SSC CHSL Tier-1 2023: Official Paper (Held On: 03 Aug, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

So, '190' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 2^nd number × 3^rd number = 1^st number.

Now,

For, (162, 9, 18)

⇒ 9 × 18 = 162.

For, (231, 11, 21)

⇒ 11 × 21 = 231.

Similarly, for (336, 28, 12)

⇒ 28 × 12 = 336.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1^st number ÷ 2.5 = 2^nd number.

Now,

For, 125 is related to 50

⇒ 125 ÷ 2.5 = 50.

For, 230 is related to 92

⇒ 230 ÷ 2.5 = 92.

Similarly, for 315 is related to

⇒ 315 ÷ 2.5 = 126.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

So, '109' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

 

Given: P × Q ÷ R - T + S

It means: P is the Mother of Q, Q is the Brother of R, R is the Sister of T, T is the Son of S.

So, P is the 'Wife' of S.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 18 × 17 + 4 ÷ 22 - 2 = ?

Now, if '+' and '-' are interchanged with '×' and '÷' respectively, then:

⇒ 18 + 17 × 4 - 22 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 18 + 17 × 4 - 11 = ?

⇒ 18 + 68 - 11 = ?

⇒ 86 - 11 = 75.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Mistake Points

In the given question it is given that if '+' and '-' are interchanged with '×' and '÷', respectively. Here the word respectively is given which means that + is interchanged with '×' and '-' interchanged with '÷'.

The logic followed here is:

So, 'ILQ' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (Sum of the place value of all numbers) + Number of letter in that word = Code of the word.

'FLORENCE' is coded as '86'

⇒ (6 + 12 + 15 + 18 + 5 + 14 + 3 + 5) + 8

⇒ 78 + 8 = 86.

'GRATITUDE' is coded as '114'

⇒ (7 + 18 + 1 + 20 + 9 + 20 + 21 + 4 + 5) + 9

⇒ 105 + 9 = 114.

Similarly, for 'FOREIGN'

⇒ (6 + 15 + 18 + 5 + 9 + 7 + 14) + 7

⇒ 74 + 7 = 81.

So, 'FOREIGN' will be coded as '81'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'CRS' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 15 ÷ 5 + 12 × 3 - 5 = ? 

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

⇒ 15 × 5 - 12 ÷ 3 + 5 = ?

⇒ 15 × 5 - 4 + 5 = ?

⇒ 75 - 4 + 5 = ?

⇒ 80 - 4 = 76.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

 

Given: P - B × V ÷ N + E

It means: P is the Brother of B, B is the Sister of V, V is the Father of N, N is the wife of E.

 

So, P is the 'Father's brother' of N.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Given Sequence: cdd_dd_ddc

Now, putting the letters in the blank spaces given in the option one by one:

Option 1) dccd → dcd / dcd / dcd / dcd

Here, 'Option 1' followed a pattern.

Option 2) cddc → ccd / ddd / ddd / dcc

Option 3) cdcd→ ccd / ddd / dcd / dcd

Option 4) dcdc → dcd / dcd / ddd / dcc

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The curve part of the 'Triangles' are getting rotates in anti-clockwise direction.

And, The symbol 'Lollypop' is getting flipped by 180 degree to the next images.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

‘all kings are beautiful' is coded as '42 63 mo ule' 

'all queens are beautiful' is coded as 'mo ule, 63 36’,

Here, 'all are beautiful' is common in both the statement, so the remaining number is the code for the remaining word.

So, 'King' will be coded as '42'. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Statements:

Some keys are scales

All books are papers.

All scales are papers.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. No books are keys - False (Because, No definite relation given between books and keys, so it can be possible only).

II. Some papers are keys - True (Because, Some keys are scales and All books are papers, so those part of keys which is scales will also papers).

So, Only conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'CW 105' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number)³ + 11 = 2^nd number.

Now, checking the options:

Option 1) 3 : 38 

→ 3³ + 11 → 27 + 11 = 38.

Option 2) 7 : 354 

→ 73 + 11 → 343 + 11 = 354.

Option 3) 6 : 212 

→ 63 + 11 → 216 + 11 = 227 ≠ 212.

Option 4) 5 : 136 

→ 53 + 11 → 125 + 11 = 136.

So, '6 : 212' is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'IA 125' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: 6 November 1925 was Friday.

Now,

1925 to 1933 = 8 Years (6 Ordinary Year and 2 Leap Year).

And, In 8 Years = 2 Leap years and 6 Ordinary Year.

So, 2 Leap Year has 4 odd days,

And, 6 Ordinary Year has 6 odd days.

Total odd days = 4 + 6 = 10.

10 odd days → 10/7 = 1 week and 3 odd days.

then, 6 November 1933 will be Friday + 3 = Monday.

Now, the number of days between 6 November 1933 to 16 December 1933

= 24(November) + 16(December) = 40 days.

= 40 days → 40/7 = 5 week and 5 odd day.

So, 16 December 1933 will be Monday + 5 = Saturday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For, 'UOKG is related to VPLH'

For, 'KQWY is related to LRXZ'

Similarly, for 'AMSW'

So, 'AMSW' will be related to 'BNTX'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number)2 = 2^nd number.

Now, checking the options:

Option 1) 15 - 225 → (15)² = 225. 

Option 2) 19 - 361 → (19)2 = 361.

Option 3) 9 - 81 → (9)2 = 81.

Option 4) 4 - 64 → (4)2 = 16 ≠ 64.

So, '4 - 64' is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Statements:

Some pencils are cartoons.

All cartoons are rivers.

All rivers are shadows

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. All pencils are shadows - False (Because, some pencils are definitely shadows, but All pencils are shadows can be possible only).

II. All cartoons are shadows - True (Because, All cartoons are rivers and All rivers are shadows, this gives All cartoons are shadows).

III Some shadows are pencils - True (Because, those part of pencil which is cartoons will shadow also).

So, Both conclusions II and III follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The triangles are:

So, there are '30' triangles in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Vijayalaya.

Key Points

• Chola Empire was one of the longest-ruling dynasties in southern India, which existed from the 3^rd century BCE to the 13^th century CE.
• The Chola dynasty was known for its maritime trade, art, literature, and architecture.
• Vijayalaya Chola was the founder of the Chola Empire in 848 CE.
• Vijayalaya Chola was a Tamil ruler.
• He conquered the regions of Tanjore, Trichy, and parts of Pudukkottai and Tiruchirappalli, which formed the nucleus of the Chola Empire.
• The Chola Empire reached its zenith under the reign of Rajendra Chola I, who conquered territories up to the Ganges in the north and the Malay Peninsula in the south.

Additional Information

• Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta Empire in the Deccan region.
• It existed from the 6^th to the 10^th century CE.
• Singhavishnu was a ruler of the Pallava dynasty.
• It existed in the southern part of India from the 3^rd to the 9^th century CE.
• Upendrarai is not a known historical figure or ruler in Indian history.

The correct answer is Sitar.

 Key Points

• Arvind Parikh is a renowned sitar player and has been associated with the instrument for several decades.
• He has performed at various prestigious events and has received several accolades for his contributions to Indian classical music.
• The sitar is a stringed instrument, which is commonly used in North Indian classical music and is known for its unique sound and intricate playing techniques.
• Arvind Parikh is considered one of the leading sitar players in India and has trained many students in the art of playing this instrument.

Additional Information

• Shehnai is a wind instrument.
• It is commonly used in North Indian classical music.
• Mridangam is a percussion instrument.
• It is commonly used in the Carnatic music of South India.
• Tabla is a pair of drums.
• It is commonly used in North Indian classical music.

The correct answer is Bengaluru.

Key Points

• India's first 100% methanol-powered prototype truck was unveiled in Bengaluru.
• Methanol is a clean-burning fuel that emits lower levels of greenhouse gases and pollutants compared to diesel fuel, making it an attractive alternative for transportation.
• The truck was developed by Eicher Motors and IIT Delhi, and is part of the government's push towards using alternative fuels to reduce India's dependence on imported oil and improve air quality.

Additional Information

• The world's first methanol-powered truck was developed by Volvo in 2017 and has been in use in Sweden.
• The first methanol-powered buses were unveiled in Bengaluru by Union Minister of Road and Transport Nitin Gadkari in association with the Indian Oil Company (IOC), Bengaluru Metropolitan Transport Corporation (BMTC), NITI Aayog, and Ashok Leyland.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Onam is a festival celebrated in the state of Kerala, which is located in the southern part of India.
• It is one of the most important festivals in Kerala and is celebrated with great enthusiasm and joy by people of all religions and communities.
• The festival is celebrated to commemorate the homecoming of King Mahabali, who is believed to have ruled Kerala in ancient times.
• The festival is celebrated over a period of 10 days and is marked by various cultural events, traditional feasts, and colorful decorations.

Additional Information

• Gujarat is known for the Navratri festival, Modhera Dance Festival, Bhavnath Mahadev Fair and Rann Utsav.
• Karnataka is known for the Dasara festival, Ugadi, and Tula Sankramana.
• Goa is known for the Carnival festival and Potekar.

The correct answer is To maximise the focus on rehabilitation without really caring for resettlement.

 Key Points

• The National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy (2007) of the Government of India aims to provide better living standards and sustainable income to affected families.
• Another objective is to integrate rehabilitation concerns into the development planning and implementation process.
• The policy also aims to minimize displacement and promote non-displacing or least-displacing alternatives.
• However, the policy does not prioritize rehabilitation over resettlement.
• Resettlement is an important aspect of the policy, as it aims to provide affected families with a new place to live and sources of income.

Additional Information

• The National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy aims to accomplish the following:
• better living conditions for affected families through coordinated efforts to provide sustainable income;
• integration of rehabilitation concerns into the development planning and implementation process; and,
• in cases where displacement is due to land acquisition, facilitation of harmonious relationships between the requiring body and affected families through mutual cooperation.
• The policy also ensures that special care is taken to protect the rights of the weaker sections of society, particularly members of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, and creates obligations on the State for their treatment with concern and sensitivity.

The correct answer is To shield the Earth from solar wind and cosmic radiation.

 Key Points

• The purpose of the Earth's magnetic field is to shield the planet from solar wind and cosmic radiation.
• This is important because these particles can be harmful to life on Earth and can cause damage to our atmosphere.
• The Earth's magnetic field is generated by the movement of molten iron in the planet's core.
• This creates a magnetic field that extends out into space and protects the planet.

Additional Information

• The Earth's magnetic field does not provide energy for life on Earth.
• While the Earth's magnetic field may have some impact on the climate, its primary purpose is to protect the planet from solar wind and cosmic radiation.
• The tides are primarily caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and the sun.
• The magnetic field that emanates from Earth's interior and interacts with the solar wind,a stream of charged particles that comes from the Sun, is called the geomagnetic field, or Earth's magnetic field.

The correct answer is Sodium chloride.

 Key Points

• Sodium chloride, also known as table salt, is a mineral salt that is dissolved in major amounts in ocean water.
• It is estimated that the ocean contains about 35 grams of salt per liter of water, and about 85% of that salt is sodium chloride.
• Calcium chloride and calcium sulfate are also present in ocean water but in much smaller amounts compared to sodium chloride.
• Calcium carbonate is a mineral that is found in the shells and skeletons of many marine organisms, but it is not dissolved in ocean water as much as sodium chloride.
• The high concentration of sodium chloride in ocean water is one of the reasons why it is not safe to drink without proper treatment.

Additional Information

• Calcium chloride is a salt that is commonly used as a de-icing agent on roads and sidewalks, as well as in food production and medical applications.
• Calcium sulphate, also known as gypsum, is a mineral that is used in construction, agriculture, and as a food additive.
• Calcium carbonate is used in a variety of industries, including construction, paper production, and as a dietary supplement.
• It is important to note that while sodium chloride is the most abundant mineral salt in ocean water, there are also many other dissolved substances that contribute to the overall composition of seawater.

The correct answer is Article 39.

Key Points

• Article 39 of the Directive Principles of State Policy provides for equal pay for equal work.
• Article 39 states that the State shall direct its policy towards securing, among other things, that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
• This provision is aimed at eliminating discrimination in wages on the basis of gender, and ensuring that workers are paid fairly for the work they do.
• The Constitution of India recognizes the importance of ensuring social and economic justice for all, and the provision for equal pay for equal work is in line with this objective.

Additional Information

• Article 38 deals with the State's duty to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of national life.
• Article 41 deals with the right to work, education, and public assistance in certain cases.
• Article 40 deals with the State's duty to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.

The correct answer is the Construction of border roads in high-altitude areas.

 Key Points

• National Highways in India are meant for inter-state transport and connect state capitals and major cities.
• They are maintained by the Central Government and are a crucial part of India's transportation network.
• Border roads in high-altitude areas are constructed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO), which is a separate entity from the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).
• The BRO constructs and maintains roads in difficult terrain and border areas to ensure connectivity and strategic mobility for the Indian Armed Forces.
• National Highways are identified by their unique numbers, which range from 1 to 373 and cover a total length of over 135,000 km.

Additional Information

• The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways is the owner of India's network of trunk roads, known as the national highways.
• At 4,112 km (2,555 mi), National Highway 44 is currently the longest National Highway in India.
• Major national highways in India were first four-laned under the National Highway Development Project (NHDP).
• India has about 35,000 km of four-lane national highways as of March 2022.

The correct answer is April 1 to March 31.

Key Points

• The financial year for India is the period from April 1 to March 31.
• This means that the government budget estimates for the financial year are prepared based on the expected receipts and expenditure during this period.
• The government receipts include revenue from taxes, non-tax sources, and borrowings, while the government expenditure includes both revenue and capital expenditure on various sectors such as defense, education, healthcare, infrastructure, etc.
• The budget is an important tool for fiscal management and policy-making, as it reflects the government's priorities and goals for the economy and society.

Additional Information

• The financial year for India was earlier from May 1 to April 30, but it was changed to April 1 to March 31 in 1867.
• The government presents the budget in the Parliament in the form of two documents: the Union Budget, which includes the estimates for the central government, and the State Budgets, which include the estimates for the state governments.
• The budget also includes various measures to promote economic growth, reduce fiscal deficits, and address social and welfare issues.
• The government uses various fiscal instruments such as taxes, subsidies, and transfers to achieve its budgetary objectives.
• The budget is subject to approval by the Parliament and may be revised during the year if there are significant changes in the economic and financial situation.

The correct answer is Mitochondria.

 Key Points

• Mitochondria is the part of the cell that converts nutrients into energy in the form of ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate).
• It is also known as the powerhouse of the cell.
• Mitochondria have their own DNA and can reproduce themselves within the cell.
• It plays a crucial role in cellular respiration, which is the process of converting glucose and oxygen into ATP.

Additional Information

• Cell membrane: It is the outermost part of the cell that controls the entry and exit of substances in and out of the cell.

A semipermeable lipid bilayer forms the cell membrane.

Lysosomes: These are organelles that contain enzymes to break down waste products and cellular debris.

• ​Digestive enzymes are found in lysosomes, which are membrane-bound cell organelles.

Chromosomes: They are structures in the nucleus that contain genetic information in the form of DNA.

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and a protein molecule make up each chromosome.

DNA contains the precise instructions that differentiate each type of living thing from one another and is passed from parents to children.

The correct answer is Titas Sadhu.

 Key Points

• Titas Sadhu received the Emerging Hero award at the Sportster East sports conclave 2023.
• Titas Sadhu is an Indian women's cricket player who has been making headlines for her impressive performances on the field.
• She played for the Indian squad that won the 2023 U19 Women's T20 World Cup, and she was named Player of the Match in the championship game.

Additional Information

• Richa Ghosa is also an Indian women's cricket player who has represented the country in international matches.
• Harleen Deol is another Indian women's cricket player who has been making waves in the sport.
• She is known for her all-round abilities and has represented India in both ODIs and T20Is.
• Deepti Sharma is a top-order batter and off-spinner who has played for the Indian women's cricket team.
• She has been a consistent performer for the team and has also been a part of the Women's Big Bash League in Australia.

The correct answer is SVAMITVA.

Key Points

• SVAMITVA scheme aims to provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India.
• The scheme was launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj in April 2020.
• The objective of the scheme is to survey rural inhabited lands using drones and provide property cards to the landowners.
• The property cards will help in reducing property-related disputes, enable landowners to use their property as collateral for loans, and improve the overall rural economy.

Additional Information

• WDF (Women Development Fund) is a scheme launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
• Its goal is to provide financial assistance to women entrepreneurs.
• NRLM (National Rural Livelihood Mission) is a poverty alleviation scheme.
• It was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development.
• PCGS (Partial Credit Guarantee Scheme) is a scheme launched by the Ministry of Finance to provide credit guarantee to lenders for loans given to MSMEs.

The correct answer is Glucose.

Key Points

• The monomer unit of glycogen is glucose.
• Glycogen is a complex carbohydrate that is formed by the polymerization of glucose molecules.
• Glucose is a simple sugar that is the primary source of energy for the body.
• It is the main free sugar present in higher animals' blood and can be found in fruits and honey.

Additional Information

• Fructose is another simple sugar that is found in fruits and honey.
• Other plant foods like honey, sugar beets, sugar cane, and vegetables also naturally contain it.
• The sweetest naturally occurring carbohydrate is fructose.
• Galactose is a simple sugar that is found in milk and dairy products.
• Usually, it is found in nature in mixtures with other sugars, like lactose (milk sugar).
• Mannose is a simple sugar that is found in some plants.
• It is used in the production of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

The correct answer is Birth rate and death rate important components of the HDI.

Key Points

• The Human Development Index (HDI) is a measure of human development that takes into account three dimensions: health, education, and income.
• The level of education is one of the components of the HDI, along with the years of schooling and the expected years of schooling.
• The income component of the HDI is represented by the per capita GDP of a country on purchasing power parity terms, which takes into account the differences in the cost of living between countries.
• Life expectancy at birth is another component of the HDI, as it reflects the overall health and well-being of a population.
• Birth rate and death rate are not components of the HDI, as they are considered to be demographic indicators rather than measures of human development.

Additional Information

• The HDI was developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in 1990 as a way to measure progress in human development across countries.
• The HDI ranges from 0 to 1, with higher values indicating higher levels of human development.
• The HDI is updated annually and is widely used by policymakers, researchers, and advocates to track progress in human development and identify areas for improvement.
• Other measures of human development include the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), which takes into account a broader range of dimensions of poverty beyond income, and the Gender Development Index (GDI), which measures gender gaps in education, health, and income.

The correct option is Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.

 Key Points

• The preamble mentions "Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship" as one of the noble ideals mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
• The Indian Constitution's preamble outlines the fundamental principles and values that guide the country and its people.
• It begins with the words "We, the people of India," emphasizing the democratic nature of the nation.

Additional Information

• The Indian Constitution is the ultimate law of the land based on the idea put forth by M.N. Roy.
• It is the document that lays out the framework that defines the fundamental political code, structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions.
• It also lays out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.
• It's the world's longest written national constitution.
• On November 26, 1949, the Indian Constituent Assembly adopted it, and on January 26, 1950, it came into force.
• The Government of India Act 1935 was superseded by the constitution in 1935, transforming the Dominion of India into the Republic of India.

The correct answer is Persian.

Key Points

• **Raja Ram Mohan Roy'**s work, 'Gift to Monotheists', was originally written in Persian.
• Persian was a widely used language in India during the Mughal era and was the language of the court.
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a prominent social reformer and scholar who played a key role in the Indian Renaissance.
• The work, 'Gift to Monotheists', was a critique of polytheism and an argument for the superiority of monotheistic religions.

Additional Information

• Arabic is a language primarily associated with Islam and is widely used in religious texts and rituals.
• The majority of speakers of the Semitic language Arabic are found in the Arab world.
• It is named after the Arab people and first appeared in the first century AD.
• Bengali is the language of the Bengali people of eastern India and Bangladesh and has a rich literary tradition.
• It is the official language of West Bengal, Tripura, and the Assamese Barak Valley.
• Sanskrit is an ancient language of India and is associated with Hinduism and traditional Indian knowledge systems.
• Following the dispersal of its predecessor languages from the northwest during the late Bronze Age, it originated in South Asia.

The correct answer is 17.7%.

Key Points

• Decadal population growth rate refers to the percentage increase in the population over a period of ten years.
• The Census of India is conducted every ten years to gather demographic and socio-economic data about the population of India.
• The 2011 Census of India recorded a decadal population growth rate of 0.177, which is lower than the previous decade's rate of 0.214.

Additional Information

• The decadal population growth rate is an essential indicator of a country's population dynamics.
• It reflects the changes in the population size, age structure, and fertility rates over time.
• 0.162 is the decadal population growth rate of India's neighboring country, Bangladesh, according to the World Bank data.
• 0.172 is the decadal population growth rate of India's other neighboring country, Nepal, according to the World Bank data.

The correct answer is Padma Shri.

Key Points

• Kuchipudi dancer V Satyanarayana Sarma was honored with the Padma Shri award in 1970.
• The Padma Shri is the fourth highest civilian award in India, given for distinguished service in various fields such as art, literature, science, and social service.
• Among the many accolades he received were the Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship, the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, and the Kalidas Samman.

Additional Information

• The Kalidas Samman is a prestigious award given by the Madhya Pradesh government for outstanding contributions in the field of arts and literature.
• The prize bears the name of the well-known Indian Classical Sanskrit author Kalidasa.
• In 1980, the Kalidas Samman was first given out.​
• The Kabir Puraskar is awarded for promotion and preservation of communal harmony and national integration.
• In 1990, the Indian government launched the Kabir Puraskar Scheme, which included a National Award known as the "KABIR PURASKAR."
• The Moortidevi Award is given for outstanding contribution to Indian literature.
• ​Presenting the Moortidevi Award every year is the Bharatiya Jnanpith, an Indian literary accolade.

The correct answer is Fiscal Deficit.

 Key Points

• A fiscal deficit represents the difference between the government's total expenditure and its total revenue.
• It is a key indicator of the government's borrowings and reflects the extent to which it is relying on debt to fund its spending.
• Primary deficit is a narrower measure that excludes interest payments on past borrowings.
• It indicates the government's borrowing needs for current spending but does not capture the burden of past debt.
• Revenue receipts represent the government's income from taxes, fees, and other sources.
• Money supply is a measure of the total amount of money in circulation in the economy.

Additional Information

• Revenue receipts can be further classified into tax revenue and non-tax revenue.
• Tax revenue is the income from taxes such as income tax, corporate tax, GST, etc.
• Non-tax revenue is the income from other sources such as dividends from public sector enterprises, interest receipts, etc.
• Money supply can be measured in different ways, such as M1, M2, and M3.
• M1 includes currency in circulation, demand deposits, and other liquid assets.
• M2 includes M1 plus savings deposits, time deposits, and other less liquid assets.
• M3 includes M2 plus large time deposits and institutional money market funds.

The correct answer is 1975.

Key Points

• The Twenty Point Programme (TPP) was launched in 1975.
• It was launched by the Government of India under the leadership of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• The TPP aimed to address the socio-economic needs of the country and improve the living conditions of the people.
• The program included initiatives in areas such as agriculture, industry, employment, education, and healthcare.

Additional Information

• The TPP was later replaced by the Twenty Point Programme (2006) which was launched by the Government of India.
• It was under the leadership of Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
• The program addresses a wide range of socioeconomic issues, including consumer protection, the environment, e-Government, employment, poverty, education, housing, health, agriculture, land reforms, irrigation, and drinking water.

The correct answer is one.

Key Points

• India won only one gold medal at the Tokyo Olympics 2020.
• The gold medal was won by Neeraj Chopra in the men's javelin throw event.
• India's total medal tally at the Tokyo Olympics was seven, including one gold, two silver, and four bronze medals.
• India's performance at the Tokyo Olympics was commendable, with several athletes achieving personal bests and breaking national records.

Additional Information

• Tokyo Olympics 2020 was an international multi-sport competition that took place in Tokyo, Japan, from July 23, 2021, to August 8, 2021.
• On September 7, 2013, in Buenos Aires, Argentina, during the 125^th IOC Session, Tokyo was chosen as the host city.
• China ranked second in both categories (38 and 89), trailing the United States in both total golds (39) and total medals (113).
• Japan, the host country, finished third, breaking the previous records for the most gold medals (27), and the total number of medals (58), ever won by a delegation at an Olympic Games.
• Finishing fourth overall with 64 medals and 22 golds was Great Britain.

The correct answer is Araku Valley.

Key Points

• Dhimsa is a traditional folk dance of the tribes in the Araku Valley of Andhra Pradesh.
• The dance is performed by women and men in a group, and is usually accompanied by tribal music and songs.
• The dance is performed during festivals and celebrations, and is a way for the tribes to express their cultural heritage and identity.
• The Araku Valley region is known for its natural beauty and cultural significance.

Additional Information

• Solan Valley:
• It is situated 14 km northwest of the resort town of Manali, on the route to Rohtang Pass, this side valley at the summit of the Kullu Valley in Himachal Pradesh, India.
• It is well-known for its summer and winter sports conditions.
• Ketti Valley:
• It is situated in Tamil Nadu State's Nilgiris District.
• Parvati Valley:
• The state of Himachal Pradesh in northern India is home to Parvati Valley.
• The Parvati Valley extends eastward through a steeply sided valley from the point where the Parvati River meets the River Beas, in the Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh, Northern India, starting in the town of Bhuntar.

The correct answer is 88.44 m.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra won the Diamond League Final 2022 title in Zurich.
• He achieved this feat by throwing the javelin at a distance of 88.44 meters.
• This is a remarkable achievement as he became the first Indian to win the Diamond League.

Additional Information

• Neeraj Chopra is a javelin thrower from India and has won several medals in international competitions.
• The Diamond League is an annual series of elite track and field events featuring the best athletes in the world.
• The Diamond League Final is the last event of the season and the winner is crowned the Diamond League champion.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Tamil Nadu receives rainfall during the retreating monsoon, which is also known as the northeast monsoon or the post-monsoon season.
• The retreating monsoon refers to the withdrawal of the southwest monsoon from the Indian subcontinent, which usually occurs from September to December.
• Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Bihar receive rainfall during the southwest monsoon season, which lasts from June to September.
• Tamil Nadu, on the other hand, experiences a dry season during the southwest monsoon and relies on the retreating monsoon for its rainfall.
• Tamil Nadu's agriculture, particularly its rice and millet crops, depends heavily on the retreating monsoon.

Additional Information

• Madhya Pradesh is a central state of India that receives rainfall from the southwest monsoon.
• It is one of the largest producers of soybeans, wheat, and pulses in the country.
• Gujarat is a western state of India that receives rainfall from the southwest monsoon.
• It is known for its cotton, groundnut, and oilseed production.
• Bihar is an eastern state of India that receives rainfall from the southwest monsoon.
• It is one of the largest producers of vegetables, fruits, and flowers in the country.

Shortcut Trick

Remainder = 46

Divisor = 5 × 46 = 230

Quotient = 230 ÷ 10 = 23

Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder

Dividend = (230 × 23) + 46 = 5290 + 46 = 5336

∴ The correct answer is 5336.

Alternate Method

Given:

Remainder (R) = 46

Divisor (D) = 5 × Remainder

Divisor (D) = 10 × Quotient (Q)

Formula Used:

Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder

Calculations:

⇒ Divisor = 5 × 46 = 230

⇒ 10 × Quotient = 230

⇒ Quotient = 230 ÷ 10 = 23

⇒ Dividend = (230 × 23) + 46

⇒ Dividend = 5290 + 46

⇒ Dividend = 5336

∴ The correct answer is 5336.

Additional Information

Division Algorithm

For any two integers a and b, there exist unique integers q and r such that a = bq + r, where 0 ≤ r < b.

Constraint on Remainder

The remainder must always be a non-negative integer and must be strictly less than the divisor.

Perfect Divisibility

If the remainder is 0, the dividend is said to be perfectly divisible by the divisor.

Shortcut Trick

Rate of Interest (R) = [(A₃ − A₂) ÷ A₂] × 100

⇒ R = [(7,340 − 6,120) ÷ 6,120] × 100 = [1,220 ÷ 6,120] × 100 ≈ 19.9346%

Principal (P) = A₂ ÷ (1 + R/100)²

⇒ P = 6,120 ÷ (1.199346)² = 6,120 ÷ 1.43843 ≈ 4,254.63

∴ The correct answer is ₹4,254.63.

Alternate Method

Given:

Amount after 2 years (A₂) = ₹6,120

Amount after 3 years (A₃) = ₹7,340

Formula Used:

A = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ

Calculations:

⇒ A₃ ÷ A₂ = [P(1 + R/100)³] ÷ [P(1 + R/100)²]

⇒ 7,340 ÷ 6,120 = 1 + R/100

⇒ 1.1993464 = 1 + R/100

⇒ R/100 = 0.1993464

⇒ Now, P = A₂ ÷ (1 + R/100)²

⇒ P = 6,120 ÷ (1.1993464)²

⇒ P = 6,120 ÷ 1.4384318

⇒ P ≈ 4,254.634

∴ The correct answer is ₹4,254.63.

Additional Information

Successive Amounts in CI

In Compound Interest, the amount at the end of any year acts as the principal for the next year. Thus, A_n+1 = A_n × (1 + R/100).

Effective Rate of Interest

For two years, the effective CI rate is R + R + (R × R)/100. The sum can be found by P = A ÷ (1 + Effective Rate/100).

Concept used:

cosec 45°   =  sec45°  = √2

As we know Calculation:

By taking b = 45° 

The value of  

 (cosec2 B - 1) (sec2 B - 1)

⇒ (cosec² 45 - 1) (sec2 45 - 1)

⇒ (2 - 1)(2-1) = 1

∴ The correct option is 4

Concept used:

a sinθ + b cosθ = c 

a sinθ - b cosθ = d

Then we can say that,  a2 + b2 = c2 + d2. 

Calculation:

a sinθ + b cosθ = c 

a sinθ - b cosθ = d

Then we can say that,  a2 + b2 = c2 + d2. 

So 1 + 1 = (1/29)² + d² 

⇒ d² = 2 - 1/841

⇒ 41 /29

$\frac{\sin\theta+\cos\theta}{\sin\theta-\cos\theta}$ = 1/29 × 29/41

⇒ 1/41

∴ The correct option is 1

Formula used:

As per Pythagoras theorem , hypotenuse = √(base² + perpendicular² ) 

Calculation:

The length (in cm) of a tangent drawn from point X to the circle is 

⇒ √(29² - 20² )

⇒  √ (841 - 400) = √ (441)

⇒ 21 cm

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

A profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1,032  = The loss incurred when the same article is sold for Rs. 648.

Concept used:

Selling price = cost price + profit 

Calculation:

The cost price of the article is (1032 + 648 ) / 2 = 840

The selling price will be,

⇒ 840 + 840 × 30/100

⇒ 840 +  252 =Rs. 1092

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

Edge of the cube = 7 cm

Concept used:

The  edge of the cube is the diameter of the sphere

Formula used:

The volume of a sphere = 4/3 × π  × radius³

Calculation:

The radius will be 7 / 2 = 3.5 cm

The volume will be,

⇒ 4/3 × 22/7 × 3.5 × 3.5 × 3.5 = 179.67 cm3

∴ The correct option is 1

Given :

Area of the circle is 154 cm2.

Formula used:

Area of a circle = π × radius2

Concept used:

Diameter = 2 × radius

Two parallel lines touch the circles at P and Q so the  length of PQ = Diametrer

Calculation:

As per the question,

 π×r² = 154

⇒ r = 7

The diameter will be 7 × 2 = 14 cm

The length of PQ = 14 cm

∴ The correct option is 2

Concept used:

To form a triangle, the sum of any two sides should be greater than the third side.

Calculation:

As per the given options, 

8 + 6 > 9

So we can  form a triangle by given sides

∴ The correct option is 1

Calculation:

Let, total students = 360° 

According to the given data,

In 2022, 

⇒ 93.6° = 15600

So, 360° = 15600/93.6 × 360 = 60000

In 2021,

⇒ 86.4° = 15600

So, 360° = 15600/86.4 × 360 = 65000

Now, percentage change in total number of students = (65000 - 60000)/65000 × 100 

⇒ 7.69% ≈ 8%

∴ The correct option is 2.

Given:

In a triangle DEF, DP is the bisector of ∠D, meeting EF at P. If DE = 14 cm, DF = 21, and EF = 9,

Concept used:

DE / DF = EP / PF

Calculation: 

Let the EP = x cm

⇒ 14 / 21 = x / 9 - x

⇒ 2 / 3 = x / 9 - x 

⇒ 5x = 18

⇒ x = 3.6 cm

∴ The correct option is 1

Shortcut Trick

Let the Total Distance be 100 km.

Time taken for first part = 30 ÷ 90 = 1/3 hour.

Time taken for second part = 45 ÷ 135 = 1/3 hour.

Time taken for remaining part (25%) = 25 ÷ 75 = 1/3 hour.

Total Time = 1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 = 1 hour.

Average Speed = 100 km ÷ 1 hr = 100 km/h.

∴ The correct answer is 100 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance₁ = 30%, Speed₁ = 90 km/h

Distance₂ = 45%, Speed₂ = 135 km/h

Distance₃ = 100% − (30% + 45%) = 25%, Speed₃ = 75 km/h

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

Let total distance be D.

⇒ Total Time (T) = (0.3D ÷ 90) + (0.45D ÷ 135) + (0.25D ÷ 75)

⇒ T = (D ÷ 300) + (D ÷ 300) + (D ÷ 300)

⇒ T = 3D ÷ 300

⇒ T = D ÷ 100

⇒ Average Speed = D ÷ (D ÷ 100)

⇒ Average Speed = (D × 100) ÷ D

⇒ Average Speed = 100 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 100 km/h.

Additional Information

Average Speed for Equal Distances

If a journey is divided into 'n' equal distances with speeds v₁, v₂, ..., v_n, then Average Speed is the Harmonic Mean of the speeds.

Average Speed for Two Equal Halves

When two equal distances are covered at speeds 'a' and 'b', Average Speed = (2 × a × b) ÷ (a + b).

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Given:

The price of a certain mobile set is discounted by 10%

The reduced price is then discounted by 10%. 

Formula used:

If one discount is a and another discount is b then final discount i=  a%+ b% - (a × b) /100

Calculation:

The total discount will be,

⇒ 10 + 10 - 10 × 10 /100 

⇒ 20 - 1 = 19% 

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

Rajinder's speed = 40 km/h.

He increased his speed to 60 km per hour.

He covers his journey in 7 hours.

Concept used:

If for the same distance one speed V and another speed U then average speed will be,

⇒ 2 (V × U) / (V + U)

Calculation: 

The average speed will be

⇒ 2 × 40 × 60 /( 40 + 60)

⇒ 4800 /100 = 48 km/h

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

Babita is 1.25 times as efficient as Deepak.

Working together the due can complete a piece of work in 40 days.

Concept used:

Efficiency = Total work / total time 

Calculation: 

As we know , 1.25 times = 1 + 1/4

⇒ 5/4 times 

So, Their Efficiency ratio will be ,

Babita : Deepak is 

⇒ 5 : 4

Total work will be 40 × 9 = 360 units 

The number of days taken by Deepak is

⇒ 360 / 4 = 90 days

∴ The correct option is 2

Concept used:

If the four numbers a, b , c ,d  are in proportion then we can say that 

⇒ a × d = b × c

Calculation:

The fourth proportional  will be,

⇒ 0.6 × 20 / 0.24 = 50

 The correct option is 1

Calculation:

$\frac{4913+343}{289+49-119}$

⇒ 5256 / 219 = 24

 The correct option is 1

Shortcut Trick

Using the constant work rule: M₁ × D₁ = M₂ × D₂

69 × 20 = M₂ × 12

Total workers required (M₂) = 1380 ÷ 12 = 115

Additional workers needed = 115 − 69 = 46

∴ The correct answer is 46 workers.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial number of workers (M₁) = 69

Initial number of days (D₁) = 20

Target number of days (D₂) = 12

Formula Used:

Since the total work remains constant, we use the formula: M₁ × D₁ = M₂ × D₂

Calculation:

⇒ Total work in man-days = 69 × 20

⇒ Total work = 1380 units

⇒ Let M₂ be the total number of workers required to complete the work in 12 days.

⇒ M₂ × 12 = 1380

⇒ M₂ = 1380 ÷ 12

⇒ M₂ = 115 workers

⇒ The contractor already has 69 workers.

⇒ Number of more workers needed = Total required workers − Initial workers

⇒ Number of more workers = 115 − 69

⇒ Number of more workers = 46

∴ The correct answer is 46 workers.

Additional Information

MDH Rule (Chain Rule)

The generalized formula for man-days calculations is (M₁ × D₁ × H₁) ÷ W₁ = (M₂ × D₂ × H₂) ÷ W₂, where M = Men, D = Days, H = Hours, and W = Work.

Time and Efficiency Relationship

Time taken to complete a specific task is inversely proportional to the efficiency or the number of workers. More workers mean fewer days required.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in direct proportion to the amount of total work completed by the individual, or in the ratio of their efficiencies if everyone works for an equal number of days.

Calculation:

Let the value of

P = 0 Q = 1 R = -1

By putting the value of P, Q, R in the equation,

${\left(\frac{p^2}{p^2-qr}+\frac{q^2}{q^2-pr}+\frac{r^2}{r^2-pq}{}\right)}$

⇒ 0 + 1 / 1 + 0 + 1 / 1 - 0 = 1 + 1 

⇒ 2

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

​${\left(z+\frac{1}{Z}\right)}=4$

​

Concept used:

 a² + b² = (a + b)² - 2ab

Calculation: 

 z² + 1/z² = (z + 1/z)² - 2 

⇒ 4² - 2 = 14

$\frac{1}{2}{\left(z^2+\frac{1}{z^2}\right)}$ = 1/2 × 14

⇒ 7 ​

​

∴ The correct option is 3

Calculation:

Total marks of geography is 100

So to obtain 70% one has to secure 70

So , Rohit , Muskan , Tanvi and Tarun got more than 70

Total number of people will be 4

Calculation:

As we know 100 % = 360° 

Then 15% = (360 / 100) × 15

⇒ 54° 

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

Cot B = 15 /8

Calculation:

Let Base is 15 and height is 8 

Then hypotaneous will be √15² + 8² = 17

So Sec B + Tan B = 17 / 15 + 8 /15

⇒ 25 /15 = 5/3

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

 Discount = 40%,  loss = 30% .

Concept used:

Market price - Discount = selling price

Calculation: 

As per the question,

Market price × 60 = Cost price × 70

Market price / Cost price = 7 / 6 

So market price is (7 - 6 )/ 6 × 100

= $16\frac{2}{3}$% more than cost price 

∴ The correct option is 3

Calculation:

The average weight will be,

⇒ (50000 × 6 + 20000 × 5 + 10000 × 8) / 19 = Rs. 25,263.16 (nearly)

 ∴ The correct option is 4

The correct answer is: No sooner did she shout

Key Points

• The use of "shouted" in the original sentence is grammatically incorrect because the past tense marker "did" already indicates the tense, and we use the base form of the verb after it.
• "No sooner" is a correlative conjunction that is used in conjunction with "than" to express that one action or event happens immediately after another.
• The correct past tense usage after "No sooner" is the simple past tense.
• Example: No sooner did the students finish their exams than they began planning a celebratory trip.
• In this case, "did she shout" is the correct form, where "did" is an auxiliary verb used for emphasis in a past tense sentence, and "shout" is the base form of the verb.
• Therefore, the correct sentence is: No sooner did she shout, than the thieves ran away leaving all the jewellery on the table.
• This construction ensures proper grammar and maintains the intended meaning of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is: He never solves mathematical problems daily

Key Points

• In passive voice, the focus is on the action itself, and the person or thing performing the action mentioned after the action.
• The structure for a passive voice sentence is: Object + be verb + V3 + by + doer
• Example: This beautiful mural was painted by someone.
• To convert this into active voice, we need to identify the doer of the action (the subject) and place it at the beginning of the sentence.
• The structure for an active voice sentence is: Subject + Verb + Object.
• Example: Someone painted this beautiful mural.
• In the active voice, the doer of the action, is "He."
• The main verb in the passive sentence is "are solved," and in the active voice, we use the corresponding active verb, which is "solves."
• In the active voice, the object remains the same, "mathematical problems."
• In the active sentence, adverbial phrase is expressed as "never" and "daily" to maintain the intended meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is: colleages

Key Points

• The error in the given sentence is in the word "colleages."
• The correct spelling is "colleagues."
• Colleagues refer to people who work together or share a common profession or workplace. (सहकर्मी) 
• Example: John works with Mary and James at the same company. They are his colleagues.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Corrected sentence: My colleagues have lacked the conscience needed to be morally correct on this grave issue.

Additional Information

• Conscience: An inner sense of what is right or wrong in one's conduct, often acting as a guide for ethical decision-making. (सद्सद्विवेक)
• Morally: An adverb that relates to or concerns moral principles, ethics, or matters of right and wrong. (नैतिक रूप से)
• Grave: Serious, weighty, or important, especially in a moral or significant sense. (संगीन)

The correct answer is: When Mayank came

Key Points

• The error in the original sentence is in the verb tense agreement.
• The issue is that the past tense "came" in this segment conflicts with the use of the future tense "shall go" in the following segment.
• In this case, "comes" is appropriate.
• This suggests that whenever "Mayank comes" as a regular occurrence or in the future.
• In conditional statements, especially those expressing future conditions, use "comes" in the if-clause to indicate a possible future event.
• So, the correct sentence would be: When Mayank comes, I shall go with him to the circus.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: To endure a painful situation

Key Points

• The idiom "Bite the bullet" means to endure a painful or difficult situation with courage and resilience. (किसी दर्दनाक या कठिन परिस्थिति को साहस और लचीलेपन के साथ सहन करना)
• It is often used to describe facing a challenging or unpleasant task or situation with bravery and fortitude.
• Example: Even though the surgery was daunting, Tom had to bite the bullet and go through with it to improve his health.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is: Graceful

Key Points

• Awkward refers to a lack of ease or grace in movement, action, or appearance. (अजीब)
• Example: He felt awkward at the party because he didn't know anyone.
• Marked option Graceful describes someone or something characterized by beauty of form, manner, movement, or expression. (शोभायमान)
• Example: The dancer's movements were graceful as she glided across the stage.
• Hence, it is clear that the most appropriate antonym for 'awkward' is 'graceful'.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Meaningful refers to something that has significance, purpose, or importance. (अर्थपूर्ण)
• Innocent describes someone or something that is free from guilt, wrongdoing, or sin. (मासूम)
• Huge describes something that is extremely large in size, extent, or degree. (विशाल)

The correct answer is: Gloomy

Key Points

• Jubilant refers to a feeling of great joy, happiness, or triumph. (आनंद करनेवाला)
• Example: The team was jubilant after winning the championship, celebrating with cheers and smiles.
• Marked option Gloomy describes a dark, dismal, or depressing atmosphere. (विषादपूर्ण)
• Example: The sky became gloomy as thick clouds gathered, and a sense of sadness enveloped the town.
• Hence. the most appropriate antonym for 'jubilant' is 'gloomy'.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Triumphant refers to a feeling of victory, success, or achievement. (विजयी)
• Cryptic describes something that is mysterious, obscure, or difficult to understand. (गुप्त)
• Elated means extremely happy, joyful, or uplifted. (उल्लसित)

The correct answer is: rains a lot in

Key Points

• The original sentence uses the phrase "is raining a lot in," which is grammatically incorrect.
• The correction "rains a lot in" simplifies the structure while maintaining proper verb agreement.
• "Rains" is in the present tense, which aligns with the ongoing or habitual nature of rainfall in April and May.
• The phrase "rains a lot in" is concise and clear, effectively conveying the idea that there is a significant amount of rainfall during April and May.
• The corrected sentence would be: It rains a lot in April and May, but the summer is very dry.

​Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is: Conformist

Key Points

• A conformist is a person who willingly complies with established customs, practices, or societal norms. (एक व्यक्ति जो स्वेच्छा से स्थापित रीति-रिवाजों, प्रथाओं या सामाजिक मानदंडों का अनुपालन करता है)
• Conformists tend to follow traditional or mainstream behaviour and avoid deviating from accepted standards.
• Example: She was seen as a conformist because she adhered to the dress code and social norms without questioning or challenging them.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• A psychologist is a professional who studies the human mind, behaviour, and mental processes. (मनोविज्ञानी)
• A socialist is an advocate or supporter of socialism, an economic and political system advocating for collective or government ownership and control of the means of production and distribution of wealth. (समाजवादी)
• Rebelist refers to someone who rebels against authority or established norms. (विद्रोही)

The correct answer is: Fertile

Key Points

• Barren refers to land or soil that is unproductive, infertile, or unable to support the growth of plants. (अनुपजाऊ)
• Example: The barren desert had little vegetation and scarce resources.
• Marked option Fertile describes land or soil that is capable of producing abundant vegetation or crops. (उपजाऊ)
• Example: The fertile soil in the valley yielded a rich harvest of crops every year.
• So, the most appropriate antonym for 'barren' is 'fertile'.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Sterile refers to a condition of being free from living microorganisms or unable to produce offspring. (जीवाणुरहित)
• Unforgiving describes someone or something that is unwilling to pardon or show mercy. (क्षमा न करने वाला" or "निर्दयी)
• Damp refers to a state of slight wetness or moisture. (नमी)

The correct answer is "Phenomenon". 

Key Points

• "Phenomenon" is a singular noun that refers to an observable event or a fact that can be scientifically described or explained.
• The correct spelling follows the phonetic and etymological rules of English, derived from Greek, where "ph" is used instead of "f," and the proper arrangement of vowels follows the "e-o" pattern after the consonant "n."
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Additional Information

• Phinomina: This option is incorrectly spelled and does not represent any recognized English word.
• Fenomena: This option attempts to mimic the correct pronunciation but fails to adhere to the standard English spelling conventions.
• Phynamena: This option also does not match the correct spelling, demonstrating a misunderstanding of the word's phonetic structure.