SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 04 Aug, 2023 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

⇒ 2 + 6 ÷ 8 - 4 × 14 = ?

After interchanging '+' and '×' & '-' and '÷' →

⇒ 2 × 6 - 8 ÷ 4 + 14

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 2 × 6 - 8 ÷ 4 + 14

⇒ 2 × 6 - 2 + 14

⇒ 12 - 2 + 14

⇒ 26 - 2 = 24

⇒ '2 × 6 - 8 ÷ 4 + 14 = 24'

Here, the value of the equation is '24'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: '1' and '3' are added to the positional value of the first and second alphabet.

Checking the given options:

1. DEH →

2. ABD →

3. OPS →

4. HIL →

Here, 'ABD' is different from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

From Figure (1) to (2):

The shape rotates 45º in the clockwise direction and two circles are added.

From Figure (2) to (3):

The shape rotates 45º in the clockwise direction and two circles are added.

From Figure (3) to (4):

The shape rotates 45º in the clockwise direction and two circles are added.

 

From Figure (4) to Answer Figure:

The shape rotates 45º in the clockwise direction and two circles are added.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Logic: [First no.] - [(First no. × 5) + 1] - [(First no. × 25) + 6]

Checking the given options:

(1) 9 - 44 - 218 →

​⇒ [9] - [(9 × 5) - 1] - [(9 × 25) - 7]

(2) 6 - 31 - 156 →

​⇒ [6] - [(6 × 5) + 1] - [(6 × 25) + 6]

(3) 13 - 66 - 331 →

​⇒ [13] - [(13 × 5) + 1] - [(13 × 25) + 6]

(4) 16 - 81 - 406 →

​⇒ [16] - [(16 × 5) + 1] - [(16 × 25) + 6]

Here, '9 - 44 - 218' is different from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Statements:

Some books are horses.

All horses are animals.

Some animals are oceans.

The Venn diagram as per the given statements:

Conclusions:

(I) Some horses are oceans. → Not follow (Because all horses are animals, and some animals are oceans, so some horses are oceans can be possible but not definitely true)

(II) Some animals are books. → Follow (Because some books are horses, and all horses are animals, which means some animals are books is definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion (II) is true".

Logic:

First no. = [(x)² -1]

Second no. = [(x + 1)2 -1]

35 is related to 48 →

​⇒ [(6)² - 1] = 35

​⇒ [(6 + 1)² - 1] = 48

80 is related to 99 →

​⇒ [(9)2 - 1] = 80

​⇒ [(9 + 1)2 - 1] = 99

Similarly, '143' will be related to:

​⇒ [(12)2 - 1] = 143

​⇒ [(12 + 1)2 - 1] = 168

Here, '143' is related to '168'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Given: 'COUNTED'

Arranging in alphabetical order:

COUNTED → CDENOTU

Here, the letter 'N' is fourth from the left and the letter 'T' is second from the right.

Here, the five letters O, P, Q, R and S come between N and T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Here, we unfold the paper sheet step by step:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

As per the given information:

Here, the code for 'R' is '8'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Given:

ZY_V U_RQ  _OML KJ_G F_CB

Logic: '5' is subtracted from the positional value of each alphabet.

Here, 'WTPHE' completed the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Logic: Letters are rearranged.

DNST is related to STDN →

RXMK is related to MKRX →

Similarly, 'WBGH' will be related to:

Here, 'WBGH' is related to 'GHWB'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Logic: Second no. = [(First no.)³]

Checking the given options:

(1) 8 - 512 →

​⇒ [(8)³] = 512

(2) 2 - 8 →

​⇒ [(2)3] = 8

(3) 3 - 9 →

​⇒ [(3)²] = 9

(4) 9 - 729 →

​⇒ [(9)3] = 729

Here, '3 - 9' is different from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Given:

71, 73, 79, ?, 89, 97

Logic: Series of consecutive prime numbers.

Here, the missing term is '83'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: '6' and '4' are added to the positional value of the first and third alphabets respectively, and '4' is subtracted from the positional value of the second alphabet.

Given:

OTG : UPK →

YND : EJH →

Checking the given options:

(1) CRY : JVU →

(2) SAY : MZB →

(3) GHS : MDW →

(4) AMO : GIK →

  

Here, 'GHS : MDW' is similar to the given letter clusters.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

As per the given information:

Here, the code for 'do' is 'st'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

 

 

 

 

 

Given expression: 'T × Y + E ÷ S − R'

T is the sister of Y, Y is the father of E, E is the daughter of S and S is the mother of R.

Here, T is the father's sister of R.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

The mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: '16' and '10' are added to the positional value of the second and third alphabet respectively.

Given:

P_RSPG_SP_LSPM_S

Here, 'QBWV' completed the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Given: 'WORKING'

Arranging in alphabetical order:

WORKING → GIKNORW

Here, the letter 'K' is third from the left and the letter 'N' is fourth from the right.

There are two alphabets 'L' and 'M' comes between 'N' and 'K'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Logic: [(Second no. × 4)] : [Second no.] : [(Second no. × 2)]

Given:

1016 ∶  254 ∶ 508 →

​⇒ [(254 × 4)] : [254] : [(254 × 2)]

2200 ∶ 550 ∶ 1100 →

​⇒ [(550 × 4)] : [550] : [(550 × 2)]

Checking the given options:

(1) 5700 ∶ 1450 ∶ 2800 →

​⇒ [(1450 × 4) - 100] : [1450] : [(1450 × 2) - 100]

(2) 160 ∶ 40 ∶ 60 →

​⇒ [(40 × 4)] : [40] : [(40 × 2) - 20]

(3) 5400 ∶ 1350 ∶ 2700 →

​⇒ [(1350 × 4)] : [1350] : [(1350 × 2)]

(4) 3400 ∶ 852 ∶ 1600 →

​⇒ [(852 × 4) - 8] : [852] : [(852 × 2) - 104]

Here, '5400 ∶ 1350 ∶ 2700' is similar to the given set of numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The number of triangles in the given figure is:

 

Here, the number of triangles is '7'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

⇒ 84 + 5 × 4 ÷ 32 - 7 = 75

(1) + and ×, 84 and 32

⇒ 84 + 5 × 4 ÷ 32 - 7 = 75

After interchanging:

⇒ 32 × 5 + 4 ÷ 84 - 7

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 32 × 5 + 4 ÷ 84 - 7

⇒ 32 × 5 + 0.047 - 7

⇒ 160 + 0.047 - 7

⇒ 160.047 - 7 = 153.047

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(2) - and ÷, 4 and 7

⇒ 84 + 5 × 4 ÷ 32 - 7 = 75

After interchanging:

⇒ 84 + 5 × 7 - 32 ÷ 4

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 84 + 5 × 7 - 32 ÷ 4

⇒ 84 + 5 × 7 - 8

​⇒ 84 + 35 - 8

​⇒ 119 - 8 = 111​

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(3) ÷ and +, 5 and 7

⇒ 84 + 5 × 4 ÷ 32 - 7 = 75

After interchanging:

⇒ 84 ÷ 7 × 4 + 32 - 5

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 84 ÷ 7 × 4 + 32 - 5

⇒ 12 × 4 + 32 - 5

⇒ 48 + 32 - 5

⇒ 80 - 5 = 75

​⇒ '84 ÷ 7 × 4 + 32 - 5 = 75'

Here, the equation is satisfied.

(4) + and -, 5 and 4

⇒ 84 + 5 × 4 ÷ 32 - 7 = 75

After interchanging:

⇒ 84 - 4 × 5 ÷ 32 + 7

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 84 - 4 × 5 ÷ 32 + 7

⇒ 84 - 4 × 0.156 + 7

⇒ 84 - 0.625 + 7

⇒ 91 - 0.625 = 90.375

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

 

 

 

 

 

Given expression: 'B + C × D - E ÷ F'

B is the mother of C, C is the wife of D, D is the brother of E and E is the father of F.

Here, D is the father's brother of F.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Given:

74, 93, ?, 145, 176, 213

Logic: Addition of consecutive prime numbers.

Here, the missing term is '116'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Here, we use the table given below:

​

Logic: '2' is added to the positional value of each alphabet.

FCMJ is related to HEOL →

RQBL is related to TSDN →

Similarly, 'MUAG' will be related to:

Here, 'MUAG' is related to 'OWCI'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• Kumbh Mela:-
• It is a Hindu festival held every 12 years, with the location rotating between four cities in India, one of which is Allahabad (now known as Prayagraj) in Uttar Pradesh.
• Sangam:-
• It refers to the confluence of three rivers in Allahabad - the Ganges, Yamuna, and mythical Saraswati - which is considered a holy site in Hinduism.
• A dip in the Sangam during the Kumbh Mela is believed to wash away one's sins.
• Uttar Pradesh:-
• It is the most populous state in India.
• It is known for its rich cultural heritage, including its cuisine, music, and art.

Additional Information

• Meghalaya:-
• It is a state in northeastern India renowned for its lush greenery, breathtaking waterfalls, and captivating living root bridges.
• The state is home to diverse tribal communities, each with its unique customs and traditions.
• Meghalaya is also a haven for adventure enthusiasts, offering trekking, caving, and rock climbing opportunities.
• Manipur:-
• It is known as the "Land of Jewels,".
• It is a state in northeastern India famed for its rich cultural heritage, vibrant festivals, and stunning natural beauty.
• The state is home to Loktak Lake, the largest freshwater lake in South Asia, and Keibul Lamjao National Park, a sanctuary for the endangered Sangai deer.
• Manipur is also a center for traditional handloom weaving, producing exquisite fabrics like Manipuri silk.
• Sikkim:-
• It is a state in northeastern India celebrated for its snow-capped mountains, serene monasteries, and picturesque landscapes.
• The state is home to Mount Kanchenjunga, the world's third-highest peak, and several revered pilgrimage sites.
• Sikkim is also known for its diverse flora and fauna, including the elusive red panda.

The correct answer is 1967.

Key Points

• Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act:-
• It was first put into effect in India in the year 1967.
• The act provides for the more effective prevention of certain unlawful activities of individuals and associations dealing with terrorist activities.
• The act was amended in 2019 to designate individuals as terrorists, allowing the government to seize their property and restrict their movements.
• The act has faced criticism for being misused by the government to target political dissidents and human rights activists.
• The act has also been challenged in court for violating fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is Rajendra I

Key Points

• Rajaraja I:-
• He was the first great Chola king who expanded the Chola Empire to include most of South India and parts of Sri Lanka.
• Rajendra I was one of the greatest Chola kings who ruled from 1012 to 1044 CE.
• Rajendra I was known for his military conquests and he invaded many parts of South India, Sri Lanka, and Southeast Asia.
• In the 11^th century, the army of Rajendra I reached up to Ganga to invade Bengal.

Additional Information

• Vijayalaya:-
• He was the founder of the Chola dynasty and he conquered Thanjavur from the Muttaraiyar dynasty and established the Chola Empire.
• Rajadhiraj I:-
• He was the son of Rajendra I and he ruled the Chola Empire after his father's death.

The correct answer is Mirror.

Key Points

• Mirrors:-
• These are used in solar cookers to reflect and concentrate sunlight onto the cooking pot or surface.
• The reflective surface of the mirror can be made of various materials such as glass, metal, or plastic.
• The mirror can be adjusted to track the movement of the sun throughout the day to ensure maximum sunlight is captured.

Additional Information

• Electrical supply:-
• It is not used in solar cookers as they rely solely on the energy from the sun.
• Solar plates:-
• These are not commonly used in solar cookers as they are typically used for generating electricity, not for cooking food.
• Electrochemical cells:-
• These are also not used in solar cookers as they are typically used for storing energy, not for cooking food.

The correct answer is 68.8%.

Key Points

• Census of India 2011:-
• The percentage of the rural population of India according to the Census of India 2011 is 0.688 or 68.8%.
• This means that out of the total population of India, 68.8% live in rural areas while the remaining 31.2% live in urban areas.
• The Census of India is conducted every 10 years to collect data about the population, economy, and social indicators of the country.
• The rural-urban divide is an important aspect of India's demographic profile as it has implications for policies related to agriculture, infrastructure, and social welfare.
• The government of India has launched various schemes and initiatives to address the challenges faced by rural areas and to promote inclusive growth.
• Some of these schemes include the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana, National Rural Livelihood Mission, and Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

The correct answer is 3^rd January 1977.

 Key Points

• Article 51 A:-
• It deals with the Fundamental Duties of citizens.
• It was inserted in the Constitution by the 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976.
• The amendment was passed by the Parliament on 18^th December 1976, and it came into effect from 3^rd January 1977.
• The objective of Article 51 A is to promote patriotism, national integration, and a sense of responsibility among citizens.
• The ten fundamental duties listed under Article 51 A include respecting the Constitution, national flag, and national anthem, promoting harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood, protecting the environment, and safeguarding public property.

The correct answer is Chattisgarh.

Key Points

• Karma tribal:-
• This form is associated with the state of Chhattisgarh.
• The dance is performed by the Gond tribe, who believe in the concept of karma and perform the dance to appease their gods.
• The dance is performed during the Karma festival, which falls in the month of August or September.
• The dance is characterized by rhythmic movements, accompanied by traditional musical instruments like the mandar and dholak.

Additional Information

• Goa:-
• It is known for its popular folk dances like the Dekhni and Fugdi, which are performed during festivals and celebrations.
• Kerala:-
• It is famous for its classical dance forms like Kathakali and Mohiniyattam, as well as folk dances like Theyyam and Thiruvathira.
• Karnataka:-
• It has a rich cultural heritage and is home to various forms of dance like Yakshagana, Dollu Kunitha, and Kamsale.

The correct answer is Asha Bhosle

Key Points

• Asha Bhosle:-
• It is a prominent figure in Indian music and has been active in the industry for over six decades.
• She has recorded over 12,000 songs in various languages, including Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, and Gujarati.
• Asha Bhosle has won several awards for her contribution to Indian music, including the prestigious National Film Award and the Filmfare Lifetime Achievement Award.
• She is known for her versatile voice and has sung a wide range of genres, including classical, folk, and pop music.

Additional Information

• Vyjayanthi Mala:-
• She is a veteran Indian actress and classical dancer. She is not associated with Indian music.
• Amrita Pritam:-
• She was a renowned Punjabi writer and poet. While she has written about music in her works, she is not a figure in Indian music.
• Asha Parekh:-
• She is a popular Bollywood actress from the 1960s and 1970s. She is not associated with Indian music.

The correct answer is Only A.

Key Points

• Money Supply:-
• It is a stock concept, which means it represents the total amount of money available in an economy at a specific point in time.
• M3 measure of money supply includes all forms of money, including currency and coins with public, but excludes time deposits with maturity period more than 2 years.
• Money Supply is a stock concept.

Additional Information

• Currency and coins with public:-
• These are included in M1 measure of money supply, which includes all physical currency and coins, demand deposits, and other checkable deposits.
• M2:-
• It measure of money supply includes M1 plus savings deposits, money market securities, and time deposits with maturity period less than 2 years.
• Money Supply:-
• It is a key indicator of the state of an economy and is closely monitored by central banks to regulate inflation and economic growth.

The correct answer is Padma Shri.

Key Points

• Hema Malini:-
• Hema Malini is a renowned dancer and actress who has contributed significantly to the Indian film industry. She has acted in over 150 films and has won several awards for her performances.
• She received the Padma Shri award in the year 2000. It is the fourth highest civilian award in India.
• Apart from Padma Shri, Hema Malini has also received other awards such as Filmfare Lifetime Achievement Award, National Film Award for Best Actress, and NTR National Award for her contribution to Indian cinema.
• Padma Shri:-
• It is awarded for distinguished service in various fields including art, literature, education, social work, medicine, science, and public affairs.

Additional Information 

• Kabir Samman:
• It is an award given by the Madhya Pradesh government for outstanding contribution in the field of literature, music, and other arts. It was first awarded in 1986.
• Padma Vibhushan:
• It is the second-highest civilian award in India, awarded for exceptional and distinguished service in any field including service rendered by government servants. It was instituted in 1954.
• Kalidas Samman:
• It is an annual award presented by the Madhya Pradesh government for outstanding contribution in the field of arts. It was first awarded in 1980.

The correct answer is Sweet smells like fruits.

Key Points

• Esters:-
• They have a sweet smell like fruits. This is because they are commonly found in fruits and are responsible for their characteristic aroma.
• Esters are organic compounds that are formed from the reaction between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid.

Additional Information

• Rotten egg smell:-
• It is typically associated with hydrogen sulfide gas, which is produced when organic matter decomposes in the absence of oxygen.
• Floral smell:-
• It is associated with various compounds found in flowers, such as essential oils and terpenes.
• Pungent smell:-
• It is a general term used to describe strong and unpleasant odors, which can be caused by a wide range of compounds, including sulfur compounds, ammonia, and certain volatile organic compounds.

The correct answer is Klystron.

Key Points

• Klystron:-
• It is a vacuum tube that uses the interaction of an electron beam and electromagnetic waves to generate or amplify microwave signals.
• The name of the thermionic electron tube used to oscillate and amplify microwave frequency signals is Klystron.

Additional Information

• Beam tetrodes:-
• These are also vacuum tubes used for amplification, but they are not specifically designed for microwave frequencies and do not have the same level of precision as Klystrons.
• Thyratrons:-
• These are also vacuum tubes, but they are used for controlling high-power circuits and not for generating or amplifying microwave signals.
• Neutrino:-
• It is a subatomic particle that has nothing to do with vacuum tubes or microwave signals.

The correct answer is Andaman Sea.

Key Points

• Barren Island:-
• The Barren Island is an active volcano located in the Andaman Sea.
• It is the only active volcano in India and the entire South Asian region.
• The island is uninhabited due to the constant volcanic activity, and visitors are not allowed to land on the island.
• The Barren Island is a popular destination for researchers and scientists to study the unique flora and fauna that have adapted to the harsh volcanic environment.

 Additional Information

• Gulf of Mannar:-
• It is located between India and Sri Lanka and is known for its rich marine biodiversity and coral reefs.
• Arabian Sea:-
• It is a region of the northern Indian Ocean bounded by the Arabian Peninsula and the Indian subcontinent. It is known for its important shipping routes and fishing grounds.
• Bay of Bengal:-
• It is the largest bay in the world and is located east of India. It is known for its tropical cyclones and rich marine biodiversity.

The correct answer is cotton textiles and jute.

Key Points

• Industrial sector:-
• At the time of Independence of India, the Industrial sector was dominated by the cotton textiles and jute industries.
• The cotton textiles industry was the largest industry in India at that time, contributing significantly to the country's GDP.
• The jute industry was also a major player in the industrial sector, especially in the eastern parts of India.
• Other industries such as sugar and oil were not as prominent as cotton textiles and jute at the time of Independence.

The correct answer is NNP at FC.

Key Points

• NDP:-
• It stands for Net Domestic Product, which is the value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders minus depreciation.
• FC:-
• It stands for factor cost, which is the total amount paid to factors of production (such as labor and capital) for their contributions to the production process.
• NNP at FC represents the total income earned by domestic factors of production, including net income from abroad, after subtracting depreciation.

Additional Information

• Net factor income from abroad:-
• It refers to the income earned by domestic factors of production from foreign sources, minus the income earned by foreign factors of production within the country.
• GDP at FC:-
• It represents the total value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders, including income earned by foreign factors of production, but it does not account for depreciation or net factor income from abroad.
• GNP at MP:-
• It represents the total income earned by domestic factors of production, including income earned abroad, but it does not account for depreciation or factor cost.

The correct answer is BVR Subrahmanyam.

Key Points

• BVR Subrahmanyam:-
• He is a senior civil servant who has held various important positions in the Indian government. He was appointed as the Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog in 2023, succeeding Amitabh Kant.
• As the CEO of NITI Aayog, BVR Subrahmanyam is responsible for overseeing the organization's activities and ensuring that its policies and initiatives align with the government's vision for the country's development.
• Before his appointment as CEO of NITI Aayog, BVR Subrahmanyam served as the Chief Secretary of Jammu and Kashmir, where he played a key role in the administration's efforts to restore normalcy in the region after the revocation of Article 370.
• NITI Aayog:-
• It is a policy think tank of the Indian government that replaced the Planning Commission in 2015. It is responsible for formulating and implementing strategies for economic and social development in the country.

Additional Information

• Rajiv Kumar:
• He is an economist who served as the Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog from 2017 to 2022.
• Amitabh Kant:-
• He is a senior civil servant who served as the CEO of NITI Aayog from 2016 to 2023. He was succeeded by BVR Subrahmanyam in 2023.
• Parameswaran Iyer:-
• He is a retired civil servant who served as the Secretary of the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation from 2017 to 2019.

The correct answer is Saurashtra.

Key Points

• Ranji Trophy:-
• The Ranji Trophy is a domestic first-class cricket championship played in India.
• Saurashtra won the Ranji Trophy for the first time in the 2018-19 season and defended their title in the 2019-20 season.
• Hyderabad has won the Ranji Trophy twice in the past, in the 1986-87 and 1987-88 seasons.
• Kerala and Bengal have both been runners-up in the Ranji Trophy but have not won the championship yet.

The correct answer is Wheat.

Key Points

• Fine grain crops:-
• These are those that have small seeds and are generally used for human consumption rather than animal feed.
• Wheat:-
• It is considered a fine grain crop due to its small, hard seeds that are used to make flour for bread and other baked goods.

Additional Information

• Bajra:-
• It is also known as pearl millet, is a coarse grain crop that is often used for animal feed or as a staple food in some regions.
• Ragi:-
• It also known as finger millet, is another coarse grain crop that is commonly used in porridges and flatbreads.
• Maize:-
• It is also known as corn, is a coarse grain crop that is used for animal feed, human consumption, and industrial purposes such as ethanol production.

The correct answer is Baji Rao II.

Key Points

• Baji Rao II:-
• He was the Peshwa who signed the Treaty of Bassein with the British East India Company in 1802.
• Baji Rao II was the last Peshwa of the Maratha Empire, and his signing of the treaty led to the downfall of the empire.
• Treaty of Bassein:-
• The treaty marked the beginning of the British control over the Maratha Empire.
• The treaty was signed after the Battle of Poona, in which the British defeated the Marathas.

Additional Information

• Madhav Rao:-
• He was the fourth Peshwa and is known for his administrative reforms.
• Narayan Rao:-
• He was the fifth Peshwa who was assassinated by his uncle Raghunath Rao.
• Balaji Baji Rao:-
• He is also known as Nana Saheb I, was the third Peshwa. He was appointed as Peshwa in 1740 upon the death of his father, the Peshwa Bajirao I.

The correct answer is Unit of Account.

Key Points

• Unit of account:-
• The function of money that is applicable here is the unit of account, as it is used to measure and express the value of goods and services in a country's economy.
• GDP (Gross Domestic Product) is a measure of the total value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific period of time, usually a year.
• The use of a common unit of account, such as a country's currency, allows for the calculation and comparison of GDP across different sectors and regions of the economy.

Additional Information

• Store of value:-
• It refers to the ability of money to hold its value over time, allowing individuals to save and accumulate wealth.
• Standard of deferred payments:-
• It refers to the use of money as a means of settling debts and obligations in the future.
• Medium of exchange:-
• It refers to the use of money as a widely accepted and easily transferable means of payment for goods and services.

The correct answer is 1896.

Key Points

• Olympic Games:-
• The first Olympic Games were held in the year 1896.
• The Games were held in Athens, Greece.
• The first modern Olympic Games were attended by 241 athletes from 14 countries.
• The Games had nine sports events, including athletics, cycling, fencing, gymnastics, shooting, swimming, tennis, weightlifting, and wrestling.

The correct answer is All

Key Points

• NAFED:-
• It stands for National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Limited.
• NAFED is a cooperative society that is registered under the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act.
• The objective behind the establishment of NAFED was to promote cooperative marketing of agricultural produce, which would benefit farmers.
• NAFED was established in 1958, and since then, it has been playing a crucial role in ensuring fair prices for farmers and promoting agricultural exports from India.

The correct answer is 61.

Key Points

• 2022 Commonwealth Games:-
• India won a total of 61 medals in the 2022 Commonwealth Games held in Birmingham.
• Out of the 61 medals, India won 22 gold, 16 silver, and 23 bronze medals.
• This was India's best performance in the Commonwealth Games, surpassing their previous record of 64 medals in the 2010 Delhi Games.
• India finished Fourth in the overall medal tally behind Australia and England.
• India's success was largely due to their strong performances in shooting, wrestling, and athletics.

The correct answer is Articles 32-35.

Key Points

• Right to Constitutional Remedies:-
• The Right to Constitutional Remedies is a fundamental right guaranteed by Article 32 of the Indian Constitution.
• This right ensures that citizens have access to legal remedies in case their fundamental rights are violated.

Additional Information

• Articles 33-36:-
• It deals with the rights of members of the armed forces and their special provisions, and are therefore not related to the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• Article 31:-
• It deals with the right to property, which was removed as a fundamental right by the 44^th Amendment Act in 1978.
• Article 34:-
• It deals with restrictions on fundamental rights during emergencies.

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

• Kyoto Protocol:-
• The target for the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol is to reduce emissions of 6 greenhouse gases by 5.2% from 1990 levels.
• This reduction applies to carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulphur hexafluoride (SF6).

Given:

upstream time 11 h and downstream time 5 hrs.

The speed = $2\frac{2}{9}$ m/sec

Calculation:

$2\frac{2}{9}$ m/sec = 20/9 × 18/5

⇒ 8 km/h

Let the speed of the stream is u km/h

As per the question,

⇒ 11 ( 8 - u) = 5 (8 + u)

⇒ 16 u = 48 

⇒ u = 3 km/h

 ∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

sin (A - B) = $\frac{1}{2}$,  sin(A + B) = 1

Calculation:

 sin (A - B) = $\frac{1}{2}$

⇒ sin (A - B) = sin 30° 

⇒  (A - B) = 30°

Again,

sin(A + B) = sin 90° 

⇒ (A + B) = 90°

So,

(A - B) + (A + B) = 90° + 30°

⇒ 2A = 120° 

⇒ A = 60° 

And B = 30°

 ∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

Two numbers are  15 and 120

We have to find the 3^rd proportion.

Formula used:

If  numbers are  a , b and c

Then there3rd proportion will be , (b² /a)

Calculation:

Two numbers are 15 and 120

Then there 3^rd proportion will be 

( 120 × 120 / 15)

⇒ 960

∴ The 3^rd proportions of 15 and 120 is 960

Given:

Difference =  200 , R = 10 % and time = 2 yrs

Concept used:

Difference = P (R/100)² [ P = principal , R = rate of interest]

Calculation: 

As per the question,

⇒ 200 = P (10/100)2 

⇒ P = Rs. 20,000

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

15 % was wasted and Profit = 19%.

Calculation:

Let the total number of items be 100 and the cost price of each item be Rs 100

Total cost price is 100 × 100 = Rs 10000

The total Selling price is , 10000 × 119 /100 = Rs11900

The total number of good items is 85

The selling price of good items is 11900 / 85 = Rs 140

So the above percentage is 140 - 100 = 40%

∴ The correct option is 1

Shortcut Trick Divisibility by 12 ⇒ Number must be divisible by 3 and 4. For 4: Last two digits 16 are divisible by 4 (True). For 3: Sum of digits (7+1+2+x+8+1+6) = 25 + x must be divisible by 3. Nearest multiples of 3 > 25 are 27, 30, 33. For least value: 25 + x = 27 ⇒ x = 2. ∴ The correct answer is 2.

Alternate Method Given: Number = 712x816, Divisor = 12 Formula Used: Divisibility rule of 12 (divisible by 3 and 4).

7 1 2 x 8 1 6

Sum of digits (Rule of 3)

Check: 16 ÷ 4

Check Divisibility by 4: ⇒ Last two digits of 712x816 = 16 ⇒ 16 ÷ 4 = 4 (Remainder = 0) ⇒ The number is divisible by 4 for any value of x. Check Divisibility by 3: ⇒ Sum of digits = 7 + 1 + 2 + x + 8 + 1 + 6 ⇒ Sum = 25 + x ⇒ For the number to be divisible by 3, (25 + x) must be a multiple of 3. ⇒ Possible values for (25 + x) are 27, 30, 33, ... ⇒ For least value of x: 25 + x = 27 ⇒ x = 27 − 25 ⇒ x = 2 ∴ The correct answer is 2.

Additional Information Divisibility by 3 A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3. Divisibility by 4 A number is divisible by 4 if the last two digits of the number are divisible by 4 or are 00. Divisibility by 11 A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits at odd positions and the sum of digits at even positions is 0 or a multiple of 11. Composite Divisibility If a number is divisible by two co-prime numbers a and b, it is also divisible by their product (a × b). Example: 12 = 3 × 4.

Calculation:

The total number of students go abroad from Maharashtra over the years, 723 + 840 + 900 + 920 + 925 = 4308

The total number of students go abroad from Karnataka over the years, 750 + 600 + 830 + 575 + 900 = 3655

The total number of students go abroad from West Bengal over the years, 500 + 550 + 450 + 600 + 525 = 2625

Therefore, West Bengal did the least number of students go abroad over the years among the given States.

∴ The correct option is 4

Formula used:

The volume of the hemispherical tank = 2/3πr³.

Calculation:

The amount of water will be, 

⇒ 2/3× π × (2.1)³ 

⇒ 2/3 × 22/7 × 2.1 × 2.1 × 2.1  = 19.404 m³

⇒ 19404 liter

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

The marked price = Rs. 600.

The discount = 4% and still makes a profit of 28%.

Concept used:

Discount is calculated on the marked price

Profit is calculated on the cost price

Calculation: 

After discount the selling price is,

⇒ 600 × 96/100 = Rs 576

The cost price will be 

⇒ 576 × 100/128 = Rs. 450

∴  The cost price is Rs. 450

Calculation:

The average on timber, supervision and cement is 

⇒ (36 + 54 + 72) / 3 = 54° 

As per the question,

360° = 100 %

Then 54° = 100/360 × 54 

⇒ 15%

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

The sides of similar triangle ΔABC and ΔDEF are in the ratio $\frac{\sqrt3}{\sqrt5}$ .

The area of ΔABC is 90 cm2,

Concept used :

The area ratio of two similar triangle = (Ratio of their sides)² 

Calculation:

Side ratio is $\frac{\sqrt3}{\sqrt5}$

Then area ration will be 3/5

As per the question,

Value of 3 units = 90 

So value of 5 units = (90/3) × 5

⇒ 150 cm2 

∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

A can do a piece of work in 24 days and B can do the same work in 30 days.  

They work on it together for 8 days

Concept used:

Efficiency = (Total work / Total time taken)

Efficiency = work done in a single day 

Calculation:

Let total work is 120 units ( Lcm of 24 and30 )

The efficiency of R is

⇒ 120 / 24 = 5 unit

Again, the Efficiency of S is,

⇒ 120 / 30 = 4 unit

Total Efficiency,

⇒ 5 + 4 = 9 unit

Total work done in 8 days,

⇒  9 × 8 = 72 units

Total done 72 / 120 = 3/5 part

Part left (1 - 3/5) = 2/5 part 

∴ The correct option is 2

Shortcut Trick

The perimeter of a sector consists of its arc length and two radii.

Arc length = (θ ÷ 360°) × 2πr = (144 ÷ 360) × 2 × (22 ÷ 7) × 4.9 = 12.32 cm

Perimeter = Arc length + 2 × r

⇒ Perimeter = 12.32 + 2 × 4.9 = 12.32 + 9.8 = 22.12 cm

∴ The correct answer is 22.12 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of the sector (r) = 4.9 cm

Central angle (θ) = 144°

Formula Used:

Perimeter of a sector = Arc length (l) + 2r

Arc length (l) = (θ ÷ 360°) × 2πr

Calculations:

⇒ Arc length (l) = (144° ÷ 360°) × 2 × (22 ÷ 7) × 4.9

⇒ l = (2 ÷ 5) × 2 × 22 × 0.7

⇒ l = 0.4 × 30.8 = 12.32 cm

⇒ Perimeter of sector = l + 2r

⇒ Perimeter = 12.32 + 2 × 4.9

⇒ Perimeter = 12.32 + 9.8 = 22.12 cm

∴ The correct answer is 22.12 cm.

Additional Information

Area of Sector

Area = (θ ÷ 360°) × πr². It represents the region enclosed by two radii and the corresponding arc.

Length of Arc

Arc length (l) = (θ ÷ 360°) × 2πr. It calculates the boundary length of the curved part of a sector.

Area of a Segment

The area enclosed between a chord and its corresponding arc. Area = Area of Sector − Area of Triangle.

Concept used:

Tan 45° = 1 , cos 45° = (1/√2)

,Calculation:

2 Tan2A + 4 Cos4A = 3

By putting A = 45° 

we get, 2 × 1 + 4 × (1/√2)⁴ = 3

So RHS = LHS

∴ The correct option is 1

Formula used: 

(A+B)2 + (A-B)2 = 2 (A2 + B2)

Calculation:

$\frac{(612 + 388)^2 + (612 - 388)^2}{(612 × 612) + (388 ×388)}$

⇒  2 × {(612×612)+(388×388)} / {(612×612)+(388×388)}

⇒ 2

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

a = cot A + cos A and b = cot A - cos A

Concept used:

Cot A = 0 , Cos A = 0

Calculation:

By putting A = 90° we get , 

Cot A = 0 , Cos A = 0

The value of a2 - b2 - 4$\rm \sqrt{ab}$ = 0

The correct option is 1

Given:

$\rm \frac{(a^2 + b^2 - c^2)^2 - (a^2 - b^2 + c^2)^2}{b^2 - c^2}$

Formula used:

a² - b² = (a + b)(a - b)

Calculation:

$\rm \frac{(a^2 + b^2 - c^2)^2 - (a^2 - b^2 + c^2)^2}{b^2 - c^2}$

⇒ $\rm \frac{(a^2 + b^2 - c^2 + a^2 - b^2 + c^2 ) (a^2 + b^2 - c^2 -( a^2 - b^2 + c^2) }{b^2 - c^2)}$

⇒ $\rm \frac{(2b^2-2c^2 ) (2a^2 ) }{b^2 - c^2}$

⇒ $2 (2a^2 )$

⇒ 4a2

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

Approximate single discount equivalent to three successive discounts of 10%, 20%, and 30%

Formula Used:

Single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of a % and b %

= (a + b - $\frac{a \space \times \space b}{100}$ ) %

Calculation:

Here, a = 10 % , and b =  20 %

So, the single discount = (10+ 20 - $\frac{10 \space \times \space 20}{100}$) %

⇒ (30 - 2) %

⇒ 28 %

Again,

Here, a = 28 % , and b =  30 %

So, the single discount = (28 + 30 - $\frac{28 \space \times \space 30}{100}$) %

⇒ (58 - 8.4) %

⇒ 49.6 % 

The approximate single discount is 49.6%

Given:

The average age of 30 students = 12 years.

The average age of  5 of the students = 10 years and  5 of them is 14 years. 

Calculation:

The total  age of 30 students in a class is 30 × 12 = 360 years

The total age of a group of 5 of the students is 10 × 5 = 50 years

The total age of a group of another 5 of the students is 14 × 5 = 70 years

total age of those (5+5) = 10 students is 70 + 50 = 120 years

The average age of the remaining 20 students is 360-120 / 20 = 12 years

∴ The correct option is 2

Shortcut Trick

Using the Successive Remainder method:

Initial Income × (100 − 30)/100 × (100 − 15)/100 × (100 − 35)/100 = 1,62,435

Income × 0.70 × 0.85 × 0.65 = 1,62,435

Income × 0.38675 = 1,62,435

Income = 1,62,435 ÷ 0.38675 = 4,20,000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 4,20,000.

Alternate Method

Given: Rent = 30%, Food = 15% of remaining, Other expenses = 35% of remaining, Final savings = Rs. 1,62,435.

⇒ Let the Monthly Income be 'x'.

⇒ Amount left after Rent = x − 30% of x = 0.70x

⇒ Amount left after Food = 0.70x × (100 − 15)% = 0.70x × 0.85 = 0.595x

⇒ Amount left after Other expenses = 0.595x × (100 − 35)% = 0.595x × 0.65

⇒ 0.38675x = 1,62,435

⇒ x = 1,62,435 ÷ 0.38675

⇒ x = 4,20,000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 4,20,000.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When values change on the remaining balance, we use the formula: Final = Initial × (1 ± r₁/100) × (1 ± r₂/100) × ...

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

Simplifying 30% = 3/10, 15% = 3/20, and 35% = 7/20 can make manual calculations faster by using ratio units.

Base Change Rule

Always identify the base of the percentage. If it's of the 'total', add percentages directly; if it's of the 'remaining', multiply them successively.

Given:

The radius of a circle is 21 cm.  

Formula used:

The length of the arc will be,

(θ\360) × 2 × π × r

Calculation: 

The length of the arc will be,

⇒ (22.5\360) × 2 × 22/7 × 21 = 8.25

∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

The area of a triangle is half the area of a square.

The perimeter of the square is 172 cm.

Formula used:

The perimeter of the square = 4 × side

Area of the square = side²

Calculation: 

As per the question,

⇒  4 × side = 172 

Side = 172 / 4

⇒ 43 cm

Area of the square is, 43² = 1849  cm2

Area of the square is,  1849 / 2 = 924.5  cm2

∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

A man invested Rs. 25,400, time = 9 years , obtain a total amount=  Rs. 67,790 

Formula used:

Simple interest = P × R × T / 100 [ P = principal, R = rate of interest, T = time]

Calculation:

Rate of interest is = R

The simple interest got by the person is  

⇒ 67790  - 25400 = 42390

As per the formula,

⇒ 42390 =  25400 × 9 × R / 100

⇒ R = 18.54 %

∴ The correct option is 2

Calculation:

The average number of students per college in commerce, (2200 + 2400 + 2250 + 3250)/ 4 = 2525

The average number of students per stream in college 2 ,( 1800 + 1700 +2400) = 1966.67

The difference will be 2525 - 1966.67 = 558.3

∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

 2x + 3y = 4 and 4x2 + 9y2 = 64,

Formula used:

(a + b)³ = a³ + b³ + 3ab (a+b)

Calculation:

(2x + 3y)² = 4x2 + 9y2 + 12xy

⇒ 16 = 64 + 12 xy

⇒ 12 xy =  -48

⇒ 6xy = - 24

 8x3 + 27y3.= (2x + 3y) (4x2 + 9y2 - 6xy)

⇒ 4 × (64+24)

⇒  4 × 88

= 352

∴ The correct option is 3

The correct answer is "CADB." 

 Key Points

• The sentence follows the subject-verb-Object (SVO) structure.
• "The doctor" is the subject, and "concluded" is the verb. So the first part must be C.
• "That further treatment" is the first part of the object. So, it must be A.
• The phrase "that further treatment" serves as a subordinating conjunction, connecting the doctor's conclusion to the statement about uselessness.
• The word "useless" is an adjective modifying the noun "treatment." So the last part must be the pair DB.
• The correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: The doctor concluded that further treatment would be useless.

The correct answer is "Outdated."

 

Key Points

• The underlined word "antiquated" means old-fashioned or outdated. (पुरातन, अप्रचलित, गतप्रयोग)
• Example: It will take many years to modernize these antiquated industries.
• The synonym for "antiquated" is "outdated."
• It means no longer in use or out of date. (बेकार हो चुका, प्रचलन से बाहर; पुरानी चाल का)
• Example: Nowadays, this technique is completely outdated.
• The sentence means that success cannot be achieved until old-fashioned policies are changed.
• The correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 2 (Current) means present or existing now. (वर्तमानकालीन; इस समय प्रचलित)
• Option 3 (New) means recently made or produced. (नया (बना, खोजा आदि))
• Option 4 (Updated) means brought up to date or modernized. (अद्यतन या आधुनिकीकरण किया गया)

The correct answer is "prudent."

 Key Points

• The correct spelling of the underlined word is "prudent."
• "Prudent" means sensible and careful when making judgements and decisions; avoiding unnecessary risks. (मूल्‍यांकन और निर्णय करने में सावधान और विवेकपूर्ण; अनावश्‍यक ख़तरों से बचते हुए)
• Example: It would be prudent to get some more advice before you invest your money.
• The word is spelled with a "u" after the "r" and before the "e."
• The "oo" in "proodent" and "proodant" is incorrect and changes the pronunciation of the word.
• The "ou" in "proudent" is also incorrect and changes the pronunciation of the word.
• The correct answer is Option 1.

Correct sentence: It would be prudent to wait for some more time before selling off the property.

The correct answer is "than my friends invited."

 Key Points

• The correct conjunction to use after "No sooner had I finished my final exam" is "than," not "then" or "that."
• In this sentence, "than" is used to contrast the completion of the exam with the invitation to the trip.
• The sentence structure is "No sooner + auxiliary verb + subject + verb + than + subject + verb."
• Example: No sooner had she left the house than it started raining.
• The correct answer is Option 2.

Correct sentence: No sooner had I finished my final exam than my friends invited me to join them on a trip to Europe.

Here, the erroneous part is "poor."

 Key Points

• The sentence "The rich should help poor" contains a grammatical error.
• In the corrected version, the definite article "the" is used before the noun "poor" to indicate a specific group of people, making the sentence grammatically correct.
• The error is in option 3 because 'poor' should be replaced with 'the poor' to make a complete sentence.
• The correct answer is Option 3.

Correct sentence: The rich should help the poor.

The correct answer is "The peon rings the bell."

Key Points

• The given sentence is in Passive Voice and Simple Present tense.
• As per the given question, we have to change it into Active Voice.
• The structure of the given sentence is as follows:
• Subject (objective case)+ is/am/were + V3 + Object (subjective case). (Passive Voice)
• Subject + V1(s/es)+ Object. (Active Voice)
• Example:
• Their cousin show them some rare photographs. (Active Voice)
• They are shown some rare photographs by their cousin. (Passive Voice)
• The subject of the given sentence is 'bell' and the object is 'peon.'
• The subject will be put in place of the object and the object will be put in place of the subject.
• 'Is rung' will be changed into 'rings.'
• Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2.'

Correct sentence: The peon rings the bell.

The correct answer is "announcement; grabbed."

 Key Points

• The correct spelling of the word is 'announcement' with double 'n' and 'e.'
• "Announcement" means a statement that tells people about something. (घोषणा, ऐलान, सूचना)
• Example: She made an announcement.
• The correct past tense of 'grab' is 'grabbed' with double 'b.'
• "Grabbed" means to take something with a sudden movement. (झपटकर किसी चीज़ को पकड़ना; छीनना)
• Example: She grabbed my hand.
• The correct answer is Option 1.

Correct sentence: There was an announcement by the director of the company that grabbed the attention of all the employees.

The correct answer is "close shave."

Key Points

• "Close shave" means a narrow escape from danger or a close call. (खतरे से बाल-बाल बचना या कोई करीबी कॉल)
• Example: He had an extremely close shave with a crocodile.
• The idiom is appropriate in the context of the sentence, as Ritika had a narrow escape while driving recklessly.
• The correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• "Come in handy" is an idiom that means to be useful or helpful in a situation. (किसी स्थिति में उपयोगी या सहायक होना)
• "Cut both ends" is not an idiom and does not have a specific meaning.
• "Cock a snook" means to show contempt or disrespect by putting one's thumb on their nose and wiggling their fingers. (किसी की नाक पर अंगूठा रखकर और अपनी उंगलियों को हिलाकर अवमानना ​​या अनादर दिखाना)

The correct answer is "Ingenious."

 Key Points

• "Ingenious" means (used about a person) full of new ideas and clever at finding solutions to problems or at inventing things. ((व्‍यक्ति) नए विचारों से युक्त और समस्‍याओं के समाधान या नई बातों के आविष्‍कार में दक्ष; प्रतिभाशाली, मेधावी, विदग्‍ध)
• Example: Leonardo da Vinci was an ingenious artist, inventor, and scientist.
• It is derived from the Latin word 'ingenium' which means natural capacity or talent.
• Exceptionally clever or talented means "Ingenious."
• The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1, Indigenous, means originating or occurring naturally in a particular place; native. ((मनुष्‍य, पशु या पौधे) अपने मूल स्‍थान में स्थित; स्‍वदेशी, स्‍थानीय)
• Example: The indigenous people of Australia are known as the Aboriginals.
• Option 2, Studious, means spending a lot of time studying or reading. ((व्यक्ति) अध्‍ययन में काफ़ी अधिक समय लगाने वाला; अध्‍ययनशील)
• Example: She is a studious student who always gets good grades.
• Option 3, Assiduous, means showing great care and perseverance. (परिश्रमी, अध्यवसायी, मेहनती)
• Example: The assiduous worker never leaves any task unfinished.

The correct answer is "nothing else."

 Key Points

• "Nothing else" is a suitable substitute for "nothing" in the given sentence.
• This phrase means that there is nothing in addition to pride, emphasizing the singular focus on that emotion.
• The use of "else" implies that there are other possibilities, but in this case, there are none.
• The sentence structure is grammatically correct, with "nothing" being the subject and "else" serving as an adverb modifying it.
• The correct answer is Option 2,

 Additional Information

• Option 1, "nothing ever," does not convey the same meaning as the original sentence, as it implies a sense of time rather than exclusivity.
• Option 3, "nothing seldom," is a grammatically incorrect phrase, as "seldom" is an adverb and cannot be used to modify "nothing."
• Option 4, "nothing so," is also grammatically incorrect, as "so" requires a comparison to something else (e.g. "nothing so beautiful as a sunset").

The correct answer is "contaminated."

 Key Points

• "Adulterated" means weakened or lessened in purity by the addition of a foreign or inferior substance or element. (किसी विदेशी या घटिया पदार्थ या तत्व के शामिल होने से शुद्धता कमजोर या कम हो जाती है)
• Example: She served me an adulterated food.
• The synonym of "adulterated" is "contaminated."
• The word "contaminated" means something that has been made impure by adding another substance. (कोई ऐसी चीज़ जो किसी अन्य पदार्थ को मिलाकर अशुद्ध कर दी गई हो)
• Example: That water was contaminated.
• In this context, the doctors are saying that the food was contaminated with harmful substances.
• The correct answer is Option 3.

 Additional Information

• Option 1: "Spicy" means having a strong flavor of spices. (मसालेदार, चटपटा)
• Option 2: "Lascivious" means showing a strong sexual desire. (तीव्र यौन इच्छा दर्शाना)
• Option 4: "Damp" means slightly wet. (सीलनभरा)

The correct answer is "Dilapidated."

 Key Points

• "Worn" means damaged and shabby as a result of much use. (अधिक उपयोग के परिणामस्वरूप क्षतिग्रस्त और जर्जर)
• Example: His knees were encased in worn plus fours.
• "Dilapidated" means in a state of disrepair or ruin. (जीर्णता या बर्बादी की स्थिति में)
• Example: The old house was so dilapidated that it was no longer habitable.
• The synonym of "Worn" is "Dilapidated."
• The correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Dilemma means a difficult situation or problem. (दो या अधिक वस्तुओं में से एक का चयन करने की कठिन स्थिति, दुविधा, असमंजस)
• Option 2: Energetic means having or showing great energy or vitality. (शक्ति व उमंग संपन्‍न, ऊर्जायुक्त, कर्मठ)
• Option 4: Diminutive means extremely or unusually small. (सामान्‍य से काफ़ी छोटा, नन्‍हा)

The correct answer is "DEBCA."

 Key Points

• The sentence talks about the recommendation of the theater management for the audience.
• Part D introduces the subject + verb "The theater management recommends" to the sentence. So, this must be the first part.
• The next part is the pair EB as it introduces the relative clause with "that the audience should be there."
• The next part is the object of the sentence, i.e. the pair CA.
• The correct answer is Option 2.
• Correct sentence:

 

The theater management recommends (D) that the audience (E) should be there (B) at least fifteen minutes (C) before the movie starts (A).