SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 02 Aug, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

For, 'MASTER' is related to 'OAIHWJ'

For, 'ROSE' is related to 'JMIW'

Similarly, for 'PLEASE'

So, 'PLEASE' will be related to 'LPWAIW'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The triangles are:

So, there are '7' triangles in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

‘MOST' is coded as '3472' 

'STOW' is coded as '2634’,

Here, OST is common in both the statement, so the remaining number is the code for the remaining letter.

So, 'M' will be coded as '7'. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1^st number × 5 - 3 = 2^nd number.

Now,

For, 17 : 82

⇒ 17 × 5 - 3

⇒ 85 - 3 = 82.

For, 31 : 158

⇒ 31 × 5 + 3

⇒ 155 + 3 = 158.

For, 19 : 92

⇒ 19 × 5 - 3

⇒ 95 - 3 = 92.

For, 47 : 232

⇒ 47 × 5 - 3

⇒ 235 - 3 = 232.

 

Here, Option 1 '31 : 158' is different from the given pairs.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The symbols are getting shifting in clockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: 8 March 1996 was Friday.

1996 to 2006 = 10 Years

And, In 10 Years = 2 Leap years and 8 Ordinary Year (because 1996 is counted from 8 March, so 1996 will be treat as ordinary year).

So, 2 Leap Year has 4 odd days,

And, 8 Ordinary Year has 8 odd days.

Total odd days = 4 + 8 = 12.

12 odd days → 12/7 = 1 week and 5 odd days.

then, 8 March 2006 will be Friday + 5 = Wednesday.

Now, the number of days between 8 March 2006 to 7 April 2006

= 23(March) + 7(April) = 30 days.

= 30 days → 30/7 = 4 week and 2 odd day.

So, 7 April 2006 will be Wednesday + 2 = Friday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

So, '34' is the missing term in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'ALWPH' will be the correct alternative that filled in the blanks in the same sequence will make the series logically complete.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Statements:

Some aprons are chopsticks.

Some chopsticks are forks.

All forks are knives.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some chopsticks are aprons - True (Because, Some aprons are chopsticks also gives Some chopsticks are aprons).

II. No forks are knives - False (Because, All forks are knives).

So, Only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

So, '132' is the missing term in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

‘ARCHED' is coded as '526749'

'CHASED' is coded as '432576’,

Here, 'ACHED' is common in both the statement, so the remaining number is the code for the remaining letter.

So, 'R' will be coded as '9'. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number)2 = 2^nd number.

Now, checking the options:

Option 1) 16 - 276 → (16)2 = 256 ≠ 276.

Option 2) 21 - 441 → (21)2 = 441.

Option 3) 23 - 529 → (23)2 = 529.

Option 4) 19 - 361 → (19)² = 361

So, '16 - 276' is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 109 - 55 × 605 ÷ 77 + 93 = ?

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

⇒ 109 + 55 ÷ 605 × 77 - 93 = ?

⇒ 109 + ${55 \times 77\over 605}$ - 93 = ?

⇒ 109 + 7 - 93 = ?

⇒ 116 - 93 = 23.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'RWHZ' will be the correct alternative that filled in the blanks in the same sequence will make the series logically complete.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1^st number + 11 = 2^nd number.

Now,

For, 30 is related to 41

⇒ 30 + 11 = 41

For, 56 is related to 67

⇒ 56 + 11 = 67.

Similarly, for 12 is related to:

⇒ 12 + 11 = 23.

Here, 12 is related to 23.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'WUQK' will be the correct alternative that filled in the blanks in the same sequence will make the series logically complete.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Family Chart:

Given: 

V is the mother of P.

P is the brother of K.

N, the brother of K, has only one child T.

K is the only granddaughter of H.

So, K is 'Father's sister' of T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 29 ÷ 2 - 14 + 16 × 4 = ?

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

⇒ 29 × 2 + 14 - 16 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 29 × 2 + 14 - 4 = ?

⇒ 58 + 14 - 4 = ?

⇒ 72 - 4 = 68.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) LPM

Option 2) UQT

Option 3) EIF

Option 4) PTQ

Here, 'UQT' is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number)3 - 1 = 2^nd number,

1^st number × 3 - 1 = 3^rd number.

Now,

For, 3 : 26 : 8

⇒ (3)3 - 1 = 27 - 1 = 26.

⇒ 3 × 3 - 1 = 9 - 1 = 8.

For, 7: 342 : 20

⇒ (7)3 - 1 = 343 - 1 = 342.

⇒ 7 × 3 - 1 = 21 - 1 = 20.

Similarly, Option 4) 4 : 63 : 11

⇒ (4)3 - 1 = 64 - 1 = 63.

⇒ 4 × 3 - 1 = 12 - 1 = 11.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

 

Given: N % M # R @ L & K

It means: N is the Daughter of M, M is the Father of R, R is the Son of L, L is the Mother of K.

So, N is the 'Sister' of K.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For, 'HJLI' is related to 'OQSP'

For, 'BDFC' is related to 'IKMJ'

Similarly, for 'NPRO'

So, 'NPRO' will be related to 'UWYV'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

For, 'MPSV' is related to 'ORUX'

For, 'CFIL' is related to 'EHKN'

Similarly, for 'ORUX'

So, 'ORUX' will be related to 'QTWZ'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is Harmonium.

Key Points

• RK Bijapure played Harmonium musical instrument.
• In Kagwad (Belgaum district, Karnataka state, India), Bijapure was born in 1917.
• Bijapure worked in the drama company of Venkobrao Shirahatti as a harmonium player and music director.
• RK Bijapure started “Shri Ram Sangeet Mahavidyalaya” in 1938.​​

Additional Information

• Harmonium is a keyboard instrument.
• It produces sound by blowing air through reeds.
• Tabla is a percussion instrument.
• It is played by striking the surface with the fingers.
• Ravanahatha is a stringed instrument.
• It is played with a bow and is commonly found in Rajasthan.
• Sitar is a stringed instrument.
• It is plucked and is commonly used in classical Indian music.

The correct answer is Only ii.

Key Points

• It is Perfectly interest elastic:
• This statement is incorrect.
• Speculative demand for money is not perfectly interest elastic because it depends on expectations about future interest rate movements.
• It is influenced by various factors such as expectations about future interest rates, risk perceptions, and alternative investment opportunities.
• It is Relatively interest elastic:
• This statement is correct.
• Speculative demand for money is relatively interest elastic because it responds to changes in interest rates, albeit not proportionately.
• When interest rates are expected to rise, people may prefer to hold less money and invest in interest-bearing assets instead.
• Conversely, when interest rates are expected to fall, people may prefer to hold more money.
• It is Perfectly interest inelastic:
• This statement is incorrect.
• Speculative demand for money is not perfectly interest-inelastic because it does respond to changes in interest rates, although not as strongly as some other forms of demand for money.
• It is Relatively interest inelastic:
• This statement is incorrect.
• As mentioned earlier, speculative demand for money is relatively interest elastic, not relatively interest inelastic
• hence only ii is correct.

The correct answer is Fundamental rights.

Key Points

• Fundamental rights are enforceable by the Indian Constitution as they provide citizens with certain rights and freedoms that the government must protect.
• Fundamental rights include the right to equality, freedom of speech and expression, and the right to life and personal liberty.
• The Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law, but it does provide the basic structure and values of the Indian Constitution.
• Directive principles of state policy are guidelines for the government to follow, but they are not enforceable in a court of law.
• Fundamental duties are obligations that citizens are expected to fulfill, but they are not enforceable in a court of law.

Additional Information

• The Indian Constitution is the supreme law of the land and provides the framework for the government and its citizens.
• On November 26, 1949, the Constituent Assembly enacted the Indian Constitution, which became operative on January 26, 1950.
• Directive principles of state policy include provisions for a just and equitable society, protection of the environment, and promotion of education and healthcare.
• Fundamental duties include respecting the Constitution and national flag, promoting harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood, and protecting public property.

The correct answer is Chhota Nagpur plateau.

Key Points

• The Chhota Nagpur plateau in eastern India, covering parts of Jharkhand, Bihar, and Odisha, has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries in India.
• The region has abundant reserves of high-grade iron ore, coal, and limestone, which are the essential raw materials for the production of iron and steel.
• The first iron and steel plant in India, the Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO), was established in 1907 in Jamshedpur, which is located in the Chhota Nagpur plateau region.
• Other major steel plants in the region include the Bokaro Steel Plant, Rourkela Steel Plant, and Durgapur Steel Plant.

Additional Information

• The Western Ghats are a mountain range in western India known for their biodiversity and scenic beauty.
• It is passing across the states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Goa, and Gujarat.
• Bauxite, manganese, and iron ores abound in the Western Ghats.
• The Deccan Plateau is a large plateau in southern India known for its agriculture, mineral resources, and historical monuments.
• Its northern boundary is formed by the Vindhya and Satpura Ranges.
• Numerous industries, like as steel, chemicals, mining, and textile production, are based in the Deccan Plateau.
• The Indo-Gangetic plains are a fertile plain in northern India known for their agriculture and population density.
• In the Indo Gangetic, farming, fishing, and animal husbandry are the primary industries.

The correct answer is Rann of Kachchh.

Key Points 

• Rann of Kachchh is located in the state of Gujarat in India.
• The Wild Ass Sanctuary in Rann of Kachchh is home to the endangered Indian Wild Ass, also known as the Ghudkhur.
• The sanctuary spans across an area of 5,000 sq km and also houses other species like desert fox, wolf, and chinkara.
• The Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 applied to the wildlife sanctuary when it was established in 1972.

Additional Information

• Sunderbans:
• It is located in the delta region of the Bay of Bengal.
• It is a mangrove forest and declared as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• It is home to the Royal Bengal Tiger and other species like saltwater crocodile, Indian python, and spotted deer.
• Ladakh:
• It is located in the northernmost region of India.
• It is known for its unique culture, high altitude lakes, and stunning landscapes.
• It is also home to rare species like the snow leopard, Tibetan wolf, and Himalayan griffon.
• Spiti Valley:
• It is located in the Himalayan region.
• It is known for its rugged terrain and Buddhist monasteries.
• It is home to rare species like the Himalayan ibex, snow leopard, and Tibetan wolf.

The correct answer is Number of machines used in a factory.

Key Points

• Flow concept refers to a variable that is measured over a period of time, such as revenue, expenses, production, or consumption.
• Profit of a corporation and output produced by a firm are flow concepts because they are measured over a specific period, such as a year, a quarter, or a month.
• Interest expense on a loan is also a flow concept because it represents the amount of money paid or accrued over time to borrow money.
• Number of machines used in a factory is NOT a flow concept because it is a stock concept that represents the quantity of a resource at a specific point in time, rather than the rate of change or flow of that resource.
• Other examples of stock concepts include inventory, capital, assets, liabilities, and equity.

Additional Information

• Any quantity that can be measured over time is referred to as flow, whereas stock refers to any quantity that can only be measured at a specific moment in time.
• The flow and the stock are mutually dependent.
• Stock affects flow because more capital will result in a higher flow of services.
• Flow affects stock; for example, an economy's increased money supply leads to an increase in the total amount of money.

The correct answer is "Inward looking trade strategy."

Key Points

• Import substitution strategy refers to a government policy aimed at promoting domestic production by substituting imported goods with domestically produced goods.
• Import substitution strategy is also known as inward looking trade strategy which aims to produce goods domestically which are imported to our nation.
• This strategy involves imposing tariffs and other trade barriers on imported goods to make them more expensive and less competitive in the domestic market.
• The goal of import substitution is to reduce a country's reliance on imports and build up its domestic industries, which can lead to economic growth and development.

Additional Information

• "Make in India campaign," is a government initiative to promote manufacturing and investment in India.
• The Prime Minister introduced the Made in India program in September 2014 as a component of a larger series of nation-building programs.
• "Outward looking trade strategy," refers to a policy of promoting exports and opening up to international trade.
• The widely recognized definition of the outward-oriented trade strategy based on price incentives is when the effective exchange rate (EERx) of the nation is lower than its import rate (EERm).
• "Balanced trade strategy," refers to a policy of maintaining a balance between imports and exports.
• Controlling inflation and enforcing tariffs or other barriers, including import certificates, on a country-by-country basis are two ways to implement balanced trade.

The correct answer is Tapu.

Key Points

• Tapu is a traditional dance form of the Adi tribe of Arunachal Pradesh, which is performed during festivals and rituals.
• The dance is usually performed by both men and women, who wear traditional costumes and ornaments while dancing.
• The movements in Tapu are slow and graceful, with emphasis on hand and foot gestures, and the dancers often sing along with the music.
• The dance is believed to have originated from the mythological story of the Adi tribe, which tells the tale of a goddess who taught the dance to the people.

Additional Information

• Karma is a popular folk dance of the Gond tribe in Madhya Pradesh.
• Karma, a well-known fall celebration, begins on the eleventh day of the light fortnight in the month of Bhadrab.
• Sangphao is a traditional dance of the Naga tribe in Nagaland.
• Two persons chant invocations to the spirits to start the dance.
• Within the Bastar area of Chhattisgarh state, the Abuj Maria tribe is well-known for their Kaksar dance.

The correct answer is Whole of India.

Key Points

• The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 was introduced as a means to deter economic offenders from evading the Indian legal system and fleeing the country.
• The Act allows for the attachment and confiscation of the properties of an individual who is declared a fugitive economic offender.
• The Act also establishes a special court to deal with such cases.
• The Act applies to any individual who has committed an offence involving an amount of Rs 100 crore or more and has fled the country to avoid prosecution.
• The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, which has come into force on the 21^st of April 2018, extends to whole of India.

Additional Information

• The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 is an important tool in combating economic offences and ensuring that offenders are held accountable for their actions.
• On March 12, 2018, the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act's bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha, and on July 25, 2018, it was passed.
• The Act also allows for the provisional attachment of all of the offender's assets and their ultimate confiscation upon the Special Court's designation of the offender as a fugitive economic offender.

The correct answer is Article 42.

Key Points

• Article 42 states that the State shall make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.
• This means that a working woman on maternity leave is entitled to receive all maternity benefits from her employer, as mandated by law.
• Maternity benefits may include paid leave, medical expenses, and other allowances.
• It is important for employers to comply with these provisions to ensure the well-being and protection of working mothers and their children.

Additional Information

• Article 44, states that the State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
• Article 45, states that the State shall endeavor to provide free and compulsory education to all children until they complete the age of fourteen years.
• Article 43, states that the State shall endeavor to secure for workers a living wage, conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life, and full enjoyment of leisure and social and cultural opportunities..

The correct answer is Only A.

Key Points

• A higher inflation rate indicates that the general price level of goods and services in an economy is increasing.
• This means that consumers will have to pay more for the same goods and services, resulting in a decrease in their purchasing power.
• As a result, businesses will produce less, leading to lower real GDP.
• This relationship between inflation and real GDP is known as the Phillips Curve, which suggests an inverse relationship between the two variables.
• However, it is important to note that this relationship holds only in the short run.
• In the long run, the Phillips Curve becomes vertical, indicating that there is no tradeoff between inflation and real GDP.
• Higher inflation does lead to lower real GDP in the short run, ceteris paribus.

Additional Information

• A country's market value of all the finished goods and services significant to a particular economic sector, are used to measure inflation.
• Price indices, which focus on the costs of a variety of goods and services significant to a particular economic sector, are used to measure inflation.
• A positive relationship between inflation and real GDP, is not supported by economic theory or empirical evidence.
• Nominal GDP and real GDP are not always equal.
• Nominal GDP is the total value of goods and services produced in an economy, measured at current prices, while real GDP adjusts for inflation and measures economic output in constant dollars.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Scheduled Tribes are indigenous people who are recognized by the Indian government as belonging to specific ethnic and cultural groups.
• They are entitled to certain benefits and protections under the Indian Constitution and various government schemes.
• According to the census of 2011, Madhya Pradesh had the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribes in the country with 21.1% of the total population.
• Rajasthan had a Scheduled Tribe population of 13.5%, which was lower than that of Madhya Pradesh.
• Maharashtra had a Scheduled Tribe population of 10.1%, which was even lower than Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.

Important Points

• The state and UT of India with the highest percentage of the tribal population to its total population as per the 2011 census is Mizoram(94.4 %) and Lakshadweep(94.8 %).
• The state has a minimum ratio of Scheduled tribes, as per Census-2011 Uttar Pradesh (0.6%).
• The total population of tribes in India is 8.6 % of the total population of the country.

Additional Information

• Rajasthan:
• ​It is the largest state in India in terms of area and is known for its rich cultural heritage and historical monuments.
• It has a diverse population with various ethnic groups living together.
• The state has a total population of around 68 million people.
• Maharashtra:
• It is the third-largest state in India and is known for its economic and cultural importance.
• Mumbai, the financial capital of India, is located in Maharashtra.
• The state has a total population of around 112 million people.
• Chhattisgarh:
• It is a relatively new state that was carved out of Madhya Pradesh in 2000.
• It is known for its natural resources, including coal and iron ore.
• The state has a total population of around 28 million people.

The correct answer is San Francisco.

Key Points

• The Ghadar Movement was a revolutionary movement founded by Punjabi Indians in 1913 with the aim of overthrowing British rule in India.
• The headquarters of the Ghadar Movement was located in San Francisco, USA.
• San Francisco was chosen as the headquarters due to its large population of Punjabi Indians and its location as a major port city for international communication and travel.
• The Ghadar Movement published a newspaper called Ghadar, which was printed in several languages and distributed throughout India and other parts of the world.

Additional Information

• London was a major center for Indian political activity during the time of the Ghadar Movement.
• New York was also a center for Indian political activity.
• ​The five boroughs that make up New York City are located where the Hudson River and the Atlantic Ocean converge.
• Kabul was the capital city of Afghanistan.
• 22 municipal districts make up its administrative division.

The correct answer is Akbar.

Key Points

• Mansabdari system was introduced by Akbar during his reign in the Mughal Empire.
• The system was a hierarchical ranking system based on military and administrative roles.
• It was designed to ensure loyalty and control over the nobility and military officials.
• The system required officials to maintain a certain number of soldiers and horses, and their rank was determined by the number of soldiers and horses they maintained.
• Akbar also introduced the concept of dual government, where the empire was divided into provinces and each province was governed by a governor and a revenue collector.

Additional Information

• Shah Jahan was the fifth Mughal Emperor and was known for his architectural achievements, such as the Taj Mahal.
• ​From 1628 until 1658, he was king.
• Aurangzeb was the sixth Mughal Emperor and is known for his religious policies and expansion of the empire.
• ​From 1658 until his passing in 1707, he was king.
• Jahangir was the fourth Mughal Emperor and is known for his love for art and culture.
• From 1605 until his passing in 1627, he was king.

The correct answer is Physical quality of life index.

Key Points

• The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) is the best indicator to assess the living standard of people as it takes into account three basic dimensions of human life: basic literacy, life expectancy, and infant mortality rate.
• PQLI is a comprehensive indicator that measures the overall well-being of people, including their health, education, and standard of living.
• Literacy rate is an important indicator of the educational level of people, but it does not provide a complete picture of their living standard.
• Neonatal mortality rate and maternal mortality rate are important health indicators, but they do not capture the full range of factors that affect the living standard of people.

Additional Information

• Literacy rate:
• It is the percentage of people who can read and write in a given population.
• It is an important indicator of the educational level of people and their ability to access information and participate in the economy and society.
• Neonatal mortality rate:
• It is the number of deaths of infants under 28 days of age per 1,000 live births in a given population.
• It is an important health indicator that reflects the quality of maternal and child health care and the overall level of development of a society.
• Maternal mortality rate:
• It is the number of deaths of women due to pregnancy or childbirth-related complications per 100,000 live births in a given population.
• According to UN inter-agency projections, the worldwide maternal mortality ratio (MMR) decreased by 34% between 2000 and 2020, from 339 deaths to 223 deaths per 100,000 live births.

The correct answer is Rani Rampal.

Key Points

• Coach and field hockey player Rani Rampal is Indian.
• She was the youngest player on the national squad that competed in the 2010 World Cup, having turned 15 years old.
• Rani Rampal is a renowned Indian female hockey player who has led the Indian women's hockey team to various victories, including the silver medal at the 2018 Asian Games and the qualification for the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
• A stadium was named after Rani Rampal's name in March 2023.

Additional Information

• Poonam Rani is also an Indian female hockey player.
• ​It is claimed that after witnessing India win the gold medal at the 2002 Commonwealth Games in Manchester, England, she became encouraged to play hockey.
• Sushila Chanu is another Indian female hockey player.
• ​She has 150 international caps to her name and was the captain of the Indian national team in the past.
• Navjot Kaur is also an Indian female hockey player.
• ​She is competing in the Summer Olympics for India's women's hockey squad.

The correct answer is Lactose.

Key Points

• Lactitol is a sugar alcohol that is commonly used as a low-calorie sweetener and a bulking agent in various food products.
• It is derived through the hydrogenation of lactose, which is a disaccharide composed of glucose and galactose.
• Glucose is a monosaccharide that is commonly used as a sweetener and a source of energy in the body, but it is not directly involved in the production of lactitol.

Additional Information

• Lactose is a natural sugar found in milk and dairy products, and it is commonly used as a substrate for the production of lactitol through hydrogenation.
• Maltose is a natural sugar found in grains and malt products, and it is commonly used as a substrate for the production of other sugar alcohols such as maltitol and sorbitol.
• Maltose is a disaccharide composed of two glucose molecules
• Lactic acid is commonly used as a food preservative and a flavoring agent, and it is also produced in the body during intense exercise and certain medical conditions.
• Lactic acid is a byproduct of anaerobic metabolism in muscle cells and certain bacteria
• Glucose is a primary source of energy for the body and is commonly used as a sweetener and a bulking agent in various food products.
• It can also be produced through the hydrolysis of starch and other carbohydrates.

The correct answer is Kabaddi.

Key Points

• Tackle point refers to a situation in Kabaddi where a defender successfully stops an opponent raider from crossing the midline of the court.
• Kabaddi is a contact sport that originated in India and is now played professionally in several countries.
• India has competed in kabaddi at four Asian Games and has won gold each time.
• India plays four different types of kabaddi: Amar, Suranjeevi, Huttuttoo, and Gaminee.
• Points in Kabaddi game is: Out, Bonus, All out, Technical, Super Tackle and if any team does not gain score in 3 consecutive attacks, then 1 point is given to the opposing team.

Additional Information

• Football is also known as soccer.
• It involves players using their feet to kick a ball and score goals.
• Baseball is a bat-and-ball game.
• It is played between two teams of nine players each, with the aim of scoring runs by hitting the ball thrown by the pitcher.
• Hockey is a team sport played on ice or field.
• ​Here players use sticks to hit a ball or puck into the opposing team's goal.

The correct answer is Vikram Dev Dutt.

Key Points

• Vikram Dev Dutt was appointed as the next Director General in the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) in January 2023.
• He is a senior Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer from the 1991 batch of the Gujarat cadre.
• He has held various positions in the central and state governments, including as the Principal Secretary in the Gujarat Chief Minister's Office and as the Joint Secretary in the Ministry of Civil Aviation.

Additional Information

• Arvind Singh, is currently serving as the Chairman of the Airports Authority of India (AAI).
• He was previously the Managing Director of the Bangalore International Airport Limited (BIAL).
• MR synerm is a MD of Indian Tourism development corporation.
• ​He is an experienced IAS officer belonging to the Assam-Meghalaya Cadre's 2002 Batch.
• V Vidyavathi is the first woman to be appointed as the Director General of Police (DGP) in Karnataka.

The correct answer is Iodine test.

Key Points

• The iodine test is used for starch detection because iodine reacts with the starch molecules to form a blue-black color complex.
• The glucose test is used to detect the presence of glucose in a sample, not starch.
• Starch is a complex carbohydrate made up of glucose molecules.
• It is a common source of energy in many foods such as rice, potatoes, and bread.

Additional Information

• The glucose test involves the use of a reagent such as Benedict's solution, which changes color in the presence of reducing sugars such as glucose.
• The salt test is a test used to check the purity of a sample by adding salt to the sample and observing any changes in the physical properties such as solubility or melting point.
• The sodium test is a test used to detect the presence of sodium ions in a sample.
• It involves the use of a reagent such as , which reacts with sodium ions to form a yellow precipitate.
• Starch is an important component of many foods and is a major source of energy for humans and animals.
• It is also used in many industrial applications such as papermaking and textile manufacturing.

The correct answer is Rs. 200 bank cheque.

Key Points

• Fiat money is a currency that has value because the government has declared it to be legal tender.
• In India, fiat money includes currency notes and coins issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• Rs. 500 currency note is an example of fiat money as it is a currency note issued by the RBI and has value because the government has declared it to be legal tender.
• Rather than the value of the commodity supporting it, the value of fiat money is determined by the relationship of supply and demand as well as the stability of the issuing government.

Additional Information

• Fiat money is defined as money that has been issued by the government and is not backed by a tangible asset like gold or silver.
• Instead, the government is the one issuing the money.
• Rs. 200 bank cheque is not an example of fiat money as it is not a currency issued by the RBI.
• It is a negotiable instrument that represents the funds in a bank account.
• Rs. 20 coin is an example of fiat money as it is a coin issued by the RBI and has value because the government has declared it to be legal tender.
• Rs. 10 coin is also an example of fiat money as it is a coin issued by the RBI and has value because the government has declared it to be legal tender.

The correct answer is 5 wickets.

Key Points

• India defeated Australia by 5 wickets in the first ODI of the three-match series in March 2023 at Mumbai's Wankhede Stadium.
• This win gave India a 1-0 lead in the series.
• Australia won the toss and elected to bat first.
• Australia scored 188 runs for 10 wickets in 35.4 overs.
• India chased down the target in 39.5 overs, losing 5 wickets.
• KL Rahul (75 not out) and Ravindra Jadeja (45 not out) were the top scorers for India.

Additional Information

• A limited-overs cricket match between two teams with international status is called a One Day International (ODI).
• It is played over a set number of overs, typically 50, in a single day.
• Limited Overs Internationals (LOI) is another name for One Day International matches.
• Australia and England played their first One-Day International (ODI) at the Melbourne Cricket Ground on January 5, 1971.

The correct answer is All a, b and c.

Key Points

• Sarhul festival is celebrated in Jharkhand by the tribal communities to worship nature and its elements.
• During the Sarhul festival, Sal tree flowers are collected and offered to God as they symbolize the fertility of Earth.
• The Sarhul festival marks the beginning of spring and is celebrated to seek blessings for a good harvest.
• The festival is also a symbol of unity and brotherhood among the tribal communities.

Additional Information

• The Sal tree is a sacred tree in Hinduism and is also known as Shala tree.
• Its wood is used for making furniture, boats, and agricultural tools.
• The tree is also known for its medicinal properties and is used in Ayurvedic medicine.
• Sarhul festival represents the start of the new year.
• The celebration lasts for three days, starting on Sukla Paksh's third day of the month of Chaitra and ending on Chaitra Purnima.
• The Sarhul festival is also celebrated in other states like Odisha and Bihar, but with different rituals and traditions.

The correct answer is Waheeda Rehman.

Key Points

• Waheeda Rehman is a veteran actress and dancer who has worked in Hindi, Tamil, Telugu, and Bengali films.
• She has won several awards for her performances, including the National Film Award for Best Actress.
• In 2011, Waheeda Rehman was honoured with the Padma Bhushan award for her contribution to Indian cinema.
• Some of her notable films include "Guide", "Pyaasa", "Kabhi Kabhie", and "Trishul".
• Waheeda Rehman is considered to be one of the finest actresses in Indian cinema and has inspired generations of actors with her performances.

Additional Information

• Padma Bhushan is the third-highest civilian award in India, given for distinguished service of a high order in any field.
• Hema Malini is also known as the "Dream Girl" of Bollywood.
• She is a popular actress and dancer who has won several awards for her contributions to Indian cinema.
• Meena Kumari was a legendary actress who was known for her powerful performances in films like "Pakeezah" and "Sahib Bibi Aur Ghulam".
• Rekha is a versatile actress who has acted in over 180 films and has won several awards, including the National Film Award for Best Actress.

The correct answer is Ponnani.

Key Points

• Bharathapuzha is also known as River Nila or River Ponnani.
• Bharathapuzha is the second longest river in Kerala, flowing for a distance of 209 km.
• It originates from the Anamalai hills in Tamil Nadu and flows through Palakkad district before draining into the Arabian Sea.
• Bharathapuzha is 250 km long in total, of which 41 km stretch along Tamil Nadu, its source state.

Additional Information

• Ittikkara:
• Ittikara river is situated in Kollam district in kerala.
• The origin of itthikara river is from the low hills situated near Madthuri Kunnu at about +240m above M.S.L.
• Ayiroor:
• It lies in the western portion of Ranni taluk, in the Pathanamthitta district of Kerala state, India,which is close to Thiruvalla.
• Ayiroor is situated along the Ayiroorpuzha river, which is among the tiniest rivers in Kerala, second only to the Manjeshwaram puzha.
• Kallayi: 
• This river is in Kerala.
• Its starting point is at an elevation of 45 meters (148 feet) in Cherikkulathur, in the Western Ghats.
• Its length is 22 kilometers.

Shortcut Trick

Assume Total Work is the LCM of 10 and 15, which is 30 units.

Efficiency of A = 3 units/day and Efficiency of B = 2 units/day.

When a person leaves before completion, add their potential work to the total: Total Days = (Total Work + Work of person who left) ÷ Total Efficiency.

Total Days = (30 + 3 × 5) ÷ (3 + 2) = 45 ÷ 5 = 9 days.

∴ The correct answer is 9 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A = 10 days

Time taken by B = 15 days

A left 5 days before the work was completed.

Calculations:

⇒ Let the total work be completed in x days.

⇒ A worked for (x − 5) days and B worked for x days.

⇒ Total work = (Efficiency of A × Time of A) + (Efficiency of B × Time of B)

⇒ 30 = 3 × (x − 5) + 2 × x

⇒ 30 = 3x − 15 + 2x

⇒ 30 + 15 = 5x

⇒ 45 = 5x

⇒ x = 9 days

∴ The correct answer is 9 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken. If time ratio is a:b, then efficiency ratio is b:a.

Work and Wages

Wages are generally distributed in the ratio of the work done by each person (Efficiency × Time).

Pipes and Cisterns

Similar logic applies; however, outlet pipes have negative efficiency as they empty the tank.

Leaving Before Completion Trick

If a person leaves n days before completion, add their n days of work to the Total Work and divide by the sum of efficiencies.

Given:

 x : y : z = 3 : 4 : 5

Calculation:

Let x = 3k y = 4k and z = 5k

So value of $(\frac{x}{y}) : (\frac{y}{z}) : (\frac{z}{x})$ is 

 3k/4k ; 4k/5k : 5k/3k

⇒ 3/4 : 4/5 : 5/3

⇒ (3/4) × 60 : (4/5) × 60 : (5/3) × 60

⇒ 3 × 15 : 4 × 12 : 5 × 20 = 45 : 48 : 100

 ∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

 cos θ + sec θ = $√{3}$,

Formula used:

cos3θ + sec3θ =  (cos θ + sec θ)³ - 3(cos θ + sec θ)

Calculation: 

cos3θ + sec3θ =  (cos θ + sec θ)3 - 3(cos θ + sec θ)

⇒ (√3)³ - 3√3

⇒ 3√3  - 3√3 = 0

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Calculation:

If a student secures 80% or more in a subject, the student is considered to have received a distinction in the subject.

In Geography Tanvi gets 85 /100 which is 85% .

∴ The correct option is 3

Mistake Points The question is, "The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six different subjects in an examination."

So,

The percentage marks are given, not the absolute marks.

For example,

In computer science, Ayush's mark given in the table is 80. It means Ayush got 80% in computer science.

Ayush's marks in computer science = 80% of 40 = 32 marks out of 40

Now, the question asked, who among the students below received a distinction in exactly one of the six subjects?

So the question is, who among them received 80% or more marks in only one subject?

Tanvi received 80% or more marks only in Geography. So Tanvi is the right answer.

Concept used:

The sum of the digits should be divisible by 9

Calculation:

Sum of the digits of the number 13051 is 1 + 3 +0 + 5 + 1 = 10

We have to add 8 which means 10 + 8 = 18 to make it divisible by 9

So the number will be 13051 + 8 = 13059

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

Height =  21 cm and slant height = 29 cm

Formula used:

Volume =$\frac{1}{3}$​​​​πr²h ( r = radius and h = height)

Slant height(l) = √(r² + h²)

Calculation: 

Slant height(l) = √(r2 + h2)

29 = √(r2 + 212)

⇒ 841 - 441 = r2 

⇒  r2 = 400

⇒ r = 20

The volume will be ,

$\frac{1}{3}$ × π × 20 × 20 × 21

⇒  × 22/7 × 20 × 20 × 21

⇒ 22 × 20 × 20 = 8800 cm3

∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

Principal =  Rs. 75,000 , rate of interest = 9%

Formula used:

Simple interest = P × R × T / 100 [ P = principal, R = rate of interest, T = time]

Calculation: 

Here total number of days will be 73 days

The simple interest for those  73 days is 

 SI = (75,000 × 9 × 73)/(365 × 100)

⇒ 150 × 9 = Rs 1350

Total amount to be paid 75000 +  1350 =  Rs 76350

∴ The correct option is 2

Calculation:

The total amount spent during the year 1999 was Rs. 46,000,

The amount spent on food was 23%

So value of 23% will be 46000 × 23/100 = Rs. 10,580

∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

cos(3α) = sin(α - 22°)

Concept used:

Cos θ = sin (90° - θ)

Calculation: 

Here ,

 cos(3α) = sin(α - 22°)

⇒  sin (90° - 3α) = sin(α - 22°)

⇒ (90° - 3α) = (α - 22°)

⇒ 4α = 112

⇒ α = 28°

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

secθ - tanθ = m

Formula used:

sec²θ - tan²θ = 1

Concept used:

secθ - tanθ = m , secθ + tanθ = 1 /m

Calculation: 

secθ - tanθ = m ........ 1

, secθ + tanθ = 1 /m ..... 2 

By deducting equation 1 from 2 we get

secθ + tanθ = 1 /m

secθ - tanθ = m

⇒ 2 tanθ = 1/m - m

⇒ $\frac{1-m^2}{m}$

∴ The correct option is 2

Shortcut Trick

Total weight increase in the group = Total players × Increase in average weight

Total weight increase = 12 × 1.5 = 18 kg

New player weight = Old player weight + Total increase

New player weight = 63 kg + 18 kg = 81 kg

∴ The correct answer is 81 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of players = 12

Weight of the replaced player = 63 kg

Increase in average weight = 1.5 kg

Calculation:

⇒ Let the initial average weight of 12 players be 'A' kg.

⇒ Total weight of the group = 12A kg

⇒ New total weight after replacement = 12A − 63 + (New Player Weight)

⇒ New average = A + 1.5

⇒ (12A − 63 + New Player Weight) ÷ 12 = A + 1.5

⇒ 12A − 63 + New Player Weight = 12(A + 1.5)

⇒ 12A − 63 + New Player Weight = 12A + 18

⇒ New Player Weight = 18 + 63

⇒ New Player Weight = 81 kg

∴ The correct answer is 81 kg.

Additional Information

Replacement Rule in Average

When one item is replaced, the change in total weight is always equal to (Number of items × Change in average). New Value = Replaced Value + (n × ΔAverage).

Average of a Group

The average weight is the sum of weights of all members divided by the total number of members. Average = (Sum) ÷ (Count).

Effect of Addition vs Replacement

In replacement, the count (n) remains constant. In addition, the count increases to (n+1), which requires a different calculation for the new average.

Given:

In a 5 km race, S gave a 500 m head start to T.

Concept used:

Distance = speed × time 

Calculation:

When S moves 5 km then T moves (5 - 0.5) = 4.5 km

Speed of T is 13.5 km / h 

So T moves moves 4.5 km in = 4.5/13.5 = 1/3 hour = 20 minutes

S moves 5 km in 1/3 hour

So in 1 hr S moves = 5 × 3/1 = 15 km / h

  ∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

Chord AB =  20 cm ,  radius of the circle = 12 cm

Concept used:

OP is perpendicular on AB and height of  triangle AOB

Formula used:

Area of a triangle = 1/2 × base × height

Calculation:  

As per the question,

OP = √12² - 10²

⇒√44 = 2√11

Base = AB = 20 cm height = 2√11

The area of  triangle AOB is,

1/2 × AB  × OP 

⇒ 1/2 × 20  × 2√11 = $20\sqrt{11}$ cm2​​

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

tanθ = $\frac{8}{19}$

Formula used:

sec²θ - tan²θ = 1

Calculation:

sec2θ - tan2θ = 1

sec2θ = tan2θ + 1

sec2θ = (8/19)² + 1

⇒  1 + (64/361)  = $1\frac{64}{361}$

 ∴ The correct option is 4

Shortcut Trick

Difference in quantity = (5 breads + 1 juice) − (3 breads + 1 juice) = 2 breads.

Difference in price = 433.50 − 323.50 = ₹110.

Cost of 1 bread = 110 ÷ 2 = ₹55.

Cost of 1 juice packet = 323.50 − (3 × 55) = ₹158.50.

Cost of 2 breads + 2 juices = 2 × (55 + 158.50) = 2 × 213.50 = ₹427.

∴ The correct answer is ₹427.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost of 3 breads and 1 juice packet = ₹323.50

Cost of 5 breads and 1 juice packet = ₹433.50

Let the cost of one bread be B and one juice packet be J.

⇒ 3B + J = 323.50 −−− (1)

⇒ 5B + J = 433.50 −−− (2)

Subtracting equation (1) from (2):

⇒ (5B + J) − (3B + J) = 433.50 − 323.50

⇒ 2B = 110

⇒ B = 55

Substitute B = 55 in equation (1):

⇒ 3(55) + J = 323.50

⇒ 165 + J = 323.50

⇒ J = 323.50 − 165 = 158.50

Required cost for 2 breads and 2 juice packets:

⇒ 2B + 2J = 2(B + J)

⇒ 2(55 + 158.50)

⇒ 2 × 213.50 = 427

∴ The correct answer is ₹427.

Additional Information

Linear Equations in Two Variables

These are equations of the form ax + by = c. They can be solved using the elimination method or substitution method.

Elimination Method

This involves adding or subtracting equations to remove one variable, making it easier to solve for the other.

Unitary Method

The technique of finding the value of a single unit and then multiplying by the desired number of units to find the total value.

Given: 

PrincipalPrincepal = Rs. 40000 , Amount = Rs. 46656 , rate of interest = 8%

Formula used:

For compound interest, Amount = P (1 + R/100)n [ P = principal, R = rate of interest and n = number of years}

Calculation:

As per the question,

 46656 =  40000 (1 + 8/100)n [

⇒  (1 + 8/100)n = 46656 / 40000

⇒  (1 + 2/25)n = 729/ 625

⇒  (27/25)n = 729/ 625

From here we can say that

n = 2 years 

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

The ratio of the sides 9 : 4 , Area of the larger triangle is 243 sq.cm

Concept used:

Area of larger triangle / Area of smaller triangle =  (side)² of larger triangle /  (side)2 of smaller triangle

Calculation: 

Let the area of smaller triangle = x

As per the question,

⇒ 243 / x = 9² / 4² 

⇒ 243 / x = 81 / 16

⇒ x = 16 × 3

⇒ x =  48 sq.cm

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

a = $\frac{1}{a-√{6}}$

Formula used:

$(a + \frac{1}{a})^2 = (a - \frac{1}{a})^2 + 4$

Calculation:

a = $\frac{1}{a-√{6}}$

⇒ $a^2 - √6a = 1$

⇒ $a - \frac{1}{ a} = √6$

⇒ $(a + \frac{1}{ a})^2 =6 + 4$

⇒ $(a + \frac{1}{a})^2 = 10$

⇒$(a+ \frac{1}{ a}) = √10$ 

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

The marked price = 30% above its cost price.

Discount = 12%

Concept used:

SP = CP + profit

Profit/ loss is calculated on the cost price and discount on the market price.

Calculation:

Let the CP is = 100

The marked price is = 130

The selling price will be,

⇒ 130 × 88/100 =114.4

The profit percentage will be,

⇒ 100 - 114.40

⇒ 14.4% profit

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

 x = $\frac{1}{x-5}$

Formula used:

(a + b)² = (a - b)² + 4ab

Calculation:

x = 1/ (x -5)

⇒ x² - 5x = 1

Dividing both sides by x,

⇒ x - 5 = 1/x

⇒ x - 1/x = 5

(x + 1/x)2 = (x - 1/x)2 + 4 × x × 1/x

⇒ (x + 1/x)² = 5² + 4

⇒ (x + 1/ x)2 = 29

⇒ (x +  1/ x) = √29

 ∴ The correct option is 2.

Given:

The marked price = 40% above its cost price.

Discount = 10%. Selling price is  Rs. 3,780

Concept used:

SP = CP + profit

Profit/ loss is calculated on the cost price and discount on the market price.

Calculation:

Let the CP is = 100

The market price is = 140

The selling price will be,

⇒ 140 × 90/100 = 126

The profit percentage will be,

⇒ 100 - 126

⇒ 26 % profit

∴ The correct option is 2

Calculation: 

In the production increase of D-type cars in the year 2022 in comparison to the previous year is, (2100 - 1975) = 125

The percentage will be (125 / 1975) × 100 = 6.33%

∴ The correct option is 4

Shortcut Trick

The length of an arc subtending an angle θ is given by (θ/360) × Circumference.

For θ = 90°, the arc length is exactly 1/4 of the total circumference.

Total Circumference (2πr) = 2 × (22/7) × 14 = 88 cm.

Required Arc Length = 88 ÷ 4 = 22 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 22 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius (r) = 14 cm

Central Angle (θ) = 90°

Value of π = 22/7

Formula Used:

Length of Arc (l) = (θ / 360°) × 2πr

Calculations:

⇒ l = (90 / 360) × 2 × (22/7) × 14

⇒ l = (1 / 4) × 2 × 22 × (14 / 7)

⇒ l = (1 / 4) × 44 × 2

⇒ l = (1 / 4) × 88

⇒ l = 22 cm

∴ The correct answer is 22 cm.

Additional Information

Area of a Sector

The area of a sector with radius r and angle θ is given by Area = (θ/360) × πr² or Area = (1/2) × l × r.

Perimeter of a Sector

The total boundary of a sector includes the arc length and two radii: Perimeter = l + 2r.

Circumference and Diameter

The ratio of the circumference to the diameter (2r) is always constant and is represented by π ≈ 22/7 or 3.14.

Shortcut Trick

According to the question, 30% of the Marked Price is equal to the discount amount.

30% → ₹1,110

1% → 1,110 ÷ 30 = 37

100% (Marked Price) → 37 × 100 = ₹3,700

∴ The correct answer is ₹3,700.

Alternate Method

Given:

Discount Percentage = 30%

Discount Value = ₹1,110

Formula Used:

Discount = (Discount% ÷ 100) × Marked Price (MP)

Calculations:

⇒ Discount = 30% of Marked Price

⇒ 1,110 = (30 ÷ 100) × MP

⇒ MP = (1,110 × 100) ÷ 30

⇒ MP = 37 × 100

⇒ MP = ₹3,700

∴ The correct answer is ₹3,700.

Additional Information

Marked Price and Selling Price Relation

The Selling Price (SP) is calculated by subtracting the discount from the Marked Price (MP): SP = MP − Discount.

Discount Percentage Formula

Discount % is always calculated on the Marked Price: Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100.

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts of a% and b% are given, the equivalent single discount is given by (a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100)%.

Shortcut Trick

Total Selling Price (SP) = Initial Cost Price (CP) × (100 + P₁)% × (100 − L₂)%

SP = 37,800 × 108% × 96%

SP = 37,800 × 1.08 × 0.96 = 39,191.04

Rounding to the nearest rupee, we get 39,191.

∴ The correct answer is ₹39,191.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price for S = ₹37,800

Profit percentage of S = 8%

Loss percentage of P = 4%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × (100 ± Profit/Loss %)/100

Calculations:

⇒ Price at which S sells to P (which is CP for P) = 37,800 × (108/100)

⇒ CP for P = 378 × 108 = ₹40,824

⇒ Price at which P sells to Q (SP for P) = 40,824 × (100 − 4)/100

⇒ SP for P = 40,824 × 0.96

⇒ SP for P = 39,191.04

⇒ Rounding to the nearest rupee, we get ₹39,191.

∴ The correct answer is ₹39,191.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value changes by x% and then y%, the net effective change is given by [x + y + (xy/100)]%.

Relation between CP and SP

Selling Price = Cost Price + Profit OR Cost Price − Loss. Profit % and Loss % are always calculated on the Cost Price unless stated otherwise.

Rounding Rules

If the decimal part is 0.5 or more, round up to the next integer. If it is less than 0.5, round down to the current integer.

The correct answer is: The cookies were baked on the weekend by Daddy.

Key Points

• In passive voice, the focus is on the action and the recipient of the action rather than the person or thing performing the action.
• Active Voice Structure: Subject + Verb + Object
• Example: The chef prepared a delicious meal. (Active)
• Passive Voice Structure: Object + "to be" + Past Participle of the main verb + By + Subject
• Example: A delicious meal was prepared by the chef. (Passive)
• Here, in the given sentence:
• The subject (Daddy), verb (baked), and object (the cookies).
• Place the object as the subject: "The cookies."
• Use the appropriate form of "to be": "were" (past tense).
• Use the past participle of the main verb: "baked."
• Include the original subject with "by"

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is: Tolerant

Key Points

• Severe means extremely intense or harsh. (गंभीर)
• Example: The patient's condition is severe; immediate medical attention is required.
• Marked option Tolerant means showing acceptance or openness towards differences. (सहनशील)
• Example: A tolerant person embraces diverse perspectives and respects varying opinions.
• So, the correct antonym for "severe" in the given sentence would be a word indicating a less intense or serious level of injury, such as "tolerant".

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Implacable means relentless or unstoppable. (कठोरचित्त)
• Furious means extremely angry or enraged. (आगबबूला)
• Pungent means having a strong, sharp taste or smell. (तिक्त)

The correct answer is: ​the thieves have leave.

Key Points

• The error is related to the verb tense.
• In this case, the present perfect tense "have leave" is incorrect.
• The correct form should be in the past tense, as the action of leaving occurred before the recalling in the past.
• The correct phrase should be "the thieves had left."
• Corrected sentence: He finally recalled that the thieves had left from the front door.
• In this corrected sentence, the past perfect tense "had left" is used to indicate that the thieves left before the main action of recalling took place.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: Blandness

Key Points

• Pleasure means a feeling of enjoyment or satisfaction. (प्रसन्नता)
• Example: The music brought her great pleasure.
• Marked option Blandness means monotonous & lacking excitement. (नीरसता)
• Example: The dish's blandness failed to excite our taste buds.
• So, in this context, "Blandness" is  the most appropriate antonym for "Pleasure."

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Inadequacy: A lack of competence or sufficiency. (अनुविता)
• Joy: A feeling of great happiness or delight. (आनंद)
• Fear: An unpleasant emotion caused by the belief that someone or something is dangerous. (आशंका)