SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 03 Aug, 2023 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

 

 

 

 

 

Given expression: 'C # D + E # G + L'

C is the wife of D, D is the father of E, E is the wife of G and G is the father of L.

Here, E is the mother of L.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Given:

If the 20th day of the month falls on the 4th day before Monday, means on 24th of the month is Monday.

A day will repeat itself after seven days, which means the 17th, 10th and 3rd of the month is Monday.

If the 3rd of the month is Monday then the 1st of the month is Saturday.

Here, the first day of the month is Saturday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: Subtraction of 2 and 1 from the positional value of the first and second letters.

Checking the given options:

1. XVU →

2. TQP →

3. CAZ →

4. KIH →

Here, 'TQP' is different from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given:

6, 24, 54, 96, 150,?

The logic followed in the given series:

Here, '216' is the missing number.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Logic: Second no. = [(First no.)² + (First no.)]

Checking all the given options:

(1) 7 - 56

⇒ [(7)² + 7]

⇒ (49 + 7) = 56

(2) 9 - 90

⇒ [(9)2 + 9]

⇒ (81 + 9) = 90

(3) 4 - 20

⇒ [(4)2 + 4]

⇒ (16 + 4) = 20

(4) 6 - 48

⇒ [(6)2 + (6 × 2)]

⇒ (36 + 12) = 48

Here, '6 - 48' is different from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Statements:

Some Chips are Potatoes.

All Potatoes are Fries.

All Fries are Snacks.

The Venn diagram as per the given statements:

Conclusions:

(i) All Potatoes are Snacks. → Follow (Because all potatoes are fries and all fries are snacks, which means all potatoes are snacks is definitely true)

(II) Some Snacks are Chips. → Follow (Because some chips are potatoes, all potatoes are fries and all fries are snacks, which means some snacks are chips is definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow".

Given:

31, 97, ?, 259, 355, 461

The logic followed in the given series is:

Here, the missing term is '173'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: Addition of 5, 4, 3 and 2 into the positional value of the first, second, third and fourth letter.

'LJNR' is related to 'QNQT' →

'JHLP' is related to 'OLOR' →

Similarly, 'FDHL' will be written as:

Here, 'FDHL' is related to 'KHKN'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given:

'PRINT' is coded as '38724' and 'NITRO' is coded as '23687'.

Here, I, N, R and T are common, which means the code for the alphabet P is 4 and the code for the alphabet O is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The given figure when unfolded is as follows:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

The number of triangles in the given figure is:

Here, the number of triangles is '24'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

 

 

 

 

 

Given expression: 'Q × C + R ÷ G - L'

Q is the husband of C, C is the mother of R, R is the sister of G and G is the father of L.

Here, Q is the father's father of L.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: Addition of 4 to the positional value of each letter.

'BRING' is coded as 'FVMRK' →

'LOVE' is coded as 'PSZI' →

Similarly, 'SOLDIER' will be coded as:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Given:

DRH, YOG, TLF, OIE, ?

Logic: Subtraction of 5, 3 and 1 from the positional value of the first, second and third letters.

Here, the next term is 'JFD'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

⇒ 19 - 39 × 3 + 25 ÷ 5 = 131

(1) + and ÷

⇒ 19 - 39 × 3 + 25 ÷ 5 = 131

After changing the signs:

⇒ 19 - 39 × 3 ÷ 25 + 5

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 19 - 39 × 0.12 + 5

⇒ 19 - 4.68 + 5

⇒ 24 - 4.68 = 19.32

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(2) ÷ and ×

⇒ 19 - 39 × 3 + 25 ÷ 5 = 131

After changing the signs:

⇒ 19 - 39 ÷ 3 + 25 × 5

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 19 - 13 + 25 × 5

⇒ 19 - 13 + 125

⇒ 144 - 13 = 131

⇒ '19 - 39 ÷ 3 + 25 × 5 = 131'

Here, the equation is satisfied.

(3) - and ÷

⇒ 19 - 39 × 3 + 25 ÷ 5 = 131

After changing the signs:

⇒ 19 ÷ 39 × 3 + 25 - 5

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 0.484 × 3 + 25 - 5

⇒ 1.461 + 25 - 5

⇒ 26.461 - 5 = 21.461

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(4) + and ×

⇒ 19 - 39 × 3 + 25 ÷ 5 = 131

After changing the signs:

⇒ 19 - 39 + 3 × 25 ÷ 5

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 19 - 39 + 3 × 5

⇒ 19 - 39 + 15

⇒ 34 - 39 = (-5)

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Logic: Second no. = [(First no. - 1) × 6]

Checking all the given options:

(1) 16 : 90 →

⇒ [(16 - 1) × 6]

⇒ (15 × 6) = 90

(2) 41 : 240 →

⇒ [(41 - 1) × 6]

⇒ (40 × 6) = 240

(3) 21 : 120 →

⇒ [(21 - 1) × 6]

⇒ (20 × 6) = 120

(4) 32 : 201 →

⇒ [{(32 + 1) × 6} + 3]

⇒ [(33 × 6) + 3]

⇒ (198 + 3) = 201

Here, '32 : 201' is different from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: '5' is added to the positional value of each alphabet.

JKGI is related to OPLN →

QRNP is related to VWSU →

Similarly, NOKM will be written as:

Here, 'NOKM' is related to 'STPR'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Logic: First no. = [(Second no. × 5) - 25]

Given:

(125, 30) →

⇒ [(30 × 5) - 25]

⇒ (150 - 25) = 125

(615, 128) →

⇒ [(128 × 5) - 25]

⇒ (640 - 25) = 615

Checking all the given options:

1. (165, 28) →

⇒ [(28 × 5) - 25]

⇒ (140 - 25) =115

2. (425, 92) →

⇒ [(92 × 5) - 25]

⇒ (460 - 25) = 435

3. (335, 73) →

⇒ [(73 × 5) - 25]

⇒ (365 - 25) = 340

4. (225, 50) →

⇒ [(50 × 5) - 25]

⇒ (250 - 25) = 225

Here, (225, 50) is similar to the given number pairs.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Logic: Second no. = [(First no.)² - (Third no.)²]

Given:

9 : 32 : 7 →

⇒ [(9)² - (7)²]

⇒ (81 - 49) = 32

11 : 96 : 5 →

⇒ [(11)2 - (5)2]

⇒ (121 - 25) = 96

Checking all the given options:

(1) 8 : 38 : 5 →

⇒ [(8)2 - (5)2]

⇒ (64 - 25) = 39

(2) 6 : 27 : 3 →

⇒ [(6)2 - (3)2]

⇒ (36 - 9) = 27

(3) 7 : 30 : 4 →

⇒ [(7)2 - (4)2]

⇒ (49 - 16) = 33

(4) 12 : 110 : 6 →

⇒ [(12)2 - (6)2]

⇒ (144 - 36) = 108

Here, '6 : 27 : 3' is similar to the given sets of the numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Given:

JHF, MKI, PNL, ?, VTR

Logic: '3' is added to the positional value of each alphabet.

Here, the missing term is 'SQO'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: Addition of 3 to the positional value of the first and second alphabet and 5 is subtracted from the number.

WF 18 is related to ZI 13 →

NT 16 is related to QW 11 →

Similarly, SL 19 will be written as:

Here, 'SL 19' is related to 'VO 14'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Given:

21 January 2022 → Friday

As per the given information:

⇒ (380 ÷ 7) = 54 weeks + 2 days

⇒ 2 days after Friday = Sunday

Here, on Sunday the puppy will become an adult.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

31 B 5 D 12 C 56 A 14 = ?

As per the given information:

After putting the sign as per the table:

⇒ 31 × 5 - 12 + 56 ÷ 14

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 31 × 5 - 12 + 4

⇒  155 - 12 + 4

⇒ 159 - 12 = 147

⇒ '31 × 5 - 12 + 56 ÷ 14 = 147'

Here, the value of the equation is "147".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

The shapes shown below are added alternatively.

From Figure (1) to (2):

From Figure (2) to (3):

From Figure (3) to (4):

From Figure (4) to Answer Figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The correct answer is Dodecane.

 Key Points

• Dodecane is a straight-chain alkane containing 12 carbon atoms.
• It is used as a major component in kerosene and some jet fuel research.
• Dodecane is also used in the rubber and paper processing industry.
• The molecular formula of dodecane is C₁₂H₂₆.

 

Additional Information

• Undecane is a straight-chain alkane containing 11 carbon atoms. It is used as a fuel additive and solvent.
• Eicosane is a straight-chain alkane containing 20 carbon atoms. It is used as a lubricant, in cosmetics, and as a fuel additive.
• Heptadecane is a straight-chain alkane containing 17 carbon atoms. It is used as a solvent, fuel, and lubricant
• Hydrocarbons:​Compounds made of carbon and hydrogen atoms only, are called hydrocarbons. The natural source of hydrocarbons is petroleum.

1. Saturated hydrocarbons: The hydrocarbons in which carbon atoms are singly bonded are called saturated hydrocarbons

• Saturated hydrocarbons are also called alkanes or paraffin.
• The general formula of alkane– CnH2n+2

2. ​Unsaturated hydrocarbons: The hydrocarbons in which carbon atoms are either doubly or triply bonded are called unsaturated hydrocarbons.

• Doubly bonded (carbon atoms) hydrocarbons are called alkenes.
• The general formula of alkene is C_nH_2n.

The correct answer is Cotton.

Key Points

• Kharif season in India is the monsoon season that starts in June and lasts till September. During this season, crops that require a lot of water are grown.
• Cotton is a major Kharif crop in India, and it is also one of the most important cash crops. It requires a lot of water and warm weather to grow.

Kharif Season:

• Kharif crops also are known as monsoon crops as they are cultivated in the monsoon season.
• Their cropping season starts in June and ends in October.
• These crops are sown at the beginning of the rainy season.
• Rice, maize, bajra, ragi, sorghum, soybean, groundnut, cotton, etc. are all Kharif types of crops.

Additional Information

• Mustard is a Rabi crop that is usually grown during the winter season. It requires cool weather to grow and is usually harvested in the spring.
• Wheat is also a Rabi crop that is grown during the winter season. It is one of the most important staple crops in India and is used to make various food items like bread, pasta, etc.

Rabi crops:

• Rabi crops or rabi harvest are agricultural crops that are sown in winter and harvested in the spring in India.
• Some example of Rabi crops is wheat, barley, gram, peas, mustard, and linseed.
• States from the north and northwestern parts such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand, and Uttar Pradesh are important for the production of wheat and other rabi crops.
• The availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones helps in the success of these crops.

Zaid Season:

• It is a short season between the Kharif and Rabi seasons.
• The crops grown during this season are known as Zaid crops.
• Pumpkin, cucumber, watermelon, bitter gourd, etc. are all zaid types of crops.

The correct answer is Bombay.

Key Points

• All India Congress Committee (AICC) is the highest decision-making body of the Indian National Congress.
• The Quit India Movement was a civil disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942, demanding an end to British rule in India.

Quit India Movement:

• On 8^th August 1942, Mahatma Gandhi gave a clarion call to end British rule and launched the Quit India Movement at the session of the All-India Congress Committee in Mumbai.
• The 'Quit India’ resolution was moved in the Bombay Session of the Congress in the year 1942 by Jawaharlal Nehru.
• Gandhiji gave the call “Do or Die” in his speech delivered at the Gowalia Tank Maidan, now popularly known as August Kranti Maidan.
• Aruna Asaf Ali popularly known as the 'Grand Old Lady' of the Independence Movement is known for hoisting the Indian flag at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Mumbai during the Quit India Movement.
• The slogan ‘Quit India’ was coined by Yusuf Meherally, a socialist and trade unionist who also served as Mayor of Mumbai.
• Meherally harbored also coined the slogan “Simon Go Back”.

Additional Information

• Calcutta: The AICC session held in Calcutta in 1928 was significant for the adoption of the Nehru Report, which proposed a dominion status for India within the British Empire.
• Delhi: The AICC session held in Delhi in 1918 was significant for the adoption of the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, which introduced limited self-government in India.
• Madras: The AICC session held in Madras in 1927 was significant for the adoption of the resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy, which called for the protection of civil liberties and the promotion of economic development.
• Bombay: The AICC session held in Bombay in 1942 was significant for the adoption of the Quit India Resolution, which called for the immediate withdrawal of British rule from India.

The correct answer is Chittor.

Key Points

• Jaimal and Patta were two Rajput warriors who were given the charge of defending the fort of Chittor against the Mughal emperor Akbar's army in 1567.
• Chittor is a city in the state of Rajasthan, India, and is famous for its massive Chittorgarh Fort, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The fort of Chittor has a rich history, and it has witnessed many battles and sieges over the centuries. It was also the capital of the Sisodia dynasty of Mewar.
• Raisen is a city in the state of Madhya Pradesh, India, and it has a fort built by the Rajputs. However, there is no record of Jaimal and Patta defending this fort.
• Ajmer is a city in the state of Rajasthan, India, and it has a fort called the Taragarh Fort. Again, there is no record of Jaimal and Patta defending this fort.
• Udaipur is a city in the state of Rajasthan, India, and it has a famous palace called the City Palace. However, it is not a fort, and there is no record of Jaimal and Patta defending it.

Additional Information

• 1303: First Jauhar of Chittorgarh
• In 1303, Alauddin Khilji laid siege to Chittor.
• In the following battle, Rana Ratan Singh of Chittor died fighting & Rani Padmini committed Jauhar.
• The event is remembered as the First Jauhar of Chittor.
• Years later in 1540, Malik Mohd. Jayasi wrote Padmavat on this Jauhar.
• 1535: Second Jauhar of Chittor
• In 1535, Bahadur Shah of Gujarat laid siege to Chittorgarh.
• This invasion of Chittor resulted in the Second Jauhar & Saka in the history of Chittor and followed a series of battles that led to the overthrow of the Gujarat Sultanate.
• 1567: Third Jauhar of Chittorgarh
• In 1567, extending his campaign against Rajputana, Akbar laid siege to the fort of Chittorgarh.
• Through their valor & sacrifice in defense of the fort, Jaimal & Patta became synonymous with the house of Mewar
  

and Chittor.

• The battle witnessed the third Jauhar of Chittorgarh & the massacre that Abkar ordered after the victory.

The correct answer is A low-pressure zone located at the equator.

Key Points

• The Intertropical Convergence Zone:
• The Intertropical Convergence Zone, or ITCZ, is the belt of low pressure that circles the Earth, near the equator.
• Here the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres come together.
• The intense sun and warm water of the equator heat the air in the ITCZ, raising its humidity and making it buoyant.
• Aided by the convergence of the trade winds, the buoyant air rises.
• As the air rises it expands and cools, releasing the accumulated moisture in an almost perpetual series of thunderstorms.
• Seasonal shifts in the location of the ITCZ drastically affect rainfall in many equatorial nations, resulting in the wet and dry seasons of the tropics rather than the cold and warm seasons of higher latitudes.
• Longer-term changes in the ITCZ can result in severe droughts or flooding in nearby areas.
• The position of the ITCZ varies with the seasons, lags behind the sun's relative position above the Earth's surface by about 1 to 2 months, and correlates generally to the thermal equator.
• Since water has a higher heat capacity than land, the ITCZ propagates poleward more prominently over land than over water, and over the Northern Hemisphere than over the Southern Hemisphere.
• In July and August, over the Atlantic and Pacific, the ITCZ is between 5 and 15 degrees north of the Equator, but further north over the landmasses of Africa and Asia.
• In eastern Asia, the ITCZ may propagate up to 30 degrees north of the Equator.
• In January, over the Atlantic, the ITCZ generally sits no further south than the Equator but extends much further south over South America, Southern Africa, and Australia.

Additional Information

• Polar region:
• The polar region is an area around the North Pole or the South Pole.
• The northern polar region consists mainly of floating and pack ice, 7–10 feet (2–3 m) thick, floating on the Arctic Ocean and surrounded by landmasses.
• The ice cap of the southern polar region averages 6,700 feet (about 2,000 m) in thickness, is underlaid by the continental landmass of Antarctica, and is surrounded by oceans.
• The North Pole was discovered in 1909 by Robert Peary and the South Pole in 1911 by Roald Amundsen.
• Equatorial region:
• The equator is a circle of latitude, about 40,075 km (24,901 mi) in circumference, that divides the Earth into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
• It is a line located at 0 degrees latitude, halfway between the North and South Poles.
• Temperate Zone:
• The Temperate Zone is a part of the earth's surface lying between the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle in the Northern Hemisphere or between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic Circle in the Southern Hemisphere.
• It is characterized by having a climate that is warm in the summer, cold in the winter, and moderate in the spring and fall.

The correct answer is Savitha Shri.

Key Points

• Harika Dronavalli is a renowned Indian chess player who has won many national and international titles in her career.
• Savitha Shris is a known chess player and she has won the Bronze medal at the FIDE World Rapid and Blitz Championship 2022
• Koneru Hamp is also a well-known Indian chess player who has won many titles, but she did not win a medal at the FIDE World Rapid and Blitz Championship 2022.
• Tania Sachdev is also a well-known Indian chess player who has won many titles, but she did not win a medal at the FIDE World Rapid and Blitz Championship 2022.
• The FIDE World Rapid and Blitz Championship is a prestigious international chess tournament that is held annually. The 2022 edition was held in Warsaw, Poland, from December 26-30, 2022.
• Harika Dronavalli won the bronze medal in the Women's Rapid event, which was a remarkable achievement for her and India. She scored 8 points out of 12 rounds and finished behind Anna Muzychuk of Ukraine and Kateryna Lagno of Russia, who won gold and silver, respectively.
• In the Women's Blitz event, Harika Dronavalli finished in 15th place with 12 points out of 18 rounds, while Humpy Koneru finished at 26th place with 11 points. However, none of them won a medal in the Blitz event.
• Overall, Harika Dronavalli's performance at the FIDE World Rapid and Blitz Championship 2022 was impressive, and she made India proud with her achievement.

Additional Information

• Viswanathan Anand is a former world chess champion and Indian chess grandmaster.
• In 1988, he became India's first grandmaster and is one of the few players to have crossed an Elo rating of 2800, a feat he first accomplished in 2006.
• Anand is a five-time champion of world chess.
• In a six-game series, he beat Alexei Shirov to win the 2000 FIDE World Chess Championship, a title which he retained until 2002.
• The 2015 FIDE World Rapid Championship was held in the Bolle Meierei Ballroom in Berlin, Germany, from 10 to 12 October, with the participation of 130 GMs, including defending champion Magnus Carlsen, for the 15-round Swiss Open (for players ranked >2500).

The correct answer is Khayyam.

Key Points

• Khayyam is a famous music director.
• A cash reward of Rs. 100000 and a souvenir are included with the Hridaynath award for lifetime achievement.
• The recipient of the 2018 Hridaynath Award for Lifetime Achievement is Mohammed Zahur Khayyam Hashmi.
• The prize was created in 2011 by the Hridayesh Art organization to honor the composer and performer Hridaynath Mangeshkar.
• He is the son of Deenanath Mangeshkar and the younger brother of Lata Mangeshkar and Asha Bhosle.

Additional Information

• Sameer was a famous lyricist who wrote songs for numerous Bollywood films.
• Anjaan was a popular lyricist and screenwriter in the Indian film industry.
• Kaifi Azmi was a renowned poet, lyricist, and songwriter in the Indian film industry.
• It is essential to note that music directors are responsible for composing and arranging music for films, while lyricists write the words (lyrics) for the songs.

The correct answer is the Battle of Buxar.

Key Points

• The Battle of Buxar was fought in 1764.
• The Battle of Buxar (1764) was the battle which was fought between English Forces, and a combined army of Mir Qasim.
• The battle was the outcome of the misuse of Farman and Dastak, and also the trade expansionist aspiration of the English, Mir Qasim, the Nawab of Bengal, the Nawab of Oudh Shah Alam II, and the Mughal Emperor.
• The battle of Buxar proved itself to be a turning point in the history of India.
• In 1765, Shuja-ud-daulah and Shah Alam signed a treaty at Allahabad with Clive who had become the Governor of the company.
• Under these treaties, the English company secured the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha, which gave the company the right to collect revenue from these territories.

Additional Information

• Battle of Kirkee: This battle was fought between the British East India Company and the Maratha Empire in 1817. Mir Qasim was not involved in this battle as he had died more than 50 years earlier.
• Battle of Plassey: The Battle of Plassey was on June 23, 1757, on the banks of the Hooghly River in Bengal, India. It marked a decisive victory for the British East India Company, led by Robert Clive, over the forces of Siraj-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Bengal, and his French allies.
• Battle of Lahore: This battle was fought in 1849 between the British East India Company and the Sikh Empire. Mir Qasim was not involved in this battle as he had died more than 30 years earlier.

The correct answer is  Korfball.

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Key Points

• Korfball is a ball sport that was invented in the Netherlands in the early 20^th century.
• It is the only sport specifically designed to be played by participants of both genders simultaneously.
• Korfball is similar to basketball and netball in that it is a team sport played on a court with two baskets or goals, but it has some unique rules that make it inclusive for both male and female players.
• In Korfball, teams consist of four male and four female players who take turns attacking and defending the baskets.
• The sport is played in over 50 countries worldwide and is recognized by the International Olympic Committee.

Additional Information

• Netball is a ball sport played between two teams of seven players. It is primarily played by women and is similar to basketball but with some different rules and a different court layout.
• Quidditch is a fictional sport from the Harry Potter series, which has been adapted for real-life play, primarily by university and college teams. It is played by two teams of seven players, with each player riding a broomstick.
• Basketball is a ball sport played between two teams of five players. It is a popular sport worldwide and is played at both amateur and professional levels. It is primarily played by men, but there are also women's leagues.

The correct answer is Myanmar.

Key Points

• Myanmar is NOT a member of SAARC. The other seven member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, and Pakistan.
• Myanmar is located in Southeast Asia and is not considered part of South Asia.
• SAARC stands for South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.
• Its members are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
• The SAARC was founded in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.

Trick: MBBS PAIN

M - Maldives, B - Bhutan, B - Bangladesh, S - Sri Lanka, P - Pakistan, A - Afghanistan, I - India, N - Nepal

Important Points

About SAARC:

• Headquarters - Kathmandu.
• Official Language - English.
• Founded by - Abul Ahsan (Bangladeshi Diplomat)

Additional Information

Importance of SAARC:

• SAARC comprises 3% of the world’s area, 21% of the world’s population, and 3.8% (US$2.9 trillion) of the global economy.
• It is the world’s most densely populated region and one of the most fertile areas.
• SAARC countries have common traditions, dress, food culture, and political aspects thereby synergizing their actions.
• All the SAARC countries have common problems and issues like poverty, illiteracy, malnutrition, natural disasters, internal conflicts, industrial and technological backwardness, low GDP, and poor socio-economic conditions.

The correct answer is Tapi.

Key Points

• Tapi, also known as the Tapti River, is one of the most important rivers of peninsular India.
• It originates in the Satpura Range of Madhya Pradesh and flows through Maharashtra and Gujarat before draining into the Arabian Sea.
• The river has a total length of about 724 km, making it one of the longest rivers in peninsular India.
• The Tapi River is an important source of water for irrigation, hydropower generation, and drinking water supply for the people living in the region.
• The river is also known for its scenic beauty and is a popular tourist destination. The Tapi Riverfront project in Surat, Gujarat, has been developed as a recreational and entertainment hub for the local residents and tourists.

Important Points

• Satpura range arises parallel to Narmada and Tapi and is a source of both rivers.
• It is one of the major rivers of peninsular India with a length of around 724 km.
• Tapti River, a river in central India, rises in the Gawilgarh Hills of the central Deccan plateau in south-central Madhya Pradesh state.
• It flows westward between two spurs of the Satpura Range, across the Jalgaon plateau region in Maharashtra state, and through the plain of Surat in Gujarat state to the Gulf of Khambhat.

Additional Information

• Beas: The Beas River is a major river in northern India, flowing through the states of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab. It is a tributary of the Indus River and has a total length of about 470 km. The river is an important source of water for irrigation and hydropower generation.
• Palar: The Palar River is a major river in southern India, flowing through the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. It has a total length of about 348 km and is an important source of water for irrigation and drinking water supply for the people living in the region.
• Bhavani: The Bhavani River is a major river in southern India, flowing through the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. It has a total length of about 217 km and is an important source of water for irrigation and drinking water supply for the people living in the region.

The answer is the National Rail and Transportation Institute.

Key Points

• The Central Universities (Amendment) Bill 2022 proposed to convert an existing central university into Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya, which will focus on transportation and infrastructure studies.
• The key word in the question is "Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya," which translates to "University of Transportation and Infrastructure."
• The Central Universities (Amendment) Bill, 2022 was passed in Lok Sabha in August.
• The Central Universities (Amendment) Bill, 2022 was introduced in Lok Sabha on August 1, 2022.
• The Bill amends the Central Universities Act, of 2009, which provides for establishing central universities in various states.

Additional Information

• National Infrastructure and Industrial Institute - This option is not correct as it does not focus specifically on transportation studies.
• National Energy and Environment Institute - This option is not correct as it does not focus specifically on transportation studies.
• National Transport and Infrastructure Institute - This option is similar to the correct option, but the exact name mentioned in the proposed bill is National Rail and Transportation Institute.

The correct answer is Increase by 100%.

Key Points

• A fiscal deficit is the difference between the government's total expenditures and its total revenue.
• The primary deficit is the fiscal deficit excluding interest payments.
• If both primary deficit and interest payments are doubled, the fiscal deficit will increase by 100%.
• This is because the primary deficit will increase by 100% and interest payments will also increase by 100%, leading to a total increase of 100% in the fiscal deficit.

Additional Information

Primary deficit:

• Primary deficit is referred to as the difference that exists between the fiscal deficit of the current year and the interest payment that was needed to be paid in the previous fiscal year.
• It is one of the three important measures of determining the government deficit.
• It shows the requirement of borrowing from the government and excludes any kind of interest.
• It also highlights the number of government expenses that need to be met through borrowing other than the interest payment.
• While fiscal deficit deals with the government’s total borrowings including the interest payment, primary deficit deals with the government’s borrowings excluding the interest payments.
• Generally, when a loan is raised by the government it includes the interest payment amount also.
• This amount when subtracted from the principal loan amount indicates the primary deficit.
• Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest payments
• Fiscal deficit = (Total expenditure – Total income of the government)
• Interest payments refer to the previous year’s pending payments.

The correct answer is zero

Key Points

• The income velocity of money is a measure of the frequency at which the average unit of currency is used for transactions in a given time period.
• When money is hoarded (idle), it is not being used for transactions.
• Hence, the income velocity of hoarded money is zero because it does not circulate in the economy.

Additional Information

• The concept of money velocity is central to the quantity theory of money, which relates the money supply to the price level and the economy's output.
• A higher velocity of money indicates that each unit of currency is used more frequently to purchase goods and services within a given period.
• Conversely, a lower velocity can indicate economic stagnation or a preference for holding cash rather than spending.

The correct answer is Thomas Andrews.

Key Points

• Thomas Andrews was an Irish chemist who made significant contributions to the study of gases.
• In the 1860s, Andrews conducted a series of experiments on carbon dioxide gas and discovered the critical temperature and pressure of the gas.
• He also formulated the concept of the critical point, which is the temperature and pressure at which a gas and liquid are indistinguishable.
• Andrews' work on the gas laws of carbon dioxide was an important step towards understanding the behavior of gases in general.

Additional Information

• Giulio Natta was an Italian chemist who won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1963 for his work on high polymers.
• John Dalton was an English chemist who developed the atomic theory of matter and made important contributions to the study of gases.
• Marguerite Perey was a French physicist who discovered the element francium.

The correct answer is Flow cytometry.

Key Points

• Flow cytometry is the cell analysis technique used to rapidly analyze single cells or particles as they flow through single or multiple lasers while suspended in a buffered salt-based solution.
• This technique can analyze thousands of cells per second, making it an efficient way to study large populations of cells.
• Flow cytometry can be used to analyze various cell characteristics such as size, shape, and protein expression.
• This technique is commonly used in medical research, clinical diagnostics, and drug development.
• Mass spectroscopy is a technique used to identify the chemical composition of a substance, while electrochemical analysis involves measuring the electrical properties of a substance. Multiple displacement amplification is a technique used to amplify small amounts of DNA.

The correct answer is Tilottama Sen.

Key Points

• Tilottama Sen is an Indian shooter who has represented India in various international shooting events.
• The ISSF World Cup is a prestigious shooting tournament organized by the International Shooting Sport Federation, where shooters from different countries compete in various events.
• Tilottama Sen won a bronze medal in the women's 10m Air Rifle at ISSF World Cup Cairo in Egypt on 22 February 2023.
• She won the second bronze for India.
• Great Britain’s Seonaid Mcintosh won gold and Switzerland’s Olympic Champion Nina Christen came second to win silver.

Additional Information

• Shreyasi Singh, another option mentioned, is also an Indian shooter who has won several medals in international shooting events, including a gold medal in the women's double trap event at the 2018 Commonwealth Games.
• Sift Kaur Samra and Nivetha Paramanantham, the other two options mentioned, are also shooters who have represented their respective countries in international shooting events.

Important Points 

The correct answer is Manipur.

Key Points

• Lui Ngai Ni is a festival that is celebrated in the state of Manipur.
• Lui Ngai Ni is a seed-sowing festival celebrated by the Naga tribes of Manipur.
• It marks the beginning of the new agricultural season and is usually observed in February.
• The festival is characterized by traditional songs, dances, and rituals performed by the Naga communities. It is a time for rejoicing and thanking the gods for a bountiful harvest.
• The festival is also an occasion for the Naga tribes to showcase their rich cultural heritage and traditional attire.
• Tourists from all over the world visit Manipur during this time to witness the celebrations.
• Manipur is a state located in Northeast India, bordering Nagaland, Mizoram, and Assam. It is known for its scenic beauty, rich history, and diverse culture.

Additional Information

• Uttar Pradesh: Uttar Pradesh is a state in North India known for its rich cultural heritage and historical monuments. Some of the popular festivals celebrated in the state include Diwali, Holi, Eid, and Dussehra. However, Lui Ngai Ni is not celebrated in Uttar Pradesh.
• Uttarakhand: Uttarakhand is a state located in North India known for its scenic beauty and pilgrimage sites. Some of the popular festivals celebrated in the state include Kumbh Mela, Ganga Dussehra, and Bikhauti Mela. However, Lui Ngai Ni is not celebrated in Uttarakhand.
• Himachal Pradesh: Himachal Pradesh is a state located in North India known for its scenic beauty and adventure tourism. Some of the popular festivals celebrated in the state include Diwali, Holi, and Baisakhi. However, Lui Ngai Ni is not celebrated in Himachal Pradesh.

The correct answer is Kalbelia.

Key Points

• Padma Shri awardee, Gulabo Sapera is a Kalbelia dancer of Rajasthan.
• The Kalbelia are a tribe of snake charmers located in the Thar Desert in Rajasthan.
• Both men and women can perform the Kalbelia dance, which is an essential component of their culture.
• The Kalbelia dance is also known as the "Sapera Dance" and "Snake Charmer Dance".
• Beginning in 2010, Rajasthan's Kalbelia dance and songs were added to UNESCO's representative list of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
• At the Kalbelia dance, men play a variety of traditional instruments as women dance.

Important Points

Dance of Kalbelia

• Panihari Dance - Dance performed by both men and women
• Indauli Dance - Dance performed by both men and women in doubles
• Sankariya Dance - love affair The couple is based on dance.
• Bagdiya Dance - This dance performed by women only while begging.

Additional Information

The correct answer is decreasing the order of liquidity.

Key Points

• The money supply measures are used by central banks to monitor and control the amount of money in circulation in the economy.
• M1 includes the most liquid forms of money such as cash, demand deposits, and traveler's checks. It is considered a narrow measure of money supply.
• M2 includes M1 plus less liquid forms of money such as savings deposits, time deposits, and money market funds. It is considered a broader measure of money supply than M1.
• M3 includes M2 plus large time deposits, institutional money market funds, and other forms of less liquid assets. It is considered a broad measure of money supply.
• M4 includes M3 plus all other forms of deposits such as certificates of deposit and commercial paper. It is considered the broadest measure of money supply.

Additional Information

 

Important Points

• The money supply is defined as currency in circulation plus deposits in commercial banks in the most basic sense.
• The total stock of money circulating in an economy is referred to as the money supply.
• In short, there are two types of money:
• Central bank money (MO).
• Commercial bank money (M1 and M3).
• Central bank money is designated as MO in money supply data, whereas commercial bank money is separated into M1 and M3 components. Post-office deposits are also included in the M2 and M4 components.

The correct answer is non-justiciable.

Key Points

• The directive principles of State policy ( aka DPSP ) were borrowed from Ireland in 1937. However, the idea of DPSP originated in Spain.
• DPSP are an integral part of the Indian constitution and is listed in Part IV, articles 36 - 51.
• DPSP are non-justiciable in nature.
• The Sapru committee in 1945 suggested the two categories of individual rights i.e.
• Justiciable and non-justiciable rights.
• The instrument and instructions from the GOI Act 1935 were taken as DPSP in the constitution.

Additional Information

• Fundamental duties: fundamental duties are borrowed from the USSR whereas the very concept of fundamental duties comes from Japan.
• Fundamental rights: they were borrowed from the USA.
• US constitution: fundamental rights, independence of the judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the president, removal of the supreme court and high court, the post of vice president.
• Canadian constitution: federation with a strong centre, vesting of residuary powers in the centre appointment of state government by the centre, advisory jurisdiction of the supreme court.
• USSR constitution: fundamental duties, the ideals of justice (social, economic and political).

The correct answer is Eighth Five Year Plan.

Key Points

• The Eighth Five-Year Plan was scheduled to be introduced in April 1990 but it was introduced in 1992.
• At that time, the country was going through a severe economic crisis.
• The government launched India's free-market reforms that brought the nearly bankrupt nation back from the edge.
• It was the beginning of liberalization, privatization, and globalization (LPG) in India.
• Major Objectives were
• Creation of employment,
• check population growth, and overall human development.
• Primary health facilities, Drinking Water, and vaccination in all villages
• Growth and diversification of agricultural activities
• Strengthen the basic Infrastructure.
• The target growth rate was 5.6% and the actual growth rate was 6.8%.

Additional Information

9^th Five-Year Plan

• ​It was introduced in 1997.
• It saw contributions towards development from the general public as well as governmental agencies in both the rural and urban areas of the country.
• The 9th Five-Year Plan achieved a GDP growth rate of 5.4% against a target of 6.5%

10^th Five-Year Plan

• It was introduced in 2002.
• ​The Target growth was 8.1% and the growth achieved was 7.7%.

11^th Five-Year Plan

• ​It aimed to increase the enrolment in higher education for the 18–23 years of age group by 2011–12.
• Hence, the 8th five-year plan (FYP) is known for introducing various fiscal and economic reforms including liberalization.

The correct answer is smaller.

Key Points

• Smaller - When taxes are reduced, people have more disposable income to spend which leads to an increase in consumption and hence, an increase in aggregate demand. However, the multiplier effect of this increase in demand is smaller than the multiplier effect of an increase in government spending because some of the tax savings may be saved or used to pay off debt rather than spent immediately.
• Higher - An increase in government spending directly increases aggregate demand as it leads to an increase in government purchases, which in turn leads to an increase in the income of the suppliers. This increase in income leads to an increase in consumption, which again leads to an increase in demand. Thus, the multiplier effect of government spending is higher than the multiplier effect of tax reduction.
• Equivalent The multiplier effect of tax reduction is smaller than the multiplier effect of government spending.

Additional Information

• The multiplier effect refers to the increase in national income that results from an increase in government spending or a reduction in taxes. It is the ratio of the change in national income to the change in government spending or taxes.
• Tax reduction leads to an increase in disposable income, which leads to an increase in consumption. However, some of the tax savings may not be spent immediately, which reduces the multiplier effect.
• Government spending leads to an increase in demand and income, which leads to an increase in consumption and a further increase in demand. This results in a higher multiplier effect.
• The equivalent option is incorrect because tax reduction has a smaller multiplier effect than government spending.

The correct answer is They provide the necessary conditions for practicing untouchability.

Key Points

• The fundamental rights mentioned in the Indian Constitution are the basic rights that every citizen is entitled to.
• They provide necessary conditions for moral protection, as they ensure that every individual is treated with dignity and respect.
• They lay down the foundation for social justice, as they ensure that every individual is treated equally and that there is no discrimination based on caste, gender, religion, etc.
• They also provide necessary conditions for material protection, as they ensure that every individual has access to basic amenities like food, shelter, healthcare, education, etc.
• However, practicing untouchability is a violation of fundamental rights, and therefore, the statement that they provide necessary conditions for practicing untouchability is false.

 Additional Information

• The fundamental rights do provide necessary conditions for moral protection, as they ensure that every individual is treated with dignity and respect. This is a key feature of these rights.
• The fundamental rights lay down the foundation for social justice, as they ensure that every individual is treated equally and that there is no discrimination based on caste, gender, religion, etc. This is also a key feature of these rights.
• The fundamental rights provide necessary conditions for material protection, as they ensure that every individual has access to basic amenities like food, shelter, healthcare, education, etc. This is another key feature of these rights.
• Practicing untouchability is a violation of fundamental rights, as it goes against the principles of equality and non-discrimination. Therefore, the statement that they provide necessary conditions for practicing untouchability is false.

The correct answer is Kathak.

Key Points

• The Sangeet Akademi Award is one of the most prestigious awards in the field of performing arts in India.
• ​ Some of the other classical dance forms in India include Odissi, Bharatanatyam, and Manipuri.
• Kumkum Dhar is a renowned Kathak dancer who has made significant contributions to the art form.
• Sangeet Natak Akademi (The National Academy of Music, Dance, and Drama in English) is the national-level academy for performing arts set up by the Government of India.
• It was set up by the Indian education ministry on 31 May 1952 and became functional the following year, with the appointment of its first chairman, Dr. P. V. Rajamannar.
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India, inaugurated it on 28 January 1953 in a special function held in the Parliament House. The academy's Fellowship and Awards are considered very prestigious.
• In India, it functions as the headquarters of performing arts.
• It presents the Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards which is the highest Indian recognition given to performing/practicing artists
• Kathak is a classical dance form that originated in northern India and is characterized by fast footwork, intricate hand gestures, and facial expressions.

Additional Information

• Odissi is a classical dance form that originated in the state of Odisha and is characterized by fluid movements and intricate footwork.
• Bharatanatyam is a classical dance form that originated in the state of Tamil Nadu and is characterized by grace, precision, and storytelling.
• Manipuri is a classical dance form that originated in the northeastern state of Manipur and is characterized by its use of intricate hand movements and graceful movements.

Important Points

• Sangeet Natak Akademi Puruskar
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi, India's National Academy of Music, Dance, and Drama, bestows the Sangeet Natak Akademi Puraskar.
• It is the highest honor bestowed to practicing artists in India.
• Prior to 2003, the prize came with a citation, a tamrapatra, an angavastram (a shawl), and Rs. 50,000.
• Since 2009, the cash prize has been increased to ₹1,00,000.
• The awards are presented in the performing arts categories of music, dance, theatre, other traditional arts, puppetry, and contribution/scholarship.

Shortcut Trick

Angles subtended by the same arc at the circumference are equal.

∴ ∠BAC = ∠BDC = 73°.

In ΔABC, the sum of internal angles is 180°.

(∠ABC + ∠ACB) = 180° − ∠BAC = 180° − 73° = 107°.

∴ The correct answer is 107°.

Alternate Method

Given:

∠BDC = 73°

Formula Used:

1. Angles in the same segment of a circle are equal.
2. Angle Sum Property: The sum of angles in a triangle is 180°.

Calculations:

⇒ According to circle theorems, the minor arc BC subtends ∠BAC and ∠BDC at the major arc circumference.

⇒ ∠BAC = ∠BDC

⇒ ∠BAC = 73°

⇒ In ΔABC, ∠ABC + ∠ACB + ∠BAC = 180°

⇒ ∠ABC + ∠ACB + 73° = 180°

⇒ ∠ABC + ∠ACB = 180° − 73°

⇒ ∠ABC + ∠ACB = 107°

∴ The correct answer is 107°.

Additional Information

Angles in the Same Segment

Angles subtended by the same chord or arc at any point on the remaining circumference are always equal.

Angle at the Centre

The angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angle subtended by it at any point on the circumference (∠BOC = 2 × ∠BAC).

Cyclic Quadrilateral

If points A, B, C, and D lie on the circumference, the sum of opposite angles is 180° (∠A + ∠C = 180°).

Angle in a Semicircle

The angle subtended by a diameter at any point on the circumference is always a right angle (90°).

Calculation:

If a number is divisble by 88 , the number should be divisible by 8 and 11 together.

As per divisibility rule of 8 the possible value of y is 2

If we put x = 0, then the number will be divisible by 11

As the divisibility rule of 11 This particular rule states that the given number can only be completely divided by 11 if the difference of the sum of digits at odd position and sum of digits at even position in a number is 0 or 11.

(Sum of odd-positioned numbers) - (Sum of even positioned numbers) = 0 or multiple of 11

By putting x = 0, and y = 2

The Sum of odd-positioned numbers = 7 + 0 + 5 + 3 + 2 = 17

The sum of even positioned numbers = 8 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 4 = 17

So, the difference is  0, which means the number is divisible by 11

The least value of x + y is 2

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

The compound ratio of 3 ∶ 4 and 6 ∶ 7 is 36 ∶ x.

Calculation:

Form the compound ration we know that,

3/4 × 6/7 = 36 / x 

⇒ 18 / 28 = 36 /x

⇒ x = 56

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

In Δ ABC, the internal bisectors of ∠ABC and ∠ACB meet at X and ∠BAC = 30°.

Formula used:

 ∠BXC = 90° + 1/2 ∠BAC

Calculation:

 ∠BXC = 90° + 1/2 ∠BAC

⇒ 90° + 1/2 × 30° = 105° 

∴ The correct option is 3

Formula used:

Total surface area of a cube = 6a²

The lateral surface area of a cube = 4a²

Calculation:

The difference will be,

⇒ 6a² - 4a² = 2a².

Vaue of 2a2. = 2 × 12 × 12 

⇒ 288  cm2

Shortcut Trick

Price after 20% discount = 1500 × 0.8 = ₹1200

Required Net Price = ₹1104

Additional discount value = 1200 − 1104 = ₹96

Additional discount % = (96 ÷ 1200) × 100 = 8%

∴ The correct answer is 8%.

Alternate Method

Given: Marked Price (MP) = ₹1500, First Discount (D₁) = 20%, Final Selling Price (SP) = ₹1104.

Formula Used: Final SP = MP × (100 − D₁)% × (100 − D₂)%

Calculations:

⇒ Price after 1^st discount = 1500 − (20% of 1500)

⇒ Price after 1^st discount = 1500 − 300 = ₹1200

⇒ Let additional discount be x%.

⇒ 1104 = 1200 × (100 − x) ÷ 100

⇒ 11.04 = 12 × (1 − x ÷ 100)

⇒ 1104 ÷ 1200 = 1 − x ÷ 100

⇒ 0.92 = 1 − x ÷ 100

⇒ x ÷ 100 = 1 − 0.92 = 0.08

⇒ x = 8%

∴ The correct answer is 8%.

Additional Information

Successive Discount Formula

If two successive discounts are a% and b%, then the single equivalent discount is (a + b − (ab ÷ 100))%.

Marked Price (MP) and Selling Price (SP)

SP = MP × (1 − d₁/100) × (1 − d₂/100) ... (1 − d_n/100), where d are discount percentages.

Discount Calculation

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP) unless otherwise stated. Discount = MP − SP.

Given:

Disha takes 12 hours to copy a 75-page manuscript.

Mohit can copy 75-page manuscript in 10 hours

Concept used:

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time.

Calculation:

The efficiency of Disha is 75 /12 = 25/4

The efficiency of Mohit is 75 /10 = 15/2

So to copy a 150-page manuscript together they will together take,

⇒150 / ( 25/4 + 15 /2)

⇒ 600 / 55 hours = $10\frac{10}{11}$ hours

 ∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

Cost price of Shobha = 5,130 rs, availing two successive discounts of 10% and 5%

Formula used:

Two successive discounts of a% and b% is equal to, a + b -  (a×b) /100

Calculation:

Two successive discounts of 10% and 5% is equal to,

A single discount of  10 + 5 - (10×5) /100 = 14.5 %

As per the question,

Value of 85.5 % = 5130

value of 100% = Rs 6000

∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

Returns 3 times the principal in 25 years . 

Formula used:

Simple interest = P × R × T / 100 [ P = principal, R = rate of interest, T = time]

Calculation:

Let,R = rate of interest 

Principal is = P

The simple interest got by the person is  3P - P = 2P

 As per the question,

⇒ 2P = P × R × 25 /100

⇒ R = 8 %

∴ The correct option is 1

Formula used:

Direct common tangent = √ (distance between the two centers2 - ( r1  - r2)2

Calculation: 

The distance between the two centers is = 48 cm

As per the formula,

Direct common tangent = √ (482 - ( 24  - 18)2.

⇒ √ (482 - 62.

⇒ 18√7

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

The radius of a circle is 3 cm and 'O' is its centre.

The length of distance = 5 cm from 'O'

Concept used:

Pythagoras concept

Calculation: 

The length will be = √(52 - 32)

⇒ √(25-9) 

⇒  √(16) 

⇒  4

∴ The correct option is 1

Calculation:

The berths in all the classes together are vacant in Trains B is 

⇒ 10 + 17+ 52 + 85 + 86 = 250

The berths in all the classes together are vacant in Trains C is 

⇒ 2 + 9+ 36+ 9 + 16 = 72

Total number of vacant berth 250 + 72 = 322

∴ The correct option is 3

Calculation:

If (a + b + c) ≠ 0,

then (a + b + c) (a2 + b2 + c2 - ab - bc - ca) is = a3 + b3 + c3 - 3abc

∴ The correct option is 3

Shortcut Trick

Upstream Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Upstream Speed = 10 ÷ (50/60) = 10 × (6/5) = 12 kmph

Speed of boat in still water = Upstream Speed + Speed of stream

Speed of boat = 12 + 3 = 15 kmph

∴ The correct answer is 15 kmph.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance traveled upstream = 10 km

Time taken = 50 minutes

Speed of the stream = 3 kmph

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Upstream Speed = Speed of boat in still water − Speed of stream

Calculations:

⇒ Time taken = 50 ÷ 60 hours = 5/6 hours

⇒ Upstream Speed = 10 ÷ (5/6)

⇒ Upstream Speed = 10 × (6/5) = 12 kmph

⇒ Let the speed of the boat in still water be u kmph.

⇒ 12 = u − 3

⇒ u = 12 + 3 = 15 kmph

∴ The correct answer is 15 kmph.

Additional Information

Downstream Speed

When the boat moves in the direction of the stream. Downstream Speed = Speed of boat + Speed of stream.

Speed of Boat in Still Water

If both upstream and downstream speeds are known: Speed of Boat = (Downstream Speed + Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Speed of Stream

If both upstream and downstream speeds are known: Speed of Stream = (Downstream Speed − Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Given:

A vendor earns 10% on one investment but loses 10% on another investment.

The two investments are in the ratio 1 ∶ 3

Calculation:

Let one investment be 100 then the other one is 300.

Total 300 +100 = 400 

Profit earn in 1st investment 100 × 10/100 = 10

Loss earn in 2nd investment 300 × 10/100 = 30

Total loss 30-10 = 20

Loss percentage will be 20/400 × 100 = 5%

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

 sin (p + q) = 1

cos (p - q) = $\frac{\sqrt3}{2}$

Concept used:

Sin90°= 1,  cos30° =$\frac{\sqrt3}{2}$ 

Calculation:

 sin (p + q) = 1

⇒ sin (p + q) =  sin 90° 

⇒ p+q = 90°

Again,

cos (p - q) = $\frac{\sqrt3}{2}$

⇒ cos (p - q) = cos 30° 

⇒ (p - q) =  30° 

p = 1/2 (p+q + p - q)

⇒ 1/2 (90+30) = 60°

Given:

Men: women  2 ∶ 3.

The average weights of the men = 56 kg

The women in the office = 51 kg,

Calculation:

Let the number of men is 2x so the number of women is 3x

As per the question, 

The average weight of the employees in the office,

⇒ (56 × 2x + 51 × 3x) / (2x + 3x)

⇒ 265x / 5x = 53 kg

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

Oranges = 15000 kg

Calculation:

The total amount of muskmelon and watermelon together is (5 + 20) = 25%

As per the question,

The value of 15% = 15000 kg

So, 100% = 100000

The quantity of muskmelon and watermelon together = 100000 × 25/100 = 25000 kg

∴ The correct option is 1.

Calculation:

The average number of appearing candidates in the screening test from all the four states in the year 2021 is 

⇒ (2900 + 4700 + 3400 + 4800) / 4 = 3950

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

Expenditure = 68% of his monthly income.

Savings = Rs. 14,720 

Concept used:

Income = savings + expenditure

Calculation:

His total income is 100%

He spends 68%

So he saves 100 - 68 = 32%

So the value of 32 % = 14720

So the value of 68% = (14720 / 32)× 68 

⇒ Rs 31,280

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

cosec θ = $1\frac{7}{22}$

Concept used:

Cotθ = Base/perpendicular

Calculation:

Here 

cosec θ = $1\frac{7}{22}$

cosec θ = 29 / 22

Then Base will be ,

⇒ √(29² - 22² ) 

⇒  √(29 - 22 ) (29 + 22)

⇒   √(7 ×51) = √(357)

So Cotθ = √(357) / 22

Cot²θ = $\frac{357}{484}$

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

 x3 = 270 + y3 and x = (6 + y)

Formula used:

x3 - y3 =  (x - y)3 + 3xy(x - y)

Calculation:

As per the question,

 x3 - y3 = 270, and x - y = 6

x3 - y3 =  (x - y)³ + 3xy(x - y)

⇒ 270 = 216 + 18xy

⇒ xy = 3

(x+y)² =  (x - y)² +4xy

(x+y)2 =  (6)2 +4 x 3

⇒ (x+y)2 = 48

⇒ (x + y) = 4√3

∴ The correct option is 3

Calculation:

2a + 3b = 14 and 2a - 3b = 10,

So,

⇒ 2a + 3b +  2a - 3b = 14 + 10

⇒ 4a= 24 

⇒ a = 6

So b =  (14 - 12)/ 3

⇒  2/3

The value of ab = 6 × 2/3

⇒ 4

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

The rate = 18%  . For two years interest is Rs. 981.

Formula used:

In compound interest,

Amount = Principal × (1 + r / 100)n

Calculation:

Let the present value is 100

After 1 yr it would be 118

Then after 2 yr the value is 118 × 18/100 = 21.24

Total interest received in two years 21.24 + 18 = 39.24

As per the question,

value of 39.24 = 981

So value of 100 units = 981/39.24 × 100

⇒ Rs 2500

∴ The correct option is 2

Shortcut Trick

Put A = 30°, then cot 30° = √3 and cos 30° = √3/2.

⇒ p = √3 + √3/2 = 3√3/2 and q = √3 − √3/2 = √3/2

⇒ p² − q² = (27/4) − (3/4) = 24/4 = 6

⇒ 16pq = 16 × (3√3/2) × (√3/2) = 16 × 9/4 = 36

⇒ √16pq = √36 = 6

∴ The correct answer is √16pq = p² − q².

Alternate Method

Given:

p = cot A + cos A

q = cot A − cos A

Formula Used:

(a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab

cot² A − cos² A = cot² A × cos² A

Calculations:

⇒ p² − q² = (cot A + cos A)² − (cot A − cos A)²

⇒ p² − q² = 4 × cot A × cos A --- (Equation 1)

⇒ pq = (cot A + cos A) × (cot A − cos A)

⇒ pq = cot² A − cos² A

⇒ pq = (cos² A / sin² A) − cos² A

⇒ pq = cos² A × (1 / sin² A − 1)

⇒ pq = cos² A × (cosec² A − 1)

⇒ pq = cos² A × cot² A

⇒ √pq = cos A × cot A

Multiplying by 4 on both sides:

⇒ 4√pq = 4 × cos A × cot A

⇒ √16pq = 4 × cos A × cot A --- (Equation 2)

From Equation 1 and Equation 2:

⇒ p² − q² = √16pq

∴ The correct answer is √16pq = p² − q².

Additional Information

Pythagorean Identities

The fundamental identities are: sin² A + cos² A = 1, sec² A − tan² A = 1, and cosec² A − cot² A = 1.

Algebraic Expansion Formulas

Standard algebraic formulas used in trigonometry: (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab and (a + b)(a − b) = a² − b².

Quotient and Reciprocal Relations

The basic relationships include: tan A = sin A ÷ cos A, cot A = cos A ÷ sin A, and cosec A = 1 ÷ sin A.

The correct answer is "A piece of enclosed land with fruit trees."

<br>

 Key Points

 

• The word "orchard" refers to a piece of land that is specifically used for growing fruit trees. (फलों का बाग़, फलोद्यान)
• Example: This is an apple orchard.
• The sentence describes the orchard as a peaceful retreat, with the sound of leaves rustling in the wind and birds chirping in the trees.
• The context of the sentence makes it clear that the meaning of "orchard" in this case is related to fruit trees, rather than any other type of vegetation.
• The word "retreat" suggests that the orchard is a place of refuge or relaxation.
• The correct answer is Option 4.

The correct answer is "To decide."

<br>

 Key Points

• The idiom "make up one's mind" means to decide or come to a conclusion. (निर्णय लेना या किसी निष्कर्ष पर पहुँचना)
• Example: I can't make up my mind where to take my vacation.
• The phrase is often used when someone is struggling to choose between two or more options.
• The verb "make up" in this context means to form or create something in one's mind.
• The idiom can be used in various situations, such as choosing a career path or making a big purchase.
• The correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is "I like my puppies, Mac and Matt, but I like Matt better."

<br>

 Key Points

• In this context, the error lies in the word "best."
• The word "best" is the superlative form of "good," which is used when comparing three or more things.
• Example: She is the best of all.
• The word "better" is the comparative form of the adjective "good," which is the correct form to use when comparing two things.
• Example: Karan is better than Arun.
• In this sentence, we are comparing two puppies, so the correct answer is Option 1.
  

Additional Information

• Option 2: "best" is the superlative form of "good," but it is used incorrectly in this context because the sentence only compares two things.
• Option 3: "much" is an adverb that describes the degree or extent of something, but it is not appropriate in this context.
• Option 4: "most" is a superlative form, but it is not used correctly in this context.

The correct answer is "To wish someone good luck."

<br>

 Key Points

• The phrase "Break a leg" is a common idiom used in the theatre industry to wish someone good luck before a performance. (प्रदर्शन से पहले किसी को शुभकामनाएं देना)
• Example: Danny's family told him to “break a leg” right before he went up on stage.
• The origin of the phrase is uncertain, but it is believed to have originated as a way to ward off bad luck by wishing for the opposite to happen.
• The correct answer is Option 2.

The correct answer is "conservative."

<br>

 Key Points

• The word "liberal" means accepting different opinions or kinds of behaviour; tolerant. (भिन्‍न मतों और व्‍यवहारों के प्रति उदार; सहिष्‍णु)
• Example: He has a liberal parent.
• Antonym of "liberal" is "conservative."
• The sentence suggests that the person believed in male superiority, which is not a liberal view.
• The word "conservative" means not liking change; traditional. (परिवर्तन का विरोधी; पारंपरिक, रूढ़िवादी)
• Example: Even a conservative estimate would put the damage at about Rs 40,000 to repair.
• The correct answer is Option 1.
  

Additional Information

• Option 2 (tolerant) is not an appropriate antonym as it suggests acceptance and openness, which contradicts the belief in male superiority. (सहिष्‍णु, सहनशील (अरुचिकर या अस्‍वीकार्य वस्‍तु के प्रति))
• Option 3 (republican) is not relevant to the sentence as it refers to a political party and does not provide an antonym for "liberal." (गणतंत्र समर्थक व्‍यक्ति (जो सरकार और उसके नेता के निर्वाचित होने का समर्थन करे))
• Option 4 (philanthropist) is not an appropriate antonym as it refers to a person who donates money for charitable purposes and has no relation to the sentence. (दान आदि के द्वारा ज़रूरतमंदों की सहायता करने वाला व्‍यक्ति; परोपकारी व्‍यक्ति, लोकोपकारक)

The correct answer is "learning."

Key Points

• The original sentence is grammatically incorrect as it uses "enjoy" with the infinitive "to learn."
• It should be "enjoy learning."
• In the corrected version, "learning" must be used which is the gerund form of the verb "learn."
• It is the appropriate form to use after the verb "enjoy."
• The correct answer is option 3.
  

Correct sentence: I enjoy learning languages because I like them.

The correct answer is "Squabble."

<br>

 Key Points

• "Squabble" means to argue or quarrel noisily over a trivial matter. (छोटी-मोटी बात पर झगड़ा)
• Example: Polly and Susie were having a squabble about who was going to hold the dog's lead.
• It is a one-word substitute for "argue loudly about unimportant things."
• The correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Maintain means to keep or hold on to something. (किसी वस्‍तु को उसी स्‍तर, मानक आदि पर बनाए रखना, जारी रखना)
• Disagree means to have a different opinion or belief than someone else. ((किसी से) अलग राय रखना या होना; सहमत न होना)
• Agree means to have the same opinion or belief as someone else. (किसी बात या व्‍यक्ति से सहमत होना; एकमत होना)

The correct answer is "Hospitable."

<br>

 Key Points

• "Hostile" means unfriendly and aggressive. (व्‍यक्ति या वस्‍तु के प्रति अत्‍यंत उग्र भावनाओं वाला; प्रतिकूल भाव)
• Example: That was a hostile crowd.
• "Hospitable" is the opposite of "Hostile."
• "Hospitable" means friendly and welcoming. ((व्‍यक्ति) मेहमानों के प्रति मित्रवत और उदार; आतिथ्‍यकारी, सत्‍कारशील, मेहमाननवाज़)
• Example: The villagers were very hospitable to/towards anyone who passed through.
• The correct answer is option 1.
  

Additional Information

• Bitter means having a sharp and unpleasant taste. (क्रोध या घृणा से प्रेरित, कड़वाहट-भरा)
• Nasty means unpleasant or unenjoyable. (बहुत बुरा या अप्रिय)
• Aggressive means ready or likely to attack or confront. (लड़ाका, हमलावर, झगड़ालू, आक्रामक)

The correct answer is: Are the Shuklas visited by the Basus?

Key Points

• The given sentence is in active voice, where the subject "Basus" is performing the action of visiting.
• To convert it into passive voice, we need to make the object "Shuklas" the subject and add a form of "be" before the past participle "visited".
• The resulting sentence will have the object "Basus" after "by", indicating who performed the action.
• Also, the verb is placed before the subject in the Passive Voice.
• Structure:
• Do/does + Subject + V1 + Object? (Active Voice)
• Is/am/are + Object + V2 + by + Subject? (Passive Voice)
• Example:
• Does Rahul love his parents? (Active)
• Are the parents loved by Rahul? (Passive)
• The correct answer is Option 4.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Are the Shuklas visited by the Basus?

The correct answer is "Occasion."

<br>

 Key Points

• The word "occasion" is spelled with double 'c' and single 's'.
• It means a particular event or happening. (अवसर, मौक़ा, समय विशेष जब कुछ घटित हो)
• Example: We need to dress up for this special occasion.
• The correct answer is Option 2.

The correct answer is "reserved."

<br>

 Key Points

• "Discreet" means careful and circumspect in one's speech or actions. (सावधान, सतर्क (कि दूसरे को परेशानी न हो))
• Example: I don’t want anyone to find out about our agreement, so please be discreet.
• "Reserved" means not revealing one's thoughts or feelings readily. (संकोची तथा मनोभावों को छिपाकर रखने वाला)
• Example: Marcus is more reserved than his brother.
• In this context, the word "Reserved" is the synonym of "Discreet."
• The correct answer is option 3.
  

Additional Information

• Option 1, "loud", means making a lot of noise; not quiet. (बहुत आवाज़ करता हुआ; कोलाहलपूर्ण)
• Option 2, "outspoken", means saying exactly what you think or feel although you may shock or upset other people. (मुँह-फट, स्‍पष्‍टवक्ता, खरा बोलने वाला)
• Option 4, "noisy", means making a lot of noise and being loud. (शोर मचाने वाला; शोर-भरा, कोलाहलपूर्ण)

The correct answer is "emitting."

<br>

 Key Points

• "Exhaling" means to breathe out the air, smoke, etc. in your lungs. (साँस, धुआँ, को फेफड़ों से बाहर निकालना)
• Example: That chimney has been exhaling smoke.
• "Emitting" means giving off or discharging something, which fits the context of the sentence. ((गंध, आवाज़, धुआँ, गरमी या प्रकाश को) प्रसारित करना या छोड़ना)
• Example: Those animals were emitting strong smell.
• It is a synonym of exhaling, which means releasing or expelling air or gas.
• The correct answer is Option 1.
  

Correct sentence: The factory has been emitting black smoke from its chimney.

Additional Information

• Option 2 (preserving) means keeping something in its original state or condition. (किसी वस्‍तु को सुरक्षित या अच्‍छी हालत में रखना)
• Option 3 (remitting) means sending money or a payment. ((पैसा आदि) किसी व्‍यक्ति या स्‍थान को भुगतान करना)
  
• Option 4 (indicting) means accusing or charging someone with a crime. (किसी पर अपराध के लिए औपचारिक रूप से अभियोग लगाना; अभ्‍यारोपण करना)