Renowned Hindustani classical vocalist Pt M Venkateshkumar of Dharwad was recently conferred the prestigious Kalidas Samman for his outstanding contribution to the field of classical music.

Additional Information

• Kabir Puraskar is an award presented for promoting communal harmony and national integration through literature.
• It is presented by the government of Madhya Pradesh.
• Saraswati Samman is an award presented for outstanding contributions to Indian literature.
• It is presented by the K.K. Birla Foundation.
• Jnanpith Award is the highest literary award in India, presented for outstanding contribution in the field of literature.

The correct answer is 2500.

Key Points

• Rahul Srivatshav P. of Telangana has become India’s 74^th Grandmaster.
• He achieved the title after breaking the 2500 (Elo points) barrier in live FIDE ratings during the 9th Cattolica Chess Festival 2022 in Italy.
• To become a GM, a player has to secure three GM norms and cross the live rating of 2500 Elo points.
• Viswanathan Anand is India’s first GM, which he became way back in 1988.

Additional Information

• India's Grand Master R Praggnanandhaa on 10 June 2022 emerged the winner in the Norway Chess Group A open chess tournament at Stavanger with 7.5 points from 9 rounds.
• ​Norway Chess is an annual closed chess tournament, typically taking place in the May to June time period every year.
• The first edition took place in the Stavanger area, Norway, from 7 May to 18 May 2013.
• The International Chess Federation or World Chess Federation is commonly referred to by its French acronym FIDE.
• It is an international organization based in Switzerland that connects the various national chess federations and acts as the governing body of international chess competitions.
• World Chess Federation:
• Headquarters: Lausanne, Switzerland
• President: Arkady Dvorkovich
• Founded: 20 July 1924, Paris, France

The correct answer is the Michelson and Morley experiment.

Key Points

• The Michelson and Morley experiment was designed to trace the earth's motion through the luminiferous aether, a theoretical substance necessary for transmitting light.
• The experiment was conducted in 1887 by Albert Michelson and Edward Morley.
• The experiment aimed to detect the relative motion of the earth and the luminiferous aether by measuring the speed of light in different directions.
• The experiment results were surprising as they showed that the speed of light was constant in all directions, which contradicted the prevailing theory of the existence of the luminiferous aether.
• The Michelson and Morley experiment paved the way for the development of Einstein's theory of relativity, which explained the behavior of light and the absence of the luminiferous aether.

 Additional Information

• Maxwell and Hertz experiment: This experiment was conducted by James Clerk Maxwell and Heinrich Hertz in the late 19th century to demonstrate the existence of electromagnetic waves.
• Faraday and Henry experiment: This experiment was conducted by Michael Faraday and Joseph Henry in the 19th century to study the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction.
• Marconi and Thomson experiment: This experiment was conducted by Guglielmo Marconi and Joseph John Thomson in the early 20th century to demonstrate the feasibility of wireless communication.

The correct answer is the Gulf War.

Key Points

• India's government formulated five-year plans to set targets for economic growth and development over five years.
• The first five-year plan was launched in 1951, and subsequent procedures were formulated until the 12th five-year plan ended in 2017.
• The break in five-year plans occurred after three consequent plans were formulated - the 7th, 8th, and 9th five-year plans.
• The reasons for the break were primarily domestic issues such as the Indo-Pakistan conflict, the devaluation of domestic currency, and two successive years of drought.
• The Gulf War, which took place in 1990-91, impacted the global economy but was not a direct cause of the break in five-year plans in India.

Important Points

Five-Year Plans:

• The idea of a five-year plan is simple- The Government of India prepares a document with all its income and expenditure for five years.
• The budget of the central government and all the state governments is divided into two parts: non-plan and plan budgets.
• The non-plan budget is spent on routine items yearly. The planned budget is spent on a five-year basis as per the priorities fixed by the plan.
• The model of the Indian economy was premised on the concept of planning based on five-year plans from 1951 to 2017.
• The Five Year Plans were formulated, implemented, and regulated by a body known as the Planning Commission.

Additional Information 

Indo-Pakistan conflict:

• The Indo-Pakistan conflict refers to the tensions and conflicts between India and Pakistan, primarily over the disputed region of Kashmir.
• The conflict has had an impact on India's economy and has been a factor in the break-in of five-year plans due to the diversion of resources towards defense and security.

Devaluation of domestic currency:

• Devaluation of domestic currency refers to reducing the currency's value relative to other currencies.
• This can lead to inflation and other economic problems, which can impact the targets set in the five-year plans.
• The devaluation of the Indian rupee in the 1990s was a factor in the break-in five-year plans.

Two successive years of drought:

• Droughts can have a significant impact on agriculture, which is a major sector of the Indian economy.
• Two successive years of drought can lead to food shortages, inflation, and other economic problems, which can impact the targets set in the five-year plans.
• The droughts in the mid-1960s were a factor in the break in five-year plans.

The correct answer is London.

Key Points

• Dadabhai Naoroji founded The East India Association in 1866.
• He founded it with Indian members and retired British officials in London.
• It was supplanted by the London Indian Society.
• The objective behind the association was:
• to provide a platform for discussing matters and ideas about India,
• and to provide representation for Indians to the Government.
• Dadabhai Naoroji delivered the first lecture at the Association on 2 May 1867.
• The first President of the East India Association was Lord Lyveden.
• The East India Association incorporated the National Indian Association in 1949 and became the Britain, India, and Pakistan Association.
• In 1966 it amalgamated with the former India Society, now Royal India, Pakistan, and Ceylon Society, to become the Royal Society for India, Pakistan, and Ceylon.

Additional Information

• Ananda Mohan Bose was a prominent Bengali nationalist and one of the founders of the Indian National Congress, but he was not involved in the East India Association.
• ​In 1872, Anand Mohan Bose formed an Indian Society in London to foster the spirit of nationalism among the Indian residents in Britain.
• AO Hume was a British civil servant who played a crucial role in forming the Indian National Congress, but he was not associated with the East India Association.
• Justice Ranade was a prominent social reformer and nationalist from Maharashtra, but he did not have any connection with the East India Association.

Important Points

• The London Indian Society
• ​In 1865, the London Indian Society was founded under the guidance of Dadabhai Naoroji.
• It was formed by Indian students as a forum to air political grievances.
• Europeans were allowed to be honorary members but could not vote or hold office.
• Of the founding group of students, they included W. C. Bonnerjee, Manomohun Ghose, Pherozeshah Mehta and Badruddin Tyabji.
• In 1866, the London Indian Society was superseded by the East India Association, although it did continue to exist in some separate form for a few more years.

The correct answer is Shimsha River.

Key Points

• Shimsha River originates from the southern part of Devarayanadurga hill in Tumkur district, Karnataka.
• It is a tributary of the Kaveri River and flows for about 221 km before joining Kaveri.
• Shimsha River is known for its scenic beauty and is a popular spot for fishing and boating.
• Cauvery River rises at Talakaveri on the Brahmagiri range in the Western Ghats in the state of Karnataka.
• It flows for about 800 km before it falls into the Bay of Bengal.
• Left bank tributaries:-
• Harangi, Hemavati, Shimsha, and Arkavati*.*
• Right bank tributaries:-
• Lakshmantirtha, Kabbani, Suvarnavati, Bhavani, Noyil, and Amaravati.
• Cauvery basin extends over an area of 87,900 sq. km. which is nearly 2.7% of the total geographical area of the country.
• The Cauvery basin extends over the states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala, and the Union Territory of Puducherry.

Additional Information 

• Girna River is a tributary of the Tapti River in Maharashtra,
• Ghataprabha River is a tributary of the Krishna River in Karnataka.
• Waghur River is a tributary of the Godavari River in Maharashtra.

The correct answer is Consumption of public goods by people is rivalrous in nature.

Key Points

• Public goods are goods or services that are non-excludable and non-rivalrous in nature.
• Non-excludable means that it is difficult or impossible to exclude someone from using the good or service once it is provided.
• Non-rivalrous means that one person's use of the good or service does not diminish its availability for others.
• Usually, public goods are provided by the government.
• This statement is generally true, as governments often provide public goods due to their non-excludable and non-rivalrous nature.
• Consumption of public goods by people is rivalrous in nature.
• This statement is incorrect, as the consumption of public goods is non-rivalrous in nature.
• It is not easy to collect fees for public goods from every individual.
• This statement is true, as it is difficult to exclude individuals from using public goods and therefore difficult to collect fees from every individual.
• Public goods are non-excludable in nature.
• This statement is true, as public goods are difficult or impossible to exclude someone from using once they are provided.

Additional Information

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• The first World Deaf T20 Cricket Championship will be organized by India.
• The tournament is likely to be held in November 2022.
• The tournament will be organized by the All India Cricket Association for the Deaf (AICAD).
• A minimum of eight countries are expected to take part in the championship.
• The tournament will feature eight teams from different parts of the world, including Australia, England, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal, and hosts India.
• AISCD is the only Centre-recognised national sports federation for the deaf.
• The ICSD is the only international federation recognized as the governing body of the deaf sports movement and Deaflympics sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee.

Additional Information

• West Indies: The West Indies cricket team represents a collection of 15 Caribbean territories and dependencies, including Jamaica, Trinidad and Tobago, and Barbados.
• The West Indies team has won two ICC Cricket World Cup titles and two ICC World Twenty20 titles.
• Australia: The Australian cricket team, also known as the Baggy Greens, is the most successful team in the history of Test cricket, with the most wins and the highest winning percentage.
• The Australian team has also won five ICC Cricket World Cup titles and one ICC World Twenty20 title.
• England: The England cricket team is the birthplace of cricket and is one of the oldest teams in international cricket. England has won one ICC Cricket World Cup title and one ICC World Twenty20 title.
• India: The Indian cricket team is the current ICC World Test Championship runner-up and has won two ICC Cricket World Cup titles and one ICC World Twenty20 title.
• India is also the host of the upcoming T20 World Cup in October-November 2021.

The correct answer is polychromatic light.

Key Points

• White light is a combination of all visible colors in the electromagnetic spectrum.
• White light consists of 7 colors.
• White light consists of seven component colors: violet (V), indigo (I), blue (B), green (G), yellow (Y), orange (O), and red (R).
• In order from lowest to highest, the wavelengths of colored light are given by the acronym VIBGYOR (V < I < B < G < Y < O < R)
• The wavelength range of visible light is 400 to 700 nm.

Important Points

• Electromagnetic Waves are generated due to the vibration between the electric field and the magnetic field and do not require any medium to travel. It can run in a vacuum.
• Light is a form of energy that is an example of an electromagnetic wave.
• Wavelength: The distance between two successive crests or troughs is called the wavelength of a wave.

Additional Information

• Plane polarised light is a type of light in which the electric field oscillates in a single plane.
• Monochromatic light is a type of light that consists of a single color or wavelength.
• Laser light is a type of light that is monochromatic, meaning it consists of a single color or wavelength

The correct answer is the Sahara Desert.

Key Points

• The Himalayan Mountains play a significant role in India's climate, as they act as a barrier to cold winds from Central Asia and help regulate the temperature in the northern part of the country.
• The Indian Ocean is another important factor, as it moderates the climate along the coast and influences the monsoon season, which is critical for agriculture and water supply in India.
• The Western Ghats, a mountain range along the western coast of India, also have a significant impact on the climate, as they block the southwest monsoon winds and cause heavy rainfall in the region.
• However, the Sahara Desert, which is located in North Africa, is too far away from India to have any direct impact on its climate. It may indirectly affect the climate in some parts of the world through atmospheric circulation patterns, but not in India.

Additional Information

• The Himalayan Mountains are a range of high peaks that stretch across several countries, including India, Nepal, Bhutan, and China.
• They are home to several glaciers and rivers that are critical for water supply in the region.
• The Sahara Desert is the world's largest hot desert, covering about 3.6 million square miles.
• It is known for its extreme temperatures and low rainfall and is home to several unique species of plants and animals that have adapted to the harsh conditions.
• The Indian Ocean is the third largest ocean in the world, covering an area of about 70 million square miles.
• It is home to several important shipping routes and is known for its rich biodiversity, including several species of whales, dolphins, and sea turtles.
• The Western Ghats are a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for their rich biodiversity, including several endemic species of plants and animals.
• They are also home to several tribal communities that have lived in the region for centuries.

Important Points

FACTORS DETERMINING THE CLIMATE OF INDIA

Latitude :

• The northern part of India lies in the sub-tropical and temperate zone and the part lying south of the Tropic of Cancer falls in the tropical zone.
• The tropical zone being nearer to the equator experiences high temperatures throughout the year with small daily and annual ranges.
• The area north of the Tropic of Cancer away from the equator experiences an extreme climate with a high daily and annual range of temperature.

The Himalayan Mountains :

• The lofty Himalayas in the north along with its extensions act as an effective climatic divide.
• The towering mountain chain provides an invincible shield to protect the subcontinent from the cold northern winds.
• These cold and chilly winds originate near the Arctic Circle and blow across central and eastern Asia.
• The Himalayas also trap the monsoon winds, forcing them to shed their moisture within the subcontinent.

Distribution of Land and Water :

• India is flanked by the Indian Ocean on three sides in the south and girdled by a high and continuous mountain wall in the north. As compared to the landmass, water heats up or cools down slowly.
• This differential heating of land and sea creates different air pressure zones in different seasons in and around the Indian subcontinent.
• Difference in air pressure causes a reversal in the direction of monsoon winds.

Distance from the Sea :

• With a long coastline, large coastal areas have an equable climate. Areas in the interior of India are far away from the moderating influence of the sea. Such areas have extremes of climate.
• That is why, the people of Mumbai and the Konkan coast have hardly any idea of extremes of temperature and the seasonal rhythm of weather.
• On the other hand, the seasonal contrasts in weather at places in the interior of the country such as Delhi, Kanpur and Amritsar affect the entire sphere of life.

Altitude :

• Temperature decreases with height. Due to thin air, places in the mountains are cooler than places on the plains.
• For example, Agra and Darjeeling are located on the same latitude, but the temperature of January in Agra is 16°C whereas it is only 4°C in Darjeeling.

Relief :

• The physiography or relief of India also affects the temperature, air pressure, direction and speed of wind and the amount and distribution of rainfall.
• The windward sides of Western Ghats and Assam receive high rainfall during June-September whereas the southern plateau remains dry due to its leeward situation along the Western Ghats.

The correct answer is the Ministry of Education.

Key Points

• The Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) is an autonomous body that was established by the Government of India in 1972 under the Ministry of Education.
• Its main function is to promote and fund research in the field of history and archaeology in India.
• The Ministry of Culture is responsible for the preservation and promotion of India's rich cultural heritage.
• It has various programs such as the National Cultural Fund and the National Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana.

Important Points

• Indian Council of Historical Research: The Indian Council of Historical Research is an autonomous body of the  Ministry Of Education then (Ministry of Human Resource Development).
• Archaeological Survey of India: It is an Indian government agency attached to the  Ministry of Culture, that is responsible for archaeological research and the conservation and preservation of cultural monuments in the country.
• It was founded in 1861 by Alexander Cunningham.
• Ministry of Culture: The Ministry of Culture is the Indian government ministry charged with the preservation and promotion of art and culture of India. G. Kishan Reddy is the current Minister of Culture.
• The Ministry of Science and Technology is responsible for promoting science and technology research in India. It has various autonomous bodies such as the Department of Science and Technology and the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research.

Additional Information

• The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is responsible for the welfare of tribal communities in India and has various autonomous bodies such as the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
• The Ministry of Culture is responsible for promoting and preserving India's diverse cultural heritage and has various autonomous bodies such as the Archaeological Survey of India.
• The Ministry of Education is responsible for the development and implementation of education policies in India. It has various autonomous bodies such as the University Grants Commission and the National Council of Educational Research and Training.

The correct answer is MM Keeravani.

Key Points

• MM Keeravani is a renowned Indian music composer who has composed music for many Telugu, Tamil, Kannada, Malayalam, and Hindi films.
• He won the Oscar award in 2023. He was awarded for the song "Naatu Naatu" from the movie "RRR" in the category of Best Original Song.
• He won the National Film Award for Best Music Direction for the Telugu film Annamayya in 1997 and the Filmfare Award for Best Music Director in Telugu film for the film Magadheera in 2009.
• MM Keeravani is also known for his work in the Baahubali film series, for which he received critical acclaim and international recognition.
• Mani Sharma has composed music for many Telugu and Tamil films.
• AR Rahman is a well-known composer who has won many international awards, including Oscars.
• Devi Sri Prasad is a popular music composer who has worked in Telugu and Tamil films.
• However, none of them won the Oscar award in the year 2023, as mentioned in the question.

Additional Information

Academy Award

• The Oscar is also known as the Academy Awards.
• It is a set of awards given for artistic and technical merit in the American film industry.
• The award is given annually by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Science.
• AR Rahman is an Indian composer, singer, and songwriter who has won the 81st Academy Award. Hence option 2 is correct.
• The 2020 Oscars award this year was the 92nd in its series.
• This year's Oscar was very special as it honored a non-English film "Parasite" with the Best Picture Award.

The correct answer is 1,42,789.

Key Points

• To calculate the Net National Product (NNP) at market prices, we can use the following formula:
• NNP at market prices = NDP at factor cost + Net Indirect Taxes + Net Income from Abroad
• Given the data:
• NDP at factor cost: ₹1,25,250 crore
• Net Indirect Taxes: ₹18,120 crore
• Net Income from Abroad: -₹581 crore (negative value indicating net outflow)
• Now, substituting these values into the formula:
• NNP at market prices=1,25,250+18,120−581
• NNP at market prices=1,25,250+18,120−581=1,42,789 crore
• Therefore, the NNP at market prices is ₹1,42,789 crore.
• NDP at factor cost is the total value of goods and services produced within the domestic territory of a country in a financial year.
• It is calculated by deducting depreciation from GDP (Gross Domestic Product) at factor cost.
• Net income from abroad represents the income earned by domestic residents from foreign sources minus the income earned by foreign residents from domestic sources.
• Net indirect taxes refer to the indirect taxes paid by the government minus the subsidies received by the government.

Additional Information

• Market Price and Factor Cost represent two different ways to value the goods and services within an economy.
• Market Price:
• The market price is the amount that consumers pay for a good or service in the marketplace.
• It includes the cost of production as well as taxes (indirect taxes) levied on the product or service and any subsidies provided by the government.
• The market price represents the final price paid by consumers, which also covers the cost of making the product available in the market (transportation, retailing, etc.).
• Factor Cost:
• Factor cost is the total production cost of goods and services, measured as the sum of the income earned by the factors of production (land, labour, capital, and entrepreneurship).
• In simple terms, it is the cost of employing resources in producing goods and services, without considering any taxes or subsidies.
• Factor cost provides a perspective on the costs acquired by businesses in an economy to produce the goods and services that are consumed.
• Using the concepts of market price and factor cost, we can differentiate between NNP at Market prices and NNP at Factor cost:
• NNP (Net National Product) at Market Price:
• This is the value of final goods and services produced within an economy, including net income from abroad, measured at market prices. It includes indirect taxes and excludes subsidies paid by the government.
• It is essentially the GDP (Gross Domestic Product) adjusted for depreciation and net factor income from abroad.
• NNP at Factor Cost:
• This is the value of final goods and services produced within the economy, including net income from abroad, measured at factor cost.
• To calculate NNP at factor cost, we deduct indirect taxes and add subsidies to the NNP at market price.
• This gives us a measure of the income generated by the factors of production, disregarding the taxes and subsidies that may affect the market price.

The correct answer is Non-committal to building a common national identity.

Key Points

• Sensitive for the historically disadvantaged groups
• The Indian Constitution recognizes the need to provide special provisions and safeguards for historically disadvantaged groups such as Dalits, Adivasis, and women.
• This is evident in the provisions for reservations in education and employment, as well as the creation of special laws such as the Prevention of Atrocities Act.
• Open to community values
• The Indian Constitution recognizes the importance of community values and traditions, but only to the extent that they do not violate fundamental rights and principles.
• This is evident in the provisions for freedom of religion and the protection of cultural and linguistic minorities.
• Sensitive to the needs of religious and linguistic minorities
• The Indian Constitution recognizes the importance of protecting the rights and interests of religious and linguistic minorities.
• This is evident in the provisions for freedom of religion, the right to language, and the creation of minority commissions.
• Non-committal to building a common national identity
• The Indian Constitution recognizes the importance of building a common national identity but does not prescribe a specific model or ideology.
• This is evident in the use of terms such as "unity in diversity" and the recognition of multiple languages and cultures.

Additional Information

Characteristics of Indian Polity:

• Separation of Power:
• The theory of Separation of Power was first published by Montesquieu in his book "Espirit des Louis’ (The Spirit of the laws)" in 1747.
• This principle enables the three pillars of democracy - executive, judiciary, and legislature to perform separate functions and act as separate entities.
• It is a part of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution.
• ​In Raj Narain v/s The State of Uttar Pradesh case, 1975 the Supreme Court clarified that India has separation of power in the broad sense only.
• ​Checks and Balances:
• ​This principle enables the three pillars of democracy - executive, judiciary, and legislature to support and prevent each other's arbitrary decision-making.
• Article 75 implies that the executive is responsible to the legislature for his decisions.
• The judiciary checks the legislature through the power of judicial review.
• Appointment of judges in India is done through the President.
• Parliamentary System:
• In India, it is inspired by the UK's Westminster model.
• In this system, the de facto head is the Prime Minister while the de jure head is the President or Monarch.
• Ivor Jennings called the parliamentary system a ‘cabinet system’ because the cabinet is the nucleus of power in a parliamentary system.
• Limited Government:
• ​This is also known as Constitutionalism because the powers to legislate are limited by the Constitution itself.
• It prevents arbitrary decision-making.
• Unlike the UK, India has a limited government.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Constitution (Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) Orders (Second Amendment) Bill, 2022 is applicable to: uttar pradesh
• Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) are officially recognized groups in India that have been historically marginalized and subjected to discrimination.
• The Indian Constitution provides for affirmative action measures, such as quotas in education and government jobs, to uplift SCs and STs.
• The list of SCs and STs is periodically reviewed and revised by the government based on various criteria, such as social and educational backwardness, economic deprivation, and political representation.
• The inclusion of a community in the list of SCs or STs can provide them with various benefits, such as reservations in educational institutions and government jobs, financial assistance, and protection from atrocities.

Additional Information

• Who are Scheduled Tribes?
• The framers of the Constitution took note of the fact that certain communities in the country were suffering from extreme social, educational, and economic backwardness on account of primitive agricultural practices, lack of infrastructure facilities and geographical isolation.
• The Constitution of India in Article 366 (25) prescribes that the Scheduled Tribes mean such tribes or tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 of the Constitution to be Scheduled Tribes.
• The provisions under Article 342 read as follows: 
• 342(1) Scheduled Tribes --- the President may with respect to any State or Union Territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or part of or groups within tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribe in relation to that State or Union Territory as the case may be.
• Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes specified in a notification issued under clause (1) any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community, but save as aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification.

The correct answer is Gair.

Key Points

• Gair dance is a famous folk dance associated with Rajasthan.
• It is mainly performed by the Bhil community.
• It is performed by both men and women.
• Gair dance is popular in the Mewar and Marwar regions of Rajasthan.
• Performed during the festive month of Holi and Janmashtami.
• Some other important folk dances in Rajasthan are:
• Ghoomar.
• Chari.
• Ginad.
• Jhulan Leela.
• Kalbeliya.
• Bhavai.
• Kachchhi Ghodi.

Additional Information

• Dhimsa is a tribal dance form of Andhra Pradesh, performed by women during the harvest season.
• Bihu is a folk dance of Assam that is performed during the Bihu festival to celebrate the onset of spring.

The correct answer is Nation First, Always First

Key Points 

• India Celebrates 75 Years of Independence with the Theme “Nation First, Always First”.
• Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav' is an initiative of the Government of India to celebrate and commemorate 75 years of independence of progressive India and the glorious history of its people, culture, and achievements.

Additional Information 

• This theme focuses on all the efforts that are currently being undertaken by the Government to take India to carve out its position at the world level.
• It has a motto: SABKA SAATH. SABKA VIKAS. SABKA VISHWAS, SABKA PRAYAS.

The correct answer is Only A.

Key Points

• Fiscal deficit refers to the difference between the government's total expenditure and its total revenue.
• It is financed through borrowings, either from domestic or foreign sources.
• Recovery of loans is not a revenue receipt but a capital receipt.
• Revenue receipts are those that do not create any liability or reduce any asset of the government, such as taxes, fines, and fees. Capital receipts, on the other hand, are those that create a liability or reduce an asset of the government, such as borrowings, disinvestment proceeds, and recoveries of loans.
• In summary, the fiscal deficit is financed from borrowings and the recovery of loans is a capital receipt .
• It is worth noting that fiscal deficit is a key indicator of a government's financial health and economic management.
• A high fiscal deficit may lead to inflation, high interest rates, and a negative impact on the country's credit rating.
• Therefore, governments often strive to maintain a low fiscal deficit through various measures such as reducing expenditure, increasing revenue, and improving tax compliance.

Additional Information

• What constitutes the government’s total income or receipts?
• It has two components revenue receipts and non-tax revenues.
• Revenue receipts from the government
• Corporation Tax
• Income Tax
• Custom Duties
• Union Excise Duties
• GST and taxes of Union territories.
• Non-tax revenues
• Interest Receipts
• Dividends and Profits
• External Grants
• Other non-tax revenues
• Receipts of union territories
• Expenditures of the government:
• Revenue Expenditure
• Capital Expenditure
• Interest Payments
• Grants-in-aid for the creation of capital assets.

Important Points

• Fiscal Deficit is the difference between the total income of the government (total taxes and non-debt capital receipts) and its total expenditure. While calculating the total revenue, borrowings are not included. Hence, Fiscal Deficit is- Budget expenditure- Budget receipts excluding borrowings.
• A fiscal deficit situation occurs when the government’s expenditure exceeds its income. This difference is calculated both in absolute terms and also as a percentage of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of the country. A recurring high fiscal deficit means that the government has been spending beyond its means.
• The government describes fiscal deficit of India as “the excess of total disbursements from the Consolidated Fund of India, excluding repayment of the debt, over total receipts into the Fund (excluding the debt receipts) during a financial year”.

The correct answer is Net investment = Gross investment - depreciation.

Key Points 

• The addition to the capital stock in an economy is measured by net investment or new capital formation, which is expressed as
• Net investment = Gross investment - depreciation.
• Gross Investment is referred to as the total expenditure that is made for buying capital goods over a time period, without accounting for depreciation.
• In other words, gross investment is the amount that a company has invested in particular assets or the business as a whole without considering depreciation for the same.
• Net Investment, on the other hand, is the actual addition that is made to the capital stock in a given period.
• Net Investment takes into account the depreciation and is calculated by subtracting the depreciation from the gross investment.

Additional Information The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) refers to the market value of all final goods and services produced within an economy.

• It can be calculated into two ways:
• Nominal GDP:
• It refers to the GDP at the current market prices i.e., the GDP is calculated as per the market prices for the year for which the GDP is calculated.
• Real GDP:
• It refers to the GDP at base year prices i.e., the GDP is calculated as per the market prices in the base year. Thus, the Real GDP negates the inflation in goods and services.
• In case of a high rate of inflation, the nominal GDP would be higher than the real GDP.

The correct answer is Kapil Dev.

Key Points

• Kapil Dev was the special guest at the Melbourne Indian Film Festival in 2022.
• He is a former Indian cricketer who is widely regarded as one of the greatest all-rounders in the history of cricket.
• Kapil Dev played for the Indian cricket team from 1978 to 1994 and was the captain of the team when they won the 1983 Cricket World Cup, which is considered one of the greatest moments in Indian cricket history.
• Virat Kohli is the Ex. Captain of Indian cricket team and is widely regarded as one of the best batsmen in the world.
• MS Dhoni is a former Indian cricket captain who is known for his excellent leadership skills and his ability to finish matches.
• Sunil Gavaskar is a former Indian cricketer who is regarded as one of the greatest opening batsmen in the history of cricket.

Additional Information Kapil Dev

• Kapil Dev is a former cricketer who played for India.
• He is also called "The Haryana Hurricane."
• He is one of India's best all-around cricket players.
• Kapil Dev served as the captain of the Indian cricket team that won the 1983 Cricket World Cup.
• He became the first player with 200 one-day international wickets.
• He enrolled as a lieutenant colonel in the Indian Territorial Army in 2008.
• ‘Straight from the Heart: An Autobiography is an autobiography of Kapil Dev. Numerous events in Kapil Dev's life are discussed throughout the entire book.

The correct is "Court".

Key Points

• The customs of 'Sijda' and 'Paibos' were introduced by Ghiyasuddin Balban as normal forms of salutations to the king as a part of Court etiquette.
• 'Sijda' is a form of prostration where an individual bows down to the ground and touches their forehead to the floor as a sign of respect, submission, and humility.
• 'Paibos' is a form of obeisance where an individual bows down and touches the feet of the king as a sign of respect and loyalty.
• He also introduced several reforms in the areas of revenue, justice, and military organization.

Additional Information

• Ghiyasuddin Balban (1266-1287)
• He was the first Sultan of Delhi to introduce the practice of 'Sijda'.
• He started Sijda (prostration) and Paibos as the normal form of Salutation of the king.
• In Sijda people had to Kneel down and touch the ground with their heads to greet the Sultan.

The correct answer is itai-itai.

Key Points

• Itai-itai disease is caused by cadmium (Cd) exposure, produced as a result of human activities related to industrialization.
• It was first recognized in Japan in the 1960s.
• Itai-itai disease is characterized by osteomalacia with severe bone pain and is associated with renal tubular dysfunction.
• This disease was recognized as the Four Big Pollution Diseases of Japan.
• Cadmium is a naturally occurring toxic heavy metal.
• It is an extremely toxic industrial and environmental pollutant classified as a human carcinogen.
• It is used in the manufacturing of NiCd rechargeable batteries.

Additional Information

Formula used:

Sec θ = √(1+tan²θ)

Calculation:

Sec θ = √(1+tan2θ)

⇒ √(1+(4/5)2) 

⇒√(1+16/25) = √41 / 5

Calculation:

The sale is highest in september.

Total sale in 6 months is 600 + 700 + 700 + 500 + 450 + 800 = 3750

The required percentage is 800 / 3750 × 100 = 21.33 %

∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

The bag worth ₹560 , an exercise book worth ₹90 and a pen worth ₹45.

Concept used:

he discount is calculated on market price

Calculation:

The total discount will be,

⇒ 560 × 10/100 +  90 × 10/100 + 45 × 10/100

⇒ 56 + 9 + 4.5 = Rs 69.50

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

 A map of a city was drawn on a scale of 0.2 cm to a km,

Concept used:

The scale of the map is 0.2 cm to 1 km, which means that for every 0.2 cm on the map, there is 1 km in reality.

Calculation: 

The real area of the country will be

⇒ 22500 × (0.2 × 1)2

⇒ 22500 × 0.04 = 900 cm2

∴ The correct option is 4

Given: 

A triangle PQR has three sides equal in measurement and if PM is perpendicular to QR

Concept used:

Height(PM) of an equilateral triangle =  √3 / 2 a [ a is the side]

Calculation:

In a Triangle PQR has three sides equal in measurement and if the PM is perpendicular to QR then,

Let the side is 4 cm 

Height will be √3 / 2 × 4 = 2√3

So 3 PQ² = 3 × 16

= 48

Again,4PM² = 4 × (2√3)²

⇒ 4 × 12 = 48

So,3PQ2 = 4PM2

∴ The correct option is 2

Shortcut Trick

In a circle where tangents are drawn from an external point P, the angle between the radius and the chord (∠OST) is always exactly half of the angle between the tangents (∠SPT).

⇒ ∠OST = ∠SPT ÷ 2

⇒ ∠OST = 130° ÷ 2 = 65°

∴ The correct answer is 65 °.

Alternate Method

Given:

∠SPT = 130°

Formula Used:

1. Sum of interior angles of a quadrilateral = 360°.
2. Tangent is perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact (∠OSP = ∠OTP = 90°).
3. Sum of angles in a triangle = 180°.

In quadrilateral OSPT:

⇒ ∠OSP + ∠SPT + ∠OTP + ∠SOT = 360°

⇒ 90° + 130° + 90° + ∠SOT = 360°

⇒ 310° + ∠SOT = 360°

⇒ ∠SOT = 360° − 310° = 50°

Now, in isosceles triangle ΔOST (as OS = OT = radius):

⇒ ∠OST = ∠OTS

⇒ ∠OST + ∠OTS + ∠SOT = 180°

⇒ 2 × ∠OST + 50° = 180°

⇒ 2 × ∠OST = 130°

⇒ ∠OST = 65°

∴ The correct answer is 65 °ree;.

Additional Information

Tangent-Radius Theorem

The radius of a circle is always perpendicular to the tangent at the point of contact, making the angle 90°.

Cyclic Nature of OSPT

The quadrilateral formed by the center, two tangency points, and the external point is always cyclic because opposite angles sum to 180°.

Angle Bisector Property

The line segment OP bisects both the angle ∠SPT between the tangents and the angle ∠SOT at the center.

Given:

A shopkeeper professes to sell sugar costing ₹40/kg at ₹42/kg

But gives only 550 grams sugar in place of 600 grams using faulty weighing machine.

Concept used:

If a seller sells his goods at a% profit on cost price and uses b grams instead of c g less weight, then his percentage profit will be 

[(100 + a) c/b - 100] %

Calculation: 

As per the question, 

the profit percentage is 2/40 × 100 = 5%

So overall profit,

[(100 + a) c/b - 100] %

[(100 + 5) 600/550 - 100] %

[114.54 - 100] % = 14.54%

∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

A retailer buys 50 pens at the marked price of 44 pens.

He sells these pens at a discount of 1% on the marked price.

Concept used:

The discount is calculated on market price while profit is calculated on cost price.

Calculation:

Let the Market price 50 pens are 50

After getting 1 % discount the price should be 50 - 0.5 = 49.5

Now the cost Price will be market price of 44 pens that is Rs 44

So the profit will be 49.5 - 44 = 5.5

The profit percentage will be,

⇒ (5.5 /44) × 100 = 12.5 %

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

Prakash spends 27% of his salary on children's education and donates 4% to a trust in a particular month.

He spends ₹3,038 on these two heads.

Calculation:

Total amount spend is 27 % + 4% = 31%

As per the question,

Value of 31% = 3038

⇒ Value of 100% is 3038 /31 × 100 = Rs 9800

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

Wallpapers cost = ₹700

Marked Price = ₹850

Concept used:

Discount is calculated on market price.

Calculation: 

The discount amount is 850 -700 = Rs 150

The required percentage is 150 / 850 × 100 = 17.64%

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

$√{\frac{a}{b}}=\frac{8}{3}-√{\frac{b}{a}}$ and a - b = 10

Formula used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Calculation:

$√{\frac{a}{b}}=\frac{8}{3}-√{\frac{b}{a}}$

⇒ ${√\frac{a}{b} + √{\frac{b}{a}} = \frac{8}{3}}$

Squares of both sides

⇒ a/b + b/a + 2(√a/b × √b/a) = 64/9

⇒ a/b + b/a + 2 = 64/9

⇒ a² + b² / ab = 46/9

⇒ {(a - b)² + 2ab} / ab = 46/9

⇒ 100/ ab + 2 = 46 / 9

⇒ 100 /ab = 28/9

⇒ ab = 225/7 

= 32$\frac{1}{7}$

∴ The correct option is 1

Calculation:

Among the following options, the idintity is 

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2​ + 2ab

∴ The correct option is 2

Calculation:

As per the question:

The value of 22.5 % = ₹3,55,500

Again, The sum of the cost incurred towards payment of royalty and the cost of editing is 10 + 7.5 = 17.5%

So value of 17.5% = (3,55,500 / 22.5) × 17.5 = ₹2,76,500.

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

 tan θ - Cot θ = 4

Formula used:

(a+b)² = a² + 2ab +b²

Calculation:

tan2θ + cot2θ = ( tan θ - Cot θ)² + 2 tan θ Cotθ

⇒( tan θ - Cot θ)2 + 2

⇒ 4² + 2 = 18

Given:

The compound interest on ₹25,000 for 3 years at 10% per annum compounded yearly

Formula used:

In compound interest,

Amount = Principal × (1 + r / 100)n

Calculation:

As per the question,

Amount = 25000 × (1 + 10 / 100)³ 

25000 × (11/10)3

⇒ 25 × 1331

⇒ 33275

The interest amount is

⇒ 33275 - 25000 = Rs 8275

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

 ∠SUV = 44° and ∠STU = 92°

Concept Used:

The opposite angle of a rhombus is equal.

Calculation:

 ∠STU = 92° , So ∠SVU = 92° as the opposite angle is equal.

Again,

∠SUV = 44° , So ∠TSU =  44°, since the full angle is equal, so half angle will also be equal.

The degree measure of 4 ∠SVU - 3 ∠TSU

= 4 ×  92° - 3 × 44°

= 236°

∴ The correct option is 4

Calculation:

 (22 + 4)2 × (3 - 5) + 20% of 400 + x% of 30 = 30% of 30

⇒ (4 + 4)² × (-2) + 80 +  3x/10 = 9

⇒ 64 × (-2) + 80 +  3x/10 = 9

⇒ - 128 + 80 +  3x/10 = 9

⇒ 3x/10 = 9 + 128 - 80 = 57

⇒ x = 57 × 10/3 = 190

∴ x = 190

Given:

Anam and Bikash invest in a business in the ratio 3 ∶ 2. If in a particular month, Anam gets ₹3,840 as profit

Concept used:

Profit is shared as per their investment ratio

Calculation: 

If Anam gets 3x then Bikash gets 2x 

Total will be 3x + 2x = 5x

As per the question,

3x = 3840

Then 5x = 3840 × 5/3 

⇒ Rs 6400

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

 7 people working 4 hours a day can complete a task in 14 days.

Concept used:

Total work = Total number of days × total people 

Calculation:

The total work wil be 14 × 7 × 4 units 

So the required number of days,

⇒ 14 × 7 × 4 / 12 × 8 = 49/12 = 4$\frac{1}{12}$ days

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

A train 130 m long takes 6$\frac{1}{2}$ seconds to cross a man who is walking at 12 km/h in the same direction in which the train going.

Formula used:

Distance = speed ×  time

Concept used:

Relative speed for Same direction = difference of their speed given

Calculation:

The train takes 6.5 sec to cross 130 m

So Relative speed  will be 130/6.5 = 20 m/s

So Relative speed  is 20 × 18/5 = 72 km/h

The speed of the train will be  72 +12 = 84 km/h

∴ The correct option is 1

Calculation:

By putting the value of  Tan30° = 1/√3 we get

$\frac{(2,tan,A)}{(1-tan^2,A)}$

⇒ (2/√3) / (1-1/3)

⇒  (2/√3) × 3/2 = 3/√3

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

The sides of the three cubes of metal are 15 cm, 18 cm and 25 cm, respectively.

Concept used:

Volume of a cube = side³

If we melt three cubes and make a single big cube then the volume will be the same

Calculation:

As per the question,

The volume of the bigger cube is 

⇒ 15³ + 18³ + 25³ 

The side of the bigger cube is 

 3_√(153 + 183 + 253 )

= $4\sqrt[3]{388}$

  ∴ The correct option is 4

Calculation:

Total number of cars in 3 citites is,  4.5 + 3 + 3 = 10.5

Total number of Bus in 3 citites is,  2.5 + 3 + 4.5 = 10

Total number of Trucks in 3 citites is, 3.4 + 3.5 + 3.5 = 10.4

Total number of Bikes in 3 citites is, 3.2 + 3.3 + 3.4 = 9.9

The number of cars is maximum.

Calculation:

x + $\frac{2}{x}$ = 1,

x² + 2 = x

So,

$\frac{x^2+7x+2}{x^2+13x+2}$

⇒ 7x + x / 13x + x

⇒ 8x / 14x = 4/7

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

The angle between two radii of a circle is 100°

Concept used:

Sum of the four angles of a quadrilateral is  360° 

Calculation:

As per the question 

∠OPQ = ∠ORQ = 90° 

∠POR = 100° 

So ∠RQP = 360° - (90° + 90° + 100°)

⇒ 80°

∴ The correct option is 3

The correct answer is "went to sleep."

 Key Points

• The idiom "hit the sack" means to go to sleep. (सोना)
• Example: I've got to get up early tomorrow, so I'm going to hit the sack.
• It is a colloquial expression used in informal settings.
• The word "sack" refers to a bed or a sleeping bag.
• The phrase is believed to have originated from the practice of hitting a cloth sack filled with hay to make a bed.
• The correct answer is Option 2.

The correct answer is "Pessimist."

 Key Points

• A "pessimist" is a person who always expects the worst possible outcome. (निराशावादी व्‍यक्ति)
• Example: Change may not come as fast, or as brutally, as the pessimists fear.
• The word "pessimist" is a noun.
• The opposite of a pessimist is an optimist, who always expects the best possible outcome.
• The correct answer is Option 1.

 Additional Information

• Option 2: Optimist - a person who always expects the best possible outcome. (आशावादी व्यक्ति)
• Option 3: Preacher - someone who delivers religious sermons or talks. (धर्मोपदेशक)
• Option 4: Serial killer - a person who has killed multiple people over a period of time. (वह व्यक्ति जिसने समय-समय पर कई लोगों की हत्या की हो)

The correct answer is "Cacographer."

 Key Points

• "Cacographer" is a person who is bad in spellings. (वह व्यक्ति जिसकी वर्तनी ख़राब हो)
• Example: The teacher was frustrated with the cacographer's spelling errors.
• The word comes from the Greek words "kakos" meaning "bad" and "graphos" meaning "writing."
• The correct answer is Option 2.
  

Additional Information

• Cartographer: a person who draws or produces maps. (मानचित्रकार; नक्‍़शानवीस)
• Chauffeur: a person employed to drive a private car or limousine. (निजी कार या लिमोज़ीन चलाने के लिए नियोजित व्यक्ति)
• Calligrapher: a person who produces decorative handwriting or lettering with a pen or brush. (एक व्यक्ति जो पेन या ब्रश से सजावटी लिखावट या अक्षरांकन बनाता है)

The correct answer is "Miniature."

 Key Points

• "Diminutive" means much smaller than usual. (सामान्‍य से काफ़ी छोटा, नन्‍हा)
• Example: The diminutive statue was only a few inches tall.
• Synonym of Diminutive is Miniature.
• "Miniature" means a small copy of something which is much larger. (बड़े आकार की वस्‍तु का लघु रूप)
• Example: This is a miniature camera.
• The correct answer is option 1.
  

Additional Information

• Option 2: Enormous means something very large in size. (विशाल या अत्‍यधिक)
• Option 3: Propaganda means information and ideas that may be false or exaggerated, which are used to gain support for a political leader, party, etc. ((राजनीतिक नेता, दल आदि के लिए समर्थन जुटाने में प्रयुक्त) असत्‍य या अतिशयोक्तिपूर्ण जानकारी और विचार; मतप्रचार, दुष्‍प्रचार)
• Option 4: Distinguish means to recognize or differentiate between things. (दो वस्‍तुओं या व्‍यक्तियों में अंतर पहचानना)

The correct answer is "Unashamed."

 Key Points

• "Brazen" means shameless or unashamed. (निर्लज्ज, बेशर्म, लज्जाहीन)
• Example: Don’t believe a word she says—she’s a brazen liar!
• The word is used to describe the teacher's favouritism in assigning grades.
• Synonyms of brazen is Unashamed.
• "Unshamed" means not feeling sorry or embarrassed about something bad that you have done. (निर्लज्ज, बेहया (जिसे अपने बुरे काम पर न खेद हो न लज्‍जा))
• Example: Afterwards he spent five minutes with the president, of whom he is an unashamed admirer.
• The correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (Modest) means humble or unassuming. (विनम्र, विनीत (अपनी क्षमताओं आदि का बखान न करने वाला))
• Option 2 (Shy) means timid or bashful. (लोगों से मिलने और बात करने में घबराहट और बेचैनी अनुभव करने वाला; संकोची, शरमीला, झेंपू; संकोच दिखाने वाला)
• Option 4 (Ashamed) means embarrassed or guilty. (लज्जित, शर्मिंदा)

The correct answer is "with their dialectical varieties."

 Key Points

• The original sentence is grammatically incorrect because "its" refers to Lewis, which is singular, while "dialectical varieties" refers to multiple languages, which is plural.
• Option 2 corrects this error by using "their" to refer to the plural "European languages."
• "Their" is a possessive pronoun that can refer to multiple people or things.
• Using the correct pronoun helps to make the sentence clear and grammatically correct.
• The correct answer is Option 2.

Correct sentence: Lewis can handle many of the European languages with their dialectical varieties fluently.

The correct answer is "obsolete."

Key Points

• "Defunct" means no longer existing or in use. (जो न अस्तित्व में हो और न प्रयोग में; अप्रचलित)
• Example: I think this TV is defunct.
• Synonym of "defunct" is "obsolete."
• "Obsolete" means no longer in use or outdated. (प्रयोग की दृष्टि से पुरानी पड़ चुकी (क्‍योंकि उसका स्‍थान नई वस्‍तु ने ले लिया है); प्रयोगबाह्य, अब अप्रचलित, अव्‍यवहृत)
• Example: Typewriters have been rendered obsolete by computers.
• The sentence implies that the organization is no longer functional and the building is in ruins.
• The correct answer is Option 1.
  

Additional Information

• Option 2 (ancient) means belonging to the very distant past. (प्राचीन, पुरातन, हज़ारों वर्ष पुराना)
• Option 3 (contemporary) means belonging to the present time. (समकालीन, समकालिक)
• Option 4 (prominent) means important or famous. (महत्वपूर्ण या प्रसिद्घ)

The correct answer is "finish the marathon in record time."

 Key Points

• "Finish the marathon in record time" means completing the marathon in a very good time.
• The original sentence is grammatically correct, but Option 1 is a more concise way of expressing the same idea.
• The correct preposition to use with "record time" is "in."
• "In record time" means very quickly. (बहुत जल्दी)
• Example: She won the race in record time.
• The correct answer is Option 1.
  

Correct sentence: Despite having a broken leg, Sarah managed to finish the marathon in record time.

The correct answer is "He killed his wife."

Key Points 

• The given sentence is in Passive Voice. It is in Simple Past Tense.
• As per the given question, we must change it to Active Voice.
• The structure of the given sentence is as follows:
• Subject + V2 + Object. (Active Voice)
• Subject (objective case)+ was/were + V3 + Object (subjective case). (Passive Voice)
• Example:
• Their cousin showed them some rare photographs. (Active Voice)
• They were shown some rare photographs by their cousin. (Passive Voice)
• In the passive voice, the action "killing" is performed by the doer "him."
• "He" is the subject and "his wife" is the object in the active voice.
• The correct answer is Option 3.
  

Correct sentence: He killed his wife.

The correct answer is "Kin."

 Key Points

• "Kin" is a one-word substitute for the group of words 'One's relatives or family, related'.
• It is a noun and can be used to refer to one's family or relatives. (किसी का परिवार या रिश्तेदार)
• Example: He invited all his kin to the wedding.
• The correct answer is Option 3.

 Additional Information

• Option 1 - Kilt: A traditional Scottish garment worn by men. (पुरुषों द्वारा पहना जाने वाला एक पारंपरिक स्कॉटिश परिधान)
• Option 2 - Kindle: To start a fire or ignite something; also a brand of e-readers. (आग लगाना या कुछ जलाना; ई-रीडर्स का एक ब्रांड भी)
• Option 4 - Kine: An archaic term for cows or cattle. (गायों या मवेशियों के लिए एक पुरातन शब्द)

The correct answer is "as clever as."

 Key Points

• The phrase "as clever as" is a comparative form that indicates the same level of cleverness between two people or things.
• The original sentence is incorrect because "cleverest" is a superlative form, which means it indicates the highest degree of cleverness.
• The correct form to use in this sentence is "as clever as" because it compares the cleverness of two people.
• The correct answer is Option 1.
  

Correct sentence: She is not as clever as John.

Additional Information

• Option 2, "clever", is not a comparative form and does not indicate any comparison between two people or things.
• Option 3, "cleverest", is a superlative form and indicates the highest degree of cleverness, which is not appropriate for this sentence.
• Option 4, "cleverer by", is a comparative form but is not grammatically correct without specifying what the comparison is to.