General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Released a special stamp, 'Wheat Revolution'.

Key Points

• The special stamp 'Wheat Revolution' was released to commemorate the success and achievements of the Green Revolution in India.
• The Green Revolution was a significant agricultural reform that began in the 1960s, aiming to increase food grain production in India.
• This period marked the introduction of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, and better irrigation techniques, which led to a substantial increase in crop production, particularly wheat and rice.
• The release of the 'Wheat Revolution' stamp symbolized the country's commitment to agricultural advancement and the farmers' pivotal role in achieving food security.

Additional Information

• Green Revolution
• The Green Revolution refers to a set of research, development, and technology transfer initiatives that occurred between the 1940s and the late 1960s.
• It led to the adoption of new agricultural techniques, including the use of high-yielding variety seeds, synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, and improved irrigation methods.
• The main goal was to increase food production and prevent famine in developing countries, particularly in Asia and Latin America.
• In India, the Green Revolution began in the 1960s and resulted in the country becoming self-sufficient in food grain production within a few decades.
• High-Yielding Variety (HYV) Seeds
• These seeds are genetically modified to produce higher yields compared to traditional varieties.
• They are more responsive to fertilizers and irrigation, leading to increased productivity per hectare.
• HYV seeds played a crucial role in the success of the Green Revolution, especially for crops like wheat and rice.
• Impact of the Green Revolution in India
• The Green Revolution transformed India from a food-deficient country to one of the world's leading agricultural producers.
• It increased the production of staple crops, reduced food imports, and helped achieve food security.
• However, it also led to environmental challenges, such as soil degradation, water depletion, and increased use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
• Despite these challenges, the Green Revolution is considered a major milestone in India's agricultural history.

The correct answer is Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.

Key Points

• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was a prominent leader in the Indian independence movement, advocating for non-violent resistance against British rule.
• He founded the Khudai Khidmatgar ("Servants of God") movement in 1929, which was composed primarily of Pashtuns (Pathans) from the North-West Frontier Province.
• The movement emphasized social reform, education, and the upliftment of the Pashtun community, aligning closely with the principles of Mahatma Gandhi's non-violent resistance.
• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan is often referred to as the "Frontier Gandhi" due to his dedication to non-violence and his close association with Mahatma Gandhi.

Additional Information

• Khudai Khidmatgar Movement
• The Khudai Khidmatgar, also known as the "Red Shirts", was a non-violent movement founded by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan in 1929.
• The movement aimed to promote social and educational reform among the Pashtuns of the North-West Frontier Province (now Khyber Pakhtunkhwa in Pakistan).
• The Khudai Khidmatgar adopted a uniform of red shirts and practiced non-violent resistance, inspired by the teachings of Mahatma Gandhi.
• The movement played a significant role in the Indian independence struggle, particularly in mobilizing the Pashtun community against British colonial rule.
• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
• Born in 1890 in what is now Pakistan, Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was a towering figure in the Indian independence movement.
• He was a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi and an ardent advocate of non-violence.
• He spent much of his life working for the social upliftment and political rights of the Pashtun community.
• Despite facing repression from both the British authorities and later the Pakistani government, Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan remained committed to his principles of non-violence and social justice.

The correct answer is Article 39(b).

Key Points

• Article 39(b) is a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution.
• It emphasizes that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community should be distributed in a manner that best serves the common good.
• This principle aims to reduce economic inequalities and ensure equitable distribution of resources.
• Article 39(b) reflects the socialist philosophy embedded in the Indian Constitution, focusing on social justice and economic welfare.

Additional Information

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
• The DPSPs are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government. These principles are considered fundamental in the governance of the country.
• They are not enforceable by any court, but the principles laid down are considered in the governance of the state.
• The aim of the DPSPs is to create social and economic conditions under which citizens can lead a good life.
• They are mentioned in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, from Articles 36 to 51.
• Article 39(a)
• It directs the state to ensure that the citizens, men, and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
• Article 39(c)
• It aims to ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
• Article 39(d)
• It mandates that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

The correct answer is Khasi Hills.

Key Points

• Mawsynram is located in the southern ranges of the Khasi Hills in the Indian state of Meghalaya.
• It is renowned for receiving the highest average annual rainfall in the world, with an average of about 467 inches (11,871 mm).
• The Khasi Hills are part of the larger Patkai range, which extends across India and into Myanmar.
• Mawsynram's record rainfall is due to its location on the windward side of the hills, where the monsoon winds from the Bay of Bengal are funneled and cause heavy precipitation.

Additional Information

• Shevaroy hills
• The Shevaroy Hills are a range of hills located in the Eastern Ghats in Tamil Nadu, India.
• They are known for their coffee plantations and the hill station of Yercaud.
• Mizo hills
• The Mizo Hills, also known as Lushai Hills, are part of the Patkai range in the state of Mizoram, India.
• These hills are characterized by dense forests and a significant tribal population.
• Naga hills
• The Naga Hills are part of the Purvanchal Range in Nagaland, India.
• These hills are named after the Naga tribes who inhabit the region.
• Khasi hills
• The Khasi Hills are part of the Garo-Khasi range in Meghalaya, India.
• They are known for their unique living root bridges and the highest rainfall in Mawsynram.

The correct answer is 4^th.

Key Points

• India finished in the 4^th position in the overall medals tally at the Commonwealth Games 2022.
• India secured a total of 61 medals in the competition.
• Out of these, India won 22 gold medals, 16 silver medals, and 23 bronze medals.
• The performance was remarkable considering the tough competition from other participating nations.

Additional Information

• Commonwealth Games
• The Commonwealth Games is an international multi-sport event involving athletes from the Commonwealth of Nations.
• The event was first held in 1930 and has been conducted every four years since then, except for 1942 and 1946 due to World War II.
• The games are overseen by the Commonwealth Games Federation (CGF), which also controls the sporting program and selects the host cities.
• The Commonwealth Games feature sports that are popular in the Commonwealth countries, including athletics, swimming, rugby sevens, and netball.
• India's Performance in Commonwealth Games
• India has been participating in the Commonwealth Games since 1934.
• India's best performance came in the 2010 Commonwealth Games held in Delhi, where it finished second in the overall medals tally.
• India has consistently performed well in sports like shooting, wrestling, weightlifting, and boxing in the Commonwealth Games.
• The 2022 Commonwealth Games saw India achieving significant success in various disciplines, showcasing the country's sporting talent and determination.
• Medals Tally
• The medals tally is a table that lists the number of gold, silver, and bronze medals won by each country participating in a multi-sport event.
• The ranking in the medals tally is usually determined by the number of gold medals won, followed by the number of silver and bronze medals.
• In the event of a tie, the total number of medals won is considered.
• The medals tally provides an overall picture of the performance of countries in the event and highlights the leading sports nations.

The correct answer is Pratihara, Rashtrakuta, and Pala.

Key Points

• The Tripartite Struggle was a prolonged conflict between the Pratihara, Rashtrakuta, and Pala dynasties.
• This struggle took place during the 8^th to 10^th centuries over the control of the city of Kannauj, which was a symbol of prestige and power.
• Kannauj was strategically significant as it was located in the fertile Ganges plain and was a prominent center of commerce and culture.
• The struggle weakened all three dynasties over time, paving the way for other powers to rise in the Indian subcontinent.

Additional Information

• Pratihara Dynasty
• The Pratiharas, also known as the Gurjara-Pratiharas, were a powerful dynasty in northern India.
• They played a crucial role in resisting Arab invasions and preserving the cultural heritage of India.
• Their rule is marked by significant developments in art, architecture, and the spread of Hinduism.
• Rashtrakuta Dynasty
• The Rashtrakutas were a prominent dynasty in southern and central India.
• They were known for their military prowess and their patronage of arts and literature.
• The famous rock-cut temples of Ellora, including the Kailasa temple, were built during their reign.
• Pala Dynasty
• The Palas were a major dynasty in eastern India, particularly in the regions of Bengal and Bihar.
• They were great patrons of Buddhism and played a significant role in the spread of the religion to Tibet and Southeast Asia.
• The Nalanda University flourished under their patronage, becoming a renowned center of learning.

The correct answer is Camillo Golgi.

Key Points

• Camillo Golgi was an Italian physician, pathologist, and scientist.
• He is renowned for discovering the Golgi apparatus, a complex of vesicles and folded membranes within the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.
• The Golgi apparatus plays a critical role in sorting and packaging proteins and lipids for secretion or delivery to other organelles.
• Golgi's discovery was a pivotal moment in cell biology, and he was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1906 for his contributions.

Additional Information

• Golgi Apparatus
• The Golgi apparatus, also known as the Golgi complex, is an organelle found in most eukaryotic cells.
• It is involved in the modification, sorting, and packaging of proteins and lipids for secretion or use within the cell.
• The Golgi apparatus is composed of a series of flattened, stacked pouches called cisternae.
• The cis face of the Golgi apparatus is the receiving side, while the trans face is the shipping side.
• Camillo Golgi's Contributions
• Camillo Golgi developed a staining technique called the "black reaction" or "Golgi stain," which allowed him to visualize the Golgi apparatus and other cellular structures.
• This staining method involves using silver nitrate to selectively stain the nervous system tissue, enabling the detailed study of neurons and their connections.
• Golgi's work laid the foundation for our understanding of the organization and function of the nervous system.
• His discoveries have had a lasting impact on the field of cell biology and neuroscience.
• Other Notable Researchers
• William Harvey: An English physician who made significant contributions to the understanding of the circulatory system, particularly the function of the heart and blood vessels.
• Francis Crick: A British molecular biologist, biophysicist, and neuroscientist who co-discovered the structure of DNA with James Watson.
• Louis Pasteur: A French biologist, microbiologist, and chemist renowned for his discoveries of the principles of vaccination, microbial fermentation, and pasteurization.

The correct answer is Savings as well as government expenditure are injections to the circular flow..

Key Points

• Savings are considered a leakage from the circular flow of income as they represent income not spent on consumption.
• Government expenditure is an injection into the circular flow as it represents spending that adds to the overall demand in the economy.
• In a closed economy with no government intervention, savings would be equal to investment.
• The correct representation would be that investment and government spending are injections, while savings, taxes, and imports are leakages.

Additional Information

• Circular Flow of Income
• The circular flow of income is a model that depicts how money flows through the economy between households and firms.
• In this model, households provide factors of production (labor, land, capital) to firms, and in return, they receive income (wages, rent, interest, profit).
• Households then use this income to purchase goods and services from firms, completing the cycle.
• Leakages and Injections
• Leakages are non-consumption uses of income, including savings, taxes, and imports. They represent money that leaves the circular flow.
• Injections are additions to the income of firms, including investment, government spending, and exports. They represent money entering the circular flow.
• In a balanced circular flow, the total value of leakages is equal to the total value of injections.
• Real Flow and Monetary Flow
• The real flow refers to the flow of physical goods and services and the factors of production.
• The monetary flow refers to the flow of money in the form of income and expenditure.
• In the circular flow model, the real flow and monetary flow move in opposite directions to each other.

The correct answer is zero order reaction.

Key Points

• In a zero-order reaction, the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactants.
• These reactions are commonly seen in catalytic processes where the catalyst surface is saturated by the reactants.
• In such reactions, the rate of reaction remains constant until the reactant concentration is significantly depleted.
• Zero-order kinetics is often observed in heterogeneous catalysis and other situations where a limiting step is saturated.

Additional Information

• First-order Reaction
• A first-order reaction is one where the rate is directly proportional to the concentration of one reactant.
• The rate law for a first-order reaction can be expressed as: Rate = k[A], where k is the rate constant and [A] is the concentration of the reactant.
• These reactions often involve unimolecular processes.
• Examples include radioactive decay and certain substitution reactions in organic chemistry.
• Second-order Reaction
• A second-order reaction's rate is proportional to the square of the concentration of one reactant or the product of the concentrations of two reactants.
• The rate law can be written as: Rate = k[A]^2 or Rate = k[A][B], depending on the reaction mechanism.
• These reactions often involve bimolecular processes.
• Examples include the reaction between hydrogen and iodine to form hydrogen iodide.
• Third-order Reaction
• A third-order reaction's rate depends on the concentration of three reactants or the concentration of one reactant raised to the third power, or other combinations summing to three.
• The rate law can be expressed as: Rate = k[A]^3 or other combinations.
• These reactions are less common compared to first and second-order reactions.
• An example is the reaction between nitric oxide and oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The Sangeet Natak Akademi is India’s national academy for music, dance, and drama.
• It was established by the Indian education ministry in 1952 and is presently an autonomous body of the Ministry of Culture.
• The registered office of the Sangeet Natak Akademi is located in New Delhi, India.
• It aims to promote and preserve the vast intangible cultural heritage of India through various initiatives and awards.

Additional Information

• Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards
• These are national honors conferred by the Sangeet Natak Akademi on performing artists and practitioners of traditional arts.
• The awards are given annually in the fields of music, dance, and drama.
• Awardees receive a cash prize, a shawl, and a citation.
• Fellowship of the Akademi (Akademi Ratna)
• It is the highest honor conferred by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.
• The fellowship is awarded to individuals who have made an exceptional contribution to the field of performing arts.
• Fellows receive a cash prize, a shawl, and a citation.
• Training and Scholarships
• The Akademi provides scholarships to young artists for advanced training in performing arts.
• It also organizes workshops and seminars to promote traditional art forms.
• The aim is to preserve and propagate the rich cultural heritage of India.
• Documentation and Publication
• The Akademi undertakes documentation and publication of various art forms.
• This includes audio and video recordings, books, and journals.
• The aim is to create a repository of the vast intangible cultural heritage of India.

The correct answer is Part V.

Key Points

• Part V of the Indian Constitution is titled "The Union".
• It encompasses provisions related to the President, the Vice-President, the Council of Ministers, and the Parliament.
• Articles 52 to 151 deal with the executive, legislative, and administrative functions of the Union Government.
• The election of the Vice President of India is specifically covered under Articles 63 to 71 in Part V of the Constitution.

Additional Information

• Part IV
• Part IV of the Indian Constitution is titled "Directive Principles of State Policy".
• It contains Articles 36 to 51.
• These articles guide the State in making laws and policies to establish a just society in the country.
• However, they are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by any court.
• Part III
• Part III of the Indian Constitution is titled "Fundamental Rights".
• It contains Articles 12 to 35.
• These articles guarantee essential rights such as equality, freedom, and protection against exploitation.
• These rights are justiciable, meaning they can be enforced by the courts.
• Part VI
• Part VI of the Indian Constitution is titled "The States".
• It contains Articles 152 to 237.
• This part deals with the executive, legislative, and administrative structure of the States.
• It outlines the roles and responsibilities of the Governor, State Legislature, and Council of Ministers.

The correct answer is Kabaddi.

Key Points

• The 'Baulk Line' is a critical feature in the game of Kabaddi.
• It is used to determine the playing area for raiders and defenders.
• A raider must cross the baulk line to make their raid valid.
• Crossing the baulk line puts pressure on the defenders and adds a strategic element to the game.

Additional Information

• Kabaddi
• Kabaddi is a contact team sport that originated in India.
• The objective of the game is for a single player, known as a "raider," to run into the opposing team's half of the court, tag out as many of their defenders as possible, and return to their own half of the court, all without being tackled by the defenders, and in a single breath.
• The baulk line plays a critical role during a raid. A raider must cross this line to make their raid valid, and it acts as a challenge for both raiders and defenders.
• Kabaddi has gained international recognition and is played in several countries, with professional leagues and tournaments being organized globally.
• Badminton
• Badminton is a racquet sport played using racquets to hit a shuttlecock across a net.
• It is usually played as a singles or doubles game.
• The boundaries of the playing area in badminton are defined by lines on the court, but terms like "baulk line" are not used in this sport.
• Tennis
• Tennis is a racquet sport that can be played individually against a single opponent (singles) or between two teams of two players each (doubles).
• The court is rectangular and bounded by lines, but does not include a "baulk line."
• Players use the tennis racquet to hit the ball over a net into the opponent's court.
• Kho-Kho
• Kho-Kho is a traditional Indian sport that involves two teams of twelve players each.
• The game is played on a rectangular field, and the main objective is to avoid being tagged by members of the opposing team.
• While the sport involves various lines and zones, such as the central line and the posts, the term "baulk line" is not applicable to Kho-Kho.

The correct answer is Light year is the unit of time..

Key Points

• A light year is not a unit of time; it is a unit of distance.
• A light year is the distance that light travels in one year in a vacuum.
• The concept of a light year is used in astronomy to measure vast distances between celestial objects.
• One light year is approximately 9.461 trillion kilometers (5.879 trillion miles).

Additional Information

• Light Year:
• A light year is defined as the distance that light travels in a vacuum in one Julian year (365.25 days).
• This distance is used in astronomy to express the scale of the universe.
• It allows astronomers to measure distances between stars, galaxies, and other celestial objects.
• Angstrom:
• An angstrom is a unit of length used primarily in the field of physics and chemistry.
• It is equal to 10^-10 meters or 0.1 nanometers.
• Angstroms are often used to measure wavelengths of light, atomic radii, and the size of molecules.
• Distance Measurement in Astronomy:
• Astronomers use various units to measure distances, including astronomical units (AU), light years, and parsecs.
• 1 AU is the average distance from the Earth to the Sun, approximately 149.6 million kilometers.
• 1 parsec is equal to about 3.26 light years or 31 trillion kilometers.
• These measurements help in understanding the vastness of space and the relative positions of celestial bodies.

The correct answer is It is an incentive to provide the benefits of advanced technology and decrease the cost of production.

Key Points

• Subsidies in the agriculture sector are primarily aimed at reducing the cost of production for farmers.
• They help in making advanced technologies and farming techniques more accessible to farmers, which can lead to increased productivity.
• By lowering production costs, subsidies can help in stabilizing food prices and ensuring food security.
• Such incentives also encourage farmers to adopt sustainable agricultural practices, which can lead to long-term benefits for the environment and the economy.

Additional Information

• Subsidies
• Subsidies are financial aids provided by the government to support economic sectors, making goods and services more affordable.
• They can be in the form of direct cash transfers, tax breaks, or reduced prices.
• Agricultural Subsidies
• Agricultural subsidies are designed to support farmers by reducing the cost of inputs such as seeds, fertilizers, and machinery.
• These subsidies aim to enhance agricultural productivity and ensure food security.
• Food Security
• Food security means ensuring that all people have access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to maintain a healthy and active life.
• It is dependent on food availability, accessibility, and proper utilization.
• Sustainable Agriculture
• Sustainable agriculture involves farming practices that are environmentally friendly, economically viable, and socially responsible.
• It aims to meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

The correct answer is Central Government.

Key Points

• The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, is an Act of the Parliament of India, enacted in the wake of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy.
• The Act empowers the Central Government to make rules to regulate environmental pollution and to establish authorities for the purpose.
• It provides the Central Government with the authority to take all necessary measures to protect and improve the quality of the environment.
• It encompasses a wide range of regulations and standards to control pollution and manage hazardous substances.

Additional Information

• Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
• The Act was passed in response to the need for overarching legislation to protect and improve the environment.
• The Act gives the Central Government the power to take measures for environmental protection, such as setting standards for emissions or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources.
• It provides a framework for coordinating the activities of various central and state authorities established under other laws to ensure environmental protection.
• The Act also includes provisions for penalties for contravention of the standards and restrictions set by the government.
• Key Provisions of the Act
• Section 3: Empowers the Central Government to take measures to protect and improve the environment and to prevent, control, and abate environmental pollution.
• Section 6: Empowers the Central Government to make rules to regulate environmental pollution, including standards for the quality of the environment, and the maximum allowable concentrations of various pollutants.
• Section 15: Provides for penalties for non-compliance with the provisions of the Act, including imprisonment and fines.
• Section 19: Allows any person to file a complaint in a court of law against anyone who fails to comply with the Act's provisions.
• Importance of the Act
• The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, serves as a comprehensive framework for the protection and improvement of the environment in India.
• It addresses the need for a unified approach to environmental regulation and management.
• The Act empowers the government to take proactive measures to prevent environmental degradation and to respond effectively to environmental emergencies.
• It plays a crucial role in ensuring sustainable development and safeguarding public health and well-being.

The correct answer is Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI.

Key Points

• Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI of the Indian Constitution deal with the State Legislature.
• The State Legislature consists of the Governor and one or two Houses, as the case may be.
• In some states, the legislature is bicameral, consisting of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council, while in others, it is unicameral, consisting only of the Legislative Assembly.
• These articles lay down the composition, duration, and functions of the State Legislatures.

Additional Information

• Article 168: This article specifies the composition of the State Legislature, which can be either unicameral (with only the Legislative Assembly) or bicameral (with both the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council).
• Article 170: This article deals with the composition of the Legislative Assemblies, including the number of seats and the delimitation of constituencies.
• Article 171: This article outlines the composition of the Legislative Councils, including the method of election and nomination of members.
• Article 174: This article mandates that the Governor shall summon the Legislature at least once every six months.
• Article 176: This article requires the Governor to address the Legislature at the commencement of the first session after each general election and at the commencement of the first session of each year.
• Article 178: This article provides for the election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly.
• Article 194: This article grants certain privileges and immunities to the members of the State Legislature.
• Article 212: This article states that the validity of any proceedings in the Legislature of a state shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.

The correct answer is Lithosphere.

Key Points

• The Lithosphere is the rigid, outermost shell of the Earth, encompassing both the crust and the uppermost part of the mantle.
• It is divided into tectonic plates that float on the semi-fluid asthenosphere beneath it.
• The thickness of the Lithosphere varies, being thinnest at mid-ocean ridges and thickest beneath continental crust.
• The Lithosphere is crucial for plate tectonics, as its movements and interactions cause earthquakes, volcanic activity, and the creation of mountain ranges.

Additional Information

• Stratosphere
• The Stratosphere is the second major layer of Earth's atmosphere, lying above the Troposphere and below the Mesosphere.
• It extends from about 10 km to 50 km above Earth's surface.
• This layer contains the ozone layer, which absorbs and scatters ultraviolet solar radiation.
• Commercial jet aircraft typically fly in the lower stratosphere.
• Troposphere
• The Troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, extending from Earth's surface up to about 8-15 km.
• It contains approximately 75% of the atmosphere's mass and 99% of its water vapor and aerosols.
• Weather events occur in the Troposphere.
• Mesosphere
• The Mesosphere is the layer of the atmosphere above the Stratosphere and below the Thermosphere.
• It extends from about 50 km to 85 km above the Earth's surface.
• This layer is where most meteorites burn up upon entering the Earth's atmosphere.
• The temperature decreases with altitude in the Mesosphere.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• Brahmo Samaj was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828.
• Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekanand in 1897.
• Prarthana Samaj was founded by Atmaram Pandurang in 1867.
• Arya Samaj was founded by Dayananda Saraswati in 1875.

Additional Information

• Brahmo Samaj:
• Founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828.
• Played a significant role in the socio-religious reform movements in India.
• It aimed to purify Hinduism and to promote monotheism.
• It advocated for the abolition of practices like Sati and child marriage.
• Ramakrishna Mission:
• Founded by Swami Vivekanand in 1897.
• Named after Swami Vivekanand's guru, Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.
• It focuses on religious and educational activities, and also on social service.
• The mission aims to promote the ideas of Vedanta and Yoga.
• Prarthana Samaj:
• Founded by Atmaram Pandurang in 1867.
• It was a reform movement within Hinduism.
• The organization aimed at making social reforms like the abolition of caste system, widow remarriage, and women's education.
• The Samaj promoted monotheism and condemned idolatry.
• Arya Samaj:
• Founded by Dayananda Saraswati in 1875.
• It aimed at promoting the values of the Vedas.
• The movement sought to reform and rejuvenate Hinduism.
• It opposed the caste system and advocated for gender equality and education for all.

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

• In West Bengal, rice is a major crop and is cultivated three times a year.
• The three main rice crops are known as Aus, Aman, and Boro.
• Aus rice is sown during the pre-monsoon season (March-April) and harvested in the summer (June-July).
• Aman rice is sown during the monsoon season (June-July) and harvested in the winter (November-December).
• Boro rice is sown during the winter season (December-January) and harvested in the summer (April-May).

Additional Information

• Aus Rice:
• Also known as autumn rice, it is one of the early varieties of rice cultivated in the pre-monsoon period.
• It is typically sown in March-April and harvested by June-July.
• This variety of rice requires less water compared to the other two, making it suitable for areas with less rainfall.
• Aman Rice:
• Also known as winter rice, it is a monsoon-season crop.
• It is sown in June-July and harvested by November-December.
• This variety of rice depends heavily on the monsoon rains for its cultivation.
• Boro Rice:
• Also known as summer rice, it is cultivated in the winter season.
• It is sown in December-January and harvested by April-May.
• This variety requires irrigation facilities as it is grown during the dry season.

The correct answer is Agriculture.

Key Points

• Agriculture is a sector that is highly dependent on seasons and climatic conditions, leading to seasonal unemployment.
• During the off-season, agricultural workers may not find work, leading to temporary unemployment.
• This type of unemployment typically affects rural areas where agriculture is the primary occupation.
• Seasonal unemployment in agriculture can be mitigated by providing alternate employment opportunities during the off-season.

Additional Information

• Seasonal Unemployment:
• Seasonal unemployment occurs when people are unemployed at certain times of the year because their work is seasonal in nature.
• Common sectors that face seasonal unemployment include agriculture, tourism, and construction.
• In agriculture, this type of unemployment happens between planting and harvesting seasons.
• To mitigate seasonal unemployment, workers often seek alternative employment during the off-season or may participate in government employment schemes.
• Cyclical Unemployment:
• Cyclical unemployment occurs due to the fluctuations in the business cycle—during recessions, demand for goods and services decreases, leading to job losses.
• This type of unemployment is typically temporary and can be addressed through economic policies that stimulate demand.
• Structural Unemployment:
• Structural unemployment is caused by mismatches between the skills of the unemployed and the skills needed for available jobs.
• This can be due to technological changes, shifts in the economy, or other long-term changes.
• Re-training and education programs can help reduce structural unemployment.
• Frictional Unemployment:
• Frictional unemployment occurs when people are temporarily unemployed while transitioning from one job to another.
• This is a natural form of unemployment and is often short-term.
• It is also considered a sign of a healthy economy as workers move to jobs that better match their skills and preferences.