SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 29 Nov, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 'mandatory'.

 

Key Points

• The word "mandatory" means something that is required or compulsory.
• When filling out admission forms, it is important to use our full names and accurate date of birth, which is essential for identification and verification purposes.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they suggest the action is voluntary, optional, or left to discretion, which does not align with the context of admission forms.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "When filling out admission forms, it is mandatory to fill up our complete names and date of birth."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "voluntary" is incorrect because filling out complete names and date of birth is not optional or voluntary; it is required.
• Option 3: "optional" is incorrect because the context requires mandatory information for forms.
• Option 4: "discretionary" is incorrect because filling out this information is not left to personal judgment or choice; it is compulsory.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. If someone is in a state of confusion.

Key Points

• The phrase "At sixes and sevens" means to be in a state of confusion or disorder. (अव्यवस्था या भ्रम की स्थिति)
• Example: After the sudden change in the project plan, the team was at sixes and sevens about how to proceed.
• The correct meaning aligns with the context of confusion or disorganization. (भ्रम या अव्यवस्था का संदर्भ)
• Example: The office was at sixes and sevens after the manager announced his resignation.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. If someone is in a state of confusion.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: If someone is anxious before sitting an examination (कोई परीक्षा देने से पहले चिंतित)
• Example: He was anxious before his final exam but managed to calm down afterward.
• Option 2: If someone is in depression (कोई अवसाद में है)
• Example: She has been in depression since the loss of her pet.
• Option 4: If someone is super happy (कोई बहुत खुश है)
• Example: He was super happy after receiving the promotion at work.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The error lies in the subject-verb agreement within the conditional clause of the sentence.
• The noun "development" is a singular countable noun in this context, which requires the singular auxiliary verb "is."
• The use of the plural verb "are" is grammatically incorrect when paired with a singular subject.
• Therefore, "are getting better" should be corrected to "is getting better" to maintain grammatical consistency.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "On the plus side, if this development is getting better, the richer nations will benefit."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "On the plus side," – This is a correct idiomatic expression used to introduce a positive aspect of a situation.
• Option 3: "the richer nations will benefit." – This part is grammatically correct. It follows the structure of a First Conditional sentence (If + present tense, will + base verb), which describes a possible future outcome.
• Subject-Verb Agreement Rule: Always identify the head noun of the subject phrase. Since "development" is singular, the verb must also be singular, regardless of any surrounding descriptive words.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The error lies in the phrase "can be helped," which uses the passive voice incorrectly.
• In this sentence, the practices (meditation, yoga, etc.) are the subjects that perform the action of helping. Therefore, the verb should be in the active voice ("can help").
• "Can be helped" implies that someone or something is providing assistance to the methods, which makes the sentence logically nonsensical.
• Additionally, there is a lexical error in Option 1: "adapting" should be "adopting." To "adopt" a practice means to start using it, while to "adapt" means to modify something. However, the structural error in the verb phrase (Option 2) is typically considered the primary grammatical flaw in such tests.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "In order to overcome mental depression and stress, adopting meditation, yoga or similar other methods can help."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "adapting meditation, yoga or" – As noted, "adopting" is the more precise word here, but often in objective tests, the voice error in the predicate is the targeted answer.
• Option 3: "in order to overcome the mental depression and stress" – This part is grammatically acceptable. While the definite article "the" is optional before "mental depression," its presence is not a technical error.
• Option 4: "similar other methods" – This phrase correctly serves as a collective category for other activities like meditation and yoga.
• Grammar Note: Always ensure the subject (the methods) and the verb (help) have a logical relationship. If the subject is the "doer," use active voice.

The correct answer is 'on'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "on" is used when referring to the basis or grounds for something, such as a decision or conclusion.
• In the context of the sentence, "on grounds of insufficient evidence" is the correct phrase to indicate the reason for the rejection.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they do not fit the established usage of prepositions in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "The proposal was rejected on grounds of insufficient evidence."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "by" is incorrect because "by" is used to indicate the agent performing an action, not the grounds or basis.
• Option 3: "in" is incorrect as it does not fit the phrase "grounds of insufficient evidence."
• Option 4: "under" is incorrect because "under" is used to describe rules, conditions, or authority, not the basis of rejection.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The primary distinction between the given words is their phonetic pronunciation.
• The words Knight, Night, and Nite are all homophones, meaning they are pronounced identically as /naɪt/ despite their different spellings and meanings.
• The word Knit is pronounced as /nɪt/, utilizing a short "i" vowel sound, which makes it phonetically different from the others.
• Since it does not share the same pronunciation as the rest of the group, Knit is the odd one out.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Additional Information

• Knight: A historical term for a man-at-arms or a modern title of honor; it contains a silent 'k' and 'gh'.
• Night: The period from sunset to sunrise; it also contains a silent 'gh'.
• Nite: An informal or simplified spelling of "night," often used in advertising or branding.
• Knit: To interlock loops of yarn with needles; while it shares a silent 'k' with "Knight," its vowel sound remains distinct.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The correctly spelt word is 'Facsimile'.
• 'Facsimile' is a noun that refers to an exact copy, especially of written or printed material.
• For Example: The museum had a facsimile of the ancient manuscript on display.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Facsimile'.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options:
• Option 2: Facsmile - Incorrect due to missing 'i' after 'Facs'.
• Option 3: Facsimily - Incorrect due to the addition of 'y' at the end.
• Option 4: Facsimele - Incorrect due to misspelling of the ending 'ile' as 'ele'.

The correct answer is 'between themselves'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "between themselves" is used when referring to an action or division occurring among two individuals or parties.
• The word "among" is typically used for more than two entities, whereas "between" is appropriate for two.
• In the context of the sentence, the division of money is happening between the two sisters, making "between themselves" the correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "The two sisters decided to divide the stolen money between themselves."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "into themselves" is incorrect as "into" implies movement inside, which is not applicable in this context.
• Option 3: "for themselves" is incorrect as it changes the meaning, implying the money was taken for their use, rather than divided.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the phrase "among themselves" is grammatically inappropriate for two individuals.

The correct answer is ' cut out for' .

 

Key Points

• The phrase "cut out for" is correct in this context, as it means "suited or appropriate for a particular role or task."
• The sentence highlights the suitability of a career in finance due to sharp analytical skills.
• Options 1 ("cut out of") and 2 ("cut down to") are incorrect as they do not convey the intended meaning in this context.
• Option 4 ("No substitution") is incorrect because the original sentence needs improvement for clarity and correctness.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "I knew you were cut out for a career in finance due to your sharp analytical skills."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "cut out of" is incorrect because it suggests removal or exclusion, which is not the intended meaning.
• Option 2: "cut down to" is incorrect as it implies reduction, which does not fit the context of the sentence.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect as the phrase "cut out on" is not suitable or commonly used in this context.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the active voice, the sentence is: "The strong current of the river broke through the wall of the earthen dam within no time."
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object "the wall of the earthen dam" at the beginning.
• Change the active verb form "broke through" to "was broken through" (past simple passive).
• Add the preposition "by" followed by the original subject "the strong current of the river."
• Ensure the time phrase "within no time" remains at the end of the sentence for clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "The wall of the earthen dam was broken through within no time by the strong current of the river."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The wall of the earthen dam was broken within no time by the strong current of the river." – Missing "through," incorrect phrasing.
• Option 3: "The wall of the earthen dam had broken through within no time by the strong current of the river." – Incorrect tense (past perfect active).
• Option 4: "The wall of the earthen dam had been broken through within no time by the strong current of the river." – Incorrect tense (past perfect passive).

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The sentence provided is in passive voice: "The mystery had never been solved by anyone before the detective arrived."
• To convert it into active voice, the subject of the passive sentence ("anyone") becomes the active subject.
• The verb form "had never been solved" must be changed to "had solved" in the past perfect tense.
• The sentence "No one had solved the mystery before the detective arrived" correctly preserves the original meaning while converting to active voice.
• Option 2 is grammatically correct and aligns with the tense and context of the original sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "No one had solved the mystery before the detective arrived."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "No one never solved the mystery before the detective arrived." – Incorrect due to the use of double negatives ("no one" and "never").
• Option 3: "No one solves the mystery before the detective arrived." – Incorrect tense ("solves" is present tense, which conflicts with "arrived").
• Option 4: "No one has solved the mystery before the detective arrived." – Incorrect tense ("has solved" is present perfect, which does not match the past tense of "arrived").

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: The process of converting direct speech into indirect speech involves changing pronouns, time expressions, and verb tenses accordingly.
• Key Conversions:
• "She has to come" becomes "she had to go":
• The verb "has to" (present obligation) changes to "had to" (past obligation).
• "come" changes to "go" since the reporting speaker (Sairam) is referring to a location different from his own.
• "to me" becomes "to him":
• The pronoun "me" changes to "him" as Sairam is being referred to in the third person.
• "within the next couple of hours" becomes "within the following couple of hours":
• Time expressions like "next" change to "following" in indirect speech.
• Reporting verb:
• The reporting verb "said" remains unchanged, as it appropriately conveys the statement in indirect speech.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Indirect speech does not use quotation marks.
• The sentence structure is adjusted to align with the grammatical rules of indirect narration.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: Sairam said that she had to go to Delhi to him within the following couple of hours to take help to solve the problem she had mentioned.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Sairam said that she had to come to Delhi to her within the following couple of hours to take help to solve the problem she had mentioned."
• Incorrect pronoun usage: "to her" instead of "to him" disrupts the meaning.
• "come" should be changed to "go" in indirect narration, as the perspective shifts.
• Option 2: "Sairam said that she had to go to Delhi to him within the next couple of hours to bring help to solve the problem she had mentioned."
• Incorrect verb usage: "bring help" instead of "take help" alters the context.
• Time expression "next" should be "following" in indirect speech.
• Option 3: "Sairam said that she has to go to Delhi to him within the next couple of hours to take help to solve the problem she mentioned."
• Incorrect tense: "has to" should be "had to" in indirect speech.
• Time expression "next" should be "following" in indirect speech.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Direct Speech: The sentence in direct speech must accurately reflect the tone and meaning of the original indirect speech.
• Key Conversion:
• Reporting verb: In the indirect speech, "exclaimed with regret" conveys emotion. In direct speech, this is replaced with "Oh no!" to express the same regret in a conversational manner.
• Tense: The indirect speech uses "had forgotten," which in direct speech is converted to "have forgotten" to match the conversational present perfect tense.
• Pronouns: The pronoun "he" in indirect speech is replaced with "I" in direct speech to reflect the speaker's perspective.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks.
• Starts with an exclamation "Oh no!" to express regret.
• Proper sentence structure and tense are maintained.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "**He said, "Oh no! I have forgotten my wallet at home."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Hey! I had forgotten my wallet at home."
• Incorrect tone. "Hey!" does not convey regret, and "had forgotten" is not appropriate for direct conversational speech.
• Option 3: "Ah! I have forgot my wallet at home."
• Incorrect verb form. "forgot" should be "forgotten" in present perfect tense.
• Option 4: "I regret I have forgotten my wallet at home."
• Lacks conversational tone and does not fully convey the emotion expressed in the original sentence.

The correct answer is '2', i.e., 'from, onto'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "from" is used to indicate separation or distancing from something.
• The preposition "onto" is used to show movement or blame being shifted onto someone or something.
• In the given sentence, the politician distanced himself from the scandal and shifted blame onto his aides, making this the most suitable choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "The politician distanced himself from the scandal and shifted blame onto his aides."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "off, to" is incorrect because "off" does not appropriately describe distancing in this context, and "to" is unsuitable for blame shifting.
• Option 3: "with, over" is incorrect because "with" and "over" do not convey the intended meaning of distancing and shifting blame.
• Option 4: "by, upon" is incorrect because "by" and "upon" do not fit the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Understanding Indirect Speech:
• Indirect speech converts the original sentence into reported speech, focusing on the meaning rather than the exact words.
• The tense of verbs in indirect speech is typically adjusted to reflect the time the original statement was made.
• Direct Speech Conversion:
• To convert to direct speech, the sentence must reflect the exact words spoken by the subject.
• In the given sentence, the speaker mentioned: "I had been sleeping when the thieves broke in."
• Correct Choice: Option 3 accurately converts the indirect speech into direct speech while maintaining tense and context.
• "I had been sleeping" retains the past perfect continuous tense, reflecting an ongoing action in the past.
• "The thieves broke in" correctly uses the simple past tense for the action that occurred simultaneously.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "She told the detective, 'I had been sleeping when the thieves broke in.'"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "She said to the detective, 'I had slept when the thieves had broken in.'"
• Incorrect tense usage: "had slept" suggests a completed action before the thieves broke in, which changes the meaning.
• Option 2: "She said to the detective, 'I had slept when the thieves has broken in.'"
• Grammatical error: "has broken in" incorrectly uses present perfect tense instead of past tense.
• Option 4: "She told the detective, 'I had been asleep when the thieves were breaking in.'"
• Incorrect phrasing: "were breaking in" uses past continuous tense, which suggests the action was ongoing, altering the original meaning.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Active voice structure: The subject of the sentence performs the action, while the object receives it.
• The passive voice sentence is: "The groundbreaking quantum theory should not have been dismissed as mere speculation by the scientific community."
• To convert to active voice: Place the original subject "the scientific community" at the beginning of the sentence.
• Change the passive verb form "should not have been dismissed" to "should not have dismissed" (active voice form).
• Ensure the object "the groundbreaking quantum theory" remains after the verb for clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "The scientific community should not have dismissed the groundbreaking quantum theory as mere speculation."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The scientific community should not have been dismissing the groundbreaking quantum theory as mere speculation." – Incorrect because it uses the continuous tense unnecessarily.
• Option 3: "The groundbreaking quantum theory should not be dismissed as mere speculation by the scientific community." – Incorrect because this is in the present passive voice, not matching the original sentence's tense.
• Option 4: "The scientific community should not be dismissing the groundbreaking quantum theory as mere speculation." – Incorrect because it uses the present continuous tense unnecessarily.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Occassion'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Occasion'.
• The word 'Occasion' is a noun which means 'a particular event or time'. (अवसर)
• For Example -
• She wore her best dress for the occasion.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Occassion'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Accommodate - to provide lodging or make room for someone or something (समायोजित करना)
• Recommend - to suggest something as being suitable or beneficial (सिफारिश करना)
• Discipline - the practice of training people to obey rules or a code of behavior (अनुशासन)

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the active voice, the sentence is: "They had not finished the project before the deadline."
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object "the project" at the beginning.
• Change the active verb form "had not finished" to "had not been finished" (past perfect passive).
• Add the preposition "by" followed by the original subject "them."
• Ensure the time phrase "before the deadline" remains at the end of the sentence for clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "The project had not been finished by them before the deadline."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The project was not finished by them before the deadline." – Incorrect tense (past simple passive).
• Option 2: "The project has not been finished by them before the deadline." – Incorrect tense (present perfect passive).
• Option 4: "The project was not being finished by them before the deadline." – Incorrect tense (past continuous passive).

The correct answer is 'Option 2 (Past simple)'.

 

Key Points

• Option 1: Present simple
• This is incorrect. Present simple would be “is considered,” but the sentence uses “was considered,” which refers to the past.
• Option 2: Past simple
• This is correct. “Was considered” is the past simple tense, indicating that engineering was regarded as prestigious in the past, but the perception has changed now.
• Option 3: Past perfect
• This is incorrect. Past perfect would be “had been considered,” which is not used here.
• Option 4: Present perfect
• This is incorrect. Present perfect would be “has been considered,” but the passage clearly uses “was considered.”

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2 (Past simple).

 

Additional Information

• Past simple tense is used to describe actions or states that happened at a specific time in the past.
• Example: “She was considered the best student in her class.”
• In the passage: “Engineering was once considered…” → This shows a past perception that has now changed.

The correct answer is 'Option 2 (Because "industries" is a plural subject)'.

 

Key Points

• Option 1: Because "candidates" is a plural noun
• This is incorrect. The verb form depends on the subject, not the object. “Candidates” is the object of the verb “prefer.”
• Option 2: Because "industries" is a plural subject
• This is correct. The subject of the sentence is “industries,” which is plural. Therefore, the verb must also be plural: “prefer.” If the subject were singular (“industry”), the verb would be “prefers.”
• Option 3: Because "skills" is uncountable
• This is incorrect. “Skills” is plural, not uncountable, and it is part of the object phrase, not the subject.
• Option 4: Because "prefer" is always used with "now"
• This is incorrect. The adverb “now” does not affect verb conjugation. Verb form depends solely on the subject.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: Because "industries" is a plural subject.

 

Additional Information

• Subject–verb agreement rule: Singular subjects take singular verbs (with -s or -es), while plural subjects take the base verb form.
• Example: “The company prefers efficiency.” / “Companies prefer efficiency.”
• In the passage: “Industries prefer candidates…” → plural subject “industries” requires plural verb “prefer.”

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Too many graduates for available jobs.

Key Points

• The word "oversaturation" means:
• A situation in which there are too many of a particular thing in relation to demand; in this context, it refers to having too many graduates for the available job opportunities. (एक स्थिति जिसमें मांग के अनुपात में किसी विशेष चीज़ की बहुत अधिकता हो; इस संदर्भ में, उपलब्ध नौकरी के अवसरों के लिए बहुत से स्नातक होना)
• Example: The oversaturation of the job market has made it difficult for new graduates to find employment.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured him a perfect score.

Therefore, the word “oversaturation” in the given context means: Too many graduates for available jobs.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Shortage of students (छात्रों की कमी): A situation where there are not enough students enrolled or attending.
• Example: The school is facing a shortage of students this academic year.
• Plenty of job opportunities (नौकरी के अवसरों की प्रचुरता): Availability of many job openings for applicants.
• Example: In the tech industry, there are plenty of job opportunities for skilled professionals.
• High salaries for all (सभी के लिए उच्च वेतन): Everyone receiving large or substantial wages.
• Example: The new policy ensures high salaries for all employees in the company.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Improving skills to match new demands.

Key Points

• The term "up skilling" refers to:
• Improving and enhancing one's existing skills to meet new requirements or demands in a particular field or industry. (किसी क्षेत्र या उद्योग में नई आवश्यकताओं या मांगों को पूरा करने के लिए अपने मौजूदा कौशल को सुधारना और बढ़ाना)
• Example: The company offers training programs to help employees with up skilling for advanced technical roles.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured him a perfect score.

Therefore, the term “up skilling” in the given context means: Improving skills to match new demands.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Reducing skills (कौशल को कम करना): To make one's abilities or knowledge less effective or competent.
• Example: Due to lack of practice, she found her language skills reducing over time.
• Losing knowledge (ज्ञान खोना): Forgetting or becoming unable to recall previously learned information.
• Example: After years of inactivity in the field, he felt he was losing knowledge related to programming.
• Quitting studies (अध्ययन छोड़ना): To stop one's education or academic pursuits.
• Example: Due to personal reasons, she considered quitting studies and starting work immediately.

The correct answer is 'Option 3 (Too many graduates and out-dated education)'.

 

Key Points

• Option 1: Lack of students
• This is incorrect. The passage highlights oversaturation of graduates, not a shortage of students.
• Option 2: No technological growth
• This is incorrect. The passage mentions rapid technological changes, not stagnation. The issue is that curricula fail to keep pace with these changes.
• Option 3: Too many graduates and out-dated education
• This is correct. The passage explains that private colleges produce lakhs of engineers every year, leading to oversaturation. At the same time, traditional curriculums fail to provide modern skills, leaving graduates underprepared for industry demands.
• Option 4: High salaries for engineers
• This is incorrect. The passage does not mention high salaries as a problem; instead, many engineers remain unemployed or accept unrelated jobs.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3: Too many graduates and out-dated education.

 

Additional Information

• Oversaturation of engineering graduates has created a mismatch between supply and demand in the job market.
• Traditional curriculums often fail to adapt to rapid technological changes, leaving graduates under-skilled.
• Industries now prefer candidates with practical knowledge and specialised skills over generic degrees.
• Thus, reform in education and focus on skill-based learning is essential to restore scope in engineering careers.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Calm.

Key Points

• The word "Turbulent" means characterized by disorder, confusion, or unrest; it is often used to describe chaotic situations or unstable conditions. (अराजक/अशांत)
• Example: The airplane experienced turbulent weather during its flight.
• "Calm" refers to a state of peace, tranquility, and stability, without any disturbance or chaos. It is the direct opposite of turbulent. (शांत)
• Example: After the storm passed, the sea returned to its calm state.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'Turbulent' is 'Calm'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Calm.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Deceptive (धोखादायक): Something that misleads or gives a false impression.
• Example: The advertisement was deceptive and did not represent the true quality of the product.
• Humble (विनम्र): Modest or having a low view of one's importance.
• Example: Despite his success, he remains humble and approachable.
• Satisfied (संतुष्ट): Contented or pleased with something.
• Example: She was satisfied with the results of her hard work.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Biased.

Key Points

• The word "Egalitarian" refers to the belief in or advocacy for equality, especially in terms of rights and opportunities. (समानतावादी)
• Example: An egalitarian society ensures that everyone has equal access to education and healthcare.
• The word "Biased" means showing prejudice or favoritism towards one side or group, leading to unequal treatment. (पक्षपाती)
• Example: The judge's decision was biased, favoring the defendant unfairly over the plaintiff.
• Hence, the antonym of "Egalitarian" is "Biased."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Biased.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Fair (न्यायपूर्ण): Treating people equally without favoritism or discrimination.
• Example: The mediator ensured a fair resolution to the dispute.
• Democratic (लोकतांत्रिक): Relating to a system of government by the whole population or all eligible members.
• Example: A democratic country allows its citizens to vote freely in elections.
• Equitable (न्यायसंगत): Fair and impartial, ensuring justice and equal treatment.
• Example: The distribution of resources should be equitable among all members of society.

Given: 7, 4, -2, -14, ?

The logic followed here is:

Thus, -38 will be the next element that replace the ? Logically.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: In a row of boys, A is 10^th from the left and B is 9^th from the right. If A is 5^th to the left of B.

Let total number of boys = N

A is 10^th from left → position of A = 10

A is 5^th to the left of B → position of B = 10 + 5 = 15

B is 9^th from right → position of B from left = N − 9 + 1 = N − 8

⇒ N − 8 = 15

⇒ N = 8 + 15

⇒ N = 23

Thus, there are 23 boys in the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: Solar lamps line a garden path. The 6^th lamp from one end is defective. If there are 15 lamps total.

Total lamps = 15

Position from one end = 6

Position from the other end = 15 − 6 + 1

= 16 - 6

= 10

Thus, the position of 6^th lamp is 10^th from the other end.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: If 66 # 4 = 12.4 and 12 # 82 = -14

The logic followed here is:

Logic: a # b = (a − b) ÷ 5

66 # 4 = 12.4 → (66 - 4) ÷ 5 = 62 ÷ 5 = 12.4

12 # 82 = (12 − 82) ÷ 5 = −70 ÷ 5 = −14

Similarly,

81 # 14 = (81 − 14) ÷ 5 = 67 ÷ 5 = 13.4

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: 30 % 3 = 360 and 44 % 32 = 5632

The logic followed here is:

Logic: a % b = a × b × 4

30 % 3 = 30 × 3 × 4 = 360

44 % 32 = 44 × 32 × 4 = 5632

Similarly,

25 % 6 = 25 × 6 × 4 = 150 × 4 = 600

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: 3, 21, 93, 381, ?

The logic followed here is:

3 × 4 + 9 = 12 + 9 = 21

21 × 4 + 9 = 84 + 9 = 93

93 × 4 + 9 = 372 + 9 = 381

381 × 4 + 9 = 1524 + 9 = 1533

Thus, 1533 is next element that replace the ? Logically.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, ?

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 43 is the next number.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

1^st box: 15 - (7 x 2) = 15 - 14 = 1

3^rd box: 32 - (5 x 6) = 32 - 30 = 2

Similarly,

2^nd box: 18 - (3 x 4) = 18 - 12 = 6

⇒ 6 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Number of quadrilaterals in the given figure is shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: In the figure given below the square represents switches, the triangle represents tube lights and the circle represents bulbs. The number in each area represents the number of items in that area.

I. Number of switches which are tube lights are 5. - True

II. Total number of bulb are 19 - False

Number of bulb 8 + 4 + 3 + 2 = 17

Thus, 'Only II' is not correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

• Sales are all different
• B is less than only A → A is highest, B is second highest
• D < C but D > E → C > D > E
• C = 300

So order becomes:

A > B > C > D > E

Since C = 300,

B must be greater than 300, and A must be greater than B

So A must be greater than 300.

Hence, any value greater than 300 is possible.

As per given options, only 310 is greater than 300.

Thus, if sales of C is 300 , the possible value of sales of A is 310.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: There are 6 flats on a floor in two rows (three in each row opposite to each other). Flats of one row are facing north. Flats of other row are facing south. These flats are alloted to A, B, C, D, E and F. D and F get diagonally opposite flats.

1. F's flat is next to C's flat.
2. C gets a South facing flat.

So, F and C have south facing flat.

3. The direction in which the flats of B and E are facing is same.

So, B and E must be north facing flat.

4. B's flat is not next to D. 

Therefore, B, D and E are north facing flats.

And F, C and A are south facing flat.

A, the only person left will occupy the vacant position.

Thus, EC pair represents people having flats opposite to each other.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

The positions shift clockwise by one step.

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

First pair:

• Box 1 has 4 symbols: ×, +, @, %
• Box 2 shows multiple ÷ symbols arranged in 3×3 (9 total)

Pattern:

• Number of symbols increases from 4 → 9
• Operation changes all symbols into

Similarly,

Second pair:

• Box 3 has 2 symbols: + and #

Apply same logic:

• Increase count using square pattern: 2² = 4
• Use one common symbol (here + is dominant/simple)

Thus, 4 plus signs arranged in square (2×2).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Observe two things changing:

• Position of the small circle (dot)
• Orientation of the inner square line

Tracking the dot:

1^st → bottom-left

2^nd → top-left

3^rd → top-right

4^th → bottom-right

The dot is moving clockwise around the square

So next position → bottom-left

Tracking the inner line:

• It rotates along with the figure (same clockwise movement)

Thus, The next figure should have:

• Dot at bottom-left
• Inner square aligned accordingly

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Rule:

Given equation: 7 × 5 + 9 - 8 ÷ 4 = ?

Now replacing 7 and 9 from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 9 × 5 + 7 - 8 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 9 × 5 + 7 - 2 = ?

⇒ 45 + 7 - 2 = ?

⇒ 52 - 2 = ?

⇒ 50 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

BODMAS Rule:

Given equation: 99 * 9 * 4 * 46 * 37 = 35

Let's check each option one by one.

1. ÷, +, -, ×

Given: 99 * 9 * 4 * 46 * 37 = 35

After replacing the signs we get;

⇒ 99 ÷ 9 + 4 - 46 × 37 = 35

⇒ 11 + 4 - 46 × 37 = 35

⇒ 11 + 4 - 1702 = 35

⇒ 15 - 1702 = 35

⇒ -1687 ≠ 35

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

2. ÷, +, ×, -

Given: 99 * 9 * 4 * 46 * 37 = 35

After replacing the signs we get;

⇒ 99 ÷ 9 + 4 × 46 - 37 = 35

⇒ 11 + 4 × 46 - 37 = 35

⇒ 11 + 184 - 37 = 35

⇒ 195 - 37 = 35

⇒ 158 ≠ 35

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

3. ×, -, +, ÷

Given: 99 * 9 * 4 * 46 * 37 = 35

After replacing the signs we get;

⇒ 99 × 9 - 4 + 46 ÷ 37 = 35

⇒ 99 × 9 - 4 + 1.243 = 35

⇒ 891 - 4 + 1.243 = 35

⇒ 892.243 - 4 = 35

⇒ 888.243 ≠ 35

LHS ≠ RHS

4. ÷, ×, -, +

Given: 99 * 9 * 4 * 46 * 37 = 35

After replacing the signs we get;

⇒ 99 ÷ 9 × 4 - 46 + 37 = 35

⇒ 11 × 4 - 46 + 37 = 35

⇒ 44 - 46 + 37 = 35

⇒ 81 - 46 = 35

⇒ 35 = 35

⇒ LHS = RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

The pattern followed here is:

Each letter-cluster pair follows the pattern +1, ×2, ×2.

1. F140R - G280T

This letter-cluster pair follows the pattern +1, ×2, ×2.

2. T220C - U440E

This letter-cluster pair follows the pattern +1, ×2, ×2.

3. A229D - B468F

This letter-cluster pair does not follows the pattern +1, ×2, ×2.

4. E131W - F262Y

This letter-cluster pair follows the pattern +1, ×2, ×2.

Thus, 'A229D - B468F' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

The pattern followed here is:

Each letter-number cluster pair follows the pattern: Letters -5, -5 and Number +210

1. AC293 - VX503

 

 

This letter-number cluster pair follows the pattern -5, -5, +210.

 

2. EG307 - ZA517

 

 

This letter-number cluster pair does not follow the pattern -5, -5, +210.

 

3. FT511 - A0721

 

 

This letter-number cluster pair follows the pattern -5, -5, +210.

 

4. RB479 - MW689

 

This letter-number cluster pair follows the pattern -5, -5, +210.

 

Thus, 'EG307 - ZA517' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1^st number - 34 = 2^nd number; 2^nd number - 34 = 3^rd number

1. (1132, 1098, 1064) → 1132 − 34 = 1098, 1098 − 34 = 1064

2. (1084, 1050, 1016) → 1084 − 34 = 1050, 1050 − 34 = 1016

3. (1228, 1194, 1160) → 1228 − 34 = 1194, 1194 − 34 = 116

4. (1446, 1402, 1378) → 1446 − 34 = 1412 ≠ 1402, 1402 − 34 = 1368 ≠ 1378

Thus, '(1446,1402,1378)' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second − First = Third²

(188, 364, 14) →  364 − 188 = 176 ≠ 196 = 14²

(164, 420, 16) → 420 − 164 = 256 = 16² 

(126, 450, 18) → 450 − 126 = 324 = 18² 

(142, 542, 20) → 542 − 142 = 400 = 20²

Thus, '(188, 364, 14)' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Given: NG130 : PJ325 :: MA110 : OD305 : : CX54 : ?

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

For the Letters: The first letter is shifted by +2 Cross and the second letter is shifted by +2 cross.

For the Numbers: (Number × 3) + 1 = Resultant Number

For WN83 to PY250

Correct Cross Logic:

For XL44 to NZ133

For SK56 to ?

Applying the logic:

1. Second letter K(11) + 2 = M(13)
2. First letter S(19) + 2 = U(21)
3. (56 × 3) + 1 = 168 + 1 = 169

The resulting cluster is MU169.

Hence, the correct answer is "MU169".

Given:

((x + y)² + (x − y)²)²

Formula Used:

(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²

(a − b)² = a² − 2ab + b²

(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²

Calculation:

⇒ (x + y)² + (x − y)² = x² + 2xy + y² + x² − 2xy + y² = 2x² + 2y²

⇒ = 2(x² + y²)

⇒ ((x + y)² + (x − y)²)² = [2(x² + y²)]²

⇒ = 4(x² + y²)²

⇒ = 4(x⁴ + 2x²y² + y⁴)

⇒ = 4x⁴ + 8x²y² + 4y⁴

∴ The correct answer is 4x⁴ + 8x²y² + 4y⁴.

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹250

Profit = 20%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP + (Profit × CP ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ SP = ₹250 + (20 × ₹250 ÷ 100)

⇒ SP = ₹250 + ₹50

⇒ SP = ₹300

∴ The correct answer is ₹300.

Given:

Distance = 10 km

Time = 2 hours

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Calculation:

⇒ Speed = 10 ÷ 2

⇒ Speed = 5 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 5 km/h.

Shortcut Trick

Total work (LCM of 10 and 15) = 30 units

Efficiency: A = 3 and B = 2

Work done by A alone in 4 days = 3 × 4 = 12 units

Remaining work = 30 − 12 = 18 units

Time for (A + B) to finish remaining work = 18 ÷ (3 + 2) = 3.6 days

Total time to complete the task = 4 + 3.6 = 7.6 days

∴ The correct answer is 7.6 days.

Alternate Method

Given: A can complete the work in 10 days, B can complete the work in 15 days. A works for the first 4 days.

Formula: Total Work = Efficiency × Time

⇒ Work done by A in the first 4 days = Efficiency of A × 4 days

⇒ Work done = 3 × 4 = 12 units

⇒ Remaining work to be done = Total Work − Completed Work

⇒ Remaining work = 30 − 12 = 18 units

⇒ B joins A, so combined efficiency = 3 + 2 = 5 units/day

⇒ Time taken to complete the remaining work = 18 ÷ 5 = 3.6 days

⇒ Total time to complete the entire task = Initial time + Joint time

⇒ Total time = 4 + 3.6 = 7.6 days

∴ The correct answer is 7.6 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task. Efficiency = Work ÷ Time.

Combined Efficiency

When multiple people work together, their individual efficiencies are added: Total Efficiency = E₁ + E₂ + ... + E_n.

Pipes and Cisterns

This concept follows the same logic where inlet pipe efficiency is positive and outlet pipe efficiency is negative.

Work and Wages

Wages are generally distributed in the ratio of the work done by each individual, which is the product of their efficiency and the time they worked.

Given:

Length = 4 m

Breadth = 2.5 m

Height = 2 m

Volume of one sofa = 2.5 m³

Formula Used:

Volume of cuboid = l × b × h

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of van = 4 × 2.5 × 2 = 20 m³

⇒ Number of sofas = 20 ÷ 2.5 = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Given:

Side of hexagon = 4 cm

Height = 6 cm

Formula Used:

Lateral Surface Area of prism = Perimeter of base × Height

Perimeter of hexagon = 6 × side

Calculation:

⇒ Perimeter = 6 × 4 = 24

⇒ Lateral Surface Area = 24 × 6 = 144

∴ The correct answer is 144.

Given:

In similar triangles

Ratio of their areas

Square of the ratio of their corresponding sides

Formula Used:

Area ratio = (Side ratio)²

Calculation:

⇒ Area ratio = (Side ratio)²

⇒ Square of the ratio of their corresponding sides

∴ The correct answer is Square of the ratio of their corresponding sides.

Given:

r : h = 3 : 4

π = 3

Formula Used:

Volume = πr²h = 108k³

Difference (TSA − CSA) = 2πr² = 54k²

Calculation:

⇒ Option A: 108k³ = 2916 ⇒ k³ = 27 ⇒ k = 3

⇒ Difference = 54k² = 54 × 9 = 486  Correct

⇒ Option B: 108k³ = 864 ⇒ k³ = 8 ⇒ k = 2

⇒ Difference = 54k² = 54 × 4 = 216 ≠ 192, Wrong

⇒ Option C: 108k³ = 6912 ⇒ k³ = 64 ⇒ k = 4

⇒ Difference = 54k² = 54 × 16 = 864 Correct

⇒ Option D: 108k³ = 13500 ⇒ k³ = 125 ⇒ k = 5

⇒ Difference = 54k² = 54 × 25 = 1350 ≠ 1250, Wrong

∴ The correct answers are Only A and C.

Shortcut Trick

Combine the ratios of A, B, and C using a common term.

Given A : B = 1 : 4 and B : C = 1 : 2 (or 4 : 8 to keep B same).

Combined Ratio A : B : C = 1 : 4 : 8.

Total Ratio parts = 1 + 4 + 8 = 13 units.

C's share = (8 ÷ 13) × 900 = 7200 ÷ 13 ≈ Rs. 553.84.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 553.84.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total amount to be divided = Rs. 900

A receives one-fourth of B → A = B/4

B receives half of C → B = C/2

Calculations:

⇒ Let C's share be x.

⇒ B's share = x/2.

⇒ A's share = (1/4) × (x/2) = x/8.

⇒ According to the question: x/8 + x/2 + x = 900.

⇒ Taking LCM (8): (x + 4x + 8x) ÷ 8 = 900.

⇒ 13x ÷ 8 = 900.

⇒ 13x = 900 × 8.

⇒ 13x = 7200.

⇒ x = 7200 ÷ 13.

⇒ x = 553.846...

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 553.84.

Additional Information

Combined Ratio Rule

If A : B = m : n and B : C = p : q, then the combined ratio A : B : C is (m×p) : (n×p) : (n×q).

Proportional Division

To find the share of any part k in a total S with ratio a : b : c, use the formula: Share = [part value / (a + b + c)] × S.

Decimal Accuracy

In banking and financial exams, if a division is not exact, the value is typically rounded to two decimal places or chosen based on the closest available option.

Given:

Present ratio = 4 : 5

Ratio after 6 years = 5 : 6

Formula Used:

Age ∝ Ratio

Calculation:

⇒ Let present ages = 4x and 5x

⇒ (4x + 6) ÷ (5x + 6) = 5 ÷ 6

⇒ 6(4x + 6) = 5(5x + 6)

⇒ 24x + 36 = 25x + 30

⇒ x = 6

⇒ Present ages = 24 and 30

⇒ Ages 6 years ago = 18 and 24

⇒ Ratio = 18 : 24 = 3 : 4

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 4.

Shortcut Trick

For a constant product (Area = Length × Breadth), if one factor increases by r%, the other must decrease by: [r / (100 + r)] × 100%.

Given Length increase = 25%.

Required Breadth reduction = [25 / (100 + 25)] × 100 = (25 / 125) × 100.

Reduction = (1 / 5) × 100 = 20%.

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Increase in Length = 25%

Area of the rectangular field remains constant.

Formula Used:

Area = Length × Breadth

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial Length be 100 units and initial Breadth be 100 units.

⇒ Initial Area = 100 × 100 = 10,000 sq. units.

⇒ New Length after 25% increase = 100 + 25 = 125 units.

⇒ Let the new Breadth be 'b'.

⇒ Since Area is constant: 125 × b = 10,000.

⇒ b = 10,000 ÷ 125 = 80 units.

⇒ Reduction in Breadth = 100 − 80 = 20 units.

⇒ Percentage Reduction = (20 / 100) × 100 = 20%.

Therefore, Option 4 is the correct answer.

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information

Product Constancy Rule

If the product of two quantities is constant (P = x × y), then an increase in one quantity by a/b requires a decrease in the other by a/(a+b) to keep P unchanged.

Fractional Equivalents

A 25% increase is equivalent to adding 1/4. To balance this, the other factor must decrease by 1/(4+1) = 1/5, which is 20%.

Percentage Change in Area

Net % change in Area = x + y + (xy/100), where x and y are percentage changes in dimensions. For constant area, Net change = 0.

Given:

Selling price (SP) = ₹840

Discount = 16%

Formula Used:

Marked price (MP) = SP ÷ (1 - Discount ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ MP = ₹840 ÷ (1 - 16 ÷ 100)

⇒ MP = ₹840 ÷ (1 - 0.16)

⇒ MP = ₹840 ÷ 0.84

⇒ MP = ₹1,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,000.

Given:

Cost of first variety = 20

Cost of second variety = 32

Mean price = 28

Formula Used:

Ratio = (Higher price − Mean price) : (Mean price − Lower price)

Calculation:

⇒ Ratio = (32 − 28) : (28 − 20)

⇒ Ratio = 4 : 8

⇒ Ratio = 1 : 2

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 2.

Given:

Initial ratio = 4 : 1

Final ratio = 2 : 3

Formula Used:

Remaining milk after replacement = Initial milk × (1 − x)

Replacement effect applied proportionally

Calculation:

⇒ Let total quantity = 1

⇒ Initial milk = 4 ÷ 5, water = 1 ÷ 5

⇒ Let fraction removed = x

⇒ Milk left = (4 ÷ 5)(1 − x)

⇒ Water left = (1 ÷ 5)(1 − x) + x

⇒ Ratio = [(4 ÷ 5)(1 − x)] ÷ [(1 ÷ 5)(1 − x) + x] = 2 ÷ 3

⇒ 3 × (4 ÷ 5)(1 − x) = 2 × [(1 ÷ 5)(1 − x) + x]

⇒ (12 ÷ 5)(1 − x) = (2 ÷ 5)(1 − x) + 2x

⇒ (12 ÷ 5 − 2 ÷ 5)(1 − x) = 2x

⇒ (10 ÷ 5)(1 − x) = 2x

⇒ 2(1 − x) = 2x

⇒ 2 − 2x = 2x

⇒ 2 = 4x

⇒ x = 1 ÷ 2

⇒ Percentage = 50%

∴ The correct answer is 50%.

Given:

PQ = 15

QR = 12

PS = 10

Formula Used:

In a tangential quadrilateral: sum of opposite sides are equal

PQ + RS = QR + PS

Calculation:

⇒ 15 + RS = 12 + 10

⇒ 15 + RS = 22

⇒ RS = 22 − 15

⇒ RS = 7

∴ The correct answer is 7 cm.

Given:

AB = 16 cm

Formula Used:

Tangent at a point is perpendicular to the radius

Parallel tangents ⇒ corresponding radii are collinear

Diameter = 2 × Radius

Calculation:

⇒ Tangent at A ⟂ OA and tangent at B ⟂ OB

⇒ Tangent at A ∥ Tangent at B ⇒ OA and OB are in same straight line

⇒ Points A and B lie on a straight line through center

⇒ AB = Diameter

⇒ Diameter = 16 cm

∴ The correct answer is 16 cm.

Given:

$\frac{3\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{6}+\sqrt{3}} - \frac{4\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{6}+\sqrt{2}} + \frac{\sqrt{6}}{\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{2}}$

Formula Used:

$\frac{a}{\sqrt{x}+\sqrt{y}} = \frac{a(\sqrt{x}-\sqrt{y})}{x-y}$

Calculation:

⇒ $\frac{3\sqrt{2}(\sqrt{6}-\sqrt{3})}{6-3} - \frac{4\sqrt{3}(\sqrt{6}-\sqrt{2})}{6-2} + \frac{\sqrt{6}(\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2})}{3-2}$

⇒ $\frac{3\sqrt{2}(\sqrt{6}-\sqrt{3})}{3} - \frac{4\sqrt{3}(\sqrt{6}-\sqrt{2})}{4} + \sqrt{6}(\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2})$

⇒ $\sqrt{2}(\sqrt{6}-\sqrt{3}) - \sqrt{3}(\sqrt{6}-\sqrt{2}) + \sqrt{6}(\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2})$

⇒ $(\sqrt{12}-\sqrt{6}) - (\sqrt{18}-\sqrt{6}) + (\sqrt{18}-\sqrt{12})$

⇒ $(2\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{6}) - (3\sqrt{2}-\sqrt{6}) + (3\sqrt{2}-2\sqrt{3})$

⇒ $2\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{6}-3\sqrt{2}+\sqrt{6}+3\sqrt{2}-2\sqrt{3}$

⇒ $0$

∴ The correct answer is $0$.

Given:

Side ratio = 18 ÷ 6

Area of Triangle A = 20 cm²

Formula Used:

Area ratio = (Side ratio)²

Calculation:

⇒ Side ratio = 18 ÷ 6 = 3

⇒ Area ratio = 3² = 9

⇒ Area of Triangle B = 20 × 9 = 180 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 180 cm².

Calculation:

$\frac{0.081-0.006}{0.91+0.05+0.01}$

⇒ $\frac{0.075}{0.97}$

⇒ $\frac{75}{97} × \frac{100}{1000}$

⇒ 0.773 × 1/10

⇒ 0.0773 ≈ 0.077

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Shortcut Trick

Simplify the individual surds: √18 = 3√2 and √8 = 2√2.

Combine the terms: x = 3√2 + 2√2 = 5√2.

Square the combined value: x² = (5√2)² = 25 × 2 = 50.

∴ The correct answer is 50.

Alternate Method

Given: x = √18 + √8

Formula Used: (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

To find the value of x², we square the entire expression:

⇒ x² = (√18 + √8)²

⇒ x² = (√18)² + (√8)² + 2 × √18 × √8

⇒ x² = 18 + 8 + 2√(18 × 8)

⇒ x² = 26 + 2√144

⇒ x² = 26 + 2 × 12

⇒ x² = 26 + 24

⇒ x² = 50

∴ The correct answer is 50.

Additional Information

Simplifying Surds

A surd can be simplified by factoring out the largest perfect square: √(a²b) = a√b.

Algebraic Identity

The identity (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² is fundamental for solving expressions involving sums of radicals.

Product of Radicals

For any non-negative real numbers a and b, the rule √a × √b = √(ab) allows for the consolidation of terms under a single root.

Given:

A₃ = 15972

A₅ = 19326.12

Formula Used:

A = P × (1 + R ÷ 100)ⁿ

Calculation:

⇒ A₅ ÷ A₃ = (1 + R ÷ 100)⁵ ÷ (1 + R ÷ 100)³

⇒ 19326.12 ÷ 15972 = (1 + R ÷ 100)²

⇒ 19326.12 ÷ 15972 = 1.21

⇒ (1 + R ÷ 100)² = 1.21

⇒ 1 + R ÷ 100 = √1.21 = 1.1

⇒ R ÷ 100 = 0.1

⇒ R = 10%

⇒ 15972 = P × (1.1)³

⇒ 15972 = P × 1.331

⇒ P = 15972 ÷ 1.331 = 12000

∴ The correct answer is 12000.

Given:

Time = 4 + 4 ÷ 12 = 13 ÷ 3 years

Amount = 2P

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × t) ÷ 100

Amount = P + Simple Interest

Calculation:

⇒ 2P = P + (P × R × t) ÷ 100

⇒ P = (P × R × t) ÷ 100

⇒ 1 = (R × t) ÷ 100

⇒ R × t = 100

⇒ R × (13 ÷ 3) = 100

⇒ R = (100 × 3) ÷ 13

⇒ R = 300 ÷ 13 = 23.07%

∴ The correct answer is 23.07%.

Given:

First term = 2

Last term = N

Average = 36

Formula Used:

Average of AP = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2

Calculation:

⇒ 36 = (2 + N) ÷ 2

⇒ 72 = 2 + N

⇒ N = 72 − 2 = 70

∴ The correct answer is 70.

Shortcut Trick

In any Arithmetic Progression (AP), the Average is always equal to the average of the first term and the last term.

Average = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2

⇒ Average = 64 ÷ 2 = 32

∴ The correct answer is 32.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of terms (n) = 4

Sum of the first and last number (a + l) = 64

Formula Used:

Total Sum of AP (S_n) = (n ÷ 2) × (First term + Last term)

Average = Total Sum ÷ n

Calculations:

⇒ Total Sum = (4 ÷ 2) × 64

⇒ Total Sum = 2 × 64 = 128

⇒ Average = 128 ÷ 4

⇒ Average = 32

∴ The correct answer is 32.

Additional Information

General Term of AP

The n^th term of an AP is given by a_n = a + (n − 1)d, where 'a' is the first term and 'd' is the common difference.

Sum of Terms Equidistant from Ends

In a finite AP, the sum of terms equidistant from the beginning and the end is always constant and equal to the sum of the first and last terms.

Middle Term Property

If the number of terms 'n' is odd, the average is the middle term. If 'n' is even, the average is the arithmetic mean of the two middle terms.

Given:

A + B + C = 1 ÷ 20

B + C = 1 ÷ 30

C + A = 1 ÷ 24

Formula Used:

Work rate = 1 ÷ Time

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 20, 30, 24 = 120

⇒ Total work = 120 units

⇒ (A + B + C) work = 120 ÷ 20 = 6

⇒ (B + C) work = 120 ÷ 30 = 4

⇒ (C + A) work = 120 ÷ 24 = 5

⇒ A = 6 − 4 = 2

⇒ B = 6 − 5 = 1

⇒ Time taken by B = 120 ÷ 1 = 120 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 120 minutes.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• Vijender Singh, an Olympic bronze medallist boxer, hails from the state of Haryana in India.
• He is a professional boxer who made history by becoming the first Indian boxer to win an Olympic medal in boxing at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
• Vijender Singh was born in Kaluwas village, Bhiwani district, Haryana, which is known as the hub of boxing in India and has produced several successful boxers.
• He has contributed immensely to popularizing boxing in India and has inspired many young athletes from Haryana to take up the sport professionally.
• The state of Haryana has a rich legacy in sports and has produced numerous athletes who have excelled at the national and international levels.

Additional Information

• Haryana’s Contribution to Sports:
• Haryana is known for its sports culture and has a significant number of sports facilities and training centers.
• The state boasts of producing athletes in various disciplines like boxing, wrestling, hockey, kabaddi, and athletics.
• Notable athletes from Haryana include Sakshi Malik (Olympic wrestler), Neeraj Chopra (Olympic javelin throw gold medallist), and Rani Rampal (former Indian hockey captain).
• Olympic Achievements of Vijender Singh:
• Vijender Singh won the bronze medal in the middleweight category at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
• He also represented India in several other international competitions, including the Commonwealth Games and Asian Games.
• He was honored with prestigious awards like the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna and Padma Shri.
• Boxing in Haryana:
• The Bhiwani Boxing Club in Haryana is regarded as the breeding ground for talented Indian boxers.
• It has produced many international-level boxers, including Vijender Singh and Akhil Kumar.
• The club has modern facilities and training programs that help athletes achieve excellence.
• Recognition and Impact:
• Vijender Singh’s Olympic medal brought immense recognition to Indian boxing and motivated young aspirants to take up the sport.
• His achievements have led to increased support and funding for boxing infrastructure in India, especially in Haryana.
• He transitioned into professional boxing in 2015 and has been successful in the international arena.

The correct answer is expanding social security coverage.

Key Points

• SPREE 2025 is a special initiative launched under the Employees' State Insurance (ESI) Act to enhance and expand social security coverage for workers.
• The scheme aims to bring more workers, especially those in the unorganized sector, under the ambit of the ESI scheme, ensuring access to benefits like healthcare, sickness benefits, maternity benefits, and disability compensation.
• The initiative focuses on ensuring that a broader section of the workforce benefits from social security measures, which include medical care and financial assistance during contingencies.
• Through SPREE 2025, efforts are being made to increase registrations of establishments and employees under the ESI Act, thus enabling access to better social protection mechanisms.
• The program aligns with the government’s broader goal of achieving inclusive growth and ensuring the welfare of workers by providing them with a secure safety net.

Additional Information

• Employees' State Insurance (ESI) Act:
• The ESI Act was enacted in 1948 to provide social security to workers in case of sickness, maternity, injury, or death due to employment-related injuries.
• It applies to establishments with more than 10 employees in specific industries, including factories and other notified sectors.
• Under the Act, covered employees and employers contribute a percentage of wages to the ESI fund, which is used to provide benefits.
• Social Security Coverage in India:
• Social security schemes in India aim to provide a safety net for workers, especially in times of financial or medical emergencies.
• Other major schemes include the Atal Pension Yojana (APY), PM-SYM, and National Pension Scheme (NPS).
• These schemes cover aspects like retirement benefits, health insurance, and disability benefits.
• Unorganized Sector Workforce:
• India has over 42 crore workers in the unorganized sector, which constitutes a significant portion of the total workforce.
• Efforts like SPREE 2025 aim to formalize employment and extend benefits to these workers, ensuring better job security and social welfare.
• Key Benefits of ESI Scheme:
• Medical Benefits: Free medical care to insured persons and their families.
• Sickness Benefits: Cash compensation during certified periods of sickness.
• Maternity Benefits: Paid leave during pregnancy or childbirth.
• Disability Benefits: Compensation for temporary or permanent physical disability.

Important Points

• SPREE 2025: It focuses specifically on enhancing the reach of the ESI scheme and ensuring benefits reach a greater number of employees.
• Eligibility: The ESI Act applies to employees earning less than a specified wage limit (currently ₹21,000 per month).
• Implementation: The initiative is being executed by Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), which oversees the administration of the ESI scheme.
• Future Goals: SPREE 2025 aims to achieve universal social security coverage for all workers, including those in informal sectors, by the year 2025.

The correct answer is Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai.

Key Points

• Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai was appointed as the Chief Justice of India (CJI) in May 2025. He succeeded the outgoing Chief Justice, as per the established system of seniority in the Supreme Court of India.
• Justice Gavai, born on 24 November 1960, hails from Nagpur, Maharashtra, and has had an illustrious career in the Indian judiciary.
• He was elevated to the Supreme Court of India on 24 May 2019 and has contributed significantly to various landmark judgments during his tenure.
• Justice Gavai became the second Chief Justice of India from the Scheduled Caste community, following Justice K.G. Balakrishnan.
• His tenure as the 50^th Chief Justice of India is expected to focus on furthering judicial reforms and ensuring timely justice delivery.

Additional Information

• Chief Justice of India (CJI):
• The Chief Justice of India is the head of the Supreme Court of India, the highest judicial forum and final court of appeal under the Constitution of India.
• The CJI is appointed by the President of India based on the principle of seniority among the judges of the Supreme Court.
• The CJI plays a crucial role in allocating cases to judges and managing the overall functioning of the judiciary in India.
• The tenure of the CJI depends on the age of retirement, which is 65 years for Supreme Court judges.
• Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai's Early Career:
• Justice Gavai started his legal practice in 1985 at the Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court.
• He was appointed as a Judge of the Bombay High Court on 14 November 2003.
• He served as the acting Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court before being elevated to the Supreme Court of India.
• Notable Judgments by Justice Gavai:
• Justice Gavai has been part of key judgments related to constitutional law, criminal law, and civil rights.
• One of his important contributions includes rulings on environmental protection and addressing issues of public interest.
• Importance of the Chief Justice of India:
• The CJI ensures the independence of the judiciary and upholds the Constitution of India.
• The CJI also advises the President in judicial appointments and other significant matters under Article 124(2) of the Indian Constitution.
• He/she has the responsibility of maintaining the highest standards of judicial ethics and integrity.

Important Points

• Judicial Appointments:
• The appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts is governed by the Collegium System, which consists of the CJI and a group of senior judges.
• This system ensures transparency and merit-based selection of judges.
• Scheduled Caste Representation:
• Justice Gavai's appointment as the CJI underscores the importance of inclusivity and representation of marginalized communities in the judiciary.
• It highlights the judiciary's commitment to diversity and equal opportunities.
• Judicial Reforms:
• Justice Gavai's tenure is expected to focus on reducing case pendency and improving the efficiency of the judicial system.
• He is likely to emphasize the use of technology in courts to enhance accessibility and transparency.

The correct answer is Bharat Ratna.

Key Points

• Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India, instituted on 2 January 1954. It is awarded in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavor.
• Former Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2024 for his outstanding contribution to Indian politics and economic reforms.
• P.V. Narasimha Rao, often referred to as the "Father of Indian Economic Reforms," is credited with initiating the 1991 economic liberalization reforms that transformed India's economy.
• The Bharat Ratna is conferred without distinction of race, occupation, position, or sex, and recipients receive a certificate (Sanad) signed by the President and a medallion in the shape of a peepal leaf.
• The award does not carry any monetary grant, but it is regarded as the highest honor in India, symbolizing immense prestige and recognition.

Additional Information

• P.V. Narasimha Rao's Contributions:
• P.V. Narasimha Rao served as the 9^th Prime Minister of India from 1991 to 1996, leading the country during a time of economic crisis.
• He is credited with introducing economic liberalization policies in 1991, which included measures like reducing trade barriers, deregulating industries, and encouraging foreign investment.
• Rao also focused on improving India's foreign relations and strengthening ties with nations like the U.S., China, and Israel.
• He was a polyglot and a scholar, fluent in 17 languages, and he made significant contributions to Indian literature and culture.
• Other Civilian Awards in India:
• Padma Vibhushan: The second-highest civilian award, given for exceptional and distinguished service in any field, including service rendered by government employees.
• Padma Bhushan: The third-highest civilian award, awarded for distinguished service of high order in any field.
• Padma Shri: The fourth-highest civilian award, awarded for distinguished service in any field, with an emphasis on grassroots achievements.
• Notable Bharat Ratna Recipients:
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: Awarded posthumously in 1990 for his contributions to the Constitution of India and social reforms.
• Mother Teresa: Awarded in 1980 for her humanitarian work and dedication to the poor and sick.
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee: Awarded in 2015 for his contributions as a statesman and leader of India.
• Selection Process for Bharat Ratna:
• The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President of India, and a maximum of three awards can be conferred in a given year.
• The recipients are announced in the Republic Day honors list, and the award ceremony is held at the Rashtrapati Bhavan.

Important Points

• The Bharat Ratna medallion does not have any monetary reward, but the recipients enjoy lifetime free travel on Indian Railways and airlines.
• The award cannot be used as a title or prefix by the recipients, as per the Constitution of India.
• A total of 48 individuals (as of 2024) have been conferred with the Bharat Ratna since its inception.
• The first recipients of Bharat Ratna in 1954 were C. Rajagopalachari, Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, and C.V. Raman.