SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

7100 Total Questions284 Official PapersYears: 2017–2025Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 1701–1720 of 7100Page 86 of 100
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1701

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following State governments has launched a scheme ‘Ankur’ in May 2021 to promote planting of trees in public, wherein people will be awarded for planting and taking care of the saplings?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bihar

  2. BOption (b)

    West Bengal

  3. COption (c)

    Uttarakhand

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Madhya Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The Madhya Pradesh government launched the 'Ankur' scheme in May 2021.
  • This scheme aims to promote tree plantation among the public.
  • Under this scheme, people are encouraged to plant saplings and take care of them.
  • People will be awarded for successfully planting and nurturing the saplings.

Additional Information

  • Environmental Importance of Tree Plantation
  • Tree plantation plays a crucial role in maintaining ecological balance.
  • Trees absorb carbon dioxide and release oxygen, helping to combat climate change.
  • They provide habitat and food for wildlife, thus preserving biodiversity.
  • Trees prevent soil erosion and help in maintaining the water cycle.
  • Government Initiatives for Environmental Conservation
  • Green India Mission: Launched by the Indian government to protect, restore and enhance India’s diminishing forest cover.
  • National Afforestation Programme: Aimed at increasing forest and tree cover to restore ecological balance and improve the quality of life.
  • Namami Gange Programme: An integrated conservation mission to clean and protect the Ganga River by controlling pollution and rejuvenating its ecosystem.
  • Community Participation in Environmental Conservation
  • Community participation is essential for the success of environmental conservation efforts.
  • Public awareness campaigns can educate people about the importance of tree planting and environmental protection.
  • Involving local communities in tree plantation drives can ensure better care and maintenance of the saplings.
  • Incentive schemes like 'Ankur' can motivate more people to participate in such activities.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1702

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

In the Right-Hand Thumb Rule, the thumb is directed towards the direction of:

  1. AOption (a)

    current

  2. BOption (b)

    electric field

  3. COption (c)

    motion of the conductor

  4. DOption (d)

    magnetic field

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

current

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is current.

Key Points

  • The Right-Hand Thumb Rule is used to determine the direction of the magnetic field relative to the direction of the current.
  • In this rule, the thumb points in the direction of the current, and the fingers curl around the conductor, indicating the direction of the magnetic field lines.
  • The Right-Hand Thumb Rule helps visualize the 3-dimensional relationship between current and magnetic fields, crucial in electromagnetism.
  • This rule is fundamental in understanding the behavior of electromagnets, electric motors, and generators.

Additional Information

  • Current
  • Current is the flow of electric charge in a conductor, typically measured in amperes (A).
  • It is the movement of electrons through a conductive material, such as a wire.
  • The direction of conventional current is taken as the direction in which positive charge carriers would move.
  • In most practical scenarios, electrons (negative charge carriers) move in the opposite direction to the conventional current.
  • Electric Field
  • An electric field is a region around a charged particle or object within which a force would be exerted on other charged particles or objects.
  • It is represented by field lines that point in the direction a positive test charge would move if placed in the field.
  • The strength of the electric field is measured in volts per meter (V/m).
  • Electric fields are fundamental to the behavior of electric charges and the operation of capacitors.
  • Motion of the Conductor
  • The motion of a conductor in a magnetic field induces a voltage across the conductor.
  • This phenomenon is described by Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction.
  • The direction of the induced voltage is given by Lenz's Law, which states that the induced voltage will oppose the change in magnetic flux.
  • This principle is applied in the operation of electric generators.
  • Magnetic Field
  • A magnetic field is a vector field that describes the magnetic influence on moving electric charges, electric currents, and magnetic materials.
  • It is represented by field lines that indicate the direction and strength of the magnetic force.
  • The strength of a magnetic field is measured in teslas (T) or gauss (G).
  • Magnetic fields are fundamental to the operation of electromagnets, transformers, and magnetic storage devices.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1703

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Match the following Sportsman in List I and Award in List II:

LIST I - SportsmanLIST II - Award
A. Devendra Jhajhariai. Padma Shri 2022
B. Sumit Antilii. Padma Bhushan 2022
C. Neeraj Chopraiii. Arjun Award 2021
D. Shikhar Dhawaniv. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2021
  1. AOption (a)

    A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D- iii

  2. BOption (b)

    A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

  3. COption (c)

    A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

  4. DOption (d)

    A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D- iii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1: A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii.

Key Points

  • Devendra Jhajharia was awarded the Padma Bhushan 2022 (A-ii).
  • Sumit Antil received the Padma Shri 2022 (B-i).
  • Neeraj Chopra was honored with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2021 (C-iv).
  • Shikhar Dhawan was conferred with the Arjun Award 2021 (D-iii).

Additional Information

  • Devendra Jhajharia is an Indian Paralympic javelin thrower who has won multiple medals in the Paralympic Games. He was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2022 for his contributions to sports.
  • Sumit Antil is an Indian Paralympic javelin thrower who won a gold medal in the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics. He was awarded the Padma Shri in 2022 for his outstanding performance in sports.
  • Neeraj Chopra is an Indian track and field athlete who competes in the javelin throw. He won a gold medal in the Tokyo 2020 Olympics and was honored with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2021.
  • Shikhar Dhawan is an Indian cricketer and an opening batsman for the Indian national team. He was awarded the Arjun Award in 2021 for his exceptional performance in cricket.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1704

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution CANNOT be suspended even during an emergency declared on the grounds of war or external aggression?

  1. AOption (a)

    Articles 15 and 17

  2. BOption (b)

    Articles 20 and 21

  3. COption (c)

    Articles 14 and 16

  4. DOption (d)

    Articles 30 and 32

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Articles 20 and 21

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Articles 20 and 21.

Key Points

  • Article 20 of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection of certain rights in the case of conviction for offenses. It prohibits ex-post-facto laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination.
  • Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. It states that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
  • Both Articles 20 and 21 are fundamental rights under Part III of the Indian Constitution and remain enforceable during times of emergency.
  • Under Article 359 of the Constitution, the President can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of other fundamental rights during an emergency, but Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended.

Additional Information

  • Article 15 and 17:
  • Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
  • These articles can be suspended during an emergency.
  • Article 14 and 16:
  • Article 14 ensures equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within India.
  • Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
  • These articles can also be suspended during an emergency.
  • Article 30 and 32:
  • Article 30 provides rights of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
  • Article 32 provides the right to constitutional remedies for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
  • These articles can also be suspended during an emergency.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1705

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is the largest inhabited riverine island in the world?

  1. AOption (a)

    Peacock

  2. BOption (b)

    Majuli

  3. COption (c)

    Bhavani

  4. DOption (d)

    Lakshadweep

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Majuli

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Majuli.

Key Points

  • Majuli is the largest riverine island in the world.
  • It is located on the Brahmaputra River in the Indian state of Assam.
  • Majuli has a rich cultural heritage and is known for its Vaishnavite monasteries.
  • The island was declared a district in 2016, making it the first island district of India.

Additional Information

  • Peacock Island
  • Peacock Island is a small riverine island in the Brahmaputra river, located in Guwahati, Assam.
  • It is known for the Umananda Temple dedicated to Lord Shiva.
  • Peacock Island is the smallest inhabited river island in the world.
  • Bhavani Island
  • Bhavani Island is located on the Krishna River in Andhra Pradesh, India.
  • It is a popular tourist destination known for its lush greenery and recreational activities.
  • Lakshadweep
  • Lakshadweep is a group of islands located in the Arabian Sea off the southwestern coast of India.
  • It is known for its beautiful beaches, coral reefs, and marine life.
  • Unlike Majuli, Lakshadweep is not a riverine island but a group of coral atolls.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1706

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

In which year was the battle of Buxar fought?

  1. AOption (a)

    1793

  2. BOption (b)

    1777

  3. COption (c)

    1764

  4. DOption (d)

    1757

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1764

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1764.

Key Points

  • The Battle of Buxar was fought on 22 October 1764.
  • It was a significant battle between the British East India Company and the combined forces of the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II, Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-Daula, and Nawab of Bengal Mir Qasim.
  • The victory of the British East India Company in the Battle of Buxar solidified their position in India and paved the way for their eventual control over large parts of the Indian subcontinent.
  • This battle is considered a pivotal point in Indian history as it marked the beginning of British colonial rule in India.

Additional Information

  • British East India Company
  • The British East India Company was an English company formed for the exploitation of trade with East and Southeast Asia and India, incorporated by royal charter on December 31, 1600.
  • It eventually came to rule large areas of India with its own private armies, exercising military power and assuming administrative functions.
  • Mughal Empire
  • The Mughal Empire was an empire in the Indian subcontinent, founded in 1526.
  • It was established and ruled by a Muslim dynasty with Turko-Mongol Chagatai roots from Central Asia and lasted until the mid-19th century.
  • Nawab of Bengal
  • The Nawab of Bengal was the hereditary ruler of Bengal and Bihar, with the capital at Murshidabad.
  • The last independent Nawab of Bengal, Mir Qasim, was a key figure in the Battle of Buxar.
  • Nawab of Awadh
  • The Nawab of Awadh was the hereditary ruler of the state of Awadh (Oudh) in northern India.
  • Shuja-ud-Daula, the Nawab of Awadh, was one of the key figures in the Battle of Buxar, fighting against the British East India Company.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1707

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

What was the main objective of the Second Green Revolution in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ensuring food security in the western states

  2. BOption (b)

    Promoting conventional agricultural practices

  3. COption (c)

    Focusing on holistic development in agriculture

  4. DOption (d)

    Increasing the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Focusing on holistic development in agriculture

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Focusing on holistic development in agriculture.

Key Points

  • The Second Green Revolution aimed at enhancing productivity sustainably through modern agricultural practices.
  • It focused on diversification of crops, not just staple cereals, to ensure a balanced growth in agriculture.
  • The initiative aimed to integrate technology and innovation in farming, including the use of biotechnology and precision farming.
  • It also emphasized improving the income of farmers by promoting value addition, market linkages, and reducing the cost of cultivation.

Additional Information

  • Green Revolution:
  • The term "Green Revolution" refers to a series of research, development, and technology transfer initiatives that took place between the 1940s and the late 1960s.
  • It involved the development of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, increased use of fertilizers and irrigation methods, which significantly boosted agricultural production in many developing countries, including India.
  • Biotechnology in Agriculture:
  • Biotechnology refers to the use of living organisms or their systems to develop or make products. In agriculture, it includes genetic engineering, molecular markers, molecular diagnostics, vaccines, and tissue culture.
  • It helps in developing crops that are resistant to pests and diseases, reducing the need for chemical pesticides, and enhancing the nutritional value of crops.
  • Precision Farming:
  • Precision farming is an agricultural management concept based on observing, measuring, and responding to inter and intra-field variability in crops.
  • It involves the use of technologies like GPS, sensors, and data analytics to optimize field-level management with regard to crop farming.
  • Value Addition in Agriculture:
  • Value addition refers to the process of changing or transforming a product from its original state to a more valuable state.
  • In agriculture, it involves processes such as cleaning, sorting, grading, processing, packaging, and branding which enhance the marketability and profitability of agricultural produce.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1708

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who among the following was the youngest recipient of the Sangeetha Kalanidhi awarded by the Music Academy in 1947?

  1. AOption (a)

    Semmangudi Radhakrishna Srinivasa Iyer

  2. BOption (b)

    Ariyakudi Ramanuja Iyengar

  3. COption (c)

    Mallikarjun Bheemarayappa Mansur

  4. DOption (d)

    Bhimasen Joshi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Semmangudi Radhakrishna Srinivasa Iyer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Semmangudi Radhakrishna Srinivasa Iyer.

Key Points

  • Semmangudi Radhakrishna Srinivasa Iyer was a renowned Carnatic vocalist, widely acknowledged for his significant contributions to classical music.
  • He was awarded the prestigious Sangeetha Kalanidhi by the Music Academy in 1947 at the young age of 39, making him the youngest recipient at that time.
  • His unique style and adherence to traditional values in music earned him immense respect and recognition in the Carnatic music community.
  • Semmangudi's legacy continues to influence and inspire upcoming generations of Carnatic musicians.

Additional Information

  • Sangeetha Kalanidhi
  • The title Sangeetha Kalanidhi is considered one of the highest honors in the field of Carnatic music.
  • It is awarded annually by the Music Academy, Chennai, to musicians who have made significant contributions to the field of Carnatic music.
  • The award was instituted in 1929, and the recipients are chosen through a rigorous selection process by the academy.
  • It serves as a recognition of excellence and lifetime achievement in Carnatic music.
  • The Music Academy, Chennai
  • Founded in 1928, the Music Academy is one of the foremost institutions dedicated to the promotion and preservation of Carnatic music.
  • It is known for organizing the annual Madras Music Season, which is one of the largest and most prestigious festivals of Carnatic music.
  • The academy plays a pivotal role in nurturing young talent and conducting research and education in the field of music.
  • It has been instrumental in establishing high standards and fostering a rich cultural heritage in the realm of Carnatic music.
  • Carnatic Music
  • Carnatic music is a system of music commonly associated with the southern part of India, including the states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala.
  • It is characterized by its intricate compositions, complex rhythmic patterns, and emphasis on improvisation.
  • The music is traditionally performed in a concert setting, featuring a vocalist accompanied by instruments such as the violin, mridangam, and tambura.
  • Carnatic music has a rich history and has been passed down through generations, maintaining its classical roots while evolving with contemporary influences.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1709

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

In Newlands' Octaves, the properties of lithium and _______ were found to be the same.

  1. AOption (a)

    sodium

  2. BOption (b)

    aluminium

  3. COption (c)

    magnesium

  4. DOption (d)

    beryllium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

sodium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is sodium.

Key Points

  • Newlands' Octaves was an early attempt to classify the elements.
  • John Newlands observed that when elements were arranged in order of increasing atomic masses, the properties of every eighth element were similar.
  • In Newlands' Octaves, lithium and sodium showed similar properties.
  • This observation was one of the early pieces of evidence that led to the development of the periodic table.

Additional Information

  • Newlands' Octaves:
  • Newlands' Octaves was proposed by John Newlands in 1864.
  • It is based on the observation that elements exhibit similar properties at every eighth element when arranged by increasing atomic mass.
  • This was analogous to the octaves in music, where every eighth note is similar to the first.
  • Although this system had limitations and was not applicable to elements beyond calcium, it was an important step towards the development of the modern periodic table.
  • Modern Periodic Table:
  • The modern periodic table arranges elements by increasing atomic number, not atomic mass.
  • It was developed by Dmitri Mendeleev and later refined by Henry Moseley.
  • The periodic table is divided into periods (rows) and groups (columns).
  • Elements in the same group have similar chemical properties due to having the same number of valence electrons.
  • Properties of Alkali Metals (Group 1):
  • Group 1 elements (alkali metals) include lithium, sodium, potassium, rubidium, cesium, and francium.
  • These metals are highly reactive, especially with water, and form strong alkaline hydroxides.
  • They have one electron in their outermost shell, which they readily lose to form +1 ions.
  • They are soft metals with low melting points and are good conductors of electricity.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1710

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is Fisher's equation of exchange?

  1. AOption (a)

    MV=PT​

  2. BOption (b)

    MT=VP

  3. COption (c)

     M=S+I

  4. DOption (d)

    \(\frac{M}{V} = \frac{T}{P}\)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

MV=PT​

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is MV=PT.

Key Points

  • Fisher's equation of exchange is represented as MV=PT.
  • In this equation, M stands for the money supply in an economy.
  • V represents the velocity of money, which is the rate at which money circulates in the economy.
  • P is the price level, and T represents the total volume of transactions.

Additional Information

  • Money Supply (M)
  • The total amount of monetary assets available in an economy at a specific time.
  • It includes various components such as currency in circulation and demand deposits.
  • Changes in the money supply can influence inflation, interest rates, and economic growth.
  • Velocity of Money (V)
  • The rate at which money is exchanged from one transaction to another.
  • It indicates the efficiency of money in an economy; a higher velocity means money is changing hands more frequently.
  • Velocity is calculated as the ratio of nominal GDP to the money supply.
  • Price Level (P)
  • The average of current prices across the entire spectrum of goods and services produced in the economy.
  • It is often measured by price indices such as the Consumer Price Index (CPI) or the GDP deflator.
  • Changes in the price level reflect inflation or deflation in the economy.
  • Total Volume of Transactions (T)
  • The total number of transactions or the total quantity of goods and services traded in the economy.
  • This can include consumer spending, business investments, and government expenditures.
  • The volume of transactions is an indicator of economic activity.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1711

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which web portal was launched by the Department of Telecommunications for sharing information on mobile towers and EMF emission compliance?

  1. AOption (a)

    E-Amrit

  2. BOption (b)

    Namaste

  3. COption (c)

    Tarang Sanchar

  4. DOption (d)

    PM-Daksh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tarang Sanchar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tarang Sanchar.

Key Points

  • Tarang Sanchar is a web portal launched by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
  • The portal aims to provide information about mobile towers and their compliance with Electromagnetic Field (EMF) emission norms.
  • It offers a user-friendly interface for the public to get detailed information on EMF emissions from mobile towers in their vicinity.
  • The initiative is part of the government's efforts to address public concerns regarding the health hazards due to EMF emissions from mobile towers.

Additional Information

  • Electromagnetic Field (EMF) Emissions
  • EMF emissions are produced by mobile towers and other electronic devices.
  • There are concerns about the potential health risks associated with long-term exposure to EMF emissions.
  • The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has set stringent norms for EMF emissions to ensure they are within safe limits.
  • Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
  • The DoT is a department of the Ministry of Communications of the executive branch of the Government of India.
  • It is responsible for formulating developmental policies for the accelerated growth of the telecommunication services in the country.
  • The DoT also enforces wireless regulatory measures, monitors the performance of licensees, and promotes private investment in the telecommunications sector.
  • Mobile Towers
  • Mobile towers are structures that support antennas and other communication equipment for cellular networks.
  • They play a critical role in providing mobile network coverage and connectivity.
  • Proper placement and regulation of mobile towers are essential to ensure efficient network performance and public safety.
  • Public Health and Safety
  • Public health and safety are major considerations in the regulation of EMF emissions from mobile towers.
  • The government has implemented various measures to address public concerns and ensure that EMF emissions remain within safe limits.
  • Initiatives like the Tarang Sanchar portal help increase transparency and public awareness regarding EMF emissions and mobile tower compliance.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1712

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following Acts passed under Warren Hastings was also called 'half-loaf system'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pitt’s India Act 1784

  2. BOption (b)

    Government of India Act 1858

  3. COption (c)

    Charter Act 1813

  4. DOption (d)

    Regulating Act 1773

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Pitt’s India Act 1784

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pitt’s India Act 1784.

Key Points

  • Pitt's India Act 1784
  • This Act, also known as the East India Company Act 1784, established dual control of British territories in India by the British government and the East India Company.
  • The Act created a Board of Control to oversee the civil, military, and revenue affairs of the company, enhancing the British government's authority.
  • It marked a significant step towards the establishment of British rule in India.
  • The Pitt's India Act of 1784, also known as the East India Company Act of 1784, is sometimes referred to as the "half-loaf system". This act established a dual system of governance in India, separating the political and commercial functions of the East India Company.

Additional Information

  • Regulating Act 1773
  • The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step taken by the British government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.
  • It was passed by the British Parliament to establish a system of governance for British territories in India.
  • The Act created the position of Governor-General of Bengal and was the precursor to the later Governor-General of India.
  • It marked the beginning of parliamentary control over the East India Company, transitioning from purely commercial to political governance.
  • Government of India Act 1858
  • This Act, passed after the Indian Rebellion of 1857, resulted in the British Crown assuming direct control over India, ending the rule of the East India Company.
  • It established the office of the Secretary of State for India and the India Council to assist in governance.
  • The Governor-General of India was now called the Viceroy, representing the British monarch.
  • Charter Act 1813
  • This Act renewed the East India Company's charter but ended its monopoly on trade with India, except for trade in tea and trade with China.
  • It allowed other British merchants to trade with India, increasing competition and economic activity.
  • The Act also provided for the promotion of education and the Christian religion in India.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1713

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions that ‘The State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 44

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 49

  3. COption (c)

    Article 43

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 42

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Article 43

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 43.

Key Points

  • Article 43 of the Indian Constitution is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
  • It states that 'The State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas'.
  • The objective of this article is to promote economic growth and self-sufficiency in rural areas.
  • It aims to provide economic opportunities and employment in rural areas through the promotion of small-scale industries.

Additional Information

  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
  • The DPSP are guidelines or principles given to the federal institutes governing the state of India, to be kept in consideration while framing laws and policies.
  • They are enshrined in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Indian Constitution.
  • These principles are aimed at ensuring social and economic democracy through a welfare state.
  • While they are non-justiciable, meaning they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation, they are considered fundamental in the governance of the country.
  • Cottage Industries
  • Cottage industries are small-scale, decentralized manufacturing businesses often operated out of a home rather than a purpose-built facility.
  • They typically involve the production of handmade goods and are labor-intensive.
  • These industries play a vital role in the economy by providing employment and promoting traditional crafts.
  • In rural areas, cottage industries help in reducing unemployment and migration to urban areas by providing local employment opportunities.
  • Rural Development
  • Rural development involves improving the quality of life and economic well-being of people living in rural areas, often relatively isolated and sparsely populated areas.
  • It focuses on the development of infrastructure, education, healthcare, and employment opportunities.
  • Promoting cottage industries is one way to achieve rural development by utilizing local resources and skills.
  • Government policies and programs often aim to support rural development through various schemes and initiatives.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1714

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is the most controversial Article in the Indian Constitution, which provides for President's rule in an state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 358

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 356

  3. COption (c)

    Article 360

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 352

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Article 356

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 356.

Key Points

  • Article 356 of the Indian Constitution deals with the imposition of President's Rule in states.
  • This article is also known as the "President's Rule" or "State Emergency."
  • It allows the President of India to take over the functions of the state government if the state government is unable to function according to the provisions of the Constitution.
  • President's Rule can be imposed for a maximum period of six months at a time and can be extended with the approval of the Parliament, but not beyond three years.

Additional Information

  • Article 352
  • Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with the proclamation of National Emergency.
  • It can be declared due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
  • During a National Emergency, the central government gains sweeping powers, and the state governments come under the direct control of the central government.
  • This can be proclaimed by the President of India based on the written advice of the Cabinet.
  • Article 358
  • Article 358 provides for the suspension of the rights guaranteed by Article 19 during a National Emergency.
  • It states that while a National Emergency is in operation, nothing in Article 19 shall restrict the power of the State to make any law or to take any executive action abridging or taking away the rights conferred by Article 19.
  • Article 360
  • Article 360 of the Indian Constitution deals with the proclamation of Financial Emergency.
  • The President can declare a Financial Emergency if the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
  • During a Financial Emergency, the executive authority of the Union extends to giving directions to any state to observe such canons of financial propriety as may be specified in the directions.
  • However, no Financial Emergency has been declared in India so far.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1715

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

In 1539, the Battle of Chausa was fought between Humayun and _____.

  1. AOption (a)

    Ibrahim Lodhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Sher Shah Suri

  3. COption (c)

    Sikandar Suri

  4. DOption (d)

    Rana Sanga

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sher Shah Suri

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sher Shah Suri.

Key Points

  • The Battle of Chausa was fought on June 26, 1539, between the Mughal Emperor Humayun and Sher Shah Suri, the founder of the Suri Empire.
  • Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun in this battle, leading to the establishment of the Suri Empire in North India.
  • The defeat forced Humayun to flee from India, and Sher Shah Suri became the ruler of Delhi.
  • Sher Shah Suri's victory at Chausa was a significant moment in Indian history, marking the rise of the Suri Empire and the temporary setback of the Mughal Empire.

Additional Information

  • Humayun:
  • Humayun was the second Mughal Emperor who ruled over the Indian subcontinent.
  • He was the son of Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire.
  • Humayun's reign was interrupted by Sher Shah Suri, but he later regained the throne with the help of the Safavid Empire.
  • Sher Shah Suri:
  • Sher Shah Suri, originally named Farid Khan, was the founder of the Suri Empire in North India.
  • He is known for his administrative reforms, including the introduction of the "Rupiya" and the improvement of the road network in India.
  • Sher Shah's rule is considered a model of efficient governance and military strategy.
  • Battle of Chausa:
  • The Battle of Chausa took place near the town of Chausa, located in present-day Bihar, India.
  • It was one of the significant battles that showcased the military prowess of Sher Shah Suri.
  • This battle was crucial in the rise of Sher Shah Suri and the establishment of the Suri Dynasty.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1716

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

India hosted the Asian Games in which of the following years?

  1. AOption (a)

    1954 and 1986

  2. BOption (b)

    1951 and 1982

  3. COption (c)

    1951 and 1986

  4. DOption (d)

    1954 and 1982

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1951 and 1982

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1951 and 1982.

Key Points

  • India hosted the Asian Games for the first time in 1951.
  • The 1951 Asian Games were the first edition of the event and were held in New Delhi.
  • India again hosted the Asian Games in 1982.
  • The 1982 Asian Games were also held in New Delhi, which is the capital of India.

Additional Information

  • Asian Games
  • The Asian Games, also known as Asiad, are a continental multi-sport event held every four years among athletes from all over Asia.
  • The Games are regulated by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) under the supervision of the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
  • The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India, in 1951.
  • The Asian Games are the second largest multi-sport event after the Olympic Games.
  • These games include disciplines such as athletics, swimming, archery, badminton, basketball, boxing, and many more.
  • New Delhi
  • New Delhi is the capital of India and serves as the seat of all three branches of the Government of India, including the Executive, the Legislature, and the Judiciary.
  • It is also a prominent cultural and political hub in the country.
  • New Delhi hosted the first and the ninth Asian Games, in 1951 and 1982 respectively.
  • In preparation for the games, New Delhi underwent significant infrastructure development, including the construction of new sports venues and the improvement of transportation facilities.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1717

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

A dense mass of water drops on smoke or dust particles in the lower atmosphere layers is referred to as:

  1. AOption (a)

    mist

  2. BOption (b)

    blizzard

  3. COption (c)

    frost

  4. DOption (d)

    smog

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

smog

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is smog.

Key Points

  • Smog is a type of intense air pollution.
  • It is composed of smoke and fog which is why it is called "smog".
  • Smog is formed when sunlight reacts with pollutants like nitrogen oxides and at least one volatile organic compound (VOC) in the atmosphere.
  • Smog is common in industrial areas and cities with a lot of vehicular traffic.

Additional Information

  • Mist
  • Mist consists of small droplets of water suspended in the air.
  • It is typically created when warm, moist air meets sudden cooling.
  • Mist is less dense than fog and visibility is generally clearer than in fog conditions.
  • Blizzard
  • A blizzard is a severe snowstorm characterized by strong sustained winds of at least 35 mph (56 km/h).
  • It typically lasts for a prolonged period—typically three hours or more.
  • Blizzards can cause whiteout conditions and significant snow accumulation.
  • Frost
  • Frost refers to a thin layer of ice that forms on solid surfaces when the temperature drops below freezing.
  • It typically occurs in clear, calm conditions where there is a loss of radiative heat.
  • Frost can damage crops and other plants.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1718

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Sardhana Christian Fair is held in which of the following states?

  1. AOption (a)

    West Bengal

  2. BOption (b)

    Haryana

  3. COption (c)

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Uttar Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Uttar Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The Sardhana Christian Fair is a significant event held in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
  • The fair is held in the town of Sardhana, which is located in the Meerut district of Uttar Pradesh.
  • This fair is an important religious event for the Christian community, particularly those following the Catholic faith.
  • The fair is held at the Basilica of Our Lady of Graces, a historical church built by Begum Samru, a notable figure in the region.

Additional Information

  • Uttar Pradesh
  • Uttar Pradesh, often abbreviated as UP, is a state in northern India with Lucknow as its capital.
  • It is the most populous state in India, with a rich cultural and historical heritage.
  • Uttar Pradesh is known for its diverse religious and cultural events, including various fairs and festivals that draw people from across the country.
  • The state is home to several important historical and religious sites, including the Taj Mahal, Varanasi, and Ayodhya.
  • Basilica of Our Lady of Graces
  • The Basilica of Our Lady of Graces, also known as Sardhana Church, is a prominent Catholic church located in Sardhana, Meerut.
  • It was built by Begum Samru, a wealthy and influential figure of the 18th century, who converted to Christianity and constructed the church in 1822.
  • The church is an architectural marvel, reflecting a blend of Indian and European styles, and is one of the most significant Christian pilgrimage sites in North India.
  • The annual fair held at the church attracts thousands of devotees and visitors, making it a notable event in the region.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1719

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Ali Akbar Khan was associated with which of the following gharanas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maihar gharana

  2. BOption (b)

    Agra gharana

  3. COption (c)

    Gwalior gharana

  4. DOption (d)

    Kirana gharana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Maihar gharana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maihar gharana.

Key Points

  • Ali Akbar Khan was a renowned Indian classical musician, known for his mastery of the sarod.
  • He was a prominent figure associated with the Maihar gharana, a school of music founded by his father, Allauddin Khan.
  • The Maihar gharana is known for its emphasis on instrumental music, especially the sarod and sitar.
  • Ali Akbar Khan contributed significantly to popularizing Indian classical music in the West and established the Ali Akbar College of Music in the USA.

Additional Information

  • Gharanas in Indian Classical Music
  • A gharana is a system of social organization linking musicians or dancers by lineage or apprenticeship, and by adherence to a particular musical style.
  • Each gharana has its own unique style, repertoire, and teaching methodology, and is often named after the place it originated from.
  • Maihar Gharana
  • Founded by Ustad Allauddin Khan in the early 20th century, the Maihar gharana is known for its emphasis on instrumental music.
  • It has produced several prominent musicians, including Ravi Shankar, Nikhil Banerjee, and Ali Akbar Khan.
  • Other Gharanas
  • Agra Gharana: Known for its khayal singing, it originated in Agra and places emphasis on the dhrupad style of singing.
  • Gwalior Gharana: One of the oldest gharanas, it is known for its khayal singing and has a well-structured raga presentation.
  • Kirana Gharana: Known for its melodious and emotional style, it emphasizes the purity of notes and is famed for its slow-tempo renditions.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1720

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following movements created regional disparities between large and small farmers in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Green revolution

  2. BOption (b)

    Yellow revolution

  3. COption (c)

    Pink revolution

  4. DOption (d)

    Blue revolution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Green revolution

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Green revolution.

Key Points

  • The Green Revolution refers to the set of research, development, and technology transfer initiatives occurring between the 1940s and the late 1960s that increased agricultural production worldwide, especially in developing countries.
  • In India, the Green Revolution was launched in the 1960s with the introduction of high-yielding varieties (HYVs) of seeds, increased use of fertilizers, and improved irrigation methods to boost food production.
  • The Green Revolution led to a significant increase in food grain production, particularly wheat and rice, transforming India from a food-deficient country to one of the world's leading agricultural nations.
  • However, the benefits of the Green Revolution were not evenly distributed, creating regional disparities and widening the gap between large and small farmers, as well as between different regions of the country.

Additional Information

  • Yellow Revolution:
  • The Yellow Revolution refers to the increase in the production of oilseeds in India, especially mustard and sunflower, initiated in the late 1980s and early 1990s.
  • It aimed at achieving self-sufficiency in edible oil production to reduce dependence on imports.
  • Pink Revolution:
  • The Pink Revolution refers to the technological advancement and growth in the production of meat and poultry in India.
  • It focuses on improving the quality and quantity of meat production, especially in the poultry sector.
  • Blue Revolution:
  • The Blue Revolution refers to the rapid increase in fish production and aquaculture in India.
  • It aims to enhance the productivity of fisheries and aquaculture through sustainable practices and technological advancements.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.