Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL (2022) Tier-II Official Paper (Held On: 26 Jun, 2023 Shift 1). (Previous Year Paper)

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Section I (60 questions)

Question 1

What is the value of (1 + cot A + tan A)(sin A - cos A) (sin⁡Acos⁡Asin⁡3A−cos⁡3A)\rm \left(\frac{\sin A\cos A}{\sin^3A-\cos^3A}\right) ?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    -1

  3. COption (c)

    0

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

(1 + cot A + tan A)(sin A - cos A) (sin⁡Acos⁡Asin⁡3A−cos⁡3A)\rm \left(\frac{\sin A\cos A}{\sin^3A-\cos^3A}\right)

⇒ (1 + cosAsinA\frac{cos A}{sin A} + sinAcosA\frac{sin A}{cos A})(sin A - cos A)\(\frac{\sin A\cos A}{(sin~A - cos A)(sin^2 A + sin A ~cos A + cos^2A)}\)

⇒ (sinAcosA+sin2A+cos2AsinAcosA\frac{sin A cos A+ sin^2 A + cos^2 A}{sinA cos A})\(\frac{\sin A\cos A}{(sin^2 A + sin A ~cos A + cos^2A)}\)

⇒ \(\frac{sin A cos A+ sin^2 A + cos^2 A}{(sin^2 A + sin A ~cos A + cos^2A)}\)

⇒ sinAcosA+sin2A+cos2AsinAcosA+sin2A+cos2A\frac{sin A cos A+ sin^2 A + cos^2 A}{sin A cos A+ sin^2 A + cos^2 A}

⇒ 1

∴ The correct answer is 1

Question 2

The HCF of two numbers is one-twentieth of their LCM. If one of the numbers is 96 and the difference of the LCM and the HCF is 456, then what is the other number? 

  1. AOption (a)

    48

  2. BOption (b)

    120

  3. COption (c)

    144

  4. DOption (d)

    72

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

120

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let HCF = 1 unit and LCM = 20 units.

Difference between LCM and HCF = 20 − 1 = 19 units.

Given 19 units = 456 ⇒ 1 unit (HCF) = 24.

LCM = 20 × 24 = 480.

Other Number = (HCF × LCM) ÷ First Number = (24 × 480) ÷ 96 = 120.

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Alternate Method

Given:

First number (n1) = 96

HCF = LCM ÷ 20

LCM − HCF = 456

Formula Used:

Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM

Calculations:

⇒ Let LCM = L and HCF = H.

⇒ H = L ÷ 20 ⇒ L = 20H.

⇒ L − H = 456

⇒ 20H − H = 456

⇒ 19H = 456

⇒ H = 456 ÷ 19 = 24.

⇒ L = 20 × 24 = 480.

⇒ Let the other number be n2.

⇒ n1 × n2 = H × L

⇒ 96 × n2 = 24 × 480

⇒ n2 = (24 × 480) ÷ 96

⇒ n2 = 480 ÷ 4 = 120.

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Additional Information

Product Rule

For any two numbers a and b, the relationship is always: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

Divisibility Property

The HCF of any set of numbers is always a factor of their LCM.

Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers are co-prime, their HCF is 1 and their LCM is equal to their product.

Question 3

Find the median of the following data.

15, 30, 20, 10, 25, 35, 18, 21, 28

  1. AOption (a)

    30

  2. BOption (b)

    18

  3. COption (c)

    25

  4. DOption (d)

    21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

21

Why this answer is correct

Concept used:

Median = (n + 1)/2 , where n = odd number

Calculation:

To find the median we have to arrange the dataset into ascending order,

10, 15, 18, 20, 21, 25, 28, 30, 35

There are 9 numbers, so the median will be (9 + 1)/2 = 5th number, which is 21

∴ The correct answer is 21

Question 4

If Sin x + Sin2x = 1, then what is the value of Cos8 x + 2 Cos6 x + Cos4 x?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1

Why this answer is correct

Formula used:

(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2

Calculation:

Sin x + Sin2x = 1

⇒ sin x = 1 - sin2 x

⇒ sin x = cos2 x

⇒ sin2x = cos4x

Now, 

Cos8 x + 2 Cos6 x + Cos4 x

⇒ (cos4x)2 + 2 × cos4x × cos2x + (cos2x)2

⇒ (cos4x + cos2x)2

⇒ (sin2x + cos2x)2    (as  sin2x = cos4x)

⇒ 12 = 1

∴ The correct answer is 1

Question 5

The annual growth rate of a city is 2%. If its population in the year 2020 was 1,50,000, then what will its population be in 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    1,59,181

  2. BOption (b)

    1,58,765

  3. COption (c)

    1,58,413

  4. DOption (d)

    1,59,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1,59,181

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Effective growth rate at 2% for 2 years = 2 + 2 + (2 × 2)/100 = 4.04%

Effective growth rate at 2% for 3 years = 4.04 + 2 + (2 × 4.04)/100 = 6.04 + 0.0808 = 6.1208%

If its population in the year 2020 was 1,50,000 then population in 2023 be = 150000 × 106.1208/100 = 159181

∴ The correct answer is 159181

Question 6

In a 1200 m circular race, A and B start at the same time from the same position in the same direction at speeds of 18 km/h and 27 km/h, respectively. In how much time after the start of race will they meet for the first time on the track? 

  1. AOption (a)

    300 seconds

  2. BOption (b)

    480 seconds

  3. COption (c)

    520 seconds

  4. DOption (d)

    240 seconds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

480 seconds

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

A and B running in the same direction, their relative speed = (27 - 18) = 9 km/hr = 9 km/hr × 5/18 = 2.5 m/s

They start at the same time, so they meet after 1200/2.5 = 480 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 480 seconds

Question 7

The marked price of a television set is ₹18,000. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 40% and gets a profit of 10%. What is the cost price of the television set?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 9,531511\rm Rs.\ 9,531\frac{5}{11}

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 8,181111\rm Rs.\ 8,181\frac{1}{11}

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 7,821311\rm Rs.\ 7,821\frac{3}{11}

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 9,818211\rm Rs.\ 9,818\frac{2}{11}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 9,818211\rm Rs.\ 9,818\frac{2}{11}

Why this answer is correct

Concept used:

CP/MP = (100 - Discount%) / (100 + Profit%)

Calculation:

According to the given concept,

CP/MP = (100 - 40) / (100 + 10)

⇒ CP/MP = 60/110 = 6/11

⇒ CP/MP = 6/11

⇒ CP = (18000 × 6)/11 = Rs. 9,818211\rm Rs.\ 9,818\frac{2}{11} 

∴ The correct answer is option 4

Question 8

The HCF of two numbers is 11 and their LCM is 693. If one of the numbers is 77, find the other.

  1. AOption (a)

    66

  2. BOption (b)

    99

  3. COption (c)

    55

  4. DOption (d)

    44

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

99

Why this answer is correct

Concept used:

LCM × HCF = Product of the two numbers

Calculation:

Let's assume the other number is k,

According to the given concept,

11 × 693 = k × 77

⇒ k = (11 × 693)/77

⇒ k = 99

∴ The correct answer is 99

Question 9

Find the median of the following data.

129.75, 116.6, 12.3, 114.1, 136.6, 118.7, 13.5, 121.3

  1. AOption (a)

    116.60

  2. BOption (b)

    117.65

  3. COption (c)

    118.75

  4. DOption (d)

    127.80

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

117.65

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Arrange the data in ascending order: 12.3, 13.5, 114.1, 116.6, 118.7, 121.3, 129.75, 136.6.

Since the number of terms (n) is 8 (even), the median is the average of the 4th and 5th terms.

Median = (116.6 + 118.7) ÷ 2 = 117.65.

∴ The correct answer is 117.65.

Alternate Method

Given: 129.75, 116.6, 12.3, 114.1, 136.6, 118.7, 13.5, 121.3

Formula Used: Median = [(n/2)th term + (n/2 + 1)th term] ÷ 2 (for even n)

⇒ Arrange data in ascending order: 12.3, 13.5, 114.1, 116.6, 118.7, 121.3, 129.75, 136.6

⇒ Total number of observations (n) = 8

⇒ Median = (4th term + 5th term) ÷ 2

⇒ Median = (116.6 + 118.7) ÷ 2

⇒ Median = 235.3 ÷ 2 = 117.65

∴ The correct answer is 117.

Question 10

The sum of the ages of Arun and Bharti is 24 years such that Arun is older. If the age of Arun and Bharti is doubled, the difference is 8 years. What is the age of Arun, in years?

  1. AOption (a)

    28

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    16

  4. DOption (d)

    14

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

14

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the ages of Arun and Bharti be A and B respectively.

Given: A + B = 24 and 2A − 2B = 8.

Simplifying the second equation: A − B = 4.

Using the sum and difference property: A = (Sum + Difference) ÷ 2.

A = (24 + 4) ÷ 2 = 14 years.

∴ The correct answer is 14 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of ages of Arun and Bharti = 24 years.

Difference when ages are doubled = 8 years.

Let age of Arun be A and age of Bharti be B.

⇒ A + B = 24 ----(i)

⇒ 2A − 2B = 8

⇒ 2(A − B) = 8

⇒ A − B = 4 ----(ii)

Adding equation (i) and (ii):

⇒ (A + B) + (A − B) = 24 + 4

⇒ 2A = 28

⇒ A = 28 ÷ 2

⇒ A = 14

∴ The correct answer is 14 years.

Additional Information

Linear Equations in Two Variables

When the sum (S) and difference (D) of two quantities are known, the larger quantity is (S + D)/2 and the smaller is (S − D)/2.

Age Difference Property

The difference between the ages of two people remains constant regardless of the number of years passed, provided the multiplier is the same for both.

Scaling Ages

If each age in a group is multiplied by a constant k, the sum and the difference of their ages are also multiplied by the same constant k.

Question 11

If Sin A = 817\frac{8}{17}, then what is the value of Cot A + Sec A?

  1. AOption (a)

    211202\frac{1}{120}

  2. BOption (b)

    311203\frac{1}{120}

  3. COption (c)

    411204\frac{1}{120}

  4. DOption (d)

    511205\frac{1}{120}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

311203\frac{1}{120}

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Sin A = 817\frac{8}{17}  = P/H

As we know, 8, 15, 17 are Pythagorean triplet, then Base = 15,

Cot A + Sec A

⇒ B/P + H/B

⇒ 15/8 + 17/15

⇒ (225 + 136)/120

⇒ 361/120

⇒ 311203\frac{1}{120}

∴ The correct answer is 311203\frac{1}{120}

Question 12

The ages of father and son differ by 15 years. 5 years ago the father was 2 times old as his son. Find their present ages.

  1. AOption (a)

    35 years, 20 years 

  2. BOption (b)

    30 years, 15 years

  3. COption (c)

    40 years, 25 years

  4. DOption (d)

    45 years, 30 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

35 years, 20 years 

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The age difference between two people remains constant throughout their lives.

5 years ago, the ratio of Father to Son was 2 : 1.

Difference in ratio = 2 − 1 = 1 unit → 15 years.

Ages 5 years ago: Father = 2 × 15 = 30 years, Son = 1 × 15 = 15 years.

Present ages: Father = 30 + 5 = 35 years, Son = 15 + 5 = 20 years.

∴ The correct answer is 35 years, 20 years.

Alternate Method

Given: Difference in present ages = 15 years. Age ratio 5 years ago = 2 : 1.

Let the age of the son 5 years ago be x and the father be 2x.

⇒ Difference = 2x − x = 15

⇒ x = 15 years

⇒ Father's age 5 years ago = 2 × 15 = 30 years

⇒ Son's age 5 years ago = 15 years

⇒ Present age of Father = 30 + 5 = 35 years

⇒ Present age of Son = 15 + 5 = 20 years

∴ The correct answer is 35 years, 20 years.

Additional Information

Constant Age Difference

The numerical difference between the ages of two persons never changes over time, regardless of how many years pass.

Ratio and Proportion in Ages

If the ratio of ages is given for different time periods, use the constant difference to balance the units between ratios.

Algebraic Representation

If present age is 'A', then age 'n' years ago is (A − n) and age 'n' years hence is (A + n).

Question 13

The radii of two cylinders are in the ratio 2 ∶ 1 and their heights are in the ratio 5 ∶ 2. The ratio of their volumes is:

  1. AOption (a)

    20 ∶ 1

  2. BOption (b)

    15 ∶ 1

  3. COption (c)

    10 ∶ 1

  4. DOption (d)

    5 ∶ 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

10 ∶ 1

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of volumes of two cylinders is calculated as (r1/r2)2 × (h1/h2).

Substitute the given ratios: (2/1)2 × (5/2).

Volume Ratio = 4 × (5/2) = 10/1.

∴ The correct answer is 10 : 1.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of radii (r1 : r2) = 2 : 1

Ratio of heights (h1 : h2) = 5 : 2

Formula Used:

Volume of a cylinder (V) = πr2h

Calculations:

⇒ Let the radii be 2r and 1r, and heights be 5h and 2h.

⇒ Volume of first cylinder (V1) = π × (2r)2 × (5h)

⇒ V1 = π × 4r2 × 5h = 20πr2h

⇒ Volume of second cylinder (V2) = π × (1r)2 × (2h)

⇒ V2 = π × 1r2 × 2h = 2πr2h

⇒ Ratio of volumes = V1 / V2 = (20πr2h) / (2πr2h)

⇒ Ratio = 20 / 2 = 10 / 1

∴ The correct answer is 10 : 1.

Additional Information

Curved Surface Area (CSA)

The lateral surface area of a cylinder is 2πrh. The ratio of CSAs of two cylinders is (r1/r2) × (h1/h2).

Total Surface Area (TSA)

The total surface area includes the base and top areas: TSA = 2πr(h + r).

Volume Variation

If the radius is doubled and the height is halved, the volume of the cylinder becomes twice the original volume.

Question 14

What is the correct descending order of the following ratios? 1730,715,2750,1120\frac{17}{30},\frac{7}{15}, \frac{27}{50},\frac{11}{20}

  1. AOption (a)

    11/20 > 17/30 > 27/50 > 7/15

  2. BOption (b)

    17/30 > 11/20 > 27/50 > 7/15

  3. COption (c)

    17/30 > 27/50 > 11/20 > 7/15

  4. DOption (d)

    7/15 > 11/20 > 27/50 >17/30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

17/30 > 11/20 > 27/50 > 7/15

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Convert the given fractions into percentages for a quick and direct comparison. 17/30 ≈ 56.67% and 7/15 ≈ 46.67% 27/50 = 54% and 11/20 = 55% Arranging percentages in descending order: 56.67% > 55% > 54% > 46.67% ∴ The correct answer is 17/30 > 11/20 > 27/50 > 7/15. Alternate Method Given: Fractions: 17/30, 7/15, 27/50, 11/20 Method Used: Find the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of all denominators to convert them into equivalent fractions with a common base. Calculations: ⇒ The denominators are 30, 15, 50, and 20. ⇒ LCM of (30, 15, 50, 20) = 300 ⇒ Convert 17/30: (17 × 10) ÷ (30 × 10) = 170/300 ⇒ Convert 7/15: (7 × 20) ÷ (15 × 20) = 140/300 ⇒ Convert 27/50: (27 × 6) ÷ (50 × 6) = 162/300 ⇒ Convert 11/20: (11 × 15) ÷ (20 × 15) = 165/300 ⇒ Comparing the numerators: 170 > 165 > 162 > 140 ∴ The correct answer is 17/30 > 11/20 > 27/50 > 7/15. Additional Information Cross-Multiplication Method To quickly compare two fractions a/b and c/d, cross multiply. If a × d > b × c, then a/b > c/d. Fraction to Percentage Conversion Multiplying a fraction by 100 converts it into a percentage, making multi-fraction comparisons visually straightforward. Proper vs Improper Fractions A proper fraction always has a value less than 1 (Numerator < Denominator), while an improper fraction has a value equal to or greater than 1.

Question 15

In what ratio should rice costing Rs. 67.5 per kg be mixed with rice costing Rs. 60 per kg to get an average price of Rs. 64 per kg?

  1. AOption (a)

    8 ∶ 7

  2. BOption (b)

    5 ∶ 6

  3. COption (c)

    6 ∶ 5

  4. DOption (d)

    7 ∶ 8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

8 ∶ 7

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

By using the direct alligation cross-multiplication rule:

Quantity Ratio = (Mean Price − Cheaper Price) : (Dearer Price − Mean Price)

⇒ Ratio = (64 − 60) : (67.5 − 64)

⇒ Ratio = 4 : 3.5

⇒ Ratio = 8 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 8 : 7.

Alternate Method

Given:

Price of first rice type = ₹67.5 per kg

Price of second rice type = ₹60 per kg

Average mean price = ₹64 per kg

Formula Used:

If two types of items of price p1 and p2 are mixed to get an average mean price pm, the ratio of their quantities q1 : q2 is (pm − p2) : (p1 − pm).

Calculations:

Let the required ratio be x : y.

⇒ Quantity ratio = (Mean Price − Price of Cheaper) : (Price of Dearer − Mean Price)

⇒ x : y = (64 − 60) : (67.5 − 64)

⇒ x : y = 4 : 3.5

Multiply both sides by 2 to convert into integer ratio:

⇒ x : y = 8 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 8 : 7.

Additional Information

Alligation Rule

It is a quick method to find the ratio in which two or more ingredients at given prices must be mixed to produce a mixture of a desired median price.

Weighted Average Formula

Average Price = (q1 × p1 + q2 × p2) ÷ (q1 + q2)

Replacement Method

If from a vessel containing volume V of pure liquid, volume x is removed and replaced n times, then Final Volume = V × (1 − x ÷ V)n.

Question 16

If sums of the radii and distance between the centres of two circles are equal, then:

  1. AOption (a)

    the circles are concentric

  2. BOption (b)

    the circles touch externally

  3. COption (c)

    the circles touch internally

  4. DOption (d)

    the circles intersect each other

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

the circles touch externally

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

The sums of the radii (R1 + R2) = distance between the centres of two circles

This is possible when the circles touch externally

∴ The correct answer is option 2

Question 17

How many whole numbers lie between 112 and 122 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    23

  2. BOption (b)

    24

  3. COption (c)

    21

  4. DOption (d)

    22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

22

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For any two consecutive natural numbers n and (n + 1), the number of non-perfect square whole numbers (numbers lying between their squares) is given by 2n.

Here, n = 11 and n + 1 = 12.

⇒ Number of whole numbers = 2 × 11 = 22.

∴ The correct answer is 22.

Alternate Method

Given:

First number = 112 = 121

Second number = 122 = 144

Formula Used:

Number of whole numbers between a and b (where **a) = **(b − a) − 1

Calculations:

⇒ Number of whole numbers = (144 − 121) − 1

⇒ Number of whole numbers = 23 − 1

⇒ Number of whole numbers = 22

∴ The correct answer is 22.

Additional Information

Consecutive Squares Property

There are always 2n non-perfect square numbers between the squares of n and n+1.

Difference of Squares

The difference between (n + 1)2 and n2 is always (2n + 1), which is an odd number.

Whole Numbers Range

To find numbers between x and y, exclude both endpoints: Count = y − x − 1.

Question 18

Gita purchases an apartment and pays EMI for that. Her monthly income is ₹80,000. She spends 15% on the education of her children, 40% on household affairs, sends 10% to GPF, saves 15% in a savings bank account and pays the rest of the amount as EMI. How much EMI does she pay?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹14,000

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹18,000

  3. COption (c)

    ₹16,000

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹20,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹16,000

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

She spend other than EMI is (15 + 40 + 10 + 15) = 80%

So, she spend on EMI is 20% of her monthly income, which is = 80000 × 20/100 = 16000

∴ The correct answer is ₹16,000

Question 19

A number is divisible by 3 only when:

  1. AOption (a)

    the difference of the sum of the odd and the even digits is divisible by 3

  2. BOption (b)

    the sum of its digits is divisible by 3

  3. COption (c)

    the last digit is either 0 or an even number

  4. DOption (d)

    the last two digits are divisible by 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

the sum of its digits is divisible by 3

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

The divisibility test of 3 is: The sum of digits of a number must be divisible by 3.

∴ The correct answer is option 2

Question 20

The length of a rectangular plot is thrice its breadth. If the area of the rectangular plot is 2700 m2, then what is the breadth of the rectangular plot?

  1. AOption (a)

    20 m

  2. BOption (b)

    12 m

  3. COption (c)

    30 m

  4. DOption (d)

    28 m 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

30 m

Why this answer is correct

Concept used:

Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth

Calculation:

Let's assume that the breadth of the rectangular plot = k then length = 3k

⇒ 3k × k = 2700

⇒ k2 = 900

⇒ k = 30

∴ The breadth of the rectangular plot is 30 m

Question 21

A and B jointly start a business. The investment of A is equal to seven times the investment of B. Find the share of A (in ₹) in the annual profit of ₹2,75,000.

  1. AOption (a)

    2,40,625

  2. BOption (b)

    2,45,625

  3. COption (c)

    2,42,365

  4. DOption (d)

    2,41,225

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2,40,625

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The Investment Ratio of A : B is 7 : 1.

Total profit units = 7 + 1 = 8 units.

Given, 8 units = ₹2,75,000.

Value of 1 unit = 2,75,000 ÷ 8 = ₹34,375.

Share of A = 7 units = 7 × 34,375 = ₹2,40,625.

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,40,625.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total annual profit = ₹2,75,000

Investment of A = 7 × Investment of B

Formula Used:

Profit Share = Investment × Time period

Calculations:

⇒ Let the investment of B be ₹x.

⇒ Investment of A = ₹7x.

⇒ Ratio of investments (A : B) = 7x : x = 7 : 1.

⇒ Since both invested for the same Time Period (1 year), the profit sharing ratio is the same as the investment ratio.

⇒ Share of A = (7 / (7 + 1)) × 2,75,000

⇒ Share of A = (7 / 8) × 2,75,000

⇒ Share of A = 7 × 34,375

⇒ Share of A = ₹2,40,625.

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,40,625.

Additional Information

Partnership Profit Sharing Rule

Profit is always distributed in the ratio of the product of Capital and Time: P1 : P2 = (C1 × T1) : (C2 × T2).

Simple vs. Compound Partnership

In a Simple Partnership, capitals are invested for the same time. In a Compound Partnership, capitals are invested for different time periods.

Working Partner

A partner who manages the business is a Working Partner and may receive a salary or commission from the profit before the remaining profit is divided.

Question 22

A can do a piece of work in 30 days, B in 50 days and C in 40 days. If A is assisted by B on one day and by C on the next day alternately, the work will be completed in:

  1. AOption (a)

    17333517\frac{33}{35} days

  2. BOption (b)

    17323517\frac{32}{35} days

  3. COption (c)

    17313517\frac{31}{35} days

  4. DOption (d)

    17343517\frac{34}{35} days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

17323517\frac{32}{35} days

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Total work = LCM of (30, 50, 40) = 600 unit

Now, efficiency of A = 20 unit, B = 12 unit, and C = 15 unit

Work done on 1st day (A + B) = 20 + 12 = 32 unit

Work done on 2nd day (A + C) = 20 + 15 = 35 unit

So, in every 2 days they done (35 + 32) = 67 unit work

Now, in 17 days they done (67 × 8) + 32 = 568 unit 

Remaining (600 - 568) = 32 unit of work done by (A + C) in 32/35 days

So, the work will be complete in 17 + 32/35 =​​ 17323517\frac{32}{35} days

∴ The correct answer is 17323517\frac{32}{35} days

Question 23

A sum of money doubles itself in 4 years at simple interest. In how much time will it become 7 times at the same rate of interest?

  1. AOption (a)

    25 years

  2. BOption (b)

    23 years

  3. COption (c)

    24 years

  4. DOption (d)

    21 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

24 years

Why this answer is correct

Concept used:

Simple interest = (P × t × r)/100

Calculation:

According to the question, if sum of money becomes 2P, then interest = P

(P × 4 × r)/100 = P

⇒ r = 100/4

⇒ r = 25

Now, if the sum becomes 7 times, interest will be 6P, so

(P × t × 25)/100 = 6P

⇒ t = 600/25

⇒ t = 24

∴ The correct answer is 24 years

Question 24

Ten refrigerators and four mobile phones together cost ₹2,10,000 while six refrigerators and two mobile phones together cost ₹1,22,000. The cost (in ₹) of one refrigerator and two mobile phones is: 

  1. AOption (a)

    37000

  2. BOption (b)

    35200

  3. COption (c)

    34500 

  4. DOption (d)

    36000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

37000

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

10R + 4M = 210000 … (i)

6R + 2M = 122000 … (ii)

Multiplying equatin (ii) by 2 and subtract two equation, we get

10R + 4M = 210000

12R + 4M = 244000

  • 2R = - 34000

⇒ R = 34000/2 = 17000

Now, put the value in equation (ii) we get

6 × 17000 + 2M = 122000

⇒ 2M = (122000 - 102000)

⇒ M = 10000

So, the cost of one refrigerator and two mobile phones = (17000 + 2 × 10000) = 37000

∴ The correct answer is 37000

Question 25

In an election between two candidates. 20% of the registered voters did not cast their vote and 40 votes were declared invalid. The winner got 42% of the total registered votes and was declared the winner by 112 votes. The number of registered voters was:

  1. AOption (a)

    1500

  2. BOption (b)

    1200

  3. COption (c)

    1800

  4. DOption (d)

    3800

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1800

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the total registered voters be 100%.

Winner gets 42% of total votes. Loser gets (100% − 20% − 42%) − 40 invalid votes = 38% − 40.

Victory Margin: 42% − (38% − 40) = 4% + 40 = 112.

⇒ 4% = 112 − 40 = 72. So, 100% = 72 ÷ 4 × 100 = 1800.

∴ The correct answer is 1800 voters.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Total Registered Voters = 100x

⇒ Voters who did not cast vote = 20x

⇒ Votes Polled = 100x − 20x = 80x

⇒ Invalid Votes = 40

⇒ Valid Votes = 80x − 40

Calculations:

⇒ Votes obtained by Winner = 42% of 100x = 42x

⇒ Votes obtained by Loser = Valid Votes − Winner's Votes

⇒ Loser's Votes = (80x − 40) − 42x = 38x − 40

⇒ Winner's Margin = Winner's Votes − Loser's Votes = 112

⇒ 42x − (38x − 40) = 112

⇒ 4x + 40 = 112

⇒ 4x = 72

⇒ x = 18

⇒ Total Registered Voters = 100x = 100 × 18 = 1800

∴ The correct answer is 1800.

Additional Information

Percentage of Total vs Valid Votes

Always identify if the percentage is based on the Total Voters or the Valid Votes as it changes the equation base.

Election Formulas

Valid Votes = Polled Votes − Invalid Votes. Winner's Votes + Loser's Votes = Total Valid Votes.

Victory Margin

Margin = Winner's Votes − Loser's Votes. This represents the difference in the count of votes between the two candidates.

Question 26

The average of the square of first five even natural numbers is: 

  1. AOption (a)

    40

  2. BOption (b)

    44

  3. COption (c)

    42

  4. DOption (d)

    46

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

44

Why this answer is correct

Concept used:

Sum of squares of 1st n even numbers = [2n(n + 1)(2n + 1)]/3

Calculation:

Sum of squares of 1st 5 even numbers = (10 × 6 × 11)/3 = 220

Now the required average = 220/5 = 44

∴ The correct answer is 44

Question 27

∆XYZ and ∆PQR are similar. XY ∶ PQ = 6 ∶ 1. Area of ∆PQR is 6 cm2. What is the area of ∆XYZ?

  1. AOption (a)

    216 cm2

  2. BOption (b)

    6 cm2

  3. COption (c)

    261 cm2

  4. DOption (d)

    36 cm2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

216 cm2

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of corresponding sides of similar triangles ΔXYZ and ΔPQR is 6 ÷ 1.

Ratio of their areas = (Ratio of sides)2 = (6)2 ÷ (1)2 = 36 ÷ 1.

Given, Area of ΔPQR = 6 cm2.

Area of ΔXYZ = 36 × Area of ΔPQR = 36 × 6 = 216 cm2.

∴ The correct answer is 216 cm2.

Alternate Method

Given:

ΔXYZ ∼ ΔPQR

Ratio of sides XY ÷ PQ = 6 ÷ 1

Area of ΔPQR = 6 cm2

Formula Used:

For two similar triangles, the ratio of their areas is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding sides:

Area(ΔXYZ) ÷ Area(ΔPQR) = (XY ÷ PQ)2

Calculations:

⇒ Area(ΔXYZ) ÷ 6 = (6 ÷ 1)2

⇒ Area(ΔXYZ) ÷ 6 = 36 ÷ 1

⇒ Area(ΔXYZ) = 36 × 6

⇒ Area(ΔXYZ) = 216

∴ The correct answer is 216 cm2.

Additional Information

Area-Side Relationship Theorem

The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding altitudes, medians, or angle bisectors.

Perimeter of Similar Triangles

The ratio of the perimeters of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of their corresponding sides: P1 ÷ P2 = s1 ÷ s2.

Criteria for Similarity

Two triangles are similar if their corresponding angles are equal (AA) or if their corresponding sides are in the same proportion (SSS/SAS).

Question 28

In grade 11 of a school, 40 students opted for Physics, 17 opted for Biology, and 20 opted for Chemistry. If the total number of students in grade 11 was 60, all of these students opted for at least one of the three subjects mentioned here, and exactly five of these students opted for all these three subjects, what is the probability that a randomly selected student of grade 11 of this school would have opted for exactly one of these three subjects?

  1. AOption (a)

    0.75

  2. BOption (b)

    0.85

  3. COption (c)

    0.90

  4. DOption (d)

    0.80

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0.80

Why this answer is correct

Concept used:

Probability = Number of students who opted for exactly one subject / Total number of students

Calculation:

Total number of students = 60

Number of students who opted two or more subjects = 40 + 17 + 20 - 60 - 5 = 12

So number of students who opted exactly one subject = 60 - 12 = 48

Required probability = 48/60 = 0.80

∴ The correct answer is 0.80

Question 29

AD is a tangent of a circle, and ABC is the secant. If AB = 8 cm and BC = 10 cm, then find the length of AD.

  1. AOption (a)

    144 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    12.5 cm

  3. COption (c)

    13.45 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    12 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

12 cm

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

AD2 = AB ×  AC

⇒ AD2 = 8 × (10 + 8)

⇒ AD2 = 144

⇒ AD = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12

Question 30

A cube of side 5 cm, has been assembled using 125 cubes each of 1 cm edge. One cube is removed from the middle of each of the faces of the cube. What is the surface area (in cm2) of the remaining solid?

  1. AOption (a)

    155

  2. BOption (b)

    144

  3. COption (c)

    150

  4. DOption (d)

    174

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

174

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Side of a larger cube (a) = 5 cm

Side of each smaller cube (b) = 1 cm

Formulae used:

Surface area of a cube = 6(side)2

Change in surface area when one cube is removed = 5(side length of the smaller cube)2 - 1 × (side length of the smaller cube)2

Solution:

The surface area of the larger cube = 6a2 

⇒ 6 × 52 = 6 × 25 = 150 cm2

Increase in surface area when one cube is removed = 5 × b2 - 1 ×  b2 

⇒ 4 × (1 cm)2 = 4 cm2

Total increase in surface area after removing one cube from each face of the larger cube = 6 ×  (increase in area)

⇒ 6 × 4 cm2 = 24 cm2

The overall surface area of the remaining shape is = original surface area + Total increase in surface area

150 cm2 + 24 cm2 = 174 cm2.

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 31

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

337, 354, 373, 394, 417, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    446

  2. BOption (b)

    444

  3. COption (c)

    440

  4. DOption (d)

    442

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

442

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "442".

Question 32

Select the option that is related to the third figure in the same way as the second figure is related to the first figure. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The logic used here is:

Logic: Number of lines in the first image = Number of sides of the polygon in the second image

Let's check as per the logic,

→ There are five lines in the first image. The second image is a polygon with five sides.

Similarly,

→ There are six lines in the first image. The second image is a polygon with six sides.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 33

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is allowed). 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

Let's check each option,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 34

In a certain code language, ‘RETAIL’ is written as ‘FNQWJY’ and ‘POLICE’ is written as ‘NHJUTQ’. How will ‘HARBOR’ be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    GTWMFW

  2. BOption (b)

    GTMWWF

  3. COption (c)

    GTMWFW

  4. DOption (d)

    GTWMWF

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

GTWMFW

Why this answer is correct

Table shows the positional value of alphabets.

The logic followed here is:

 ‘RETAIL’ is written as ‘FNQWJY’

And

‘POLICE’ is written as ‘NHJUTQ’

Similarly,

‘HARBOR’ : ?

 

Hence, the correct answer is "GTWMFW".

Question 35

Select the correct water image of the given figure. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The water image of the given image is shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 36

Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Decide which of the given conclusions is/are definitely true from the statement.

Statement: F > B < E ≤ C = D ≥ A > G

Conclusion I: G < F

Conclusion II: C > G

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Conclusion II is true

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true

  3. COption (c)

    Only Conclusion I is true

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only Conclusion II is true

Why this answer is correct

The given statement is: F > B < E ≤ C = D ≥ A > G

Conclusion I: G < F → False (Because there is no conclusive relation given between F and G).

Conclusion II: C > G → True (Because there is a direct relation given between C and G, C = D ≥ A > G)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only Conclusion II is true".

Question 37

If you are the 27th person in a queue from one end and 38th from the other end, what is the total number of persons in the queue? 

  1. AOption (a)

    66

  2. BOption (b)

    65

  3. COption (c)

    64

  4. DOption (d)

    63

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

64

Why this answer is correct

As per the given information,

→ Number of persons on my left side = 26

→ Number of persons on my right side = 37

Therefore, the total number of persons in the queue = (26 + 1 + 37) = 64

Hence, the correct answer is "64".

Question 38

The sentence below has a word in which the letters are jumbled up. Rearrange the letters of that word, written in capital letters, to form the correct word.

After a long negotiation, they finally reached a EADL that satisfied both parties.

  1. AOption (a)

    DALE

  2. BOption (b)

    LEAD

  3. COption (c)

    DEAL

  4. DOption (d)

    LADE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

DEAL

Why this answer is correct

The given sentence is: After a long negotiation, they finally reached a EADL that satisfied both parties. 

The jumbled word is "EADL".

The correct word for the jumbled letters will be "DEAL".

Hence, the correct answer is "DEAL".

Question 39

Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary.

  1. Talisman
  2. Tantamount
  3. Tangential
  4. Tantalizing
  5. Taciturn
  1. AOption (a)

    4, 2, 3, 5, 1

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 4, 3, 5, 2

  3. COption (c)

    3, 5, 1, 4, 2

  4. DOption (d)

    5, 1, 3, 4, 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5, 1, 3, 4, 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct order as per the dictionary,

5) Taciturn 

1) Talisman

3) Tangential

4) Tantalizing

2) Tantamount

Hence, the correct answer is "5, 1, 3, 4, 2".

Question 40

Identify the figure that does NOT belong to the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is,

Logic: (Sides in the inner image) + 1 = (Sides in the outer image).

Let's check each option as per the logic,

1) 

 ⇒ (4) + 1 = (5)

2) 

 → (6) + 1 ≠ 5 ⇒ Doesn't satisfy the logic.

3) 

 ⇒ (3) + 1 = (4)

4) 

 ⇒ (5) + 1 = (6)

Here, we can see that only option 2 doesn't follow the logic and is different from the others.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 41

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements.

Statements:

(A) All actors are gold.

(B) All gold are houses.

(C) All rooms are houses.

Conclusions:

I. Some gold are rooms.

II. Some rooms are actors.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Conclusion I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only Conclusion II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follow 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows

Why this answer is correct

The least possible venn diagram is shown below,

Conclusion I: False (Because there is no direct relation given between Gold and Rooms).

Conclusion II: False (Because there is no direct relation given between Rooms and Actors).

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows".

Question 42

Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Decide which of the given conclusions is/are definitely true from the statement.

Statement: M < K ≤ N > P = J > O ≥ L

Conclusion I: N > L

Conclusion II: O = M

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Conclusion II is true

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

  3. COption (c)

    Only Conclusion I is true

  4. DOption (d)

    Both Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only Conclusion I is true

Why this answer is correct

The given statement is: M < K ≤ N > P = J > O ≥ L

Conclusion I: N > L → True (Because there is a direct relation given between N and L, 'N > P = J > O ≥ L')

Conclusion II: O = M → False (Because there is no conclusive relation between O and M is given)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only Conclusion I is true".

Question 43

Read the given statement and courses of action carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement is true, decide which of the given courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

Statement:

The traffic congestion in the city has significantly increased during peak hours.

Courses of Action:

I. Improve public transportation infrastructure and services to provide viable alternatives to private vehicles.

II. Impose hefty fines on individual drivers during peak hours.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Course of Action I and Course of Action II follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither Course of Action I nor Course of Action II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only Course of Action I follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only Course of Action II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only Course of Action I follows

Why this answer is correct

The given statement highlights the problem of heavy traffic during the peak hours. Improving public transportation infrastructure and services is a good solution to attract people to use public transport instead of private vehicles. This ultimately will reduce the traffic. Hence, action I can be pursued.

Impose hefty fines on individual drivers during peak hours cannot be an option as they are not doing anything illegal. They have the right to use their car at any time. Hence, action II cannot be pursued.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only Course of Action I follows".

Question 44

Six boxes, labelled A, B, C, D, E and F, are arranged vertically from top to bottom. The top position is considered as the 1st position, whereas the bottom position is the last position. Box F is placed immediately above box E. There are three boxes between A and B. Box A is above box B. There is one box between E and D. There are three boxes between E and C. Box E is placed at the second-last position.

Which of the following boxes is placed immediately above box D?

  1. AOption (a)

    C

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    F

  4. DOption (d)

    A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A

Why this answer is correct

As per the given information,

1) Box E is placed at the second-last position.

2) Box F is placed immediately above box E.

F
E

3) There is one box between E and D.

4) There are three boxes between E and C.

C
D
F
E

 

5) There are three boxes between A and B.

  1. Box A is above box B.

 

C
A
D
F
E
B

Here, we can see that Box 'A' is placed immediately above Box 'D'.

Hence, the correct answer is "A".

Question 45

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper is cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded? 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

When the paper is unfolded, the image we get is shown below,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 46

Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

96 ÷ 8 − 3 × 6 + 32 = 24

  1. AOption (a)

    6 and 8

  2. BOption (b)

    3 and 32

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 8

  4. DOption (d)

    8 and 32

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6 and 8

Why this answer is correct

Let's check each option,

1) 6 and 8

→ 96 ÷ 6 − 3 × 8 + 32 = 24 

→ 16 − 3 × 8 + 32 = 24 

→ 16 − 24 + 32 = 24 

→ 48 − 24 = 24

→ 24 = 24

→ LHS = RHS

2) 3 and 32

→ 96 ÷ 8 − 32 × 6 + 3 = 24 

→ 12 − 32 × 6 + 3 = 24 

→ 12 − 192 + 3 = 24 

→ 15 − 192 = 24

→ - 177 ≠ 24

→ LHS ≠ RHS 

3) 3 and 8

→ 96 ÷ 3 − 8 × 6 + 32 = 24 

→ 32 − 8 × 6 + 32 = 24 

→ 32 − 48 + 32 = 24

→ 64 − 48 = 24

→ 16 ≠ 24

→ LHS ≠ RHS

4) 8 and 32

→ 96 ÷ 32 − 3 × 6 + 8 = 24 

→ 3 − 3 × 6 + 8 = 24

→ 3 − 18 + 8 = 24

→ 11 − 18 = 24

→ - 7 ≠ 24 

→ LHS ≠ RHS

Here, we can see that only Option 1 makes the equation correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "6 and 8".

Question 47

In a certain code language, ‘GATE’ is written as ‘JOFB’ and ‘IDLE’ is written as ‘JGID’. How will ‘MILK’ be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    PNGH

  2. BOption (b)

    PGNH

  3. COption (c)

    OFMG

  4. DOption (d)

    OMFG

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

PGNH

Why this answer is correct

GATE: JOFB

IDLE: JGID

Similarly,

MILK:?

Hence, the correct answer is "PGNH".

Question 48

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

EBD, JGI, ?, TQS, YVX

  1. AOption (a)

    OKN

  2. BOption (b)

    OLN

  3. COption (c)

    NLO

  4. DOption (d)

    NKO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

OLN

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is "OLN".

Question 49

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

HCE, MHJ, ?, TOQ, VQS, WRT

  1. AOption (a)

    RMO

  2. BOption (b)

    RLN

  3. COption (c)

    QLN

  4. DOption (d)

    QMO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

QLN

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is "QLN".

Question 50

If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘×’ means ‘−’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’ and ‘−’ means ‘×’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

91 + 13 − 8 × 37 ÷ 44 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    67

  2. BOption (b)

    59

  3. COption (c)

    63

  4. DOption (d)

    51

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

63

Why this answer is correct

SignMeans
+÷
×−
÷+
−×

After changing the signs, the equation we get: 

→ 91 ÷ 13 × 8 − 37 + 44 =?

→ 7 × 8 − 37 + 44 =?

→ 56 − 37 + 44 =?

→ 100 − 37 =?

→ 63 =?

Hence, the correct answer is "63".

Question 51

Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement is true, decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statement.

Statement: India’s largest lender bank has announced that it will be allowing customers to exchange ₹2,000 notes without a requisition slip for amounts up to ₹20,000.

Conclusions:

I. No one will be allowed to withdraw an amount of more than ₹20,000.

II. No requisition slip is required for exchange of up to ₹20,000.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Conclusion II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follow

  3. COption (c)

    Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only Conclusion I follows 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only Conclusion II follows

Why this answer is correct

The statement mentions that no requisition slip is required to exchange ₹2,000 notes for amounts up to ₹20,000. Hence, Conclusion II follows.

There is no information regarding the withdrawal of more than ₹20,000. So, it can't be said that whether it is allowed or not. Hence, Conclusion I don't follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only Conclusion II follows".

Question 52

The sentence below has a word in which the letters are jumbled up. Rearrange the letters of that word, written in capital letters, to form the correct word.

The ETNSIL night was interrupted only by the gentle rustling of leaves in the breeze.

  1. AOption (a)

    SILENT

  2. BOption (b)

    LISTEN

  3. COption (c)

    TENILS

  4. DOption (d)

    NILETS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

SILENT

Why this answer is correct

The given sentence is: The ETNSIL night was interrupted only by the gentle rustling of leaves in the breeze.

The word in which the letters are jumbled up is 'ETNSIL'.

The correct word for these jumbled letters will be 'SILENT'.

Hence, the correct answer is "SILENT".

Question 53

Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different. 

  1. AOption (a)

    (837, 948) 

  2. BOption (b)

    (671, 782)

  3. COption (c)

    (456, 765)

  4. DOption (d)

    (258, 369)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(456, 765)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number) + 111

Let's check each option as per the logic,

1) (837, 948) 

→ 948 = 837 + 111

2) (671, 782)

→ 782 = 671 + 111

3) (456, 765)

→ 765 ≠ 456 ⇒ Doesn't follow the logic.

4) (258, 369)

→ 369 = 258 + 111

Here, we can see that only Option 3 doesn't follow the logic and is different from the others.

Hence, the correct answer is "(456, 765)".

Question 54

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.

Pulp : Paper :: Sugarcane : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Egg

  2. BOption (b)

    Jaggery

  3. COption (c)

    Milk

  4. DOption (d)

    Grapes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Jaggery

Why this answer is correct

The logic used here is:

Logic: The first word is used to prepare the second word.

Pulp: Paper

→ Pulp is used in Paper manufacturing.

Similarly,

Sugarcane:?

→ Sugarcane is used in the preparation of Jaggery.

Hence, the correct answer is "Jaggery".

Question 55

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here:

In figure 1 and 2,

Similarly,

In figure 3 and 4,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 56

Select the word-pair in which the two words share a different relationship from that shared by the two words in the rest of the word-pairs. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Assign : Allot

  2. BOption (b)

    Solicit : Request

  3. COption (c)

    Fallacy : Illusion

  4. DOption (d)

    Initial : Final

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Initial : Final

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Both words are synonyms of each other.

Let's check each option,

1) Assign: Allot

→ Both are synonyms.

2) Solicit: Request

→ Both are synonyms.

3) Fallacy: Illusion

→ Both are synonyms.

4) Initial: Final

→ They are not synonyms. These two words are antonyms. ⇒ Doesn't follow the logic.

Here, we can see that only Option 4 doesn't follow the logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Initial: Final".

Question 57

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The completed pattern of the given image is shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 58

Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number.

7 : 336 :: 3 : 24 :: 5 : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    122

  2. BOption (b)

    120

  3. COption (c)

    125

  4. DOption (d)

    130

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

120

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (Second Number) = (First Number)3 - (First Number)

Let's check as per the logic,

7: 336

→ 336 = (7)3 - 7

→ 336 = 343 - 7

3: 24

→ 24 = (3)3 - 3

→ 24 = 27 - 3

Similarly,

5: ?

→ (5)3 - 5 =?

→ 125 - 5 =?

→ 120 =?

Hence, the correct answer is "120".

Question 59

Directions

Given below is a pair of statements (i) and (ii). Assuming that the information given in both (i) and (ii) is true, decide the nature of their relationship. To determine the answer, do not assume anything beyond the given information.

Statement (i): High level of air pollution in the city

Statement (ii): Increase in respiratory and health-related problems in the population

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement (ii) is the effect and statement (i) is the cause.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both statements are effects of a common cause.

  3. COption (c)

    Both the statements are effects of some independent causes.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement (i) is the effect and statement (ii) is the cause.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Statement (ii) is the effect and statement (i) is the cause.

Why this answer is correct

Based on the given information:

Statement (i): High level of air pollution in the city.

This suggests that the quality of air within the city is poor due to elevated concentrations of pollutants.

Statement (ii): Increase in respiratory and health-related problems in the population.

This is referring to a rise in health issues, particularly respiratory problems, among the population.

Under the knowledge that air pollution can lead to health issues, we can infer that the elevated pollution (statement i) is potentially causing the increase in respiratory and health-related problems (statement ii).

Therefore, statement (ii) is seen as the effect of the cause outlined in statement (i).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1."

Question 60

Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement is true, decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statement.

Statement: The new government policy aims to reduce carbon emissions by 50% within the next decade.

Conclusions:

I. The government will ban all the vehicles that run on fossil fuel immediately.

II. The government will shut down all the coal-fired power plants.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Conclusion I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follow

  3. COption (c)

    Only Conclusion II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows

Why this answer is correct

The statement highlights the new government policy which aims to reduce carbon emissions by 50% within the next decade. It doesn't mention any steps that government will take to achieve this goal. So, we can't say that the government will ban all the vehicles that run on fossil fuel immediately. Hence, Conclusion I don't follow.

The statement also doesn't mention anything regarding the steps that it will take for coal-fired power plants. Hence, Conclusion II don't follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows".

Section II (60 questions)

Question 61

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

An ultralight airplane is very different from a conventional airplane. It is looking like a lawn chair with wings.

  1. AOption (a)

    No substitution required

  2. BOption (b)

    look like

  3. COption (c)

    looked like

  4. DOption (d)

    looks like

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

looks like

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: looks like

Key Points

  • The verb 'is looking like' in the original sentence is in the present continuous tense, which is used to describe actions or states that are happening at the moment of speaking.
  • But the correct verb form to use in this sentence is 'looks like' which is in the simple present tense and describes a general truth or fact.
  • The use of 'like' after the verb 'looks' is correct because it indicates a comparison between the ultralight airplane and a lawn chair with wings.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Corrected sentence: An ultralight airplane is very different from a conventional airplane. It looks like a lawn chair with wings.

Additional Information

  • "look like" is in the past tense and does not accurately describe the present state of the ultralight airplane.
  • "looked like" is in the past tense and does not accurately describe the present state of the ultralight airplane.

Question 62

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The police could not / hold on the people / for long as they / gathered in large numbers

  1. AOption (a)

    for long as they

  2. BOption (b)

    hold on the people

  3. COption (c)

    The police could not

  4. DOption (d)

    gathered in large numbers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

hold on the people

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part of the sentence is: hold on the people

Key Points

  • The correct phrase is "hold onto" and not "hold on" in this context.
  • "Hold on" is used to indicate waiting or pausing, whereas "hold onto" means to maintain or keep a firm grip on something or someone.
  • Therefore, the correct sentence should be: The police could not hold onto the people for long as they gathered in large numbers.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer which contains the error.

Additional Information

  • "for long as they" is a correct phrase and does not contain any grammatical errors.
  • "The police could not" is a correct phrase and does not contain any grammatical errors.
  • "gathered in large numbers" is a correct phrase and does not contain any grammatical errors.

Hinglish

  • इस संदर्भ में सही वाक्यांश "hold onto" है, न कि "hold on".
  • "Hold on" का प्रयोग प्रतीक्षा या ठहरने के लिए किया जाता है, जबकि "hold onto" का अर्थ होता है किसी चीज़ या व्यक्ति को सख्ती से पकड़े रहना।
  • इसलिए, सही वाक्य होगा: पुलिस को लोगों को लंबे समय तक नहीं रोकना संभव था क्योंकि वे बड़ी संख्या में इकट्ठा हुए।

इसलिए, विकल्प 2 ही सही उत्तर है जिसमें त्रुटि होती है।

Question 63

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Raju did very well in the exam, he must study well.

  1. AOption (a)

    he may study well

  2. BOption (b)

    he should have studied well 

  3. COption (c)

    he must have studied well 

  4. DOption (d)

    No substitution required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

he must have studied well 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: he must have studied well

Key Points

  • The original sentence suggests that Raju did well in the exam, but there is a possibility that he did not study well.
  • The phrase "must have" is used to express a strong possibility or probability in the past.
  • The correct substitute, "he must have studied well" uses the past perfect tense to indicate that Raju's success was a result of his prior studying.
  • It clarifies the cause-and-effect relationship between Raju's preparation and his performance in the exam.
  • Therefore, using "must have studied well" in the sentence implies that it is highly likely that Raju studied well, which correlates with his good performance in the exam.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Improved sentence: Raju did very well in the exam, he must have studied well.

Additional Information

  • "he may study well" suggests a possibility for future action, but it does not address the past performance in the exam.
  • "he should have studied well" implies that Raju did not study well, which contradicts the original statement that he did well in the exam.

Question 64

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Fingernails and toenails helped our _________ to climb trees, peel fruits and use simple tools. While their colour and condition offer clues about your ________health. Nail polish turns them into fashion accessories.

  1. AOption (a)

    ancestors; overall

  2. BOption (b)

    predecessor; universal

  3. COption (c)

    forefather; all in all

  4. DOption (d)

    general; altogether

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ancestors; overall

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: ancestors; overall

Key Points

  • The sentence talks about how fingernails and toenails helped our ancestors climb trees, peel fruits, and use simple tools.
  • The word "ancestors" fits in the first blank as it refers to a person, typically one more remote than a grandparent, from whom one is descended. (एक व्यक्ति, जो आम तौर पर अपने दादा-दादी से अधिक दूर का व्यक्ति होता है, जिनके वंशज हैं)
  • For example- I often wonder about the lives and stories of my ancestors.
  • The word "overall" fits in the second blank as it means considering or including everything or everyone. (हर चीज़ या सभी पर विचार करना या शामिल करना)
  • For example- Overall, the event was a great success.
  • The sentence also mentions that the colour and condition of nails offer clues about overall health.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Complete sentence: Fingernails and toenails helped our ancestors to climb trees, peel fruits and use simple tools. While their colour and condition offer clues about your overall health. Nail polish turns them into fashion accessories.

Additional Information

  • The other options do not fit the context of the sentence. However, let us look at the meaning of those words.
  • Predecessor means a person who held a job or office before the current holder. (वह व्यक्ति जिसने वर्तमान धारक से पहले कोई नौकरी या पद संभाला हो)
  • Universal means applicable everywhere or in all cases. (हर जगह या सभी मामलों में लागू)
  • Forefather means a male ancestor, who lived in the past and is considered to be part of one's family lineage or heritage. (एक पुरुष पूर्वज, जो अतीत में रहता था और जिसे किसी के पारिवारिक वंश या विरासत का हिस्सा माना जाता है)
  • 'All in all' means considering everything or everyone. (हर चीज़ या हर किसी पर विचार करना)
  • General means common, usual, or ordinary. (सामान्य या साधारण)
  • Altogether means completely or in total. (पूर्णतया या समग्रतः)

Question 65

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. It is almost a definition of a gentleman to say he is one who never inflicts pain

B. He is mainly occupied in merely removing the obstacles which hinder the free and unembarrassed action of those about him, and he concurs with their movements rather than takes the initiative himself.

C. The true gentleman in like manner carefully avoids whatever may cause a jar or a jolt in the minds of those with whom he is cast; all clashing of opinion, or collision of feeling, all restraint, or suspicion, or gloom, or resentment; his great concern being to make everyone at their ease and at home.

D. His benefits may be considered as parallel to what are called comforts or conveniences in arrangements of a personal nature: like an easy chair or a good fire, which do their part in dispelling cold and fatigue, though nature provides both means of rest and animal heat without them

  1. AOption (a)

    BACD

  2. BOption (b)

    ABCD

  3. COption (c)

    DCBA 

  4. DOption (d)

    DBAC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ABCD

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: ABCD

Key Points

  • The paragraph discusses the characteristics of a true gentleman, who avoids causing discomfort or conflict to those around him.
  • Sentence A provides a definition of a gentleman as someone who does not inflict pain.
  • Sentence B introduces the idea that the gentleman's main role is to remove obstacles and follow the lead of others.
  • Sentence C elaborates on the gentleman's avoidance of conflict and his focus on making everyone feel at ease.
  • Sentence D compares the gentleman's actions to the comforts and conveniences that make life easier, but are not essential.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

  • 'BADC' starts with the wrong sentence and rearranges the other sentences in a different order.
  • 'DCBA' puts the definition of a gentleman last, rather than first.
  • 'DBAC' starts with the idea of the gentleman avoiding conflict, but then jumps to the comparison with comforts and conveniences before elaborating further.

Question 66

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Giving cause for legal action

  1. AOption (a)

    Lawful

  2. BOption (b)

    Actionable

  3. COption (c)

    Legalizing

  4. DOption (d)

    Objectionable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Actionable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Actionable

Key Points

  • Actionable is an adjective that means "giving cause for legal action" (कानूनी कार्रवाई का कारण देना)
  • For example- The lawyer discussed actionable steps to address the legal issue.
  • It is commonly used in legal contexts to describe conduct or speech that can be the basis for a lawsuit or other legal action.
  • Other synonyms for "actionable" include "litigable," "prosecutable," and "suable."

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

  • Lawful means permitted or authorized by law. (कानून द्वारा अनुमति या प्राधिकृत)
  • Legalizing means making something legal or lawful. (किसी चीज़ को कानूनी बनाना)
  • Objectionable means causing offence or disapproval. (अपराध या अस्वीकृति उत्पन्न करना)

Question 67

Some sentences are given below. While the first and the last sentences (1 and 2) are in the correct order, the sentences in between are jumbled up. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

1.“Do you still recognise me?” I asked.

A. The woman looked at me searchingly.

B. “I am Mrs. S’s daughter”.

C.  I came closer and stood on the step.

D. She opened the door a little.

  1. She kept staring at me in silence.
  1. AOption (a)

    BDAC

  2. BOption (b)

    BACD

  3. COption (c)

    BCAD

  4. DOption (d)

    BADC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

BADC

Why this answer is correct

The correct order is: BADC

Key Points

  • The first sentence (1) sets the context for the paragraph and introduces the speaker.
  • The second sentence (B) provides important information about the speaker's identity.
  • The third sentence (A) describes the woman's reaction to the speaker's question.
  • The fourth sentence (D) gives details about the physical setting and action.
  • The fifth sentence (C) states the approaching and positioning.
  • The last sentence (2) concludes the paragraph by describing the woman's reaction.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Arranged sentences: 1.“Do you still recognise me?” I asked. B. “I am Mrs. S’s daughter”. A. The woman looked at me searchingly. D. She opened the door a little. C.  I came closer and stood on the step. 2. She kept staring at me in silence.

Additional Information

  • (BDAC): This order doesn't make sense as it jumps from the woman's reaction (B) to the speaker's approach (D) before providing information about the speaker's identity (A).
  • (BACD): This order is close to the correct answer but puts the speaker's approach (C) too early in the paragraph.
  • (BCAD): This order also doesn't make sense as it jumps from the woman's reaction (B) to the speaker's approach (C) without providing information about the speaker's identity (A).

Question 68

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Subpoena

  2. BOption (b)

    Noticeable

  3. COption (c)

    Caucus

  4. DOption (d)

    Milennium 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Milennium 

Why this answer is correct

The incorrectly spelt word is: Milennium

Key Points

  • The correct spelling of the word is "Millennium" with double L and double N.
  • The word refers to a period of one thousand years. (एक हजार वर्ष की अवधि)
  • For example- The year 2000 marked the beginning of a new millennium.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Subpoena is the correct spelling. It refers to a legal document ordering someone to appear in court. (किसी को अदालत में उपस्थित होने का आदेश देने वाला कानूनी दस्तावेज़)
  • Noticeable is the correct spelling. It means easily seen or noticed. (आसानी से देखा या नोटिस किया जा सकता है)
  • Caucus is the correct spelling. It refers to a meeting of members of a political party or group. (किसी राजनीतिक दल या समूह के सदस्यों की बैठक)

Question 69

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The young girl is very audacious in every activity.

  1. AOption (a)

    Ferocious

  2. BOption (b)

    Timid

  3. COption (c)

    Bold

  4. DOption (d)

    Bright

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Timid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Timid

Key Points

  • Audacious means bold and daring. (निर्भीक और साहसी)
  • For example- Her audacious plan surprised everyone at the meeting.
  • Marked option Timid means shy and lacking in confidence, which is the opposite of 'audacious'. (शर्मीले और आत्मविश्वास की कमी)
  • For example- He felt timid when speaking in front of a large audience.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

  • Let us look at the meaning of the other words.
  • Ferocious means fierce and aggressive. (उग्र और आक्रामक)
  • Bold means confident and courageous. (आत्मविश्वासी और साहसी)
  • Bright means intelligent and clever. (बुद्धिमान और चतुर)

Question 70

Some sentences are given below. While the first and the last sentences (1 and 2) are in the correct order, the sentences in between are jumbled up. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

  1. Ranga is the accountant’s son.

A. He returned to his village after his studies were over.

B. He is one rare breed of village folk who loved studies.

C. On his return the villagers milled around his house to see whether he has changed or not.

D. He had gone to Bangalore to pursue his studies.

  1. His idea about marriage are now quite different.
  1. AOption (a)

    BDAC

  2. BOption (b)

    BCAD 

  3. COption (c)

    BCDA

  4. DOption (d)

    BDCA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

BDAC

Why this answer is correct

The correct order is: BDAC

Key Points

  • Sentence B talks about Ranga's love for studies, which sets the context for the paragraph.
  • Sentence D explains that Ranga went to Bangalore for his studies.
  • Sentence A talks about Ranga returning to his village after completing his studies.
  • Sentence C explains the reaction of the villagers upon Ranga's return.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Arranged sentences: 1. Ranga is the accountant’s son. B. He is one rare breed of village folk who loved studies. D. He had gone to Bangalore to pursue his studies. A. He returned to his village after his studies were over. C. On his return the villagers milled around his house to see whether he has changed or not. 2. His idea about marriage are now quite different.

Additional Information

  • (BCAD): This option puts sentence C before sentence B, which disrupts the flow of the paragraph.
  • (BCDA): This option puts sentence D after sentence A, which disrupts the chronological order of events.
  • (BDCA): This option puts sentence C after sentence D, which disrupts the flow of the paragraph.

Question 71

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

The officer asked his subordinates to keep him posted of the workplace developments.

  1. AOption (a)

    maintain secrecy

  2. BOption (b)

    send letters by post

  3. COption (c)

    keep sharing the latest information

  4. DOption (d)

    not disturb him in matters

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

keep sharing the latest information

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: keep sharing the latest information

Key Points

  • "keep him posted" means to keep someone informed or updated about something. (किसी को किसी चीज़ के बारे में सूचित या अद्यतन रखना)
  • For example- As our project progresses, make sure to keep him posted with regular updates on the status and any significant changes.
  • The officer wants his subordinates to share the latest developments in the workplace with him.
  • This idiom is commonly used in professional settings to indicate the need for communication and collaboration.
  • Grammatically, "keep him posted" is a verb phrase that functions as a command or request.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

  • "maintain secrecy" is the opposite of the intended meaning of the idiom.
  • "send letters by post" is a literal interpretation of the word "posted" but does not fit the context of the sentence.
  • "not disturb him in matters" is not related to the idea of sharing information.

Question 72

Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

The ashrams / used / were / the centres / of / knowledge and learning / as

  1. AOption (a)

    The ashrams were used as the centres of knowledge and learning.

  2. BOption (b)

    As The ashrams of knowledge and learning were used the centres

  3. COption (c)

    Knowledge and learning were used as the centres of the ashrams.

  4. DOption (d)

    The centres of the ashrams were used as knowledge and learning.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The ashrams were used as the centres of knowledge and learning.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: The ashrams were used as the centres of knowledge and learning.

Key Points

  • "The ashrams" is the subject of the sentence. It refers to specific places called "ashrams."
  • "were used as" is the verb phrase that indicates the action and state of being. it means that the ashrams served a particular purpose.
  • "the centres of knowledge and learning" is the object of the action. It describes what the ashrams were used for.
  • The ashrams served as places where knowledge and learning took place.
  • The sentence follows a subject-verb-object word order.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 73

Select the correct direct narration of the given sentence.

Madhav applauded her, saying that she had done well.

  1. AOption (a)

    Madhav say, “Bravo! You have done well”.

  2. BOption (b)

    Madhav said, “Bravo! You have done well”.

  3. COption (c)

    Madhav said, “Bravo! You been done well”. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhav say, “Bravo! You have be done well”.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Madhav said, “Bravo! You have done well”.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Madhav said, “Bravo! You have done well”.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in indirect speech.
  • In direct speech, the reporting verb "saying" is changed to "said" and the tense of the verb "had done" is changed to "have done".
  • The sentence also includes an exclamation, which is retained in the direct narration.
  • Therefore, the correct direct narration is "Madhav said, 'Bravo! You have done well'".

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect because it uses "say" instead of "said".
  • Option 3: Incorrect because it uses "been done" instead of "have done".
  • Option 4: Incorrect because it uses "be done" instead of "have done".

Question 74

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Flout

  1. AOption (a)

    Rude

  2. BOption (b)

    Poke

  3. COption (c)

    Rash

  4. DOption (d)

    Defy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Defy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Defy'.

Key Points

  • Flout means to openly disregard a rule or law. (किसी नियम या कानून की खुलेआम अवहेलना करना)
  • For example- He decided to flout the speed limit and was pulled over by the police.
  • Defy also means to openly resist or refuse to obey. (खुलेआम विरोध करना या आज्ञा मानने से इंकार करना)
  • For example- He defied the authorities by refusing to pay the fine.
  • From here, it is clear that the most appropriate synonym for 'Flout' is 'Defy.'

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Rude means impolite or discourteous. (असभ्य)
  • Poke means to prod or jab with something pointed. (किसी नुकीली चीज से ठोंकना या चुभाना)
  • Rash means reckless or impulsive. (लापरवाह या आवेगी)

Question 75

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Faithful

  1. AOption (a)

    Wavering

  2. BOption (b)

    Devoted

  3. COption (c)

    Untrustworthy

  4. DOption (d)

    Fickle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Devoted

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Devoted

Key Points

  • Faithful means loyal, consistent, and committed. (वफादार, सुसंगत और प्रतिबद्ध)
  • For example- The dog remained faithful to its owner throughout their years together.
  • Marked option Devoted means Showing strong love, loyalty, or dedication towards someone or something. (किसी व्यक्ति य�� वस्तु के प्रति गहरा प्रेम, निष्ठा या समर्पण दिखाना)
  • For example- She is a devoted friend who is always there to offer support.
  • From here it is clear that 'devoted' is the most appropriate synonym for the given word 'faithful'.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

  • Wavering means uncertain or hesitant. It is the opposite of faithful. (अनिश्चित या झिझक वाला)
  • Untrustworthy means not reliable or dependable. It is the opposite of faithful. (विश्वसनीय या भरोसेमंद नहीं)
  • Fickle means changing frequently, especially in regard to one's loyalty or affection. It is the opposite of faithful. (बार-बार बदलना, विशेषकर किसी की वफादारी या स्नेह के संबंध में)

Question 76

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

The students were able to get better from college early so they went to the movies.

  1. AOption (a)

    to get better from

  2. BOption (b)

    went to the movies

  3. COption (c)

    The students were able

  4. DOption (d)

    college early so they

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

to get better from

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part of the sentence is: to get better from

Key Points

  • The phrase 'to get better from' is incorrect. The correct phrase is 'to get back from'.
  • 'Get back' means to return or come back from a place. (किसी स्थान से लौटना या वापस आना)
  • 'Get better' means the process of improving one's health, well-being, or condition, especially after an illness or injury, which is inappropriate in the context of the given sentence. (किसी के स्वास्थ्य, कल्याण या स्थिति में सुधार की प्रक्रिया, विशेषकर किसी बीमारी या चोट के बाद)
  • The sentence should read: The students were able to get back from college early so they went to the movies.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

  • 'went to the movies' is grammatically correct and makes sense in the context of the sentence.
  • 'The students were able' is grammatically correct and sets up the rest of the sentence.
  • 'college early so they' is grammatically correct and provides the reason for the student's actions.

Question 77

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Simran was plucking the flowers.

  1. AOption (a)

    The flowers are plucked by Simran.

  2. BOption (b)

    The flowers will be plucked by Simran.

  3. COption (c)

    The flowers have been plucked by Simran.

  4. DOption (d)

    The flowers were being plucked by Simran.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The flowers were being plucked by Simran.

Why this answer is correct

The correct passive voice is: The flowers were being plucked by Simran.

Key Points

  • Passive voice requires the object of the active sentence to become the subject of the passive sentence, and the subject of the active sentence to become the object of the passive sentence.
  • The past continuous tense is formed with "was/were + present participle (-ing)" and indicates an action that was in progress at a specific time in the past.
  • In the passive voice, the past continuous tense is formed with "was/were being + past participle."
  • Therefore, "Simran was plucking the flowers" in the passive voice becomes "The flowers were being plucked by Simran."

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "The flowers are plucked by Simran" is in the present simple tense, not the past continuous tense, and does not accurately reflect the original sentence.
  • Option 2: "The flowers will be plucked by Simran" is in the future simple tense, not the past continuous tense, and does not accurately reflect the original sentence.
  • Option 3: "The flowers have been plucked by Simran" is in the present perfect tense, not the past continuous tense, and suggests that the action has already been completed, which contradicts the use of the past continuous tense in the original sentence.

Question 78

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Sanitise

  1. AOption (a)

    Pollute

  2. BOption (b)

    Sacrifice

  3. COption (c)

    Devote

  4. DOption (d)

    Purify

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Pollute

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Pollute

Key Points

  • Sanitise means to clean or make something free from dirt or germs. (किसी चीज को गंदगी या कीटाणुओं से मुक्त करना या साफ करना)
  • For example: Before cooking, it's important to sanitise your hands to prevent any germs from spreading.
  • Marked option Pollute means to make something dirty or contaminated. (किसी चीज़ को गंदा या दूषित करना)
  • For example: Careless waste disposal can pollute our oceans and harm marine life.
  • From here, it is clear that 'Pollute' is the most appropriate antonym for 'Sanitise.'

Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Sacrifice means to give up something valuable for a higher cause. (किसी उच्च उद्देश्य के लिए किसी मूल्यवान वस्तु का त्याग करना)
  • Devote means to give time, effort, or resources to a particular activity or person. (किसी विशेष गतिविधि या व्यक्ति को समय, प्रयास या संसाधन देना)
  • Purify means to remove impurities or pollutants from something. (किसी चीज़ से अशुद्धियाँ या प्रदूषक हटाना)

Question 79

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

The lawyer told the father of the accused, “There is a rumour that he has some connection in that crime.”

  1. AOption (a)

    The lawyer told the father of the accused that there has been a rumour that he had some connection in that crime.

  2. BOption (b)

    The lawyer told the father of the accused that there was a rumour that he was having some connection in that crime.

  3. COption (c)

    The lawyer told the father of the accused that there was a rumour that he had some connection in that crime.

  4. DOption (d)

    The lawyer told the father of the accused that there was a rumour that he has had some connection in that crime. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The lawyer told the father of the accused that there was a rumour that he had some connection in that crime.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: "The lawyer told the father of the accused that there was a rumour that he had some connection in that crime."

Key Points

  • In indirect speech, the tense of the reported speech is usually changed according to the rules of the sequence of tenses.
  • The verb "is" changes to "was" and "has" changes to "had" in reported speech.
  • The pronoun "he" remains the same in the reported speech.
  • The reported speech is introduced by a reporting verb and a conjunction "that".
  • Therefore, the correct indirect speech of the given sentence is "The lawyer told the father of the accused that there was a rumour that he had some connection in that crime."

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect as it uses present perfect tense "has been" instead of simple past tense "was".
  • Option 2: Incorrect as it uses present continuous tense "is having" instead of past continuous tense "was having".
  • Option 4: Incorrect as it uses present perfect tense "has had" instead of past perfect tense "had had".

Question 80

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

An official appointed to resolve a dispute

  1. AOption (a)

    Confidante

  2. BOption (b)

    Arbitrator

  3. COption (c)

    Soothsayer

  4. DOption (d)

    Advocate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Arbitrator

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Arbitrator

Key Points

  • The word 'arbitrator' means a person appointed to resolve a dispute. (किसी विवाद को सुलझाने के लिए नियुक्त व्यक्ति)
  • It is a noun and can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
  • For example: The company hired an arbitrator to settle the legal dispute with their former employee.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

  • Let us look at the meaning of the other words.
  • Confidante: A person with whom one shares a secret or private matter. (वह व्यक्ति जिसके साथ कोई गुप्त या निजी मामला साझा किया जाता है)
  • Soothsayer: A person supposed to be able to foresee the future; a fortune-teller. (ऐसा माना जाता है कि एक व्यक्ति भविष्य की भविष्यवाणी करने में सक्षम है; एक भविष्यवक्ता)
  • Advocate: A person who publicly supports or recommends a particular cause or policy. (वह व्यक्ति जो सार्वजनिक रूप से किसी विशेष कारण या नीति का समर्थन या अनुशंसा करता है)

Question 81

Choose the correct meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

There is no point developing bad blood with your neighbours.

  1. AOption (a)

    Enmity

  2. BOption (b)

    Business relations

  3. COption (c)

    Friendship

  4. DOption (d)

    Family relations

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Enmity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Enmity

Key Points

  • 'Bad blood' is an idiom that means hostility or ill-feeling between people. (लोगों के बीच शत्रुता या दुर्भावना)
  • For example- There's always been bad blood between those two teams due to past conflicts.
  • Enmity means the state of being actively opposed or hostile to someone or something. (किसी व्यक्ति या वस्तु का सक्रिय रूप से विरोध या शत्रुतापूर्ण होने की अवस्था)
  • For example- The long-standing enmity between the rival gangs led to frequent clashes in the neighbourhood.
  • In this context, it suggests that it's not beneficial to create a negative relationship with one's neighbours.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

  • Business relations: Refers to the professional relationship between two parties. (दो पक्षों के बीच व्यावसायिक संबंध)
  • Friendship: Refers to a close relationship between two people based on mutual trust, support, and care. (आपसी विश्वास, समर्थन और देखभाल पर आधारित दो लोगों के बीच घनिष्ठ संबंध)
  • Family relations: Refers to the relationship between family members based on blood or marriage. (परिवार के सदस्यों के बीच रक्त या विवाह पर आधारित संबंध)

Question 82

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Reptiles _________ from amphibians. For a long period of 160 million years in earth’s history, reptiles were the dominant form of life on the planet and _________ in an enormous variety of shapes and sizes.

  1. AOption (a)

    developed; continued

  2. BOption (b)

    came; exhausted

  3. COption (c)

    evolved; existed

  4. DOption (d)

    involved; lived

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

evolved; existed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: evolved; existed

Key Points

  • Evolved means developed gradually over time through natural selection. (प्राकृतिक चयन के माध्यम से समय के साथ धीरे-धीरे विकसित हुआ)
  • For example- Technology has evolved rapidly in the past decade.
  • Existed means to have an actual being; be real or in existence. (एक वास्तविक अस्तित्व होना; वास्तविक हो या अस्तित्व में हो)
  • For example- Ancient civilizations existed long before our time.
  • The sentence is talking about the evolution of reptiles and their existence on Earth.
  • The use of "and" indicates that the two blanks require two separate words.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete sentence: Reptiles evolved from amphibians. For a long period of 160 million years in Earth’s history, reptiles were the dominant form of life on the planet and existed in an enormous variety of shapes and sizes.

Additional Information

  • Let us look at the meaning of the other words.
  • Developed: Evolved or progressed to a more advanced state. (अधिक उन्नत अवस्था में विकसित या प्रगति करना)
  • Continued: Persisted or carried on without interruption. (बिना किसी रुकावट के कायम या जारी रहना)
  • Came: Arrived at a location or a certain state. (किसी स्थान या निश्चित राज्य पर पहुँचना)
  • Exhausted: Completely drained of energy or resources. (ऊर्जा या संसाधनों का पूरी तरह से ख़त्म हो जाना)
  • Involved: Participated or engaged in a situation or activity. (किसी स्थिति या गतिविधि में भाग लेना या संलग्न होना)
  • Lived: Resided in a particular place or experienced life in a certain way. (किसी विशेष स्थान पर निवास किया या एक निश्चित तरीके से जीवन का अनुभव किया)

Question 83

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Quarrels result in_________ confrontations and bring all conversations to a complete standstill.

  1. AOption (a)

    cold

  2. BOption (b)

    hot

  3. COption (c)

    heated

  4. DOption (d)

    disputed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

heated

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Heated

Key Points

  • The sentence talks about how quarrels bring conversations to a complete standstill.
  • This implies that the confrontations resulting from quarrels must be intense and disruptive.
  • The word "heated" means intense or passionate, especially in the context of an argument or debate. (तीव्र या भावुक, विशेष रूप से किसी तर्क या बहस के संदर्भ में)
  • For example: The argument became heated as emotions ran high.
  • Therefore, it is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Complete sentence: Quarrels result in heated confrontations and bring all conversations to a complete standstill.

Additional Information

  • Cold is the opposite of what the sentence suggests, as it implies a lack of intensity or passion. (तीव्रता या जुनून की कमी)
  • Hot is not an appropriate choice as it suggests a physical temperature rather than an emotional state. (शारीरिक तापमान)
  • Disputed is not a suitable choice as it means subject to disagreement or controversy. (असहमति या विवाद का विषय)

Question 84

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

I gifted a soft toy to my daughter.

  1. AOption (a)

    A soft toy is gifted to my daughter by me.

  2. BOption (b)

    To my daughter was gifted a soft toy by me. 

  3. COption (c)

    A soft toy was gifted to my daughter by me. 

  4. DOption (d)

    A soft toy was being gifted to my daughter by me. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A soft toy was gifted to my daughter by me. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct passive voice is: A soft toy was gifted to my daughter by me.

Key Points

  • The sentence is in the active voice with the subject "I" performing the action.
  • In passive voice, the subject becomes the receiver of the action and is placed at the beginning of the sentence.
  • The object "soft toy" becomes the subject in passive voice and "gifted" is changed to "was gifted".
  • The preposition "to" remains the same and "my daughter" becomes the object of the preposition.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: The sentence is in passive voice but the subject is not at the beginning and the preposition is incorrect.
  • Option 2: The sentence is in passive voice but the word order is incorrect and the preposition is incorrect.
  • Option 4: The sentence is in passive voice but the tense is incorrect and the preposition is incorrect.

Question 85

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

My son exclaimed with joy that it was an attractive site.

  1. AOption (a)

     My son said, “It is an attractive site.” 

  2. BOption (b)

    My son said, “What an attractive site it is!”

  3. COption (c)

    My son said, “What an attractive site it was!”

  4. DOption (d)

    My son said, “It was an attractive site.” 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

My son said, “What an attractive site it is!”

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: My son said, “What an attractive site it is!”

Key Points

  • Direct speech requires the use of quotation marks and the reporting verb 'said'.
  • The tense of the reported speech changes to the present form.
  • The pronouns may change depending on the context of the reported speech.
  • In this case, the reported speech is a statement and not a question or command.
  • In the direct speech transformation, the introductory phrase changes from "My son exclaimed with joy" to "My son said."
  • The main statement within the quotation marks is directly quoted, and it maintains the son's exact expression.
  • Quotation marks indicate direct speech.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect as it changes the meaning of the original sentence by adding emphasis and making it sound like a rhetorical question.
  • Option 3: Incorrect as it changes the tense of the reported speech to past, which is not accurate.
  • Option 4: Also incorrect as it changes the word order and does not convey the same level of excitement as the original sentence.

Question 86

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The seller shall dispatch the parcel soon to Chennai.

  1. AOption (a)

    The parcel will be dispatched soon to Chennai by the seller. 

  2. BOption (b)

    The parcel may be dispatched by the seller to Chennai soon.

  3. COption (c)

    The parcel might be dispatched by the seller to Chennai soon.

  4. DOption (d)

    The parcel can be dispatched by the seller to Chennai soon.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The parcel will be dispatched soon to Chennai by the seller. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct passive voice is: The parcel will be dispatched soon to Chennai by the seller.

Key Points

  • The sentence is in active voice, with the subject 'seller' performing the action 'dispatch'.
  • To convert it into passive voice, we need to make the object 'parcel' the subject, and use the auxiliary verb 'will be' along with the past participle form of the main verb 'dispatched'.
  • The preposition 'to Chennai' remains unchanged as it indicates the destination.
  • The agent (seller) is introduced with the preposition 'by' at the end of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

  • Option 2: The use of 'may' indicates possibility, but the original sentence is in future tense and not conditional.
  • Option 3: The use of 'might' indicates uncertainty, but the original sentence is a statement of fact.
  • Option 4: The use of 'can' indicates ability, but the original sentence is not about capability but intention.

Question 87

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Accomodate

  2. BOption (b)

    Affection

  3. COption (c)

    Appearance

  4. DOption (d)

    Accompanied

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Accomodate

Why this answer is correct

The incorrectly spelt word is: Accomodate

Key Points

  • The correct spelling is 'Accommodate'.
  • The word means to provide lodging or to make someone feel comfortable. (आवास प्रदान करना या किसी को आरामदायक महसूस कराना)
  • For example: The hotel can accommodate up to 200 guests.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

  • The other words are correctly spelt. Let us look at the meaning of those words.
  • Affection: A feeling of liking or love towards someone or something. (किसी व्यक्ति या वस्तु के प्रति पसंद या प्रेम की भावना)
  • Appearance: The way someone or something looks. (जिस तरह से कोई व्यक्ति या वस्तु दिखती है)
  • Accompanied: To go somewhere with someone. (किसी के साथ कहीं जाना है)

Question 88

Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

An elaborate network / is / the plot / of schemes and tricks / of Much Ado About Nothing

  1. AOption (a)

    The plot is of schemes and tricks an elaborate network of Much Ado About Nothing.

  2. BOption (b)

    An elaborate network of Much Ado About Nothing is the plot of schemes and tricks.

  3. COption (c)

    The plot of Much Ado About Nothing is an elaborate network of schemes and tricks.

  4. DOption (d)

    The plot of schemes and tricks is an elaborate network of Much Ado About Nothing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The plot of Much Ado About Nothing is an elaborate network of schemes and tricks.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: The plot of Much Ado About Nothing is an elaborate network of schemes and tricks.

Key Points

  • The sentence is in the form of a subject-verb-object.
  • "The plot of Much Ado About Nothing" - This sets the main subject of the sentence, which is the plot of the play.
  • "is" - This is the linking verb that connects the subject to the predicate.
  • "an elaborate network of schemes and tricks" - This elaborates on the nature of the plot. It describes the plot as intricate and detailed, consisting of various schemes and tricks.
  • Therefore, the correct order is "The plot of Much Ado About Nothing is an elaborate network of schemes and tricks."
  • The correct arrangement ensures clarity and coherence by presenting the subject, followed by its description in a structured manner.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

China and India together will account for more than a third of the estimated global population, which is expected to hit 8.045 billion by mid-year, according to the United Nations Population Fund’s (UNFPA) ‘State of World Population Report’ for 2023. But, contrary to public perception, population growth has been slowing in both countries – particularly in China, which recorded a population decline for the first time in six decades last year.

China’s population fell in 2022 to 1.411 billion, down some 850,000 people from the previous year, according to China’s National Bureau of Statistics (NBS). The birth rate also fell to a record low of 6.77 births per 1,000 people, down from 7.52 a year earlier and the lowest level since the founding of Communist China in 1949.

Along with the flagging population data, China also reported one of its worst economic growth numbers in nearly half a century last year, underscoring the steep challenges the country faces as its labor force shrinks and the ranks of the retired swell.

India’s working-age population stands at more than 900 million, according to 2021 data from the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development. This number is expected to hit more than 1 billion over the next decade, according to the Indian government. But these numbers could become a liability if policymakers do not create enough jobs, experts warned.

Question 89

The main theme of the given passage is:

  1. AOption (a)

    China’s worsening economic growth

  2. BOption (b)

    slow population growth in India and China

  3. COption (c)

    India’s working-age population

  4. DOption (d)

    China’s declining population

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

China’s declining population

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: China’s declining population

Key Points

  • The main theme of a passage refers to the central idea or the overarching message that the author is trying to convey through the text.
  • The main theme of the passage is China's declining population. Because,
  • Although the passage talks about both China and India, it mainly focuses on China.
  • The passage describes the slow growth of China for some years and finally the decline in population last year.
  • It also describes the bad economic condition as an effect of slow population growth.
  • So it is clear that the main theme of this passage is about China.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: China's worsening economic growth is not the main theme of the passage, although it may be indirectly related to China's declining population.
  • Option 2: Slow population growth in India and China is not the main theme of the passage, although there are some references to India it mainly concentrates on China.
  • Option 3: India's working-age population is not the main theme of the passage, although it may be mentioned in passing as a comparison to China's aging population.

Question 90

What is the estimated world population by the middle of this year?

  1. AOption (a)

    1.256 billion

  2. BOption (b)

    900 million

  3. COption (c)

    1.411 billion

  4. DOption (d)

    8.045 billion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

8.045 billion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 8.045 billion

Key Points

  • The first sentence of the paragraph states, "China and India together will account for more than a third of the estimated global population, which is expected to hit 8.045 billion by mid-year,..."
  • So, the estimated world population by the middle of this year is 8.045 billion.
  • The question is asking for the estimated population, which means it is not a definite or exact number.
  • It is important to keep track of the world population as it affects resources, environment, and social systems.
  • The estimated world population continues to increase, which can have both positive and negative impacts.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • 1.256 billion is the estimated population of India as of 2021.
  • 900 million is less than the population of India, so it cannot be the estimated world population.
  • 1.411 billion is close to the estimated population of India, but it is still not the correct answer for the estimated world population.

Question 91

Identify whether the given statements are true or false.

A. India’s working-age population stands at more than 900 million in 2021.

B. In the next ten years, India’s working-age population will be more than 1 billion.

  1. AOption (a)

    A is false and B is true.

  2. BOption (b)

    A is true and B is false.

  3. COption (c)

    Neither A nor B is true.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and B are true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both A and B are true.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Both A and B are true.

Key Points

  • The first sentence of the last para states, "India’s working-age population stands at more than 900 million, according to 2021 data from the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development."
  • From here, it is clear that India's working-age population was more than 900 million in 2021 is a true statement.
  • The second sentence of the last para states, "This number is expected to hit more than 1 billion over the next decade, according to the Indian government."
  • So, In the next ten years, India's working-age population is projected to increase and be more than 1 billion, which is also a true statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • A is false and B is true: This is incorrect as statement A is true.
  • A is true and B is false: This is incorrect as statement B is also true.
  • Neither A nor B is true: This is incorrect as both statements are true.

Question 92

‘Along with the flagging population data.’ Here, ‘flagging’ means all of the following except

  1. AOption (a)

    ascending

  2. BOption (b)

    waning

  3. COption (c)

    dwindling

  4. DOption (d)

    contracting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ascending

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: ascending

Key Points

  • The word "flagging" in this context means becoming weak or losing energy. (कमज़ोर होना या ऊर्जा खोना)
  • For example: His enthusiasm for the project was flagging as time went on.
  • Ascending means increasing or going up. (आकार या मात्रा में वृद्धि होना)
  • For example: The hikers were ascending the steep mountain trail with determination.

Therefore, Option 1 is the exception and does not fit the definition of "flagging".

Additional Information

  • Waning: Gradually decreasing or becoming weaker. (धीरे-धीरे कम होना या कमजोर होना)
  • Dwindling: Shrinking or reducing in size, amount, or intensity. (आकार, मात्रा या तीव्रता में सिकुड़न या कमी होना)
  • Contracting: Getting smaller or tighter; entering into a formal agreement. (छोटा या कड़ा होना; एक औपचारिक समझौते में प्रवेश करना)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

King Sagara, an ancestor of King Bhagiratha, once conducted an ashwamedha yagna to extend his dominion. When the horse went astray, the king sent his 60,000 sons to find the horse. Unfortunately, in the course of the quest, they ended up disrupting the intense meditation of sage Kapila, at whose abode they found the horse. Kapila burnt them all to ashes, sending them all to the netherworld—an act he instantly regretted when he realised what had happened. After breaking the news to King Sagara, he mentioned that the souls of King Sagara’s sons could attain salvation only if the heavenly Ganga could be persuaded to flow over their ashes.

It was Bhagiratha, whose austere penance and devotion pleased Lord Shiva so much so that he persuaded Ganga to descend to the earth. Ganga consented, but the problem arose that the earth would probably be unable to bear the intensity of Ganga’s flow and even be shattered in the process. Thus, a solution was devised: Ganga would first land on Shiva’s head and the locks of his hair would minimise the impact. Still, the force of Ganga’s landing was such that it split into seven tributaries, three of which flowed east and three of them west. The seventh stream followed King Bhagiratha to the place where his ancestor’s ashes lay. The river’s waters instantly purified them. This is also the origin of the belief that the Ganga’s waters can purify mortal souls of all their sins.

Question 93

Identify the option that arranges the given events in the correct sequence of their occurence.

A. King Sagara’s sons were burnt by sage Kapila.

B. King Bhagiratha persuaded Ganga to flow to the earth.

C. King Sagara performed an ashwamedha yagna.

D. The souls of the dead sons would not get salvation until Ganga flowed over their ashes.

E. However, the flow had to be restrained by Shiva by holding it in his locks.

  1. AOption (a)

    CAEDB

  2. BOption (b)

    CADBE

  3. COption (c)

    ACEBD

  4. DOption (d)

    ADCBE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

CADBE

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: CADBE

Key Points Let us see the correct sequence of the events.

  • King Sagara performed an Ashwamedha yagna (C).
  • King Sagara's sons were burnt by sage Kapila (A).
  • The souls of the dead sons would not get salvation until Ganga flowed over their ashes (D).
  • King Bhagiratha persuaded Ganga to flow to the earth (B).
  • However, the flow had to be restrained by Shiva by holding it in his locks (E).

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • (CAEDB) - The events are not in the correct chronological order.
  • (ACEBD) - The events are not in the correct chronological order.
  • (ADCBE) - The events are not in the correct chronological order.

Question 94

This story is a:

  1. AOption (a)

    true story

  2. BOption (b)

    historical story

  3. COption (c)

    fable

  4. DOption (d)

    mythological story

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

mythological story

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: mythological story

Key Points

  • A mythological story is a traditional narrative that often explains the origins of various aspects of the world, human behaviour, natural phenomena, and the relationship between gods, humans, and supernatural beings. (पौराणिक कहानी एक पारंपरिक कथा है जो अक्सर दुनिया के विभिन्न पहलुओं की उत्पत्ति, मानव व्यवहार, प्राकृतिक घटनाओं और देवताओं, मनुष्यों और अलौकिक प्राणियों के बीच संबंधों की व्याख्या करती है)
  • Mythological stories typically feature gods, heroes, magical creatures, and symbolic elements that convey moral, cultural, and religious teachings.
  • The question is asking about the genre or type of story.
  • So, the correct answer is "mythological story" because it refers to a story that is based on mythology or traditional beliefs of a particular culture.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • "True story" refers to a story that is based on actual events and is not fictional. (सच्ची कहानी से तात्पर्य ऐसी कहानी से है जो वास्तविक घटनाओं पर आधारित हो और काल्पनिक न हो)
  • "Historical story" is a type of story that is based on real historical events but may contain fictional elements or characters. (ऐतिहासिक कहानी एक प्रकार की कहानी है जो वास्तविक ऐतिहासिक घटनाओं पर आधारित होती है लेकिन इसमें काल्पनिक तत्व या पात्र हो सकते हैं)
  • "Fable" is a type of story that uses animals or inanimate objects to teach a moral lesson. (कल्पित कहानी एक प्रकार की कहानी है जो नैतिक पाठ पढ़ाने के लिए जानवरों या निर्जीव वस्तुओं का उपयोग करती है)

Question 95

The above story is mainly about:

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Shiva holding the Ganga in his locks

  2. BOption (b)

    the ashwamedha yagna by King Sagara

  3. COption (c)

    the coming of the river Ganga to the earth

  4. DOption (d)

    the sage Kapila’s anger for King Sagara’s sons

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

the coming of the river Ganga to the earth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: the coming of the river Ganga to the earth

Key Points

  • The story primarily revolves around the efforts to bring the river Ganga to the Earth and the events leading up to it.
  • The narrative begins with King Sagara's attempt to extend his dominion by performing an Ashwamedha yagna.
  • The focus then shifts to King Bhagiratha, a descendant of King Sagara, who undertakes intense penance to please Lord Shiva and convince Ganga to descend to Earth.
  • The narrative ultimately culminates with Ganga's arrival on Earth and her waters purifying the ashes of King Sagara's sons.
  • In summary, the story centres on the efforts to bring Ganga to Earth and the associated challenges, symbolizing divine intervention and its significance in purifying souls.
  • From here, we can say that the story is mainly about the arrival of the river Ganga on Earth.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Lord Shiva holding the Ganga in his locks is a popular mythological story, but not the one mentioned in the question.
  • Option 2: The ashwamedha yagna by King Sagara is a significant event in Hindu mythology, but not the main focus of the story mentioned in the question.
  • Option 4: The sage Kapila's anger towards King Sagara's sons is a subplot in the story and not the main focus.

Question 96

‘It was Bhagiratha, whose austere penance….’ The word ‘austere’ here means:

  1. AOption (a)

    severe

  2. BOption (b)

    rustic

  3. COption (c)

    bare

  4. DOption (d)

    subdued

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

severe

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Severe

Key Points

  • The word "austere" means severe or strict. (कठोर या सख्त)
  • It can refer to someone who lives a simple and disciplined life.
  • It can also refer to something that is plain or unadorned.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

  • Rustic means relating to the countryside or rural areas. (ग्रामीण इलाकों या ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों से संबंधित)
  • Bare means lacking in clothing or other covering, or lacking in something essential. (कपड़ों या अन्य आवरणों की कमी, या किसी आवश्यक चीज़ की कमी)
  • Subdued means quiet and restrained, or lacking in intensity or brightness. (शांत और संयमित, या तीव्रता या चमक में कमी)

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Astronomers have discovered 62 new moons orbiting the ringed planet Saturn. Though some of the moons had been (1)________ as early as 2019, it takes more than sighting an object close to a planet to (2) ________ it is a moon and not an asteroid making a brief close passage to that planet.

Performing a painstaking (3) ________ of matching objects detected on different nights over the course of 24 months, the team tracked 63 objects that they ended up confirming as moons. One of (4) ________ satellites was revealed back in 2021, with the remaining 62 moons gradually announced over the past few weeks.

Question 97

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    spotted

  2. BOption (b)

    spot

  3. COption (c)

    spotting

  4. DOption (d)

    spots 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

spotted

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Spotted

Key Points

  • 'spotted' fits perfectly in the blank.
  • It is the past participle of the verb "spot," which means to observe, detect, or notice something. (किसी चीज़ का निरीक्षण करना, पता लगाना या नोटिस करना)
  • In the context of the sentence, it indicates that some of the moons were observed or detected in 2019.
  • So, the correct option is "spotted," as it correctly conveys that the moons were observed in the past, specifically in 2019.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Complete passage: Astronomers have discovered 62 new moons orbiting the ringed planet Saturn. Though some of the moons had been (1) spotted as early as 2019, it takes more than sighting an object close to a planet to (2) ________ it is a moon and not an asteroid making a brief close passage to that planet.

Performing a painstaking (3) ________ of matching objects detected on different nights over the course of 24 months, the team tracked 63 objects that they ended up confirming as moons. One of (4) ________ satellites was revealed back in 2021, with the remaining 62 moons gradually announced over the past few weeks.

Additional Information

  • spot: This is the base form of the verb and does not fit grammatically in this context.
  • spotting: This is the present participle form of the verb "spot." It describes an ongoing action, so it doesn't fit well in this sentence.
  • spots: This is the present tense form of the verb "spot." It doesn't fit in this context because the sentence is discussing a past event.

Question 98

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    sanction

  2. BOption (b)

    confirm

  3. COption (c)

    consent

  4. DOption (d)

    settle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

confirm

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: confirm

Key Points

  • Confirm means to verify or make sure of something. (किसी बात को सत्यापित या सुनिश्चित करना)
  • For example: To confirm its status as a moon, more investigation is necessary.
  • The word "confirm" fits in the blank because it indicates the action of verifying or establishing the true identity of an object.
  • In the context of the sentence, it means that simply spotting an object near a planet is not enough to definitively determine whether it's a moon or an asteroid.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Complete passage: Astronomers have discovered 62 new moons orbiting the ringed planet Saturn. Though some of the moons had been (1) spotted as early as 2019, it takes more than sighting an object close to a planet to (2) confirm it is a moon and not an asteroid making a brief close passage to that planet.

Performing a painstaking (3) ________ of matching objects detected on different nights over the course of 24 months, the team tracked 63 objects that they ended up confirming as moons. One of (4) ________ satellites was revealed back in 2021, with the remaining 62 moons gradually announced over the past few weeks.

Additional Information

  • Sanction: Official approval or permission for an action, behaviour, or plan. (किसी कार्य, व्यवहार या योजना के लिए आधिकारिक अनुमोदन या अनुमति)
  • Consent: Permission, agreement, or approval given by someone for a particular action or proposal. (किसी विशेष कार्य या प्रस्ताव के लिए किसी द्वारा दी गई अनुमति, सहमति या अनुमोदन)
  • Settle: To resolve, come to an agreement, or find a solution to a dispute, problem, or matter. (किसी विवाद, समस्या या मामले को हल करना, किसी समझौते पर पहुंचना या उसका समाधान ढूंढना)

Question 99

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    progress

  2. BOption (b)

    practice 

  3. COption (c)

    process

  4. DOption (d)

    product

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

process

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Process

Key Points

  • 'Process' is a noun that refers to a series of actions or steps taken in order to achieve a particular end result. (किसी विशेष अंतिम परिणाम को प्राप्त करने के लिए उठाए गए कार्यों या कदमों की एक श्रृंखला)
  • It is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank as it fits grammatically in the sentence.
  • For example: The process of baking a cake involves mixing ingredients, pouring the batter into a pan, and baking it in the oven.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete passage: Astronomers have discovered 62 new moons orbiting the ringed planet Saturn. Though some of the moons had been (1) spotted as early as 2019, it takes more than sighting an object close to a planet to (2) confirm it is a moon and not an asteroid making a brief close passage to that planet.

Performing a painstaking (3) process of matching objects detected on different nights over the course of 24 months, the team tracked 63 objects that they ended up confirming as moons. One of (4) ________ satellites was revealed back in 2021, with the remaining 62 moons gradually announced over the past few weeks.

Additional Information

  • Progress refers to the forward or onward movement towards a destination or goal. (किसी गंतव्य या लक्ष्य की ओर आगे या आगे बढ़ना)
  • Practice refers to the repeated performance of an activity in order to improve or master it. (किसी गतिविधि को सुधारने या उसमें महारत हासिल करने के लिए उसका बार-बार किया जाने वाला प्रदर्शन)
  • Product refers to something that is made or produced as a result of a process or activity. (कोई चीज़ जो किसी प्रक्रिया या गतिविधि के परिणामस्वरूप बनाई या उत्पादित की जाती है)

Question 100

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    that

  2. BOption (b)

    those

  3. COption (c)

    this

  4. DOption (d)

    these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

these

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: these

Key Points

  • The blank requires a demonstrative pronoun to refer to something already mentioned in the context.
  • 'These' is the appropriate option as it refers to something plural and close in distance.
  • Grammatically, 'these' is a plural form of 'this' which is used to refer to something close in distance.
  • For example: I love these shoes, they are so comfortable.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Complete passage: Astronomers have discovered 62 new moons orbiting the ringed planet Saturn. Though some of the moons had been (1) spotted as early as 2019, it takes more than sighting an object close to a planet to (2) confirm it is a moon and not an asteroid making a brief close passage to that planet.

Performing a painstaking (3) process of matching objects detected on different nights over the course of 24 months, the team tracked 63 objects that they ended up confirming as moons. One of (4) these satellites was revealed back in 2021, with the remaining 62 moons gradually announced over the past few weeks.

Additional Information

  • 'That' is used to refer to something singular and far in distance.
  • 'Those' is used to refer to something plural and far in distance.
  • 'This' is used to refer to something singular and close in distance.

Question 101

Which of the following statements about enzymes in the human body is/are correct?

Statement A: Maltase is present in the saliva and breaks the sugar maltose into glucose.

Statement B: Amylase is present in the saliva and helps change starches into sugars.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither A nor B

  2. BOption (b)

    Only A

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and B

  4. DOption (d)

    Only B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4) Only B

Key Points

  • Maltase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of maltose to simple sugar glucose.
  • This is an important step in carbohydrate digestion.
  • However, this enzyme is not produced in the salivary glands and thus is not found in saliva.
  • Rather, it's secreted by the cells lining the small intestine (specifically, the cells on the walls of the villi).
  • Therefore, maltase plays its role in the later stages of digestion, after food has been swallowed

Hence statement A is incorrect.

  • Amylase is present in the saliva and helps change starches into sugars.
  • Amylase is an enzyme that is indeed produced by the salivary glands and is thus present in saliva.
  • Its role is to begin the process of digestion in the mouth by breaking down starch, which is a complex carbohydrate, into simpler sugars like maltose.
  • So when you start to chew food, the amylase in your saliva is already starting to break down the starches present.
  • The process then continues in the small intestine where other enzymes (like maltase) take over.

Hence statement B is correct.

Additional Information

EnzymeLocationFunction
AmylaseSalivary glands, PancreasBegins the digestion of carbohydrates in the mouth by breaking down starch into simpler sugars, a process that continues in the small intestine.
LipasePancreas, StomachBreaks down fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
PepsinStomachBegins the digestion of proteins into smaller peptides.
TrypsinPancreasContinues the digestion of proteins in the small intestine, breaking them into smaller peptides and amino acids.
MaltaseSmall intestineBreaks down maltose (a simple sugar) into glucose.
LactaseSmall intestineBreaks down lactose (milk sugar) into glucose and galactose.
SucraseSmall intestineBreaks down sucrose (table sugar) into glucose and fructose.
CatalaseNearly all human cells (especially liver and red blood cells)Breaks down hydrogen peroxide, a harmful by-product of cellular processes, into water and oxygen.
DNA PolymeraseNucleusAssists in DNA replication, helping cells to divide and multiply.
RNA PolymeraseNucleusInvolved in the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template during transcription.

Question 102

A study conducted by scientists at the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) in March 2023 found that certain areas in ______ are experiencing nearly three times more background radiation than previously assumed.

  1. AOption (a)

    Himachal Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthan

  3. COption (c)

    Kerala

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kerala

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • A pan-India study conducted by scientists at the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) found that the background radiation levels in certain parts of Kerala are almost three times higher than previously estimated.
  • The study found that the levels of background radiation in the Kollam district (where Chavara is situated) were 9,562 nGy/hr, or about three times more.
  • The higher radiation levels in Kollam are attributed to monazite sands that are high in thorium.
  • Southern India has higher levels of radiation from uranium deposits due to the presence of granite and basaltic volcanic rock.
  • Despite the higher levels in Kollam, there have not been any significant findings of increased cancer rates or mortality, suggesting that the radiation levels may not be harmful to human health.

​

Additional Information

  • Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC):
  • The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) is considered India's premier nuclear research facility, with its headquarters located in Trombay, Mumbai, Maharashtra.
  • The centre was established by Homi Jehangir Bhabha Atomic Energy Establishment in Trombay (AEET) as a multidisciplinary research program essential for India's nuclear program, operating under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
  • BARC plays a crucial role in India's civilian and military nuclear programs, including the design and manufacture of nuclear reactors and the development and production of nuclear fuels.
  • This research and development centre focuses on the advancement of nuclear science, nuclear power production, and the use of radioisotopes in industry, health, and agriculture.
  • Initial reactors at BARC and its affiliated power generation centres were imported from the west, more specifically, India's first power reactors installed at the Tarapur Atomic Power Station were from the United States. However, over time India has developed its indigenous nuclear technology.

Question 103

Match the points under List I with those under List II. 

List-I (Instrument)List-II (Use)
(1)Sextanta.Measures the angle between two visible objects
(2)Udometerb.Measures small quantities of radiant heat
(3)Thermopilec.Measures the temperature of a surface
(4)Pyrometerd.Measures the amount of rainfall
  1. AOption (a)

    1 - b, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - a

  2. BOption (b)

    1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - c

  3. COption (c)

    1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a

  4. DOption (d)

    1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - a

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - c.

Key Points

  • Sextant Measures the angle between two visible objects:
  • The sextant is a navigational instrument used primarily to measure the angle between two visible objects.
  • The primary use of a sextant is in navigation, to measure the angle between an astronomical object and the horizon for the purposes of celestial navigation.
  • The name "sextant" originates from the Latin word "sextus", meaning "one-sixth".
  • This is because the instrument's arc spans 60 degrees or one-sixth of a full circle.
  • The sextant allows navigators to determine their latitude while at sea or in flight by accurately measuring the angles between the sun and the horizon or between stars and the horizon.
  • Udometer Measures the amount of rainfall:
  • An udometer, more commonly known as a rain gauge, is a type of instrument used by meteorologists and hydrologists to gather and measure the amount of liquid precipitation (rainfall) over a set period of time.
  • It's a crucial tool for weather prediction, scientific research, and for farmers and gardeners to determine if they need to water their crops or gardens.
  • This device simply measures the precipitation in millimetres in height collected on each square meter during a certain period, equivalent to litres per square meter.
  • Thermopile Measures small quantities of radiant heat:
  • A thermopile is an electronic device that converts thermal energy into electrical energy.
  • It is composed of several thermocouples connected usually in series or, less commonly, in parallel.
  • Thermopiles are used to measure the temperature difference between two points, often the temperature of a surface and the temperature of the device itself.
  • This difference can then be used to calculate the amount of heat energy received.
  • Applications of thermopiles include gas leak detection, body temperature scanners, and industrial temperature measurement for kilns or gas turbine exhaust.
  • Pyrometer Measures the temperature of a surface:
  • A pyrometer is a type of remote-sensing thermometer used to measure the temperature of a surface.
  • The term pyrometer was originally coined to denote a device capable of measuring temperatures of objects above incandescence (i.e., objects bright to the human eye).
  • Pyrometers are used in situations where thermocouples are inadequate, such as in measuring the temperature of moving objects, objects in a vacuum, or very hot objects with temperatures above the range of thermocouples.
  • They are commonly used in industrial applications such as steelmaking and ceramics production.

Question 104

For contribution to which sport/game did BC Suresh receive the Dhyan Chand Award (lifetime achievement) for the year 2022? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Hockey

  2. BOption (b)

    Volleyball

  3. COption (c)

    Kabaddi

  4. DOption (d)

    Table tennis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kabaddi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kabaddi.

Key Points

  • Shri B.C Suresh received the Dhyan Chand Award for his contribution to the sport of Kabaddi.
  • The Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime achievement in Sports and Games is an award given by the Government of India to honour the lifetime achievements of sportspeople.
  • The award is named after Dhyan Chand, a legendary Indian hockey player who won three Olympic gold medals for India in 1928, 1932, and 1936.
  • The award was instituted in 2002 to honour those sportspersons who have contributed to the promotion of sports even after their retirement from active sporting career.
  • Shri B.C Suresh received the Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime achievement in Sports and Games in 2022.

​

Additional Information

  • Dhyan Chand Award:
  • The Dhyan Chand Award is the highest award for lifetime achievement in sports and games in India. Officially, it is also referred to as the "Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime Achievement in Sports and Games".
  • The award is named after one of the greatest Hockey Players of India, Dhyan Chand. Chand was renowned for his extraordinary goal-scoring feats, in addition to his three Olympic gold medals in field hockey, which led to his being widely considered to be the greatest player of all time.
  • This prestigious award was introduced in 2002. The first recipients were Shahuraj Birajdar (Boxing), Ashok Diwan (Hockey), and Aparna Ghosh (Basketball).
  • Typically, the award is conferred upon not more than three sportspersons in a single year, although exceptions have been made in the years 2003, 2012-2013, and 2018-2020, when more recipients were awarded.
  • The award comprises a statuette, a certificate, a ceremonial dress, and a cash prize. It serves not just to honour recipients but also to promote the pursuit of excellence in sports across the nation.

Question 105

Which of the following statements related to the Mughal empire in India is/are correct?

Statement A: The Second Battle of Panipat marked the beginning of Akbar’s rule and also his territorial expansion.

Statement B: The Battle of Haldighati was a historic battle fought during the rule of Akbar, in June 1576.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither A nor B

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and B

  3. COption (c)

    Only A

  4. DOption (d)

    Only B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both A and B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both A and B.

Key Points

  • Second Battle of Panipat:
  • The second Battle of Panipat took place in 1556, where Mughal Emperor Akbar's forces clashed against the forces of Hemu, a Hindu King.
  • This battle marked the beginning of Akbar's rule as he was only 13 years old at the time and just beginning to establish his authority.
  • After the victory in this battle, Akbar and his guardian Bairam Khan started a series of campaigns to expand the Mughal Empire across India.
  • Akbar's rule was marked by his wise and visionary policies, which eventually led to a unified and prosperous Mughal empire covering most of the Indian subcontinent.
  • The second Battle of Panipat holds an important place in Mughal history and India's history due to the beginning of Akbar's successful rule. Hence Statement A is correct.
  • Battle of Haldighati:
  • The Battle of Haldighati was fought between the Mughals and Maharana Pratap of Mewar in June 1576, during the reign of Mughal Emperor Akbar. Hence Statement B is also correct.
  • Raja Man Singh I, a trusted general of the Mughal emperor Akbar, led the Mughal forces in the battle.
  • The battle is remembered for the bravery of Maharana Pratap and his horse Chetak, who is said to have saved his master's life but succumbed to injuries itself.
  • The Battle of Haldighati had a significant impact on the region's politics and history, as it highlighted the resistance against the Mughal rule and the valour of Rajput warrior Maharana Pratap.
  • Although the battle didn't result in a decisive victory for either side, it was a notable event in the history of the Mughal empire and Akbar's rule [0].

Question 106

Match the points under List I with those under List II.

List-I (Phylum)List-II (Example)
(1)Poriferaa.Sponge
(2)Cnidariab.Squid
(3)Molluscac.Centipede
(4)Arthropodad.Jellyfish
  1. AOption (a)

    1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - a

  2. BOption (b)

    1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - c

  3. COption (c)

    1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a

  4. DOption (d)

    1 - b, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - a

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - c.

Key Points

  • Porifera are sponges, a basic multicellular sea creature. Hence, 1-a is the correct match.
  • Cnidaria is a phylum containing over 11,000 species of animals found exclusively in aquatic and mostly marine environments. Cnidarians include jellyfish, sea anemones, corals, and some other similar species. Hence, 2-d is the correct match.
  • Mollusca is a large phylum of invertebrate animals composed of a huge number of diverse species (85,000 identified), including squids, octopuses, snails, oysters, and clams. Hence, 3-b is the correct match.
  • Arthropoda is a phylum of invertebrates, the members of which are characterized by having an exoskeleton, segmented bodies, and jointed limbs. This phylum includes insects, spiders, and crustaceans, such as the centipede. Hence, 4-c is the correct match.

Question 107

In May 2023, the Supreme Court of India granted couples the right to get divorce on the grounds of ‘irretrievable breakdown of marriage’ under ______ of the Indian Constitution.

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 142(1)

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 132(1)

  3. COption (c)

    Article 122(1)

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 152(1)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Article 142(1)

Why this answer is correct

The correct asnwer is Article 142(1).

Key Points

  • In May 2023, the Supreme Court of India used Article 142(1) of the Indian Constitution to grant couples the right to divorce based on 'irretrievable breakdown of marriage'.
  • Article 142(1) of the Indian Constitution reads, "The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it...".
  • The Supreme Court's decision expanded the grounds on which divorce can be sought in India.
  • Previously, the grounds for divorce were outlined in individual personal laws and did not include the concept of 'irretrievable breakdown of marriage' as it was not explicitly listed as grounds for divorce in any specific legislation. The 2023 ruling made it a valid reason to seek a divorce.
  • The court used its discretionary powers to take cognizance of the realities of irreparable marriages and rule in favor of allowing legal terminations in such cases. This action sets a significant precedent for future cases involving such marital situations.
  • This step by the Supreme Court could potentially pave the way for broader legal reform, rooting the law more firmly in the changing social context and conditions of the country.

Additional Information

  • Article 132(1):
  • Article 132(1) of the Indian Constitution is in Part V that deals with 'The Union.'
  • This article ensures that crucial questions of law being decided by the High Court can be reviewed by the Supreme Court if necessary.
  • This helps maintain consistency in the interpretation of laws across the country and the binding nature of Supreme Court judgments.
  • Article 122(1):
  • Article 122 of the Indian Constitution discusses the "Courts not to inquire into proceedings of Parliament."
  • Article 122(1) states, "The validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure."
  • The purpose of this provision is to uphold the principle of separation of powers, an essential feature of the Constitution.
  • Article 152:
  • Article 152 only defines the term "Governor" as referenced in Part VI of the Constitution, which deals with the states.

Question 108

Which of the following is the correct descending order of nitrate ion (NO3−)\rm (NO_3^-), chloride ion (CI-), bromide ion (Br-) and iodide ion (I-) as per their basic strength?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cl- > Br- > I- > NO3−\rm NO_3^-

  2. BOption (b)

    NO3−\rm NO_3^- > Cl- > Br- > I-

  3. COption (c)

    I- > NO3−\rm NO_3^- > Cl]-] > Br-

  4. DOption (d)

    Br- > I- > NO3−\rm NO_3^- > Cl-

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

NO3−\rm NO_3^- > Cl- > Br- > I-

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is NO3- > Cl- > Br- > I-.

Key Points

  • The chloride (Cl-), bromide (Br-), and iodide (I-) ions are all halide ions and belong to the same group in the periodic table (Group 17, the Halogens).
  • As you move down the group, atoms will increase in size and contain more electron shells, causing the valence (outermost) electrons to be less tightly held due to an increase in the shielding effect and a larger atomic radius, which leads to these ions being less attracted to hydrogen ions (H+), hence less basic.
  • On the other hand, the nitrate ion (NO3-) is less atomically extensive and is what we call a "hard ion" due to its smaller size and higher charge density.
  • It features oxygen, which is more electronegative. The nitrate ion is also stabilized by resonance – the ability of the negative charge to be delocalized over several atoms reduces the reactivity of the ion (in terms of accepting a proton).
  • However, because of the smaller size, hard ions tend to form stronger bonds with H+ ions, so they are better bases than large, soft ions.
  • Therefore, even though NO3- is a stable ion due to resonance, it is still harder and smaller compared with the larger halide ions, making it more basic. Hence the order of basicity, from strongest to weakest, is: NO3- > Cl- > Br- > I-.

Question 109

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Arya Samaj and Swami Dayanand Saraswati?

Statement A: The original name of Swami Dayanand Saraswati was Mool Shankar Tiwari.

Statement B: Swami Dayanand Saraswati was a native of Gujarat.

Statement C: The Arya Samaj was founded in the year 1875.

  1. AOption (a)

    All of A, B and C 

  2. BOption (b)

    Only A

  3. COption (c)

    Only A and B

  4. DOption (d)

    Only C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

All of A, B and C 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of A, B and C.

Key Points

  • Swami Dayanand Saraswati was born as Mool Shankar Tiwari in the town of Tankara in the Morbi district of Gujarat, India. Hence. Statement A and B are correct.
  • He left his home at the age of 21 and wandered for around 25 years across India in search of religious truth before he became "Dayanand", a monk or sannyasi.
  • He is known as the founder of the Arya Samaj, a Hindu reform movement, which was established in Bombay in 1875. Hence, Statement C is also correct.
  • The main purpose of founding Arya Samaj was to bring changes in the Hindu society. He propagated for the return to the teachings of the ancient Vedas, thus rejecting idol worship, animal sacrifice, and temple offerings.
  • Swami Dayanand Saraswati is considered a prominent figure in the context of India's socio-religious reform movements. His philosophy and vision have significantly impacted the cultural and religious landscape of modern India.
  • His reformist ideology had also a significant impact on champions of the Indian Independence movement such as Lala Lajpat Rai and Bhagat Singh, who were also members of Arya Samaj.

Question 110

Who among the following served as the first Chief Justice of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hiralal Jekisundas Kania

  2. BOption (b)

    Bijan Kumar Mukherjea

  3. COption (c)

    Mehr Chand Mahajan

  4. DOption (d)

    M Patanjali Sastri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hiralal Jekisundas Kania

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hiralal Jekisundas Kania.

Key Points

  • Hiralal Jekisundas Kania was the first Chief Justice of India, holding office from 1950 to 1951.
  • Before his tenure as Chief Justice, Kania served as a judge on the Federal Court of India, the highest court in India from 1937 to 1950.
  • When India became a republic on January 26, 1950, Kania was appointed the first Chief Justice of the newly formed Supreme Court of India.
  • As Chief Justice, Kania read the oath to the first President of India, Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
  • He was known for his fair and impartial judgments and his commitment to justice and the law.
  • Unfortunately, Kania's tenure as Chief Justice was cut short by his untimely death in November 1951. He remains an influential figure in the Indian legal field.

Additional Information

  • Bijan Kumar Mukherjea:
  • Justice Bijan Kumar Mukherjea was the fourth Chief Justice of India, serving in this position from January 1954 until his retirement in 1956.
  • Prior to his tenure as Chief Justice, he served as a judge on the Federal Court of India.
  • Justice Mukherjea was known for his moderate approach and is remembered for his contribution to the development of Hindu law.
  • Mehr Chand Mahajan:
  • Mehr Chand Mahajan was the third Chief Justice of India, serving from 1954 to 1954.
  • Prior to his tenure as Chief Justice, he was the Prime Minister of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir during the transition period of 1947.
  • Mahajan’s short tenure as Chief Justice was controversial due to his previous political role in Jammu and Kashmir.
  • M Patanjali Sastri:
  • M. Patanjali Sastri was the second Chief Justice of India, serving in this role from 1951 to 1954, following the death of the first Chief Justice, H.J. Kania.
  • Sastri was one of the first judges to be appointed to the Supreme Court of India in 1950.
  • He was instrumental in establishing precedents on the role and independence of the judiciary in India.

Question 111

Which of the following was the first microfinance institution in India, established in 1974?

  1. AOption (a)

    Suryoday Small Finance Bank Ltd.

  2. BOption (b)

    Asirvad Micro Finance Limited

  3. COption (c)

    Bandhan Financial Services Pvt Ltd

  4. DOption (d)

    SEWA Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

SEWA Bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is SEWA Bank

Key Points

  • SEWA Bank, established in 1974, is one of India's first microfinance institutions.
  • SEWA Bank was created with the primary aim of providing access to financial services to self-employed women who don't typically have access to traditional banking services due to lack of collateral and low incomes.
  • The organization was built on the realization that poor women needed not just loans, but also savings, insurance, and pension products to withstand financial shocks and build assets.
  • Besides financial services, SEWA Bank also provides financial literacy training programs for its members. This helps women understand better ways to manage and increase their income.
  • SEWA Bank uses peer-lending and community-monitoring techniques to overcome problems related to moral hazard and adverse selection, which generally make lending to poor households and small businesses risky and costly.

Additional Information

  • Suryoday Small Finance Bank Ltd.:
  • Suryoday Small Finance Bank (SSFB) is one of the leading Small Finance Banks (SFB) in India having started operations in 2017.
  • Even before obtaining its banking license from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), its parent organization, Suryoday Micro Finance, had been serving the unbanked and underbanked population since 2009.
  • Apart from providing basic savings and deposit products, Suryoday offers loans to underserved segments of society, like microloans for women, affordable housing loans, and loans for small and micro enterprises.
  • Asirvad Micro Finance Limited:
  • Asirvad Microfinance Ltd is one of the leading NBFC - Microfinance Institutions (NBFC-MFIs) in India, having begun its operations in 2007 in South India.
  • The company provides microloans to women from economically weaker sections who lack access to traditional banking services.
  • Asirvad's primary mission is to empower women and their families financially through the provision of timely credit for both productive purposes and family welfare.
  • Bandhan Financial Services Pvt Ltd:
  • Bandhan Financial Services Pvt Ltd started as a microfinance institution in 2001, catering to the dual objectives of poverty alleviation and women empowerment in India.
  • Bandhan was among the first microfinance institutions in India transition to a full-service bank - the Bandhan Bank, which started in 2015 under the regulation of the Reserve Bank of India.
  • Bandhan Bank today serves millions of customers across India, offering services ranging from basic savings and deposit products to sophisticated corporate banking products.

Question 112

Which element in the modern periodic table has the same number of valence electrons as that of caesium?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aluminium

  2. BOption (b)

    Barium

  3. COption (c)

    Potassium

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Potassium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Potassium.

Key Points

  • Potassium is the correct answer because it shares the same number of valence electrons as Caesium.
  • Both Potassium (K) and Caesium (Cs) belong to Group 1 of the Periodic Table, also known as alkali metals.
  • Elements in the same group of the Periodic Table have the same number of valence electrons - in this case, one.
  • The number of valence electrons remains constant when moving vertically down a group in the Periodic Table.
  • Valence electrons are crucial as they determine how an atom will bond with other atoms. Both K and Cs, being alkali metals, are highly reactive and tend to donate their one valence electron during chemical reactions.
  • This is why the characteristics and chemical behaviour of K and Cs are quite similar. They both form +1 ions and have similar properties owing to the **same valence electron.**​

 Additional Information

  • Aluminium:
  • Aluminium (Al) belongs to Group 13 of the Periodic Table.
  • It has three valence electrons, which affects its reactivity and oxidation states.
  • In chemical reactions, Aluminium often loses these electrons, resulting in a +3 ion, unlike Cs and K which forms +1 ions.
  • Despite its difference in reactivity from Cs and K, Aluminium is widely used due to its lightweight and resistance to corrosion.
  • Barium:
  • Barium (Ba) is part of Group 2, also known as the alkaline earth metals.
  • Unlike Cs and K which have a single valence electron, Barium has two valence electrons.
  • This difference in the number of valence electrons makes it form +2 ions in chemical reactions.
  • Barium compounds show a unique property in that they are very heavy, making them useful for blocking X-ray and radiation emission, as in Barium meal used in radiography.
  • Calcium:
  • Calcium (Ca) is also a member of Group 2, just like Barium.
  • It has two valence electrons and hence, forms +2 ions in chemical reactions.
  • Its chemical behaviour, influenced by the number of valence electrons, is thus distinct from Cs and K.
  • Calcium is crucial for human health, particularly for the development and maintenance of bones. It's also an important component of the earth's crust; compounds such as calcium carbonate are found in rocks like limestone and marble.

Question 113

Which of the following is the scientific discipline concerned with the description and classification of the Earth’s topographic features?

  1. AOption (a)

    Geomorphology

  2. BOption (b)

    Acarology

  3. COption (c)

    Ethology

  4. DOption (d)

    Meteorology

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Geomorphology

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Geomorphology.

Key Points

  • Geomorphology is the scientific discipline that centres on the study of the Earth's topographic features.
  • Its primary concerns are the description, origin, and classification of landforms, making it the correct answer to the question.
  • The field of geomorphology crosses paths with other disciplines such as geology, climatology, and biogeography to analyze how various factors contribute to the Earth's physical layout.
  • Investigating these features assists geomorphologists in understanding past environmental changes and foreseeing future landscape alterations.
  • Modern geomorphology employs state-of-the-art technologies, such as remote sensing and Geographic Information Systems (GIS), to study landforms on different spatial scales, ranging from mountains and basins down to hills and dales.
  • Knowledge derived from geomorphological studies is important for environmental management, urban planning, hazard assessment, and many others.

​

Additional Information

  • Acarology
  • Acarology is the study of mites and ticks, organisms that belong to the subclass Acari in the class Arachnida.
  • This field focuses on their biological, ecological, and taxonomical attributes, with detailed observation and research.
  • The information from Acarology is especially critical for controlling pest infestations and understanding parasitic diseases, as many mites and ticks are vectors of pathogens.
  • Ethology
  • Ethology is a subfield of zoology dedicated to studying animal behaviour.
  • It looks at both instinctual behaviours (innate) and learned behaviours across various species.
  • Ethologists often study animals in their natural environments to get a complete understanding of behaviours, including intricacies of survival mechanisms, mating rituals, social structures, and more.
  • Meteorology
  • Meteorology is the science that studies the atmosphere and atmospheric phenomena.
  • It is chiefly concerned with weather processes and forecasting using observations and sophisticated modelling techniques.
  • Meteorologists monitor and predict weather patterns, extreme weather conditions, and climate trends, providing crucial data for sectors such as agriculture, maritime, aviation, environmental management, and even space exploration.

Question 114

As of 2022, what was the highest-denomination currency note printed by the Reserve Bank of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹2,000

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹10,000

  3. COption (c)

    ₹5,000

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹20,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹10,000

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹10,000.

Key Points

  • The highest denomination note ever printed by the Reserve Bank of India was the ₹10,000 note.
  • The ₹10,000 note was first introduced in 1938.
  • It was demonetized in January 1946 but was again introduced in 1954.
  • The ₹10,000 note was finally demonetized again in the year 1978.

​

Additional Information

  • ₹500 Note:
  • The first ₹500 note was introduced in 1987 to contain the volume of banknotes in circulation due to inflation.
  • On 8th November 2016, the old ₹500 note was demonetised alongside the ₹1,000 note to combat black money, counterfeiting, and corruption.
  • The Reserve Bank of India introduced a new ₹500 note, in what is called the Mahatma Gandhi New Series from 10th November 2016. The features of this new series include a depiction of the Red Fort – a historical Indian monument – and a portrait of Mahatma Gandhi.
  • ₹1,000 Note:
  • The ₹1,000 note was first introduced in 2000.
  • Like the ₹500 note, the ₹1,000 note was demonetised on 8th November 2016 with the aim of curbing black money, counterfeiting, and corruption.
  • However, the ₹1,000 note has not been reintroduced.
  • ₹2,000 Note:
  • This note was launched almost immediately after the demonetisation of the ₹500 and ₹1,000 notes on 8th November 2016.
  • It features a portrait of Mahatma Gandhi, like the ₹500 note, and the reverse side displays an image of the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), also known as Mangalyaan, highlighting India's first venture into interplanetary space.

Question 115

The unit of magnetic intensity in the CGS (centimetre-gram-second) system is ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    gauss 

  2. BOption (b)

    candela

  3. COption (c)

    weber

  4. DOption (d)

    oersted

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

oersted

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is oersted.

Key Points

  • The unit of magnetic intensity in the CGS system is Oersted.
  • Named after the Danish physicist Hans Christian Ørsted, the oersted is used to measure the strength of the magnetising field (also known as magnetic field intensity or magnetising force) in the centimetre-gram-second system of units (CGS).
  • An oersted is defined as a dyne per unit pole or equivalently as 1 g·cm·s⁻²·A⁻¹.
  • While weber and gauss are units related to magnetism, they measure different aspects. The Weber is the SI unit for magnetic flux, and the Gauss is the unit of magnetic flux density or magnetic induction in the cgs system.
  • Candela, on the other hand, is a unit of luminous intensity and is not related to magnetic properties.

Question 116

As per the Census-2011, which of the following states recorded the lowest population?

  1. AOption (a)

    Goa

  2. BOption (b)

    Himachal Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Sikkim

  4. DOption (d)

    Haryana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sikkim

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

  • As per the 2011 Indian Census, the state with the lowest recorded population was Sikkim.
  • Sikkim, located in the northeastern part of India, has a population of approximately 610,577, which is the smallest among the Indian states.
  • The lowest population in Sikkim is due to its geographical location and terrain. The landlocked state has a rough mountainous terrain which is not conducive to high population density.
  • In comparison, even though Goa is the smallest state in terms of area, it has a significantly higher population than Sikkim.
  • Himachal Pradesh and Haryana, although smaller in population compared to many other states, still have populations higher than both Sikkim and Goa.

Additional Information

  • Census in India:
  • It was done for the first time in 1872 under the British Viceroy Lord Mayo.
  • After that, it is conducted at intervals every 10 years.
  • However, the first complete census of India was conducted in 1881.
  • Since 1949, it is conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
  • All censuses after 1951 were conducted under the 1948 Census Act.
  • As of 2011, the Census of India has been conducted 15 times.​

Important Points

  • According to the State Census 2011,
  • The most populated state in India is Uttar Pradesh with a population of 19.96 crores.
  • The least populated state in the country is Sikkim with a population of 60, 7688.
  • Mizoram is the second least populous state in India with around 1,091,014 population.
  • Arunachal Pradesh is the third least populous state.

Question 117

As of 2020, which country has the largest proven coal reserves in the world?

  1. AOption (a)

    India

  2. BOption (b)

    China

  3. COption (c)

    The United States of America

  4. DOption (d)

    Russia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The United States of America

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The United States of America.

Key Points

  • As of 2020, The United States of America has the largest proven coal reserves in the world.
  • According to data, coal reserves in the United States amounted to nearly 248.9 billion metric tons.
  • The term "proven coal reserves" refers to the amount of coal that can be economically and legally extracted at the time of evaluation.
  • Even though China is the largest consumer and importer of coal, and it mines almost half of the world's coal, its reserves are not as abundant as those of the USA.
  • Russia and India, while significant players in the coal industry and having substantial reserves, do not have as much proven coal reserves as the United States.

Question 118

The feature of ‘Bicameralism’ in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    France

  2. BOption (b)

    Germany

  3. COption (c)

    South Africa

  4. DOption (d)

    Britain

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Britain

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Britain.

Key Points

  • The feature of 'Bicameralism' in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of Britain.
  • Bicameralism is the practice of having two houses or chambers in a legislative assembly. In terms of the Indian Constitution, these two houses are the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
  • Britain, with its House of Commons and House of Lords, provided the bicameral system model that India adopted to ensure an efficient system of checks and balances in governance.
  • The British implemented this legislating system during their rule in India, which was then included into the Indian Constitution when it was framed.
  • The adoption of bicameralism from the British constitution reflects India's drive to bring together the best practices from constitutions around the world while also staying rooted to its unique values and traditions.

Additional Information

Other borrowed features:

  • Japan - Concept of "procedure established by Law"
  • Germany - Suspension of Fundamental Rights during the emergency
  • USSR - Fundamental duties, The ideal of justice (social, economic and political) in the Preamble, Five-Year Plans
  • Australia - Concurrent List, Freedom of trade, Joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
  • Canada - Federation with a strong Centre, Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
  • South Africa - Procedure for amendment of the Constitution, Election of members of Rajya Sabha
  • Ireland - DPSPs.

Question 119

Deficiency of which of the following vitamins in the human diet causes a disease called xerophthalmia?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vitamin A

  2. BOption (b)

    Vitamin K

  3. COption (c)

    Vitamin C

  4. DOption (d)

    Vitamin D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Vitamin A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vitamin A.

Key Points

  • Xerophthalmia is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin A in the human diet, making Vitamin A the correct answer.
  • Vitamin A is essential for maintaining good eyesight and supporting the immune system.
  • A deficiency in Vitamin A leads to xerophthalmia, a condition that can cause dryness of the conjunctiva, night blindness, and even total blindness if left untreated.
  • Xerophthalmia, essentially meaning "dry eyes", can ultimately lead to corneal ulceration and scarring, which might end in blindness.
  • The initial stage of Vitamin A deficiency includes symptoms like trouble seeing in low light and increased susceptibility to infections.
  • Combating Vitamin A deficiency is especially important in developing regions or areas with poor or limited food supply, as Vitamin A is mostly found in foods like leafy green vegetables, orange and yellow vegetables, fruit, dairy products, liver, and fish.

Additional Information

  • Vitamin K
  • Vitamin K is primarily needed for the process of blood clotting, which helps the body prevent excessive bleeding, both internally and externally.
  • Deficiency of Vitamin K can lead to problems with blood clotting, which might result in excessive bleeding. This could be particularly dangerous in cases of injury or surgery.
  • Apart from that, it is crucial for bone health. A deficiency can lead to lower bone density and an increased risk of fractures.
  • Vitamin C
  • Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is an essential vitamin well-known for its role in supporting a healthy immune system.
  • Vitamin C is also necessary for the growth, development and repair of all body tissues. It's involved in many body functions, including the formation of collagen, absorption of iron, proper functioning of the immune system, wound healing, and maintenance of cartilage, bones, and teeth.
  • A deficiency of Vitamin C over a long period can cause Scurvy. The symptoms of Scurvy include fatigue, swollen joints, anaemia, bleeding gums and loose teeth, and dry skin or hair.
  • Vitamin D
  • Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that primarily aids calcium absorption, promoting growth and mineralization of your bones.
  • Vitamin D deficiency would potentially lead to conditions such as Rickets in children, which manifests as skeletal and dental deformities, and Osteomalacia in adults, a condition wherein bones become soft and weak.
  • Besides its core role, vitamin D also influences various other bodily processes, including immune function and protection against cancer.

Question 120

Match the points under List I with those under List II (mountain peaks and their heights). 

List-I (Mountain peak)List-II (height in m)
(1)Kameta.7756
(2)Kangchenjungab.7816
(3)Nanda Devic.8611
(4)K2d.8586
  1. AOption (a)

    1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a

  2. BOption (b)

    1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - a

  3. COption (c)

    1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - c

  4. DOption (d)

    1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - c.

Key Points

  • Kamet, in the Garhwal region of the Himalayas in India, is 7756 m high
  • Kangchenjunga, a part of the Himalayan range present between Nepal and the Indian state of Sikkim, is 8586 m tall
  • Nanda Devi, located in the Garhwal Himalayas, has a height of 7816 m
  • K2, also known as Mount Godwin-Austen or Chhogori, part of the Karakoram Range, located in the Ladakh Union Territory of India (a disputed territory between India and Pakistan), stands as the second-highest peak in the world with its height of 8611 m.

Therefore, the correct option is 1 - a, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - c.

Additional Information

  • Kamet:
  • Kamet is the mountain peak in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, India.
  • It lies very close to the border with Tibet, making its location geopolitically strategical.
  • The first successful ascent to Kamet was made in 1931 by a team led by British mountaineer Frank Smythe.
  • At 7756 meters, it is the third-highest peak in India and 29th highest in the world.
  • Kamet is known for its unique, pyramid-like shape and is often touted as a challenging peak to conquer due to harsh weather conditions and technical climbing sections.
  • Kangchenjunga:
  • Kangchenjunga, located on the border between Nepal and the Indian state of Sikkim, is the third-highest mountain in the world.
  • It stands tall with a height of 8586 meters.
  • The first successful ascent was made by Joe Brown and George Band in 1955 as a part of a British expedition. They stopped a few meters short of the actual summit in deference to the local culture that considers the peak sacred.
  • Kangchenjunga, meaning "Five Treasures of Snow," refers to its five peaks that are said to represent the five repositories of God - gold, silver, gems, grain, and holy books.
  • The surrounding area is rich in biodiversity and is recognized as a conservation area.
  • Nanda Devi:
  • Nanda Devi is located in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, India.
  • In addition to being India's second-highest peak, it is also considered one of the most beautiful, with its twin peaks providing a stunning spectacle.
  • Nanda Devi peaks stand at a height of 7816 meters.
  • It is surrounded by the Nanda Devi National Park, declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1988, home to several endangered species and a unique high-altitude flora.
  • The peaks of Nanda Devi are considered sacred in local culture, and multiple legends and folk tales revolve around them.
  • K2:
  • Known as K2, the peak is also dubbed Mount Godwin-Austen or Chhogori.
  • K2, at 8611 meters, is the second-highest mountain peak globally, surpassed only by Mount Everest.
  • This mountain is reputed to be the most challenging to climb due to its severe weather and difficult ascent routes.
  • Unlike Everest, which has been successfully climbed by thousands, K2 has only a few hundred successful ascents to its name due to its extreme difficulty.
  • One significant feature of K2 is the lack of any easy routes to the top. This towering peak is often considered the 'Mountaineers' Mountain' due to its challenging ascent.

Computer Knowledge (15 questions)

Question 121

In Windows 10, which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to display and hide the desktop? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Windows logo key + D 

  2. BOption (b)

    Windows logo key + H 

  3. COption (c)

    Windows logo key + C 

  4. DOption (d)

    Windows logo key + G 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Windows logo key + D 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Windows logo key + D.

Key Points

  • The keyboard shortcut "Windows logo key + D" is used to display and hide the desktop in Windows 10.
  • This allows users to quickly minimize or restore all open windows.
  • This shortcut is really useful when you need to access desktop files quickly, or when you need to have a clear screen to start a presentation or a similar task.
  • To note, pressing the keys again restores your applications to the state before you pressed the shortcut.
  • This shortcut is one among many that are standard across Windows operating systems to help users carry out tasks more efficiently.

Additional Information

  • Windows logo key + H: This shortcut opens the dictation tool in Windows 10. This allows you to input text through voice dictation instead of typing.
  • Windows logo key + C: In earlier versions of Windows 10, this shortcut would open Cortana in listening mode, but after Cortana got decoupled from Search with the release of Windows 10, version 2004, it no longer works.
  • Windows logo key + G: This keyboard shortcut opens the Xbox Game Bar in Windows 10. The Game Bar is a built-in tool that lets users access gaming-related features, record gameplay, take screenshots, and broadcast to Xbox Live.

Question 122

Which of the following is NOT a part of an email address? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Email service provider’s domain 

  2. BOption (b)

    '@' symbol

  3. COption (c)

    Username 

  4. DOption (d)

    Photo 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Photo 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Photo.

Key Points

  • A photo is NOT part of an email address. While users can typically associate a profile picture with their email account, this photo is not considered part of the email address itself.
  • It is not included in any email addresses nor is it required for sending or receiving emails.
  • An email address consists of a username, the '@' symbol, and the email service provider's domain.
  • For example, in the email address "username@example.com", "username" is the chosen identifier for the user, "@" is used to separate the parts of the email, and "example.com" is the email service provider's domain.

Additional Information

  • Email service provider’s domain: This is the website that hosts your email account, such as gmail.com, yahoo.com, or hotmail.com.
  • '@' symbol: This symbol separates the user's name from the service provider's domain in every email address.
  • Username: This is the name that the user has picked for themselves. It is unique to each user within the email service provider’s domain.

Question 123

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to enter a new line in the same cell in a worksheet in MS-Excel 2010? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Tab + Enter 

  2. BOption (b)

    Ctrl + Enter 

  3. COption (c)

    Shift + Enter 

  4. DOption (d)

    Alt + Enter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Alt + Enter

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alt + Enter.

Key Points

  • In Microsoft Excel, if you want to enter a new line (line break) within the same cell, you can use the keyboard shortcut "Alt + Enter".
  • It is important to note that for this keyboard shortcut to work, the "wrap text" feature must be enabled under the "home" tab in the ribbon.
  • Once enabled, your text will properly display on multiple lines within a single cell.
  • This is especially useful when dealing with long strings of text or when needing to create more readable lists within individual cells.

Additional Information

  • Tab + Enter: There's no "Tab + Enter" shortcut in MS Excel. These are two separate keys with different functions. The "Tab" key is used to move the cell cursor one cell to the right, while the "Enter" key moves the cursor one cell down.
  • Ctrl + Enter: "Ctrl + Enter" is an Excel shortcut used to fill the selected cell range with the current entry. This means whatever value or formula you've just typed into a cell, using "Ctrl + Enter" will fill that into all the selected cells.
  • Shift + Enter: In Excel, using "Shift + Enter" allows you to move up one cell. This keyboard shortcut is particularly useful when you need to navigate through the spreadsheet and add or amend data, but would like to move upwards rather than downwards.

Question 124

Net banking is also known as _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    e-transfer 

  2. BOption (b)

    e-banking 

  3. COption (c)

    e-commerce 

  4. DOption (d)

    e-process 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

e-banking 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is e-banking.

Key Points

  • Net banking, also known as Internet banking, online banking or e-banking, refers to the process of conducting financial transactions through a website.
  • E-banking provides users with the ability to perform various banking activities, including checking account balances, transferring money between accounts, and paying bills, among other things.
  • It can be done from the comfort of one's home or while on the go, making it extremely convenient for customers.
  • Additionally, many more complex transactions, such as applying for a loan or an investment product, can also be completed via net banking.
  • Net banking is secured with the latest technology to prevent unauthorized access to the user's financial information.
  • Banks typically provide a secure login process with additional security features such as one-time password verification or biometric authentication.

​

Additional Information

  • E-transfer
  • E-transfer, often called electronic funds transfer (EFT), is a system of transferring money from one bank account to another without any paper money changing hands.
  • It allows transactions such as automated teller machine (ATM) transactions, direct deposits, wire transfers, and online payment services like PayPal.
  • E-commerce
  • E-commerce refers to the buying and selling of goods or services using the internet and the transfer of money and data to execute these transactions.
  • It includes sales of products through a company website, business-to-business (B2B) buying and selling, gathering and using demographic data through web contacts and social media, B2B electronic data interchange, and many others.
  • E-process
  • E-process or electronic process, in a general sense, refers to conducting processes or tasks via digital means, often through the internet or other digital platforms.
  • It can apply to various fields, including business, science, technology, and more.
  • However, it's not a term used with a specific or widely accepted definition, unlike the others on this list.

Question 125

Identify whether the following statements are true or false with reference to MS-Word 2010.

(i) A template can be selected while creating a new document.

(ii) The keyboard shortcut for going to the end of a document is Shift + End.

  1. AOption (a)

    (i) False (ii) False 

  2. BOption (b)

    (i) True (ii) True 

  3. COption (c)

    (i) True (ii) False 

  4. DOption (d)

    (i) False (ii) True 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(i) True (ii) False 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (i) True (ii) False.

Key Points

  • A template can be selected while creating a new document, this statement is true.
  • MS Word 2010 provides numerous templates that can be used when creating a new document.
  • These templates, be it for resumes, letters, reports, etc., present a premade format that users can utilize and modify as per their requirements.
  • The keyboard shortcut for going to the end of a document is Shift + End, this statement is false.
  • In MS Word 2010, the "Shift + End" keyboard shortcut is used to select text from the cursor to the end of the line.
  • If you want to reach the end of the document swiftly, you use the "Ctrl + End" keyboard shortcut.

Additional Information

  • Shortcut keys for MS Word 2010:
Shortcut KeyFunction
Ctrl + ASelect all contents of the page
Ctrl + CCopy the selected text
Ctrl + VPaste the copied text
Ctrl + XCut the selected text
Ctrl + SSave the current document
Ctrl + PPrint the current document
Ctrl + FFind a word in the current document
Ctrl + BApply bold formatting to the selected text
Ctrl + Shift + LApplies bullet to the text
Ctrl + Shift + >Increases the font size
Ctrl + Shift + <Decreases the font size

Question 126

Which of the following types of hackers, also known as crackers, hack to gain unauthorised access to a system and harm its operations or steal sensitive information? 

  1. AOption (a)

    White hat 

  2. BOption (b)

    Black hat

  3. COption (c)

    Red hat 

  4. DOption (d)

    Grey hat 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Black hat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Black hat.

Key Points

  • Black hat hackers, also known as crackers, are individuals who engage in unethical and illegal activities.
  • They hack to gain unauthorized access to a system with the intent of causing damage, stealing sensitive information, or disrupting its operations.
  • Black hat hackers often have a deep understanding of computer networks and systems.
  • Their activities are not only limited to gaining unauthorized access but also manipulating the data and system configurations.
  • Black hat hacking can result in substantial harm to individuals, organizations, and the public, and it is illegal and punishable by law.
  • The term "black hat" comes from old western movies, where the bad guys often wore black hats.

Additional Information

  • White hat
  • White hat hackers, often referred to as ethical hackers, use their skills to improve system security.
  • They are usually employed by organizations to conduct penetration tests and vulnerability assessments on the companies' systems to prevent potential breaches.
  • Red hat
  • Red hat hackers are similar to white hat hackers in that their intent is to prevent malicious hacking.
  • However, instead of simply aiming to defend systems or fix vulnerabilities, they actively engage with black hat hackers, even attacking their systems to bring them down.
  • This proactive (and at times aggressive) approach separates them from white hat hackers.
  • Grey hat
  • Grey hat hackers operate in the gray area between malicious intent (black hat) and ethical hacking (white hat).
  • While they may not have permission to access systems like white hat hackers do, they typically alert organizations to vulnerabilities they find, giving them a chance to fix the issues before less ethical hackers can exploit them.
  • However, some gray hat hackers may also request a fee for fixing such vulnerabilities.

Question 127

Which of the following options refers to the layout arrangement of different devices in a network? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Open systems 

  2. BOption (b)

    Transmission mode 

  3. COption (c)

    Closed systems 

  4. DOption (d)

    Network topology 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Network topology 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Network topology.

Key Points

  • Network topology refers to the physical and logical arrangement of nodes and connections in a network.
  • The nodes include devices such as switches, routers, and software with switch and router features.
  • These topologies can come in a few different forms, including star, bus, ring, mesh, and hybrid, each of which has different strengths and weaknesses.
  • Physical topology deals with the physical design of the network, including the devices, location and cable installation, while logical topology focuses on how data is transferred within the network.
  • Network topologies are extensively used in the architectural design of networks, as it lays out the route that data takes between nodes and depicts how different nodes in a network are connected to each other.

Additional Information

  • Open systems
  • An open system is a system that has external interactions. Such systems are capable of interconnecting with other systems, exchanging data, and functioning within a networked environment.
  • In the context of computing, an open system refers to a computing device, software or system that uses an open-source model, allowing it to interact seamlessly with other systems.
  • Transmission mode
  • Transmission mode, also known as the communication mode, refers to the process of sending and propagating data between two devices within a network.
  • They can be of different types such as simplex (one-way communication), half-duplex (two-way communication, but only one at a time), and full-duplex (two-way communication simultaneously).
  • Closed systems
  • A closed system is a type of system where interactions only happen among the system components and not the environment outside. They are self-contained and do not rely on exchanges with the external environment to function.
  • In terms of computer systems, a closed system can also refer to a system with proprietary standards and protocols, which restricts its ability to interact seamlessly with other systems.

Question 128

_____ means sending data or a file from your computer on the internet.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Uploading 

  2. BOption (b)

    Deleting 

  3. COption (c)

    Downloading  

  4. DOption (d)

    Accessing 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Uploading 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uploading.

Key Points

  • Uploading refers to the process of sending data or a file from your computer to a different location on the Internet.
  • This could be to a website, cloud storage service, email recipient, or another type of platform or server.
  • Common examples of uploading include adding photos to a social media profile, submitting documents through an online form, installing a website via FTP, or placing a video on a video-sharing site.
  • The speed at which files upload depends on the file size and the strength and speed of your Internet connection.
  • Once a file is uploaded, it can be accessed, viewed, or downloaded through the Internet, provided the necessary permissions are granted.

Additional Information

  • Deleting
  • Deleting refers to removing data or files from your system or a particular storage space on the Internet (like cloud storage or email).
  • When a file is deleted, it is typically moved to a 'trash' or 'recycle bin' folder before it's permanently erased, allowing you a chance to restore the file if the deletion was a mistake.
  • Downloading
  • Downloading is the process of getting data or a file from the Internet or another system to your own computer.
  • Examples include downloading a document from an email, saving an image from a website, or getting a software program from an official site.
  • The downloaded files can be accessed or opened with an appropriate software application even when you're offline.
  • Accessing
  • Accessing in the context of computers and the Internet involves entering a system or retrieving information from it.
  • This could refer to logging into an email account, opening a file on your computer, or visiting a website in a web browser.
  • Accessing typically requires appropriate permissions, and may need a username, a password, or other types of authentication.

Question 129

Which of the following is a mini-DIN connector used to connect a keyboard and mouse to a PC compatible computer? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Ethernet port 

  2. BOption (b)

    VGA port 

  3. COption (c)

    PS/2 port 

  4. DOption (d)

    RS232 port 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

PS/2 port 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is PS/2 port.

Key Points

  • The PS/2 port is a 6-pin mini-DIN connector used for connecting keyboards and mice to a PC-compatible computer system.
  • Its name comes from the IBM Personal System/2 series of personal computers, with which it was introduced in 1987.
  • PS/2 ports for mouse and keyboard are usually color-coded, green for the mouse and purple for the keyboard, to prevent confusion.
  • Though USB has largely replaced PS/2 for keyboard and mouse interfaces, some motherboards still come with PS/2 ports since they can offer benefits like full n-key rollover, which can be useful to gamers.

Additional Information

  • Ethernet port
  • An Ethernet port, also known as a jack or socket, is an opening on network equipment that Ethernet cables plug into.
  • These ports are often found on network devices like routers, switches, or modems and are used to connect a device to a network, typically a Local Area Network (LAN), via a wired connection.
  • VGA port
  • A Video Graphics Array (VGA) port is a type of video connection developed by IBM and commonly found on computers.
  • It's used to connect the computer to a display monitor, projector, or television.
  • It's an analog interface that carries video data as separate Red, Green, and Blue channels.
  • RS232 port
  • An RS232 port, sometimes called a serial port or COM port, is a type of interface that is commonly used for serial communication between devices.
  • It was once a standard feature on personal computers for connecting peripherals like mice, keyboards, and printers, but has largely been substituted by USB.

Question 130

An Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory (EPROM) retains its content until it is exposed to the ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    magnetic signals 

  2. BOption (b)

    electrical signals 

  3. COption (c)

    radio signals 

  4. DOption (d)

    ultraviolet light 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ultraviolet light 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ultraviolet light.

Key Points

  • The data stored in EPROM chips can be erased and the chip can be reprogrammed. This is achieved by exposing the chip to an intense Ultraviolet (UV) light through a specially designed window in the chip.
  • The process of erasing the data with UV light makes EPROM a reusable and flexible choice in hardware that needs occasional data updates.
  • An EPROM (Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory) is a non-volatile memory, meaning it can retain its data even when the power supply is switched off.
  • EPROMs are used to store data, like system software, that need not be changed frequently.
  • They have been extensively utilized in computers and other devices where permanent storage is essential.
  • In many security systems, EPROMs are used to hold both the operating system and the program for the access control panel.

Question 131

Which of the following is the correct categorisation of volatile semiconductor memory based on the data retention capability? 

  1. AOption (a)

    DRAM and ROM 

  2. BOption (b)

    SRAM and DRAM

  3. COption (c)

    RAM and ROM 

  4. DOption (d)

    SRAM and ROM  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

SRAM and DRAM

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is SRAM and DRAM.

Key Points

  • SRAM (Static Random-Access Memory) and DRAM (Dynamic Random-Access Memory) are both types of volatile memory.
  • SRAM retains its data as long as power is connected. However, the data in DRAM begins to decay in seconds and has to be periodically refreshed.
  • Volatile memory refers to computer memory that requires power to maintain the stored information. Once power is interrupted, the stored data is lost.
  • RAM (Random Access Memory), which can be further divided into SRAM and DRAM, is generally a type of volatile memory, but the term itself does not automatically signify volatility.
  • ROM (Read-Only Memory), on the other hand, is a type of non-volatile memory.
  • It retains its data regardless of whether power is connected or not, and it cannot be easily rewritten or erased by normal computer operations.
  • The primary advantage of SRAM and DRAM over other forms of memory is their speed.
  • They are therefore commonly used for primary storage and cache memory in computing devices.

Question 132

What is the diameter of a Blu-ray Disc? 

  1. AOption (a)

    115 mm 

  2. BOption (b)

    100 mm 

  3. COption (c)

    110 mm 

  4. DOption (d)

    120 mm 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

120 mm 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 120 mm.

Key Points

  • The diameter of a Blu-ray Disc is 120 millimeters, which is the same size as CDs and DVDs.
  • The thickness of a Blu-ray disc is 1.2 millimeters, the same as DVDs and CDs.
  • The name "Blu-ray" arises from the blue-violet laser used to read and write this type of disc.
  • Because of its shorter wavelength, a Blu-ray disc can store much more information than a CD or DVD.
  • Blu-ray discs are used to store high-definition videos, with capacities of 25 GB for single-layer discs to 50 GB for dual-layer discs.
  • The discs should not vary significantly between brands, as they are standardized in size.

Question 133

The ______ unit is that part of the CPU which controls or directs the operations of the processor. 

  1. AOption (a)

    control

  2. BOption (b)

    memory 

  3. COption (c)

    arithmetic logic 

  4. DOption (d)

    data 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

control

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is control.

Key Points

  • The control unit is a key component of the CPU (Central Processing Unit) that directs the operation of the processor.
  • It interprets the instructions that come from memory and transforms them into signals that control other parts of the computer, essentially acting as a director for the various operations within the processor.
  • The control unit does not carry out any actual data processing operations, but rather delegates those tasks to other components in the computer.
  • It often uses a binary decoder to convert coded instructions into timing and control signals.
  • These signals direct the operations of the other units like memory, arithmetic logic unit, and input and output devices.
  • Because of the crucial role the control unit plays in the execution of tasks, it directly impacts the overall performance of the CPU, and thus the computer.
  • A CPU generally also comprises an Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) and memory storage, which the control unit coordinates and manages to carry out the instructions of a program.

Additional Information

  • Memory:
  • Memory in a computer is where information/data is temporarily stored while awaiting processing or before the information is output or saved as a file.
  • This storage can be short term (like RAM - Random Access Memory) or long-term (such as in an SSD or hard drive).
  • RAM is volatile, meaning its contents are lost when the computer is powered off, whereas storage drives are non-volatile and can retain information even without power.
  • Memory plays a crucial role in the functioning of a computer because without it the CPU would have no immediate workspace to perform calculations or carry out other operations.
  • Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU):
  • An Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) is a major component of the CPU.
  • It carries out arithmetic and logical operations, usually under the control of the Control Unit.
  • The types of operations executed by the ALU include addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division (arithmetic operations) as well as logical operations such as comparison of numbers (greater than, less than, equal to) and bit shifting.
  • The ALU is essential in performing the actual computations required by a program.
  • Data:
  • The word "data" is used to describe raw facts and statistics collected together for reference or analysis.
  • In the context of a computer, data is all the information that the computer processes, including the instructions for a program, the program files themselves, and the inputs and outputs of a program.
  • Data is stored in the memory during processing and is the reason the CPU performs calculations and the ALU executes operations.
  • While a CPU does handle data in the sense of processing it, there is not a "data unit" in the same way there is a control unit or an ALU.

Question 134

In Windows OS, when you delete an item from any of the drives by making use of the ‘Delete’ key or even by simply right-clicking and selecting the ‘Delete’ option, the item is moved to ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Control Panel 

  2. BOption (b)

    Taskbar 

  3. COption (c)

    Recycle Bin 

  4. DOption (d)

    Start menu 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Recycle Bin 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Recycle Bin.

Key Points

  • The Recycle Bin is a special folder in Windows that temporarily stores deleted files and folders.
  • When you delete an item, it is moved to the Recycle Bin rather than permanently deleted.
  • To delete a file using File Explorer, you need to locate the file and either press your Delete key or click Delete on the Home tab of the ribbon. You can even select more than one file to delete at the same time.
  • From the Recycle Bin, items can be restored to their original locations if you realize you've made a mistake or need the files/folders again. However, files bypass the Recycle Bin if they're too large or if you've specifically directed Windows to delete them permanently.
  • The Recycle Bin is per drive, meaning each drive in your system has its own dedicated Recycle Bin. For example, if you delete a file from Drive C, it goes to the Recycle Bin of Drive C.
  • The Recycle Bin is automatically created and managed by Windows, and users can adjust the disk space allocated to the Recycle Bin by right-clicking on the Recycle Bin icon and choosing "Properties".

Additional Information

  • Control Panel:
  • The Control Panel is a component of Microsoft Windows that provides the ability to view and adjust system settings and controls, such as adding hardware, adding and removing software, controlling user accounts, and changing accessibility options.
  • From Windows 95 to Windows XP, the Control Panel is a standard interface; however, since Windows 8, a simplified Control Panel called "Settings" has been introduced and is being continually enhanced in more recent versions.
  • Taskbar:
  • The Taskbar refers to the application bar which is by default set to the bottom of the screen in Windows operating systems.
  • It includes the 'Start' button, the Cortana search box (in later versions), application shortcuts, and system icons, among others.
  • The taskbar allows users to view the current status of their open applications as well as launch new ones; it also contains the system clock and notification area.
  • The Taskbar properties allow customization like altering its location on the screen, changing its size, and determining how taskbar buttons group together.
  • Start menu:
  • The Start menu is a user interface element in Microsoft Windows, providing a central launching point for applications and tasks.
  • It offers quick access to programs and system settings, documents, and files.
  • It also contains links to network connections, printers, and your computer, as well as recent documents and help and support.
  • The function of the Start menu has evolved since its inception in Windows 95; in Windows 10, it includes Live Tiles to the right of the menu.

Question 135

Which of the following is a complementary language that helps style the HTML markup code used to create and design websites and web pages? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Java 

  2. BOption (b)

    Structured Query Language (SQL)  

  3. COption (c)

    Hypertext Preprocessor (PHP) 

  4. DOption (d)

    Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cascading Style Sheets (CSS).

Key Points

  • Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) is a stylesheet language used to describe the look and formatting of a document written in HTML or XML.
  • It can control layout, colors, fonts, and more, and helps to separate content from design.
  • CSS allows for flexibility and control in the specification of presentation characteristics, which can be applied to entire websites consistently and efficiently.
  • There are different levels and profiles of CSS to accommodate different devices and different levels of user interface complexity.
  • As of 2021, the latest version of CSS in widespread use is CSS3, but a fourth level, CSS4, is under development.
  • CSS “cascades” from the top of a document to the bottom, meaning styles applied to parent elements are inherited by their children unless otherwise specified. This is where the name "Cascading" Style Sheets comes from.
  • CSS can be applied directly in HTML elements (inline), in the HTML head (internal), or in a separate file linked to the HTML (external), which provides the greatest flexibility and reusability.

Additional Information

  • Java:
  • Java is a high-level programming language that is object-oriented. It is developed by Sun Microsystems and was first released in 1995.
  • It is used for developing application software across multiple platforms, including embedded systems, mobile phones, enterprise servers, and supercomputers.
  • Java follows the write-once, run-anywhere (WORA) concept, meaning compiled Java code can run on all platforms that support Java without the need for further recompilation.
  • Java is known for its robustness, security, and ease of use, making it an excellent choice for both beginners and experienced developers.
  • Structured Query Language (SQL):
  • SQL is a standard language designed for managing data held in a relational database management system or for stream processing in a relational data stream management system.
  • It is particularly useful in handling structured data, including data that are organized into tables.
  • SQL includes a combination of data definition, data manipulation, and data control language. It is used to create, modify, manage, and query databases.
  • SQL is widely used today across various database systems like MySQL, PostgreSQL, Oracle Database, and Microsoft SQL Server.
  • Hypertext Preprocessor (PHP):
  • PHP is a popular open-source, server-side scripting language that is commonly used in web development for creating dynamic and interactive web pages.
  • PHP code is executed on the server, and the result is returned to the client as plain HTML.
  • It can collect, verify, and interact with data stored in a database, handle forms, manage cookies, and more.
  • PHP integrates well with HTML, and it can also be embedded within an HTML page. This close symbiosis between HTML and PHP allows designers to integrate their dynamic scripts with the static markup seamlessly.

135 questions in the full paper

SSC CHSL (2022) Tier-II Official Paper (Held On: 26 Jun, 2023 Shift 1). (Previous Year Paper) — Questions with Answers | YourMockTest