SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 30 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Say Good Luck to someone.

Key Points

• The idiom "Break a leg" is commonly used to wish someone good luck before they perform or attempt something. (शुभकामनाएं देना)
• Example: Before her big performance, her friends said, "Break a leg!" to encourage her.
• The highlighted idiom does not literally mean to break a leg but is instead a way of expressing encouragement and well-wishing. (हिंदी में: शुभकामनाएं देने के लिए इस्तेमाल किया जाता है)
• Example: "Break a leg! You'll do great in your interview."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Say Good Luck to someone.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: Ask someone not to go for a task (किसी को काम करने से मना करना)
• Example: This option is incorrect as "Break a leg" does not mean to discourage or stop someone.
• Option 3: Say Bad Luck to someone (किसी को दुर्भाग्य की कामना करना)
• Example: This option is incorrect because the idiom "Break a leg" conveys good luck, not bad luck.
• Option 4: Not saying anything to someone (किसी से कुछ भी न कहना)
• Example: This option is incorrect because "Break a leg" is a phrase actively used to wish someone good luck.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Take risks.

Key Points

• The phrase "throw caution to the wind" means:
• To act in a reckless manner, without worrying about the risks or possible negative outcomes. (बिना किसी चिंता के जोखिम लेना या संभावित नकारात्मक परिणामों के बारे में अन्यथा सोचना)
• Example: She decided to throw caution to the wind and invested all her savings in the new startup.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured him a perfect score.

Therefore, the phrase "throw caution to the wind" in the given context means: Take risks.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Ignore the situation (स्थिति को नजरअंदाज करना): To deliberately avoid dealing with or paying attention to a particular situation.
• Example: It is not advisable to ignore the situation when serious problems arise.
• Playing safe (सुरक्षित खेलना): To act in a cautious and risk-averse manner to avoid potential problems or dangers.
• Example: In uncertain times, it is often better to play safe with your investments.
• Take a meeting and ask for everyone's input (एक बैठक करना और सभी से राय पूछना): To hold a discussion involving all relevant parties to gather opinions or suggestions.
• Example: Before making a final decision, the manager decided to take a meeting and ask for everyone's input.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's break down each sentence to identify the grammatically correct and incorrect ones:

• A. Mitali's hair is long and black.
• When referring to all the hair on a person's head, "hair" is an uncountable noun and takes a singular verb.
• This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
• B. Either of the alternatives seem to present major difficulties.
• The word "Either" is a distributive pronoun that always acts as a singular subject. Therefore, it requires a singular verb ("seems").
• The sentence is erroneous because "seem" is the plural form of the verb.
• The correct sentence would be: "Either of the alternatives seems to present major difficulties."
• C. One of the cars in the garage is fifty years old.
• In the phrase "One of the [plural noun]," the subject is "One," which is singular. The verb "is" correctly agrees with "One."
• This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
• D. Sharon has six brothers.
• The singular subject "Sharon" is correctly paired with the singular verb "has."
• This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
• So, out of the given options, sentence 2 is the only grammatically incorrect sentence.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2."

The correct answer is 'about'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "about" is used when inquiring or asking for information related to a topic, subject, or situation.
• In the given sentence, the detective is asking for information regarding the suspect's whereabouts during the investigation, which makes "about" the most appropriate choice.
• Option 1 (of) is incorrect as it implies possession or association, which is not suitable here.
• Option 2 (for) is incorrect as it is typically used to indicate purpose or intention, which does not fit the context.
• Option 4 (to) is incorrect as it is used to indicate direction or movement, which is irrelevant in this sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "The detective inquired about the suspect's whereabouts during the investigation."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "of" is incorrect as it implies belonging or connection, not inquiry.
• Option 2: "for" is incorrect because it implies seeking something for a purpose, which does not match the context of asking for information.
• Option 4: "to" is incorrect as it implies direction, movement, or relation, which does not apply here.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Power.

Key Points

• The word "Clout" means influence or power, especially in a political or social context. (प्रभाव, शक्ति)
• Example: His political clout helped him secure the funding for the project.
• "Power" refers to the ability or capacity to do something or act in a particular way, or the ability to control or influence others. (शक्ति)
• Example: The CEO has significant power to make decisions that impact the company.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'Clout' is 'Power'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Power.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Weakness (कमज़ोरी): Lack of strength or influence.
• Example: His weakness in math made it difficult for him to pass the exam.
• Unimportance (महत्त्वहीनता): Lack of significance or value.
• Example: The unimportance of the issue was evident in the lack of discussion about it.
• Failure (असफलता): Lack of success in achieving a goal.
• Example: The failure of the project resulted in financial losses for the company.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Unanimous.

Key Points

• Unanimous means "fully in agreement or united in opinion".
• The word "unanimous" comes from the Latin word "unanimus," which translates to "one-minded."
• Correct spelling is essential for clear communication, and "Unanimous" is widely used in contexts of agreement, decision-making, or voting.

Example Sentence:

• The committee was unanimous in its decision to approve the new policy.

Additional Information

• Incorrect options:
• Option 1 - Unlanimous: Misspelled version of "Unanimous."
• Option 3 - Uninamous: Another misspelled version of "Unanimous."
• Option 4 - Unanimus: Incorrect spelling that drops the "o."

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The correctly spelt word is 'Aberrant'.

• Meaning of Aberrant: deviating from the usual or natural type; atypical or abnormal behavior.
• Usage: The scientist noticed aberrant data in the results of the experiment.
• The other options ('Abberant', 'Abberrent', 'Abberrant') are misspelled versions of the word.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Aberrant'.

Additional Information

Other related words:

• Deviant: Someone or something deviating from an established norm.
• Anomalous: Something that is irregular or abnormal.

The correct answer is 'about the matter'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "about the matter" is the correct preposition usage in this context.
• The word "upset" typically pairs with "about" to express concern or unhappiness regarding a specific topic.
• Options 1 ("on the matter") and 3 ("for the matter") are grammatically incorrect in this context.
• Option 4 ("No substitution") is incorrect because the sentence requires improvement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "He is upset about the matter."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "on the matter" is incorrect because "on" is not the standard preposition for the verb "upset" in this context.
• Option 3: "for the matter" is incorrect; "for" does not appropriately express concern or unhappiness here.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the sentence can be improved by using the correct preposition "about."

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. "The magician will deal out the cards for the trick."

Key Points

• The word "deal" has multiple meanings, making it a homonym. In English, "deal" can mean an agreement or transaction, or the act of distributing something. (समझौता या बांटना)
• Example 1: Transaction: He offered a great deal on the used car. (The word "deal" here refers to a transaction or bargain.)
• Example 2: Distribution: The magician will deal out the cards for the trick. (The word "deal" here refers to the act of distributing or handing out cards.)
• In Option 2, "deal" refers to the act of distributing cards, which is a homonym of the highlighted usage in the question.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. "The magician will deal out the cards for the trick."

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: "The two countries signed a new trade deal."
• Meaning: Here, "deal" refers to an agreement or contract made between two parties. (समझौता)
• Example: The two countries signed a new trade deal to improve economic relations.
• Option 3: "I found a great deal on airline tickets."
• Meaning: Here, "deal" refers to a bargain or a good price for a product or service. (सौदा)
• Example: I found a great deal on airline tickets for my vacation.
• Option 4: "The business deal was finalized this morning."
• Meaning: Here, "deal" refers to a finalized agreement or negotiation between business parties. (व्यवसायिक समझौता)
• Example: The business deal was finalized this morning after lengthy discussions.

The correct answer is 'Crop rotation'.

 

Key Points

• The passage highlights a principle where crops are rotated to maintain soil quality and reduce reliance on chemical fertilizers.
• This practice is technically known as "Crop rotation", which directly matches the description given in the passage.
• Other options like "Crop diversity" or "Soil fertility" are related concepts but do not fit the specific definition of rotating crops.
• Therefore, "Crop rotation" is the most appropriate choice for blank number 1.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: Sustainable farming is meant to satisfy current needs without hurting the potential of future generations to supply food. This method focuses on practices that reduce environmental degradation while sustaining productivity. One of its main principles is Crop rotation , where crops are rotated to maintain soil quality and prevent the necessity of chemical fertilizers. Another key feature is water management. Effective irrigation systems can avert waste and make sure that water resources are responsibly used. Farmers also use (2)__________ practices, e.g., planting cover crops, to avert erosion and preserve biodiversity.

 

Additional Information

• Crop diversity: Refers to growing different types of crops but does not imply rotation.
• Plant growth: Too general and does not address soil management.
• Soil fertility: This is the outcome of crop rotation, not the principle itself.

The correct answer is 'Conservation'.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions practices like planting cover crops to avert erosion and preserve biodiversity.
• Such practices are best described as "Conservation" since they focus on protecting natural resources and maintaining ecological balance.
• Other options like "Sustainable" are too broad and already implied by the overall theme of sustainable farming.
• "Ecological" and "Preventative" do not specifically capture the idea of resource preservation.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Passage: Sustainable farming is meant to satisfy current needs without hurting the potential of future generations to supply food. This method focuses on practices that reduce environmental degradation while sustaining productivity. One of its main principles is Crop rotation, where crops are rotated to maintain soil quality and prevent the necessity of chemical fertilizers. Another key feature is water management. Effective irrigation systems can avert waste and make sure that water resources are responsibly used. Farmers also use Conservation practices, e.g., planting cover crops, to avert erosion and preserve biodiversity.

 

Additional Information

• Sustainable: Too general, already implied by the theme of sustainable farming.
• Ecological: Relates to the environment but does not emphasize preservation of resources.
• Preventative: Suggests avoiding harm but lacks the focus on conserving biodiversity and soil.

The correct answer is 'Profits'.

 

Key Points

• The passage states that by minimising dependency on costly inputs, farmers can save money and enhance their (3)__________.
• The most logical word here is "Profits", since saving money directly increases financial gains.
• "Yields" refers to crop output, but the sentence is about reducing costs, not production volume.
• "Sustainability" is the overall theme of the passage, but it does not fit grammatically in this specific context.
• "Welfare" relates to social well-being, which is mentioned later in the passage, not in this financial context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: Sustainable farming is meant to satisfy current needs without hurting the potential of future generations to supply food. This method focuses on practices that reduce environmental degradation while sustaining productivity. One of its main principles is Crop rotation, where crops are rotated to maintain soil quality and prevent the necessity of chemical fertilizers. Another key feature is water management. Effective irrigation systems can avert waste and make sure that water resources are responsibly used. Farmers also use Conservation practices, e.g., planting cover crops, to avert erosion and preserve biodiversity.

Sustainable agriculture is not solely concerned with environmental yields; it also supports economic and social objectives. By minimising dependency on costly inputs, farmers can save money and enhance their Profits . Furthermore, encouraging equitable labour practices means that employees are treated fairly and paid accordingly.

 

Additional Information

• Yields: Refers to crop output, not financial savings.
• Sustainability: Too broad and thematic, not specific to financial improvement.
• Welfare: Relates to social well-being, not monetary gains.

The correct answer is 'Individuals'.

 

Key Points

• The passage states that governments, organisations, and (4)__________ must work together to overcome obstacles in sustainable agriculture.
• The most logical word here is "Individuals", since collaboration requires active participation from people alongside institutions.
• "Schools" and "Builders" do not fit the context of agricultural cooperation.
• "Children" are not relevant in this context of policy and resource management.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: Sustainable farming is meant to satisfy current needs without hurting the potential of future generations to supply food. This method focuses on practices that reduce environmental degradation while sustaining productivity. One of its main principles is Crop rotation, where crops are rotated to maintain soil quality and prevent the necessity of chemical fertilizers. Another key feature is water management. Effective irrigation systems can avert waste and make sure that water resources are responsibly used. Farmers also use Conservation practices, e.g., planting cover crops, to avert erosion and preserve biodiversity.

Sustainable agriculture is not solely concerned with environmental yields; it also supports economic and social objectives. By minimising dependency on costly inputs, farmers can save money and enhance their Profits. Furthermore, encouraging equitable labour practices means that employees are treated fairly and paid accordingly.

While it has its perks, sustainable agriculture has its drawbacks too, such as resistance to innovation and a lack of resources. To overcome these obstacles, governments, organisations, and Individuals must work together. By adopting sustainable practices, we can create a food system that is robust and (5)__________.

 

Additional Information

• Schools: Not relevant in the context of agricultural collaboration.
• Builders: Associated with construction, not farming or sustainability.
• Children: Do not fit the context of policy and cooperative efforts.

The correct answer is 'Resilient'.

 

Key Points

• The passage concludes by stating that adopting sustainable practices can create a food system that is robust and (5)__________.
• The word "Resilient" perfectly complements "robust," as it conveys strength, adaptability, and the ability to withstand challenges.
• Options like "Vulnerable", "Weak", and "Fragile" contradict the positive tone of the passage and do not align with the idea of a strong food system.
• Thus, "Resilient" is the most appropriate choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Passage: Sustainable farming is meant to satisfy current needs without hurting the potential of future generations to supply food. This method focuses on practices that reduce environmental degradation while sustaining productivity. One of its main principles is Crop rotation, where crops are rotated to maintain soil quality and prevent the necessity of chemical fertilizers. Another key feature is water management. Effective irrigation systems can avert waste and make sure that water resources are responsibly used. Farmers also use Conservation practices, e.g., planting cover crops, to avert erosion and preserve biodiversity.

Sustainable agriculture is not solely concerned with environmental yields; it also supports economic and social objectives. By minimising dependency on costly inputs, farmers can save money and enhance their Profits. Furthermore, encouraging equitable labour practices means that employees are treated fairly and paid accordingly.

While it has its perks, sustainable agriculture has its drawbacks too, such as resistance to innovation and a lack of resources. To overcome these obstacles, governments, organisations, and Individuals must work together. By adopting sustainable practices, we can create a food system that is robust and Resilient .

 

Additional Information

• Vulnerable: Suggests weakness, opposite of "robust."
• Weak: Contradicts the intended positive outcome of sustainable practices.
• Fragile: Implies delicacy and instability, not suitable in this context.

The correct answer is: Directness.

Key Points

• The word "Euphemism" refers to the use of polite or mild expressions to replace harsh or unpleasant words. (शिष्ट शब्दावली)
• Example: Saying "passed away" is a euphemism for "died."
• "Directness" refers to the quality of being straightforward and explicit without using subtle or polite expressions. (सपष्टता)
• Example: His directness in addressing the issue was appreciated by everyone.
• Hence, the antonym of 'Euphemism' is 'Directness'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Directness.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Ambiguity (अस्पष्टता): The quality of being unclear or open to multiple interpretations.
• Example: The ambiguity in his answer made it difficult to understand his actual intentions.
• Politeness (शिष्टता): The quality of showing good manners or being respectful.
• Example: She thanked her guests with great politeness.
• Formality (औपचारिकता): Adherence to conventional rules or etiquette.
• Example: The meeting was conducted with a high degree of formality.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• The sentence in option 2 contains the misspelled word "critiqe".
• The correct spelling is "critique", which refers to a detailed analysis or assessment of something.
• In all other options, the word "critique" is spelled correctly.

Correct sentence: The film received a thoughtful critique from several renowned reviewers.

Additional Information

• Definition of "Critique": A detailed analysis or assessment of something, especially a literary, philosophical, or political theory.
• Examples:
• The professor’s critique of the research paper was insightful.
• An honest critique helps to improve one’s work.
• Synonyms: Review, analysis, assessment, evaluation.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Active voice structure: The subject performs the action directly on the object.
• In the passive voice, the sentence was: "The evidence could not have been overlooked by an experienced detective, a fact that was later emphasized."
• To convert to active voice: Place the original subject "an experienced detective" at the beginning.
• Change the passive verb phrase "could not have been overlooked" to "could not have overlooked" (active voice structure).
• Ensure the rest of the sentence remains intact, including "a fact that was later emphasized" for clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "An experienced detective could not have overlooked the evidence, a fact that was later emphasized."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "The evidence could not overlook an experienced detective." – Incorrect because the object "evidence" cannot perform the action.
• Option 3: "An experienced detective could not overlook the evidence." – Incorrect because it omits "a fact that was later emphasized," changing the meaning.
• Option 4: "The evidence was not overlooked by an experienced detective, a fact that was later emphasized." – This is the original passive voice sentence, not active voice.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the passive voice.
• To convert it into the active voice, the subject performing the action must be identified and placed at the beginning of the sentence.
• In this case, the subject performing the action is "someone" or "they," as implied by the context.
• The active form of the sentence should follow the structure: "[Subject] + [verb] + [object]."
• The correct active voice structure for this sentence is: "They believed someone had seen the suspect near the crime scene."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "They believed someone had seen the suspect near the crime scene."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Someone believed that the suspect was seen near the crime scene." – Although plausible, it alters the original meaning slightly by emphasizing "someone."
• Option 3: "The suspect was seen near the crime scene, it was believed." – This is still in passive voice and does not follow the active voice structure.
• Option 4: "People believed that someone had seen the suspect near the crime scene." – This introduces "people," which changes the subject unnecessarily.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: He said that he would be travelling the following month.
• Key Conversions:
• "I will be travelling" becomes "he would be travelling"
• The pronoun "I" is changed to "he" to match the subject in the indirect speech.
• The modal verb "will" is changed to "would" to reflect the past tense reporting.
• "next month" becomes "the following month"
• Time expressions are changed in indirect speech to reflect their relative context.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Quotation marks are removed in indirect speech.
• The sentence is restructured to maintain the meaning and grammatical accuracy.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "He said that he would be travelling the following month."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "He said that he will be travelling the next month."
• Incorrect: "will" is not changed to "would" as required in indirect speech.
• Option 3: "He said that he would have been travelling the following month."
• Incorrect: "would have been travelling" changes the meaning to a past hypothetical scenario, which does not match the original sentence.
• Option 4: "He said that he was travelling next month."
• Incorrect: "was travelling" does not match the original future tense of the sentence.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Idiosyncracy'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Idiosyncrasy'.
• The word 'Idiosyncrasy' is a noun which means 'a mode of behavior or way of thought peculiar to an individual'. (विशिष्टता)
• For Example -
• Her habit of humming while working is just one of her idiosyncrasies.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Idiosyncrasy'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Miscellaneous - consisting of a variety of different things or types (विविध)
• Exhilarate - make someone feel very happy, animated, or elated (उल्लासित करना)
• Surreptitious - kept secret, especially because it would not be approved of (गुप्त)

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: The teacher asked the students if they had finished their homework.
• Key Conversions:
• "if they had finished" becomes "Have you finished"
• Indirect question "if they had finished" is converted to direct question "Have you finished."
• Pronoun "they" is changed to "you" to match direct speech.
• Reporting verb:
• Indirect: "asked"
• Converted to: "said to," maintaining the context of addressing the students.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks.
• Starts with a capital letter "Have" and ends with a question mark "?".
• Reporting clause follows the quoted speech, starting with a lowercase letter after the comma.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "The teacher said to the students, 'Have you finished your homework?'"

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "The teacher said to the students, 'Did you finish your homework?'"
• Changes the tense from present perfect "Have you finished" to simple past "Did you finish," altering the meaning.
• Option 3: "The teacher said to the students, 'Have you finished their homework?'"
• Pronoun "their" is incorrect, as it does not match the direct speech context.
• Option 4: "The teacher said to the students, 'Had you finished your homework?'"
• Changes the tense to past perfect "Had you finished," which is inconsistent with the original sentence.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the active voice, the sentence is: "They must have taken the intricate artifacts from the museum's security vault with great care."
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object "the intricate artifacts" at the beginning.
• Change the active verb form "must have taken" to "must have been taken" (perfect modal passive).
• Retain the prepositional phrase "with great care" and "from the museum's security vault" for clarity.
• Ensure the sentence structure remains logical and grammatically correct in passive voice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "The intricate artifacts must have been taken with great care from the museum's security vault."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "The intricate artifacts had to be taken with great care from the museum's security vault." – Incorrect as it changes the modal verb "must" to "had to," altering the meaning.
• Option 3: "It must have been the intricate artifacts that were taken from the museum's security vault with great care." – Wordy and indirect, not the best passive transformation.
• Option 4: "The intricate artifacts should have been taken from the museum's security vault with great care." – Incorrect as it changes the modal verb "must" to "should," altering the meaning.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. cite, site.

Key Points

• The word "cite" means to refer to or quote a source for information or evidence. (उल्लेख करना)
• Example: The researcher was careful to cite all references in her paper.
• The word "site" refers to a location, place, or area, often where an event occurs or something is situated. (स्थान)
• Example: The construction site was inspected by the engineers before the work began.
• Hence, in the given sentence, "cite" is used to indicate referencing sources, and "site" is used to refer to the location of those sources.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. cite, site.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: sight, site (दृष्टि, स्थान)
• "Sight" refers to the ability to see or something that is seen. (दृष्टि)
• Example: The sight of the mountains was breathtaking.
• "Site" refers to a location or place, as explained above. (स्थान)
• Example: They visited the historical site during their trip.
• However, this pair does not fit the sentence meaningfully.
• Option 2: site, cite (स्थान, उल्लेख करना)
• This pair reverses the correct order of "cite, site" and does not align with the intended meaning of the sentence.
• Option 3: cite, sight (उल्लेख करना, दृष्टि)
• "Sight" refers to vision or the ability to see, as explained above. (दृष्टि)
• This pair does not fit the context of the sentence, as "sight" is unrelated to the idea of location.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Serious.

Key Points

• The word "grim" refers to something stern, serious, or forbidding in appearance or demeanor. It is often associated with a sense of severity or harshness. (गंभीर/कठोर)
• Example: The soldier's grim expression revealed the gravity of the situation.
• "Serious" is the closest word in meaning to "grim" as it also conveys a sense of being solemn or grave. (गंभीर)
• Example: His serious tone made everyone pay attention to the issue at hand.
• Hence, the correct answer is 'Serious'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Serious.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Relaxed (आरामदायक): Free from tension or anxiety; calm and easy-going.
• Example: After finishing the project, she felt relaxed and happy.
• Joyful (आनंदमय): Feeling, expressing, or causing great happiness or delight.
• Example: The children were joyful during the birthday celebration.
• Content (संतुष्ट): A state of being satisfied or at peace with one's situation.
• Example: He was content with his life and had no complaints.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. A person who is believed to be involved in a crime.

Key Points

• The word "Suspect" refers to someone who is believed to have committed or participated in a crime or unlawful act. (संदिग्ध व्यक्ति)
• Example: The police questioned the suspect after finding evidence at the crime scene.
• In legal contexts, a suspect is not proven guilty but is under investigation or suspicion. (संदेह के घेरे में व्यक्ति)
• Example: The suspect denied all allegations made against him.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. A person who is believed to be involved in a crime.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: A person who believes in something without proof (बिना सबूत के कुछ मानने वाला व्यक्ति)
• Example: A person who believes in conspiracy theories often accepts ideas without proof.
• Option 3: A person who investigates crimes (अपराधों की जांच करने वाला व्यक्ति)
• Example: The detective worked tirelessly to solve the murder case.
• Option 4: A person who has been wrongly accused (जिसे गलत तरीके से आरोपी बनाया गया हो)
• Example: The wrongly accused man was later proven innocent in court.

 

• Qualities projected in this situation: (Analytical Thinking, Strategic Planning, and Decision Making)

The correct answer is "option (3)".

Additional Information

To maximize total funds, it is essential to balance ticket pricing with expected attendance. This ensures neither price nor participation negatively impacts overall revenue.

 

Given Statement: A study shows that people who regularly eat breakfast tend to have lower rates of obesity and other health problems.

Inferences:

I. Skipping breakfast causes obesity and other health problems - Not Implicit (The statement only shows a correlation, not a direct cause-and-effect relationship.)

II. Eating breakfast regularly can prevent obesity and other health problems - Implicit (Since regular breakfast eaters have lower rates, it reasonably suggests a preventive benefit.)

III. People who are obese should stop eating breakfast - Not Implicit (This is opposite to the given information and not supported by the statement.)

Here, only inference II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Statement: The government has announced a new tax policy that will increase taxes on luxury goods.

Inferences:

I. The government wants to discourage people from buying luxury goods - Not implicit (While higher taxes may lead to decreased consumption, the statement does not explicitly confirm that "discouragement" is the primary goal of the policy).

II. The government wants to generate more revenue through taxes - Implicit (Higher taxes generally aim to increase government revenue.)

III. The government is trying to address income inequality by targeting luxury goods - Not Implicit (This is a possible objective but not directly stated or necessarily implied in the statement.)

If only II follows

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Pattern followed here is,

Y - 2 = W

W - 2 = U

U - 2 = S

S - 2 = Q

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

According to the given information,

Statement: B @ H, H $ N, N % F

On converting: B < H, H ≤ N, N = F → B < H ≤ N = F

Conclusions:

I. F © H → F ≥ H → True (As F = N and H ≤ N, therefore F ≥ H).

II. N * B → N > B → True (As B < H ≤ N, therefore N > B).

If both conclusion I and II are true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is,

42 + 13 = 55

55 + 15 = 70

70 + 17 = 87

87 + 19 = 106

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here is,

4 + 3  = 7

7 + 6 = 13

13 + 12 = 25

25 + 24 = 49

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given Series: 4, 14, 64, 314, ?

Pattern followed here is,

4 × 5 - 6 = 20 - 6 = 14

14 × 5 - 6 = 70 - 6 = 64

64 × 5 - 6 = 320 - 6 = 314

314 × 5 - 6 = 1570 - 6 = 1564

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Concept Used: Mode of operation (surface vs underwater)

Here, Hovercraft, Canoe, and Catamaran operate on or above the water surface.

Whereas, Submersible operates underwater.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Additional Information 

Concept Used: Classification based on chemical composition

Here, Charcoal, Diamond, and Graphite are all forms (allotropes) of carbon.

Whereas, Silver is a metal element.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Additional Information

Logic followed here is,

50 + 9 = 59

59 - 10 = 49

49 + 9 = 58

58 - 10 = 48

48 + 9 = 57

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Statements:

25% Hit are Hop

Some Pop are Hit

Some Pop are Rock

Leat possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

I. Some Hop are Rock → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between Hop and Rock. so, it is possible not definite).

II. No Hit are Rock → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between Hit and Rock. so, it is possible not definite)

Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Series: mn_ omnn _ _ nn_

(1) mono → mnmo/mnno/nnno

(2) nomo → mnno/mnno/mnno (Repeat pattern mnno)

(3) nmmo → mnno/mnnm/mnno

(4) nnmo → mnno/mnnn/mnno

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:  G _ _ L K _ _ S P _ _ U G S _ _ K U

(1) P, S, U, G, L, K, P, L

G P S L K U/ G S P L K U/ G S P L K U

(2) S, P, U, L, G, K, P, L

G S P L K U/ L S P G K U/ G S P L K U

(3) S, P, U, G, L, K, P, L

G S P L K U/ G S P L K U/ G S P L K U

Repeat the pattern GSPLKU.

(4) S, P, L, G, U, K, P, L

G S P L K L/ G S P U K U/ G S P L K U

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

0 + 3 = 3

3 + 5 = 8

8 + 7 = 15

15 + 9 = 24

24 + 11 = 35

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given: ? : 7309 :: 9935 : 10889 :: 6802 : 7756

Pattern: First number + 954 = Second Number

9935 : 10889 → 

9935 + 954 = 10889

6802 : 7756 → 

6802 + 954 = 7756 

Now apply the same for the missing number:

x + 954 = 7309

x = 7309 − 954 = 6355

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given: 691 : 4834 :: 514 : 3598 :: 927 : ?

Pattern: Number × 7 − 3 (or slight adjustment to match pattern)

691 : 4834 → 

691 × 7 - 3  = 4837 - 3 = 4834

514 : 3595 → 

514 × 7 - 3  = 3598 - 3 = 3595

Apply to 927 : ?

927 × 7 - 3 = 6489 - 3 = 6486

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given: ? : 5230 :: 135 : 1898 :: 410 : 5748

Pattern: First Number × 14 + 8 = Second number

135 : 1898 → 

135 × 14 + 8 = 1890+ 8 = 1898

410 : 5748 → 

410 × 14 + 8  = 5740 + 8 = 5748

Now apply the same for the missing number:

Let the number be x

x × 14 + 8 = 5230

x × 14 = 5230 − 8 = 5222

x = 5222 ÷ 14 = 373

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

(1) 244BR - 488CU

(2) 196KP - 392LS

(3) 148LM - 296MP

(4) 256ZW - 502AZ

 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

(1) TD440 – ZJ630

(2) MW280 – SC460

(3) FE360 – LK550

(4) RI520 – XO710

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic: (First number)² = Second number

(1) 13 – 169

(13)² = 169

(2) 12 – 144

(12)² = 144

(3) 11 – 121

(11)² = 121

(4) 10 – 110

(10)² = 100 ≠ 110

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

SB760 : PY530 →

AR1040 : XO810 →

Similarly,

FK840 : ? →

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

LW72 : UJ215 →

CA93 : YA278 →

Similarly,

FX103 : ? →

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

PN112 : GI392 →

FB84 : UY294 →

Similarly,

AR56 : ? →

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Shortcut Trick

To find the square root of a decimal, first count the number of decimal places.

In 0.16, there are 2 decimal places.

The square root will have half the number of places: 2 ÷ 2 = 1 decimal place.

Now, take the square root of the number as an integer: √16 = 4.

Applying the 1 decimal place to the result, we get 0.4.

∴ The correct answer is 0.4.

Alternate Method

Given: The number is 0.16.

Formula Used: √(a/b) = √a / √b

Calculations:

⇒ Convert the decimal 0.16 into a fraction:

⇒ 0.16 = 16 / 100

⇒ Apply the square root to the fraction:

⇒ √0.16 = √(16 / 100)

⇒ √0.16 = √16 / √100

⇒ Since √16 = 4 and √100 = 10:

⇒ √0.16 = 4 / 10

⇒ √0.16 = 0.4

∴ The correct answer is 0.4.

Additional Information

Square Root of Decimals

The square root of a decimal with 2n places will always result in a number with n decimal places. For example, √0.0016 = 0.04.

Perfect Square Property

If a number ends in 6, its square root must end in either 4 or 6 (e.g., 4×4=16, 6×6=36).

Inverse Operations

Squaring a number and finding the square root are inverse operations. To verify: 0.4² = 0.4 × 0.4 = 0.16.

Given:

111 ×  54

Formula Used:

Multiplication: A × B

Calculation:

⇒ 111 × 5⁴

⇒ 111 × 625

⇒ 69375

∴ The correct answer is 69375.

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = Rs. 200

Loss = 10%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (1 − Loss%)

Calculation:

⇒ SP = 200 × (1 − 10/100)

⇒ SP = 200 × (1 − 0.1)

⇒ SP = 200 × 0.9

⇒ SP = Rs. 180

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 180.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Selling Price (SP) is inversely proportional to the number of items.

Number of items: CP items = 20, SP items = 15

Ratio of CP : SP = 15 : 20 = 3 : 4

Profit % = (Difference / CP ratio) × 100 = (1 / 3) × 100 = 33.33%

∴ The correct answer is 33.33% profit.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) of 15 items = Cost Price (CP) of 20 items

Formula Used:

Profit % = [(SP − CP) / CP] × 100

Let the Cost Price (CP) of 1 item be ₹1.

⇒ CP of 20 items = ₹20

⇒ SP of 15 items = CP of 20 items = ₹20

⇒ CP of 15 items = ₹15

⇒ Profit = SP of 15 items − CP of 15 items

⇒ Profit = 20 − 15 = ₹5

⇒ Profit % = (Profit / CP of 15 items) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (5 / 15) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (1 / 3) × 100 = 33.33%

∴ The correct answer is 33.33% profit.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss on Item Count

When the cost price of 'm' articles is equal to the selling price of 'n' articles, then Profit % = [(m − n) / n] × 100. If the result is negative, it represents a loss.

Base for Percentage

Profit or loss percentage is always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless stated otherwise in the question.

Successive Discount

If two successive discounts of a% and b% are given, the single equivalent discount is [a + b − (a × b / 100)]%.

Shortcut Trick

Consider Cost Price (CP) as 100%.

Since the trader sold the item at a profit of 20%, the Selling Price (SP) is 120% of CP.

SP = 120% of 500 = 1.2 × 500 = 600.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 600.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) of the item = Rs. 500

Profit Percentage = 20%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (100 + Profit%) / 100

Calculations:

⇒ Profit Amount = 20% of 500

⇒ Profit Amount = (20 / 100) × 500

⇒ Profit Amount = 0.2 × 500 = Rs. 100

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) + Profit Amount

⇒ SP = 500 + 100

⇒ SP = 600

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 600.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when SP > CP. Formula: Profit = SP − CP. Loss occurs when CP > SP. Formula: Loss = CP − SP.

Selling Price for Loss

If an item is sold at a loss percentage, then SP = CP × (100 − Loss%) / 100.

Calculating CP from SP

To find the Cost Price when SP and Profit% are known: CP = (SP × 100) / (100 + Profit%).

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 920

Discount = 8%

Formula Used:

Discounted Price = Marked Price × (1 - Discount/100)

Marked Price = Discounted Price ÷ (1 - Discount/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Marked Price = 920 ÷ (1 - 8/100)

⇒ Marked Price = 920 ÷ (1 - 0.08)

⇒ Marked Price = 920 ÷ 0.92

⇒ Marked Price = Rs. 1,000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1,000.

Given:

Original Price = Rs. 2,500

Discount = 20%

Formula Used:

Discount Amount = Original Price × (Discount % ÷ 100)

Selling Price = Original Price - Discount Amount

Calculation:

⇒ Discount Amount = 2,500 × (20 ÷ 100)

⇒ Discount Amount = 2,500 × 0.2

⇒ Discount Amount = Rs. 500

⇒ Selling Price = 2,500 - 500

⇒ Selling Price = Rs. 2,000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 2,000.

Shortcut Trick

Speed is calculated by dividing Distance by Time.

Ratio of Distance to Time = 60 : 1.5

To simplify, multiply both by 2: 120 km in 3 h.

Speed = 120 ÷ 3 = 40 km/h.

∴ The correct answer is 40 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Distance covered by the train = 60 km

Total Time taken = 1.5 h

Formula Used:

Speed (v) = Distance (d) ÷ Time (t)

Calculations:

⇒ Speed = 60 ÷ 1.5

⇒ To remove the decimal from the denominator, multiply both numerator and denominator by 10:

⇒ Speed = (60 × 10) ÷ (1.5 × 10)

⇒ Speed = 600 ÷ 15

⇒ Speed = 40 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 40 km/h.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion

To convert Speed from km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Average Speed

Average Speed = (Total Distance) ÷ (Total Time). For two equal distances with speeds x and y, Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed is the difference (s₁ − s₂). In opposite directions, it is the sum (s₁ + s₂).

Given:

Principal = 6250

Simple Interest = 976.50

Time = 3 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) ÷ 100

Rate = (Simple Interest × 100) ÷ (Principal × Time)

Calculation:

⇒ Rate = (976.50 × 100) ÷ (6250 × 3)

⇒ Rate = 97650 ÷ 18750

⇒ Rate ≈ 5.208

⇒ Rate ≈ 5.21%

∴ The correct answer is 5.21%.

Given:

Principal = 6500

Simple Interest = 1602.00

Time = 4 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) ÷ 100

Rate = (Simple Interest × 100) ÷ (Principal × Time)

Calculation:

⇒ Rate = (1602 × 100) ÷ (6500 × 4)

⇒ Rate = 160200 ÷ 26000

⇒ Rate ≈ 6.1615

⇒ Rate ≈ 6.16%

∴ The correct answer is 6.16%.

Given:

Length of train = 150 m

Length of platform = 350 m

Time taken = 40 seconds

Formula Used:

Total distance = Length of train + Length of platform

Speed = Total distance ÷ Time taken

1 m/s = 18 ÷ 5 km/h

Calculation:

⇒ Total distance = 150 + 350 = 500 m

⇒ Speed in m/s = 500 ÷ 40 = 12.5 m/s

⇒ Speed in km/h = 12.5 × (18 ÷ 5) = 45 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 45 km/h.

Given:

8 workers can build a wall in 10 days.

Number of workers reduced to 4.

Formula Used:

Work is inversely proportional to the number of workers when the total work is constant.

Workers × Days = Constant.

Calculation:

⇒ 8 × 10 = 4 × Days

⇒ 80 = 4 × Days

⇒ Days = 80 ÷ 4

⇒ Days = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20 days.

Given:

Radius = 10 cm

Height = 24 cm

Increase in dimensions = 10%

Formula Used:

Volume of cone = (1 ÷ 3) × π × r² × h

New volume = Original volume × (1.1)³

Calculation:

⇒ Original volume = (1 ÷ 3) × π × 10² × 24

⇒ Original volume = (1 ÷ 3) × π × 100 × 24

⇒ Original volume = 800π

⇒ New volume = 800π × (1.1)³

⇒ New volume = 800π × 1.331

⇒ New volume = 1064.8π

⇒ Increase in volume = 1064.8π − 800π

⇒ Increase = 264.8π

⇒ Percentage increase = (264.8π ÷ 800π) × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = 33.1%

∴ The correct answer is 33.1%.

Given:

Height of the cone (h) = 4 m

Radius of the base (r) = 3 m

Formula Used:

Slant height (l) = √(h² + r²)

Lateral surface area = π × r × l

Calculation:

⇒ l = √(4² + 3²)

⇒ l = √(16 + 9)

⇒ l = √25

⇒ l = 5 m

⇒ Lateral surface area = π × 3 × 5

⇒ Lateral surface area = 15π m²

∴ The correct answer is 15π m².

Given:

Average of Fiction and Non-Fiction = 1275

Average of Non-Fiction and Children's = 1450

Total books = 3900

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of values) ÷ Number of values

Calculation:

⇒ Fiction + Non-Fiction = 1275 × 2 = 2550

⇒ Non-Fiction + Children's = 1450 × 2 = 2900

⇒ (Fiction + Non-Fiction) + (Non-Fiction + Children's) = 2550 + 2900

⇒ Fiction + 2 × Non-Fiction + Children's = 5450

⇒ Total = Fiction + Non-Fiction + Children's = 3900

⇒ Subtracting: (Fiction + 2 × Non-Fiction + Children's) − (Fiction + Non-Fiction + Children's)

⇒ Non-Fiction = 5450 − 3900

⇒ Non-Fiction = 1550

∴ The correct answer is 1550.

Given:

l = 6.5 cm

b = 4.2 cm

h = 12 cm

Formula Used:

Total Surface Area = 2 × (l × b + b × h + l × h)

Calculation:

⇒ l × b = 6.5 × 4.2 = 27.3

⇒ b × h = 4.2 × 12 = 50.4

⇒ l × h = 6.5 × 12 = 78

⇒ Sum = 27.3 + 50.4 + 78 = 155.7

⇒ Total Surface Area = 2 × 155.7 = 311.4 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 311.4 cm².

Given:

A = 30°

B = 60°

Formula Used:

tan θ = opposite ÷ adjacent

cot θ = 1 ÷ tan θ

Calculation:

⇒ tan 30° = 1 ÷ √3

⇒ cot 60° = 1 ÷ tan 60°

⇒ tan 60° = √3

⇒ cot 60° = 1 ÷ √3

⇒ tan A + cot B = 1 ÷ √3 + 1 ÷ √3

⇒ = 2 ÷ √3

⇒ = (2√3) ÷ 3 = 2 ÷ √3

∴ The correct answer is 2 ÷ √3.

Shortcut Trick

Recognize the basic Pythagorean triplet (3, 4, 5) where sin x = Opposite/Hypotenuse = 3/5.

For an acute angle x, the Base is 4.

Determine the ratios: tan x = 3/4 and sec x = 5/4.

Substitute into the expression: 2 × (3/4) + 5/4 = 6/4 + 5/4 = 11/4.

∴ The correct answer is 11/4.

Alternate Method

Given: sin x = 3/5 and x is an acute angle.

Formula Used:

1. sin x = Opposite / Hypotenuse
2. tan x = Opposite / Base
3. sec x = Hypotenuse / Base
4. Base = √(Hypotenuse² − Opposite²)

Calculations:

⇒ Let Opposite = 3 and Hypotenuse = 5.

⇒ Base = √(5² − 3²)

⇒ Base = √(25 − 9) = √16 = 4

⇒ Since x is acute, all ratios are positive.

⇒ tan x = 3 / 4

⇒ sec x = 5 / 4

⇒ Value = 2tan x + sec x

⇒ Value = 2 × (3/4) + (5/4)

⇒ Value = 6/4 + 5/4 = 11/4

∴ The correct answer is 11/4.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Identities

The fundamental identity is sin²x + cos²x = 1. Other derived forms include 1 + tan²x = sec²x and 1 + cot²x = cosec²x.

Pythagorean Triplets

Common triplets include (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), (8, 15, 17), and (7, 24, 25), which are useful for solving competitive exam problems quickly.

Quadrant Signs (ASTC Rule)

In the 1^st Quadrant (Acute), all ratios are positive. In the 2^nd Quadrant, only sin and cosec are positive. In the 3^rd Quadrant, only tan and cot are positive. In the 4^th Quadrant, only cos and sec are positive.

Given:

A₁ = 11760

A₂ = 13320

t = 6

Rate difference = 5%

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × t) ÷ 100

Difference in Amount = (P × Rate difference × t) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ Difference in amount = 13320 − 11760 = 1560

⇒ 1560 = (P × 5 × 6) ÷ 100

⇒ 1560 = (30P) ÷ 100

⇒ 1560 = (3P) ÷ 10

⇒ P = (1560 × 10) ÷ 3

⇒ P = 15600 ÷ 3 = 5200

∴ The correct answer is 5200.

Given:

Total mixture = 35 litres

Initial ratio (milk : water) = 2 : 3

Final ratio (milk : water) = 1 : 3

Formula Used:

Quantity = (Ratio part ÷ Total ratio) × Total mixture

Calculation:

⇒ Milk = (2 ÷ 5) × 35 = 14

⇒ Water = (3 ÷ 5) × 35 = 21

⇒ Let water added = x

⇒ New water = 21 + x

⇒ Ratio condition: 14 ÷ (21 + x) = 1 ÷ 3

⇒ 14 × 3 = 21 + x

⇒ 42 = 21 + x

⇒ x = 21

∴ The correct answer is 21 litres.

Given:

(A + B) time = 10 days

B time = 25 days

A = (B + C)

Formula Used:

Work rate = 1 ÷ Time

A = B + C ⇒ Rate(A) = Rate(B) + Rate(C)

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 10 and 25 = 50

⇒ Rate (A + B) = 5 ÷ 50

⇒ Rate B = 2 ÷ 50

⇒ Rate A = Rate (A + B) − Rate B

⇒ Rate A = (5 ÷ 50) − (2 ÷ 50) = 3 ÷ 50

⇒ Rate A = Rate B + Rate C

⇒ 3 ÷ 50 = 2 ÷ 50 + Rate C

⇒ Rate C = (3 ÷ 50) − (2 ÷ 50) = 1 ÷ 50

⇒ Time of C = 50 days

∴ The correct answer is 50 days.

Given:

Average of 6 numbers = 42

Average of 5 numbers (case I) = 40

Removed number (case II) = 38

Formula Used:

Sum = Average × Number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ Total sum of 6 numbers = 42 × 6 = 252

⇒ Sum of 5 numbers (case I) = 40 × 5 = 200

⇒ Removed number (case I) = 252 − 200 = 52

⇒ Sum of remaining 5 numbers (case II) = 252 − 38 = 214

⇒ Average = 214 ÷ 5 = 42.8

∴ The correct answer is Only statement I is correct.

Given:

sin(θ) = 0.6

Formula Used:

sin²(θ) + cos²(θ) = 1

Calculation:

⇒ sin²(θ) = (0.6)² = 0.36

⇒ sin²(θ) + cos²(θ) = 1

⇒ 0.36 + cos²(θ) = 1

⇒ cos²(θ) = 1 - 0.36 = 0.64

⇒ cos(θ) = √0.64 = 0.8

∴ The correct answer is 0.8.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the algebraic identity (a − b)(a + b) = a² − b².

Here, let a = 1 and b = sin x.

The expression becomes 1² − sin² x = 1 − sin² x.

Using the fundamental trigonometric identity, 1 − sin² x = cos² x.

∴ The correct answer is cos² x.

Alternate Method

Given:

Trigonometric expression: (1 − sin x)(1 + sin x)

Formula Used:

1. Difference of squares: (a − b)(a + b) = a² − b²
2. Pythagorean Identity: sin² x + cos² x = 1 ⇒ cos² x = 1 − sin² x

Calculations:

⇒ Expression = (1 − sin x)(1 + sin x)

⇒ Expression = (1)² − (sin x)²

⇒ Expression = 1 − sin² x

From the Pythagorean identity, we know that:

⇒ sin² x + cos² x = 1

⇒ cos² x = 1 − sin² x

Substituting this back into the expression:

⇒ 1 − sin² x = cos² x

∴ The correct answer is cos² x.

Additional Information

Basic Trigonometric Identities

The three fundamental identities are sin² θ + cos² θ = 1, 1 + tan² θ = sec² θ, and 1 + cot² θ = cosec² θ.

Algebraic Conjugates

Multiplying a term by its conjugate (like 1 − sin x and 1 + sin x) is a common technique to simplify trigonometric fractions and expressions.

Double Angle Formulas

Note that cos(2x) is different from cos² x; cos(2x) = cos² x − sin² x = 2cos² x − 1 = 1 − 2sin² x.

Given:

Buy 3 items.

Get 1 item free.

Formula Used:

Equivalent discount percentage = (Free items ÷ Total items) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Free items = 1

⇒ Total items = 3 + 1 = 4

⇒ Equivalent discount percentage = (1 ÷ 4) × 100

⇒ Equivalent discount percentage = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

The correct answer is Political democracy.

Key Points

• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution and aim to create a framework for establishing a welfare state by guiding the government in policy-making and legislation. These principles are not enforceable by law but are fundamental in governance.
• The primary objectives of the DPSP include achieving social justice, ensuring economic democracy, and fostering social democracy. These are necessary for reducing inequalities in wealth, income, and opportunities.
• Political democracy, while an essential aspect of a democratic state, is not specifically addressed as an aim of the Directive Principles. Political democracy primarily concerns free and fair elections, individual rights, and political freedoms, which are guaranteed by other parts of the Constitution, notably the Fundamental Rights in Part III.
• The DPSP focuses on promoting an equitable society through measures like equal pay for equal work, protection of workers, promotion of education, public health, and living standards, and reducing the concentration of wealth (Articles 38–51).
• Thus, the goal of political democracy is distinct from the aims of the Directive Principles, which are more oriented towards creating a welfare state and ensuring economic and social justice. Hence, the correct answer is Political democracy.

Additional Information

• Directive Principles of State Policy:
• The DPSP are inspired by the Irish Constitution, which in turn drew from the directive principles of social policy in the Spanish Constitution.
• These principles aim at ensuring socio-economic justice and serve as a guide for the state to establish policies that reduce disparities and ensure overall development.
• Examples include provisions for free and compulsory education for children (Article 45) and the promotion of the welfare of people through economic justice (Article 38).
• Fundamental Rights and Political Democracy:
• Political democracy is primarily upheld through Fundamental Rights (Part III) like the right to equality (Article 14–18), the right to freedom (Article 19–22), and the right to constitutional remedies (Article 32).
• These rights ensure that citizens can freely participate in the political process, express opinions, and seek protection against state excesses.
• Political democracy also involves periodic free and fair elections, which are conducted under the supervision of the Election Commission of India.
• Key Articles of DPSP:
• Article 38: Directs the state to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order marked by justice – social, economic, and political.
• Article 39: Calls for ensuring that the ownership and control of resources are distributed to serve the common good.
• Article 41: Directs the state to make effective provisions for securing the right to work, education, and public assistance.
• Comparison of DPSP and Fundamental Rights:
• Fundamental Rights are justiciable, meaning they are enforceable by courts, whereas DPSP are non-justiciable but act as guiding principles for governance.
• Fundamental Rights focus more on individual freedoms, while DPSP aims to achieve collective welfare.

Important Points

• Implementation of DPSP:
• Many laws and policies in India, such as the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), the Mid-Day Meal Scheme, and the Right to Education Act, derive inspiration from the DPSP.
• The 73^rd and 74^th Constitutional Amendments for local self-governance also reflect the spirit of the DPSP.
• Challenges in Implementing DPSP:
• Lack of adequate resources and political will often hampers the realization of these principles.
• Balancing DPSP with Fundamental Rights can sometimes lead to conflicts, as seen in cases like the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).

The correct answer is Jaya Kishori.

Key Points

• Jaya Kishori was awarded the title of "Best Creator for Social Change" at India's first National Creators Awards in March 2024.
• She is a renowned spiritual speaker, motivational leader, and social influencer known for her efforts in creating positive societal changes through her philosophical teachings and active charity work.
• Jaya Kishori has been instrumental in promoting mental wellness, spiritual growth, and philanthropy, inspiring millions through her speeches and social media content.
• Her initiatives often focus on addressing mental health issues, spiritual guidance, and moral education, which have been impactful in bringing awareness to societal issues.
• The National Creators Awards was established to honor influential creators across diverse fields who have made significant contributions to society through their work.

Additional Information

• About Jaya Kishori:
• She is a motivational speaker and spiritual storyteller who delivers lectures on self-improvement, spirituality, and mindfulness.
• Jaya Kishori is widely recognized for her Bhajan and Katha sessions, which emphasize moral values and inner peace.
• She has also been associated with various charitable causes like education for underprivileged children and healthcare for the needy.
• Her teachings often blend traditional wisdom with modern-day relevance, making her a favorite among youth and adults alike.
• National Creators Awards:
• India's first National Creators Awards were introduced to honor individuals excelling in content creation and social impact.
• The awards aim to recognize creators who bring about positive societal changes through their platforms, including digital media, arts, and activism.
• Categories include areas such as social change, innovation, education, and entertainment.
• Other Nominees:
• Kamiya Jani: Known for her contributions to travel journalism and influencing a generation of wanderlust enthusiasts through her platform "Curly Tales."
• RJ Raunac: A popular radio jockey and digital creator, famous for his humorous takes on social and political issues under his persona "Baua."
• Pankti Pandey: A rising social media influencer focusing on environmental awareness and sustainable living practices.
• Impact of Social Influencers:
• Social influencers like Jaya Kishori use their platforms to educate, inspire, and mobilize people towards addressing societal issues.
• They often collaborate with NGOs and government initiatives to amplify their impact on healthcare, education, and environmental challenges.

Important Points

• Role of Spiritual Leaders in Social Change:
• Spiritual leaders like Jaya Kishori play a significant role in motivating communities through their teachings and charitable work.
• They often focus on mental health, ethical behavior, and community service, which are critical for societal harmony.
• Recognition of Influential Creators:
• Awards like the National Creators Awards highlight the importance of content creators in shaping public opinion and inspiring societal improvements.
• Such recognition encourages more individuals to leverage their platforms for social good.

The correct answer is Paramesh Sivamani.

Key Points

• Paramesh Sivamani was appointed as the Chief of the Indian Coast Guard in October 2024.
• The Indian Coast Guard is one of the country's critical maritime security agencies responsible for safeguarding India's vast coastline and enforcing maritime laws.
• Paramesh Sivamani is a highly experienced officer who has held various important positions within the Indian Coast Guard prior to his appointment as Chief.
• As Chief, he is tasked with overseeing operations such as search and rescue missions, anti-smuggling operations, and maritime environmental protection.
• The appointment of Paramesh Sivamani reflects the government's focus on ensuring robust maritime security and efficient management of India's coastal regions.

Additional Information

• Indian Coast Guard:
• Established in 1978, the Indian Coast Guard operates under the Ministry of Defence.
• It is tasked with protecting India's maritime interests and enforcing maritime law within the territorial waters.
• Its responsibilities include search and rescue operations, preventing smuggling, and protecting marine biodiversity.
• The Coast Guard collaborates closely with other organizations such as the Indian Navy, fisheries department, and state police.
• Role of the Chief of Indian Coast Guard:
• The Chief is the highest-ranking officer of the Indian Coast Guard, responsible for strategic planning and operational oversight.
• Key duties include managing coastal security, coordinating inter-agency operations, and ensuring preparedness for maritime emergencies.
• The Chief also represents India in international maritime forums, promoting global cooperation in maritime security.
• Maritime Security in India:
• India’s coastline spans 7,516 kilometers, making maritime security a crucial aspect of national defense.
• The Indian Coast Guard plays a pivotal role in maintaining surveillance along this vast coastline to prevent illegal activities and threats.
• Key challenges include piracy, illegal fishing, and environmental hazards.
• Training and Modernization:
• The Indian Coast Guard continually invests in the modernization of its fleet, including advanced ships, aircraft, and surveillance equipment.
• Specialized training programs focus on equipping personnel to handle complex maritime challenges effectively.

Important Points

• Indian Coast Guard Fleet:
• The Indian Coast Guard operates a fleet of over 150 ships and 60 aircraft.
• These include offshore patrol vessels, interceptor boats, and reconnaissance aircraft.
• International Collaboration:
• The Indian Coast Guard frequently participates in joint exercises with other nations to enhance maritime security capabilities.
• It has signed memorandums of understanding (MoUs) with countries like Japan, South Korea, and Australia for cooperation in maritime law enforcement.
• Notable Operations:
• Successful operations include the prevention of drug smuggling and interception of vessels involved in illegal activities.
• During cyclones and other natural disasters, the Coast Guard plays a vital role in evacuation and relief efforts.

The correct answer is Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) is a government scheme aimed at the development and empowerment of Scheduled Castes (SCs) in India.
• The scheme focuses on providing financial assistance, skill development programs, and infrastructure support to uplift the socio-economic status of SC communities.
• PM-AJAY was introduced to ensure inclusive growth and equitable access to resources for marginalized sections of society.
• The scheme emphasizes areas such as education, livelihood generation, housing, and healthcare to address the challenges faced by the SC population.
• PM-AJAY also includes provisions for residential education and scholarships to promote higher education among SC students and reduce dropout rates.

Additional Information

• Key Objectives of PM-AJAY:
• The scheme aims to bridge the gap between the SC population and other communities in terms of access to basic amenities and opportunities.
• It seeks to promote self-reliance among Scheduled Castes through vocational training and skill development programs.
• PM-AJAY strives to reduce poverty and unemployment by enabling SC individuals to engage in sustainable livelihood activities.
• Scheduled Castes in India:
• Scheduled Castes (SCs) are historically marginalized communities listed under Schedule I of the Indian Constitution.
• The Constitution provides special provisions for the upliftment and protection of SCs under Articles 341, 46, and 17.
• SCs constitute about 16.6% of India’s population according to the 2011 Census.
• Government Initiatives for SC Development:
• Several schemes such as Post-Matric Scholarships, National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation (NSFDC), and Stand-Up India are implemented for SC empowerment.
• Programs like Dr. Ambedkar Foundation promote awareness about social justice and the contributions of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
• Comparison of Other Options:
• Pradhan Mantri Awas Jan Aadhar Yojna: This scheme does not exist as per authentic records and is not related to SC development.
• Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Jan Abhiyan Yojna: Although this sounds similar, it does not align with the objectives of PM-AJAY.
• PM Ann-Jal Aarthik Yojna: This is not a recognized scheme and does not pertain to Scheduled Castes.

Important Points

• Funding: PM-AJAY is funded by the central government with provisions for state governments to contribute to the implementation of specific projects.
• Target Beneficiaries: SC communities across India, with special focus on regions with a high concentration of Scheduled Castes.
• Monitoring: The scheme is monitored by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to ensure effective implementation and transparency.
• Impact Assessment: Regular surveys and reports are conducted to evaluate the progress and impact of PM-AJAY on SC beneficiaries.

The correct answer is 0.27.

Key Points

• As of July 2025, women in India represent 27% (or 0.27) of the STEM workforce. This indicates a significant gender disparity in the STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics) sector.
• The underrepresentation of women in STEM fields limits their access to career opportunities in these high-growth and lucrative areas.
• Globally, the percentage of women in STEM varies widely, but India’s 27% participation rate highlights the need for focused measures to promote gender equity in these fields.
• One of the contributing factors is the lack of inclusive policies and support systems for women, including workplace flexibility, mentoring, and initiatives to reduce gender bias.
• The government and organizations are working towards increasing women's participation in STEM through scholarships, awareness campaigns, and educational programs to encourage girls to pursue careers in science and technology.

Additional Information

• Global Comparison:
• Globally, women make up around 28-30% of the STEM workforce on average, according to various reports such as UNESCO’s Cracking the Code: Girls’ and Women’s Education in STEM.
• Countries like the United States report a slightly higher percentage of women in STEM fields (around 35%), while the numbers are lower in developing economies.
• Factors Affecting Women in STEM:
• Socio-cultural norms: Gender stereotypes and societal expectations often discourage women from pursuing STEM careers.
• Lack of role models: The absence of visible female leaders in STEM fields reduces inspiration for young girls to enter these areas.
• Workplace challenges: Gender biases, unequal pay, and limited opportunities for growth create barriers for women in STEM professions.
• Government Initiatives in India:
• The Government of India has launched several programs like the Vigyan Jyoti Program by the Department of Science & Technology (DST) to increase women's participation in STEM.
• Under the New Education Policy (NEP) 2020, emphasis is laid on promoting gender equality in education, including STEM disciplines.
• Efforts such as scholarships for girls in STEM fields and campaigns like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao aim to bridge the gender gap.
• Benefits of Women in STEM:
• Studies show that increasing women’s participation in STEM can drive innovation, improve economic outcomes, and create more inclusive work environments.
• Diversity in STEM teams leads to better problem-solving and enhanced creativity, which benefits organizations and industries.

Important Points

• Key Statistics:
• A report by UNESCO highlights that globally, only 30% of female students choose STEM-related fields in higher education.
• Fields like engineering and computer science have particularly low representation of women (10-15% in some countries).
• Examples of STEM Role Models:
• Prominent women in STEM include Kalpana Chawla (Astronaut), Maryam Mirzakhani (Mathematician), and Dr. Tessy Thomas (Indian Missile Scientist).
• Such role models inspire young girls to pursue careers in science and technology.

The correct answer is Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority.

Key Points

• Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) is the statutory authority responsible for regulating and overseeing pension schemes in India, including the NPS Vatsalya scheme.
• The NPS Vatsalya scheme was launched to provide social security benefits for specific groups, such as women, children, and economically weaker sections.
• PFRDA was established under the PFRDA Act, 2013, and its primary function is to regulate the National Pension System (NPS) and other pension-related schemes.
• The authority ensures transparency, fairness, and efficiency in the management of pension funds and promotes retirement planning among citizens.
• NPS Vatsalya scheme is a specialized initiative under the umbrella of the National Pension System (NPS), aimed at providing financial stability and security to beneficiaries.

Additional Information

• Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA):
• PFRDA regulates pension funds and ensures the safe and efficient management of savings for retirement.
• It supervises schemes like the NPS and the Atal Pension Yojana (APY), aimed at providing retirement income.
• PFRDA allows both individuals and organizations to subscribe to pension schemes and ensures compliance with regulatory standards.
• National Pension System (NPS):
• NPS is a government-backed pension scheme launched in 2004 for government employees and later extended to all citizens in 2009.
• It is a voluntary, defined contribution retirement savings scheme regulated by PFRDA.
• NPS allows subscribers to systematically save for their retirement and provides options for investing in equity, corporate bonds, and government securities.
• Atal Pension Yojana (APY):
• APY is another pension scheme regulated by PFRDA, primarily aimed at unorganized sector workers.
• Under this scheme, subscribers receive a guaranteed minimum pension ranging from ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 per month after the age of 60.
• The government provides co-contribution for eligible individuals who are not members of any other social security schemes.
• Features of NPS Vatsalya Scheme:
• The scheme targets vulnerable groups like orphans, women, and economically weaker sections to provide them with a secure financial future.
• It integrates with the National Pension System to offer long-term benefits and financial stability to its beneficiaries.
• The scheme is managed by PFRDA and implemented through designated financial institutions.

Important Points

• Reserve Bank of India:
• The RBI is the central banking institution of India, responsible for monetary policy and regulation of banking institutions.
• It does not regulate pension schemes like the NPS Vatsalya scheme.
• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
• SEBI regulates the securities market and ensures protection for investors.
• While SEBI oversees mutual funds and stock market operations, it does not administer pension schemes.
• Ministry of Education:
• The Ministry of Education oversees policies related to education and skill development in India.
• It is not responsible for pension schemes or their regulation.

The correct answer is IIT Delhi.

Key Points

• Global University Employability Ranking: This ranking evaluates universities worldwide based on their ability to prepare students for employment, often factoring in employer feedback and graduate outcomes.
• IIT Delhi: In the 2025 edition of the Global University Employability Ranking, IIT Delhi secured the highest rank among Indian universities, showcasing its excellence in fostering employability and industry readiness among graduates.
• Factors contributing to IIT Delhi's ranking: The institute's strong emphasis on research, innovation, industry collaboration, and practical learning are key contributors to its high employability score.
• Global Position: IIT Delhi often ranks among the top institutions globally in terms of employability, highlighting its reputation and quality education standards.
• Other Indian Institutes: While several IITs and Indian Institute of Science are consistently ranked in global employability indices, IIT Delhi outperformed them in this specific ranking, affirming its leadership in the field.

Additional Information

• IIT Delhi Overview:
• Established: IIT Delhi was founded in 1961 and designated as an Institute of National Importance in 1963.
• Location: It is located in New Delhi, India, and serves as one of the premier engineering institutions in the country.
• Programs: IIT Delhi offers undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral programs in various engineering, technology, and applied sciences disciplines.
• Industry Collaboration: The institute is known for its strong industry linkages, internships, and placement opportunities for students, contributing to high employability.
• Other Top Indian Universities in Employability Rankings:
• Indian Institute of Science (IISc): Located in Bangalore, IISc excels in research-oriented programs and often ranks highly in global indices.
• IIT Bombay: Established in 1958, it is situated in Mumbai and is recognized for its industry-centric education and strong alumni network.
• IIT Kharagpur: Known as the oldest IIT, established in 1951, it is located in West Bengal and emphasizes interdisciplinary and innovative learning approaches.
• Global University Employability Ranking Methodology:
• The ranking is based on surveys conducted among employers worldwide, focusing on aspects like graduate skills, industry readiness, and academic excellence.
• Indian universities, particularly IITs, have consistently improved their rankings due to their focus on quality education, internships, and industry collaboration.
• This ranking serves as a benchmark for students and employers to assess institutions' capabilities in preparing graduates for the workforce.
• Importance of Employability Rankings:
• Global Recognition: Rankings help universities gain international recognition and attract students from around the world.
• Policy Development: They provide valuable insights for governments and institutions to improve educational frameworks and employability skills.
• Student Decision-Making: Rankings assist students in making informed choices about their higher education pathways.

Important Points

• Role of IITs in India's Education System:
• Flagship Institutions: IITs are considered the backbone of India's technical education, fostering innovation and research.
• Global Alumni Network: Graduates from IITs have excelled globally, contributing to their high employability rankings.
• Government Support: Indian government initiatives and funding have enabled IITs to maintain their status as world-class institutions.
• Impact of Rankings on Higher Education:
• Increased Competition: Universities strive to improve their standards to rank higher, ensuring better opportunities for students.
• Collaboration Opportunities: High-ranking universities attract partnerships with global institutions and industries.
• Student Mobility: Rankings influence the flow of international students to top-ranking institutions.

The correct answer is Judo.

Key Points

• Tulika Maan is an accomplished Indian judoka who competes in international Judo tournaments.
• She has represented India in several prestigious competitions and has gained recognition for her consistent performance in the sport of Judo.
• Judo, which originated in Japan, is a martial art and combat sport where opponents try to throw or take down their opponent to the ground.
• Tulika Maan achieved significant success in the Commonwealth Games 2022, where she won a silver medal in the women's 78 kg category.
• Her performance has brought attention to Judo in India and has inspired many young athletes to pursue this sport.

Additional Information

• Judo as a Sport:
• Judo was founded by Jigoro Kano in Japan in 1882 as a modern martial art derived from jujutsu.
• It is practiced worldwide and became an Olympic sport in 1964.
• The objective is to score points through techniques like throws, holds, and submissions.
• The sport emphasizes discipline, respect, and physical fitness, making it a popular choice for individuals of all ages.
• Tulika Maan’s Achievements:
• She has participated in various international events, including the Asian Judo Championships and the Commonwealth Games.
• Her silver medal at the 2022 Commonwealth Games was a remarkable achievement that showcased her talent and dedication.
• She is among the growing pool of Indian judokas bringing recognition to the sport.
• Other Popular Sports in India:
• Athletics: Includes track and field events like sprints, long-distance running, and javelin throw. Athletes like Neeraj Chopra have brought fame to India by winning international medals.
• Weightlifting: India has seen success in weightlifting events at the Commonwealth Games, with athletes like Mirabai Chanu earning accolades.
• Badminton: A highly popular sport in India, with stars like P.V. Sindhu and Kidambi Srikanth making the country proud on global platforms.

Important Points

• Government Initiatives for Judo in India:
• The Sports Authority of India (SAI) provides training facilities, coaching, and funding to support athletes in Judo.
• Judo is also a part of the Khelo India program, which aims to develop sports talent at the grassroots level.
• Indian judokas receive support for participating in international events through programs like the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS).
• Notable Indian Judokas:
• Avtar Singh: Represented India in the 2016 Rio Olympics.
• Shushila Likmabam: Won a silver medal in Judo at the 2022 Commonwealth Games.
• Garima Chaudhary: Competed in the 2012 London Olympics.