SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

7100 Total Questions284 Official PapersYears: 2017–2025Search in General Awareness
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SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1481

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is an example of a non-tax revenue source for the government?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fees and fines

  2. BOption (b)

    Personal income tax

  3. COption (c)

    Corporate income tax

  4. DOption (d)

    Value-added tax

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Fees and fines

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fees and fines.

Key Points

  • Non-tax revenue refers to the recurring income earned by the government from sources other than taxes.
  • Fees and fines are common examples of non-tax revenue. Fees are payments made to the government for specific services or activities (e.g., passport fees, court fees), while fines are penalties imposed for violating laws or regulations.
  • Non-tax revenue sources help the government fund its operations without increasing the tax burden on citizens.
  • Other examples of non-tax revenue include interest receipts on loans given by the government, dividends from public sector enterprises, and income from government property.

Additional Information

  • Personal income tax:
  • It is a direct tax levied on the income of individuals.
  • The rate of personal income tax varies based on income slabs and is progressive in nature, meaning higher income earners pay a higher percentage in taxes.
  • Corporate income tax:
  • This is a tax imposed on the net income or profit of corporations.
  • It is a significant source of revenue for the government and is also a direct tax.
  • Value-added tax (VAT):
  • VAT is an indirect tax levied on the value added to goods and services at each stage of production or distribution.
  • Consumers ultimately bear the cost of VAT as it is included in the purchase price of goods and services.
  • Non-tax revenue sources:
  • These include all government revenue sources that do not fall under the category of taxes.
  • Examples include fees for services, fines and penalties, dividends from public enterprises, interest receipts, and revenue from government properties.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1482

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Sangeet Natak Akademy Awardee Sulochana Chavan was a famous _______ singer.

  1. AOption (a)

    Giddha

  2. BOption (b)

    Jhumair

  3. COption (c)

    Ghumar

  4. DOption (d)

    Lavani

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Lavani

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lavani.

Key Points

  • Sulochana Chavan was a legendary singer known for her contributions to the traditional Marathi folk genre of Lavani music.
  • Lavani is a genre of music popular in Maharashtra and is noted for its powerful rhythm and sensuous, yet socially significant, lyrics.
  • Lavani has traditionally been performed by female artists and is recognized for its combination of song and dance.
  • Chavan's contributions to Lavani music earned her widespread acclaim and numerous accolades, including the prestigious Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.

Additional Information

  • Giddha
  • Giddha is a popular folk dance of women in the Punjab region of India and Pakistan.
  • It is performed by women during special occasions and festivals, characterized by energetic movements and traditional Punjabi attire.
  • Jhumair
  • Jhumair is a traditional folk dance and song of the Chotanagpur plateau region in Jharkhand, India.
  • It is performed during harvest season and other community celebrations, featuring slow rhythmic movements and traditional instruments.
  • Ghumar
  • Ghumar is a traditional folk dance of Rajasthan, India, performed by women in colorful attire.
  • The dance is noted for its graceful circular movements and is performed during festive occasions like weddings and other celebrations.
  • Lavani
  • Lavani is a traditional folk art form that combines song and dance, originating from Maharashtra, India.
  • The word 'Lavani' is derived from the Marathi word 'Lavanya', which means beauty, signifying the grace and charm of the performance.
  • Lavani songs are known for their fast tempo and are often performed to the beats of the dholki drum.
  • The dance is characterized by its vibrant costumes, energetic footwork, and expressive gestures.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1483

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following plants is used to cure cold and cough?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tulsi

  2. BOption (b)

    Babool

  3. COption (c)

    Jamun

  4. DOption (d)

    Arjun

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tulsi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tulsi.

Key Points

  • Tulsi (Ocimum sanctum), also known as Holy Basil, is a revered medicinal plant in India.
  • It is traditionally used in Ayurvedic medicine to treat cold, cough, and other respiratory ailments.
  • Tulsi leaves are known to have antibacterial, antiviral, and antifungal properties, which help in relieving infections causing cold and cough.
  • Consumption of Tulsi tea or Tulsi-infused water can boost immunity and provide relief from respiratory disorders.

Additional Information

  • Babool (Acacia nilotica)
  • Babool tree has various medicinal uses, including in dental care, skin care, and as a remedy for diarrhea and dysentery.
  • Its bark and leaves are commonly used in traditional medicine.
  • Jamun (Syzygium cumini)
  • Jamun fruit and seeds are used in Ayurvedic medicine to manage diabetes.
  • It is also beneficial for digestive health and in treating ulcers.
  • Arjun (Terminalia arjuna)
  • Arjun tree is well-known for its cardiovascular benefits.
  • Its bark is used to treat heart diseases, hypertension, and cholesterol issues.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1484

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which is the colloquial term to describe the occurrence of pre-monsoon rains in India especially in parts of Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mango showers

  2. BOption (b)

    Kalbaisakhi

  3. COption (c)

    Nor Westers

  4. DOption (d)

    Orange showers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mango showers

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mango showers.

Key Points

  • Mango showers are the colloquial term used to describe pre-monsoon rains in India, particularly in Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
  • These showers usually occur between March and April and are known to aid the ripening of mangoes, which is why they are called "mango showers".
  • They are also beneficial for other crops and help to mitigate the high temperatures experienced in the summer months.
  • The showers are a result of thunderstorms caused by the confluence of moist air from the Indian Ocean and the Bay of Bengal.

Additional Information

  • Kalbaisakhi
  • Kalbaisakhi, also known as Nor'westers, are violent thunderstorms that occur in the northeastern and eastern parts of India, particularly in West Bengal and Odisha.
  • These storms are common in the pre-monsoon season, especially in the months of April and May.
  • They are characterized by high-speed winds, heavy rain, and sometimes hail, which can cause significant damage to crops and property.
  • Nor Westers
  • Nor'westers are a type of storm that occurs in the northeastern and eastern parts of India, particularly in West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, and Odisha.
  • They are caused by the interaction of hot, dry air from the northwest with moist air from the Bay of Bengal.
  • These storms can bring heavy rainfall, strong winds, and hail, often leading to damage in the affected areas.
  • Orange Showers
  • There is no widely recognized meteorological phenomenon known as "Orange showers".
  • This term does not correspond to any specific weather pattern or event in India.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1485

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

The name ‘Piyadassi’ is associated with whom among the following Mauryan kings?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bindusara

  2. BOption (b)

    Brihadratha

  3. COption (c)

    Ashoka

  4. DOption (d)

    Chandragupta Maurya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ashoka

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ashoka.

Key Points

  • Piyadassi is a title which means "beloved of the gods" and it was used by Ashoka in his inscriptions.
  • Ashoka was the third emperor of the Mauryan dynasty and is considered one of India's greatest rulers.
  • Ashoka ruled from 268 to 232 BCE and his reign was marked by an extensive expansion of the Mauryan Empire.
  • Ashoka embraced Buddhism after the Kalinga War and propagated the religion across Asia.

Additional Information

  • Mauryan Empire
  • The Mauryan Empire was founded by Chandragupta Maurya in 322 BCE after overthrowing the Nanda dynasty.
  • It was one of the largest empires in the world at its peak, spanning from modern-day Afghanistan to Bengal and south into the Deccan Plateau.
  • Chandragupta was succeeded by his son Bindusara, who expanded the empire further before passing it to Ashoka.
  • The Mauryan administration was highly organized with a centralized government and a bureaucratic system.
  • Kalinga War
  • The Kalinga War was fought between the Mauryan Empire under Ashoka and the state of Kalinga around 261 BCE.
  • This war is particularly significant because of the massive destruction and loss of life it caused.
  • The aftermath of the war had a profound impact on Ashoka, leading him to embrace Buddhism and propagate peace and non-violence.
  • Ashoka's transformation post-Kalinga War is well-documented in his rock and pillar edicts.
  • Buddhism
  • Buddhism is a religion and philosophy based on the teachings of Siddhartha Gautama (the Buddha) who lived in the 5th century BCE.
  • Ashoka's patronage played a significant role in the spread of Buddhism across India and beyond.
  • Ashoka convened the Third Buddhist Council at Pataliputra (modern-day Patna) to discuss the teachings and spread of Buddhism.
  • His efforts in promoting Buddhism included sending emissaries and missionaries to various parts of Asia, including Sri Lanka, Southeast Asia, and Central Asia.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1486

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

The festival of 'Rath Yatra' of Puri in Odisha is dedicated to which deity?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Jagannath

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Ganesha

  3. COption (c)

    Lord Shiva

  4. DOption (d)

    Lord Hanuman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lord Jagannath

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lord Jagannath.

Key Points

  • The Rath Yatra of Puri is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, who is considered a form of Lord Vishnu.
  • This annual festival involves a grand procession where the deities are taken out of the Jagannath Temple and placed in chariots, symbolizing their journey to their aunt's house.
  • The festival is celebrated with much pomp and grandeur, attracting millions of devotees from across the world.
  • The festival generally occurs in the month of June or July, based on the Hindu lunar calendar.

Additional Information

  • Lord Jagannath:
  • Lord Jagannath is a deity worshipped primarily in the Indian state of Odisha.
  • He is considered a form of Lord Vishnu, and is also identified with Krishna and Buddha.
  • The Jagannath Temple in Puri is one of the Char Dham pilgrimage sites, which are considered very sacred by Hindus.
  • The temple is famous for its annual Rath Yatra, or chariot festival, in which the three main deities are pulled on huge and elaborately decorated temple cars.
  • Rath Yatra:
  • The Rath Yatra involves the transportation of deities on large chariots from the Jagannath Temple to the Gundicha Temple, which is about 3 kilometers away.
  • The three deities—Lord Jagannath, his brother Balabhadra, and sister Subhadra—are taken out in three separate chariots.
  • The chariots are pulled by thousands of devotees who consider it an auspicious act.
  • The festival lasts for nine days, and the return journey of the deities is known as Bahuda Yatra.
  • Significance:
  • The Rath Yatra symbolizes the journey of Lord Jagannath along with his siblings to their maternal aunt's house.
  • It represents the idea of the divine coming down to meet the devotees, breaking the barriers of the temple.
  • The festival promotes the spirit of brotherhood and unity among people, irrespective of their caste or creed.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1487

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

How many members are nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    20

  4. DOption (d)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

12

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 12.

Key Points

  • The President of India has the authority to nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.
  • These nominated members are chosen for their expertise in various fields such as literature, science, art, and social service.
  • This provision is under Article 80 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The purpose of these nominations is to ensure that the Rajya Sabha benefits from the experience and specialized knowledge of distinguished individuals.

Additional Information

  • Rajya Sabha
  • The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of India.
  • It represents the states and union territories of the country.
  • The Rajya Sabha has a maximum membership of 250 members.
  • Out of these, 238 members are elected by the states and union territories, while 12 are nominated by the President.
  • The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution, but one-third of its members retire every two years.
  • Article 80 of the Indian Constitution
  • This article deals with the composition of the Rajya Sabha.
  • It specifies the maximum number of members, the method of election, and the nomination of members by the President.
  • Under this article, the President nominates 12 members who have special knowledge or practical experience in various fields such as literature, science, art, and social service.
  • Nominated Members
  • The nominated members bring diverse expertise to the Rajya Sabha.
  • They are not bound by party lines and can contribute independently to debates and legislation.
  • Some notable nominated members include Lata Mangeshkar (singer), Sachin Tendulkar (cricketer), and Raghunath Mohapatra (sculptor).
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1488

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is NOT the socio-economic objective of Industrial Policy Statement 1980?

  1. AOption (a)

    Higher employment generation

  2. BOption (b)

    Consumer protection against high prices and bad quality

  3. COption (c)

    Promotion of export-oriented industries

  4. DOption (d)

    Allowing the maximum foreign direct investment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Allowing the maximum foreign direct investment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Allowing the maximum foreign direct investment.

Key Points

  • The Industrial Policy Statement of 1980 emphasized enhancing productivity, employment generation, and the optimum utilization of existing production capacity.
  • It aimed at the promotion of export-oriented industries to improve foreign exchange earnings.
  • The policy also focused on consumer protection against high prices and poor quality of goods.
  • Allowing the maximum foreign direct investment (FDI) was not a primary objective of the Industrial Policy Statement of 1980.

Additional Information

  • Industrial Policy Statement 1980
  • The Industrial Policy Statement of 1980 was introduced to revitalize the Indian economy and make it more competitive.
  • The policy emphasized modernization, technological upgradation, and the development of small and medium enterprises (SMEs).
  • It aimed at achieving higher growth rates and industrial diversification to reduce regional disparities.
  • The policy also sought to improve the efficiency of public sector enterprises and increase their contribution to the economy.
  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
  • FDI involves investment from a foreign entity into the business interests of another country.
  • It is a significant source of non-debt financial resources for the economic development of a country.
  • FDI brings in capital, technology, and expertise, and can lead to job creation and infrastructure development.
  • While FDI is important, it was not the main focus of the Industrial Policy of 1980, which was more oriented towards self-reliance and domestic industrial growth.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1489

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

In which of the following years will India host the World Badminton Championship?

  1. AOption (a)

    2025

  2. BOption (b)

    2028

  3. COption (c)

    2026

  4. DOption (d)

    2027

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2026

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2026.

Key Points

  • India has been selected to host the BWF World Championships in 2026.
  • This prestigious event is one of the most significant tournaments in the badminton world, drawing top players from across the globe.
  • The decision to award India the hosting rights reflects the country's growing prominence in the sport of badminton.
  • India has previously hosted the BWF World Championships in 2009, showcasing its capability to manage such large-scale international events.

Additional Information

  • BWF World Championships
  • The Badminton World Federation (BWF) World Championships is the most prestigious tournament in the sport of badminton.
  • It was first held in 1977 and is now conducted annually, except in Olympic years.
  • The tournament determines the world champions in five disciplines: men’s singles, women’s singles, men’s doubles, women’s doubles, and mixed doubles.
  • Winning a title at the BWF World Championships is considered a significant achievement and highly coveted among badminton players.
  • Badminton in India
  • Badminton is one of the most popular sports in India, with a growing number of players achieving international success.
  • India has produced several world-class badminton players such as Prakash Padukone, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, and PV Sindhu.
  • PV Sindhu made history by becoming the first Indian woman to win a silver medal in badminton at the 2016 Rio Olympics.
  • The Badminton Association of India (BAI) is the governing body responsible for the development and promotion of badminton in the country.
  • Significance of Hosting International Sports Events
  • Hosting international sports events like the BWF World Championships can have significant benefits for the host country.It helps in boosting tourism and the local economy, generating global visibility, and enhancing the country’s reputation as a capable and reliable event organizer.
  • Such events also inspire young athletes and contribute to the development of sports infrastructure.
  • India's successful hosting of the 2010 Commonwealth Games and the 2017 FIFA U-17 World Cup are examples of the country’s ability to manage large-scale international sports events.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1490

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Grignard reagent is represented as:

  1. AOption (a)

    CH₃-Ca-F

  2. BOption (b)

    CH₃-Be-F

  3. COption (c)

    CH₃-Mg-Cl

  4. DOption (d)

    H-Mg-H

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

CH₃-Mg-Cl

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is CH₃-Mg-Cl.

Key Points

  • Grignard reagents are organomagnesium compounds which are commonly represented as R-Mg-X, where R is an organic group and X is a halogen.
  • In the given options, CH₃-Mg-Cl (Methylmagnesium chloride) fits this representation.
  • Grignard reagents are highly reactive and are used in various organic synthesis reactions, particularly for forming carbon-carbon bonds.
  • They were discovered by the French chemist Victor Grignard, who was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1912 for this discovery.

Additional Information

  • Grignard Reagent:
  • Grignard reagents are typically prepared by reacting an alkyl or aryl halide with magnesium metal in an anhydrous ether solvent.
  • They are strong nucleophiles and strong bases, making them very useful in organic chemistry for forming new carbon-carbon bonds.
  • The general formula for a Grignard reagent is R-Mg-X, where R can be an alkyl, aryl, or vinyl group, and X is usually a halogen like chlorine, bromine, or iodine.
  • Due to their high reactivity, Grignard reagents must be handled under an inert atmosphere (such as nitrogen or argon) to prevent them from reacting with moisture or oxygen in the air.
  • Victor Grignard:
  • François Auguste Victor Grignard was a French chemist who discovered the Grignard reagent, which revolutionized the field of organic chemistry.
  • His discovery allowed for the formation of carbon-carbon bonds, which is fundamental in the synthesis of a wide variety of organic compounds.
  • He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1912 for this significant contribution.
  • Applications of Grignard Reagents:
  • Grignard reagents are used to form various types of carbon-carbon bonds, making them invaluable in the synthesis of alcohols, acids, and other organic compounds.
  • They can react with carbonyl compounds (such as aldehydes and ketones) to form secondary and tertiary alcohols.
  • They are also used in the synthesis of carboxylic acids by reacting with carbon dioxide.
  • In addition to their use in academic research, Grignard reagents are also used in the pharmaceutical and chemical industries for the synthesis of complex organic molecules.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1491

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following crops is NOT grown during the Zaid season in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rice

  2. BOption (b)

    Cucumber

  3. COption (c)

    Watermelon

  4. DOption (d)

    Muskmelon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rice

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rice.

Key Points

  • Rice is typically grown during the Kharif season (June to November) and Rabi season (November to March) in India.
  • The Zaid season falls between the Rabi and Kharif seasons, specifically from March to June.
  • Crops like cucumber, watermelon, and muskmelon are commonly grown during the Zaid season due to their shorter growing period and summer adaptability.
  • Rice requires a significant amount of water and is usually grown in areas with assured irrigation during the monsoon season (Kharif) or post-monsoon season (Rabi).

Additional Information

  • Kharif Season
  • The Kharif season is also known as the monsoon season, running from June to November.
  • Crops grown during this season are typically sown with the beginning of the first rains in July, during the south-west monsoon season, and harvested in October.
  • Major Kharif crops include rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, and cotton.
  • Rabi Season
  • The Rabi season is known as the winter season, running from November to March.
  • Crops are sown in winter and harvested in the spring.
  • Major Rabi crops include wheat, barley, peas, gram, and mustard.
  • Zaid Season
  • The Zaid season falls between the Kharif and Rabi seasons, specifically from March to June.
  • Crops grown during this season have a shorter growing period and are typically summer crops.
  • Examples of Zaid crops include cucumber, watermelon, muskmelon, and bitter gourd.

This detailed solution provides comprehensive information about the correct option and explains the different agricultural seasons in India.

SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1492

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who was the player of the match in the semi-final of the T20 Women’s World Cup 2023 played between India and Australia?

  1. AOption (a)

    Deepti Sharma

  2. BOption (b)

    Ashleigh Gardner

  3. COption (c)

    Meg Lanning

  4. DOption (d)

    Harmanpreet Kaur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ashleigh Gardner

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ashleigh Gardner.

Key Points

  • Ashleigh Gardner is an Australian cricketer who plays as an all-rounder.
  • She was awarded the Player of the Match in the semi-final of the T20 Women's World Cup 2023.
  • In the semi-final match against India, Gardner made significant contributions with both bat and ball.
  • Her performance was crucial in leading Australia to the final of the T20 Women's World Cup 2023.

Additional Information

  • T20 Women's World Cup
  • The T20 Women's World Cup is an international championship of Twenty20 cricket organized by the International Cricket Council (ICC).
  • The tournament format consists of a round-robin group stage followed by knockout matches, including semi-finals and a final.
  • It is one of the most prestigious events in women's cricket, featuring teams from around the world.
  • The 2023 edition showcased excellent performances and competitive spirit among the participating teams.
  • Semi-Final Match
  • The semi-final match is a critical knockout stage in the tournament where the winning team proceeds to the final.
  • In the 2023 edition, the semi-final between India and Australia was highly anticipated due to the strong track records of both teams.
  • Key players' performances in semi-finals often play a pivotal role in determining the outcome of the match.
  • Player of the Match
  • The Player of the Match award is given to the standout performer in a particular match.
  • This award recognizes the player who has made the most significant impact on the match's outcome through exceptional performance.
  • In the context of the T20 Women's World Cup, this award is highly prestigious and highlights individual brilliance on a global stage.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1493

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

As per article 123, the ordinance making power is the most important legislative power of __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    President

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajya Sabha

  3. COption (c)

    Legislative council

  4. DOption (d)

    Chief Justice of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

President

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is President.

Key Points

  • The ordinance making power is a significant legislative power vested in the President of India.
  • As per Article 123 of the Indian Constitution, the President has the authority to promulgate ordinances when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.
  • The ordinance holds the same force and effect as an act of Parliament.
  • This power is intended to address urgent situations requiring immediate legislative action.

Additional Information

  • Ordinance:
  • An ordinance is a temporary law enacted by the President of India on the advice of the Union Cabinet.
  • It is promulgated when Parliament is not in session and immediate action is required.
  • Ordinances must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of reassembling, or they cease to operate.
  • Ordinances allow the government to take swift action on matters of urgency without waiting for Parliament to convene.
  • Article 123 of the Indian Constitution:
  • Article 123 grants the President the power to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament.
  • This provision ensures that the executive can address urgent issues without legislative delays.
  • Ordinances must be laid before both Houses of Parliament and require their approval to become permanent laws.
  • This power is subject to judicial review to prevent misuse and ensure adherence to constitutional principles.
  • Separation of Powers:
  • The Indian Constitution follows the principle of separation of powers among the executive, legislature, and judiciary.
  • The President's ordinance-making power represents an overlap between the executive and legislative functions.
  • This power is exercised with checks and balances to prevent abuse and ensure accountability.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1494

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

In which year was the Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed?

  1. AOption (a)

    1935

  2. BOption (b)

    1929

  3. COption (c)

    1931

  4. DOption (d)

    1941

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1931

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1931.

Key Points

  • The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on 5 March 1931 between Mahatma Gandhi and the then Viceroy of India, Lord Irwin.
  • This pact marked the end of the civil disobedience movement led by the Indian National Congress against British rule in India.
  • Under the terms of the pact, the British Government agreed to release all political prisoners who had been detained during the civil disobedience movement.
  • Mahatma Gandhi, representing the Indian National Congress, agreed to discontinue the civil disobedience movement and participate in the Second Round Table Conference in London.

Additional Information

  • Gandhi-Irwin Pact
  • The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was a political agreement signed by Mahatma Gandhi and the Viceroy of India, Lord Irwin, in 1931.
  • It was a significant event in the Indian freedom struggle, which led to the cessation of the civil disobedience movement that was initiated against the British Salt Tax.
  • The pact included several concessions by the British Government, such as the withdrawal of all ordinances and prosecutions, release of prisoners arrested for participating in the salt march, and the return of confiscated properties of the satyagrahis.
  • Gandhi agreed to attend the Second Round Table Conference in London as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress.
  • Civil Disobedience Movement
  • Launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930, the Civil Disobedience Movement aimed at disobeying certain laws, demands, and commands of the British government, particularly the Salt Act.
  • The movement began with the Dandi March, where Gandhi and his followers marched to the Arabian Sea coast to produce salt from seawater in defiance of British laws.
  • This movement attracted widespread participation from various sections of Indian society and was a crucial step towards India's independence.
  • The movement saw significant government repression, including the arrest of thousands of protesters and leaders.
  • Second Round Table Conference
  • The Second Round Table Conference was held in London in September 1931 and was attended by Mahatma Gandhi as the representative of the Indian National Congress.
  • The conference aimed to discuss constitutional reforms in India and the future governance of the country.
  • Despite the discussions, the conference did not result in any significant agreements, leading to Gandhi's return to India and the resumption of the civil disobedience movement.
  • The failure of the conference highlighted the deep divisions between the British authorities and Indian leaders regarding India's political future.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1495

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following schemes was launched for the welfare of the unorganised sector workers and labourers on 26 August 2021?

  1. AOption (a)

    e-Shram Portal

  2. BOption (b)

    PM Mentoring Yuva Scheme

  3. COption (c)

    PM Daksh Yojana

  4. DOption (d)

    Gram Ujala Scheme

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

e-Shram Portal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is e-Shram Portal.

Key Points

  • The e-Shram Portal was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment on 26 August 2021.
  • This portal aims to create a National Database of Unorganized Workers (NDUW) to ensure their welfare and social security.
  • It provides a unique identification number called Universal Account Number (UAN) to each worker.
  • The registration on the portal is free of cost and is expected to benefit around 38 crore unorganized workers in India.

Additional Information

  • PM Mentoring Yuva Scheme
  • This scheme is aimed at mentoring young authors below the age of 30.
  • The goal is to create a pool of authors who can write on a variety of subjects to promote the Indian culture and literature globally.
  • PM Daksh Yojana
  • Launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to provide skill training to marginalized groups.
  • The aim is to enhance the competency levels of marginalized communities and improve their employability.
  • Gram Ujala Scheme
  • Launched by Convergence Energy Services Limited (CESL) to provide affordable LED bulbs in rural areas.
  • The scheme aims to promote energy efficiency and reduce carbon emissions.

This HTML code contains detailed information about the correct answer "e-Shram Portal" including key points about the scheme and additional information about other related schemes.

SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1496

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

What is the SI unit of current?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ohm

  2. BOption (b)

    Ampere

  3. COption (c)

    Metre

  4. DOption (d)

    Volt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ampere

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ampere.

Key Points

  • The SI unit of electric current is the Ampere, symbolized as A.
  • It is named after André-Marie Ampère, a French physicist and mathematician who is considered one of the founders of the science of classical electromagnetism.
  • One Ampere is defined as the flow of one coulomb of charge per second.
  • It is a fundamental unit in the International System of Units (SI), and it is used to quantify the amount of electric charge passing a point in an electric circuit per unit time.

Additional Information

  • Ohm (Ω)
  • The Ohm is the SI unit of electrical resistance.
  • Named after German physicist Georg Simon Ohm, it quantifies the resistance in a circuit.
  • One Ohm is defined as the resistance between two points of a conductor when a constant potential difference of 1 Volt, applied to these points, produces a current of 1 Ampere.
  • Volt (V)
  • The Volt is the SI unit of electric potential, electric potential difference, and electromotive force.
  • Named after the Italian physicist Alessandro Volta, it measures the potential difference between two points.
  • One Volt is defined as the potential difference that will drive one Ampere of current against one Ohm of resistance.
  • Metre (m)
  • The Metre is the SI unit of length.
  • It is defined as the distance traveled by light in a vacuum in 1/299,792,458 seconds.
  • It is a fundamental unit in the metric system and is used to measure distance.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1497

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Name a common electrolyte disorder that occurs when the amount of sodium in your blood becomes abnormally low.

  1. AOption (a)

    Hyperkalemia

  2. BOption (b)

    Hypokalemia

  3. COption (c)

    Hyponatremia

  4. DOption (d)

    Hypernatremia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Hyponatremia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hyponatremia.

Key Points

  • Hyponatremia is a condition where the sodium level in the blood is lower than normal.
  • Sodium is an essential electrolyte that helps regulate water balance in and around cells.
  • Common causes of hyponatremia include excessive fluid intake, certain medications, and conditions like heart failure or kidney disease.
  • Symptoms of hyponatremia can range from mild (nausea, headache) to severe (confusion, seizures, coma).

Additional Information

  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by an abnormally high level of potassium in the blood.
  • Potassium is crucial for normal cell function, especially in the heart, muscles, and nerves.
  • Causes include kidney dysfunction, excessive potassium intake, and certain medications.
  • Symptoms can include muscle fatigue, weakness, paralysis, and abnormal heart rhythms.
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypokalemia is a condition where there is a lower than normal level of potassium in the blood.
  • It can result from conditions like chronic kidney disease, excessive loss of potassium through urine, or inadequate potassium intake.
  • Symptoms may include muscle cramps, weakness, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias.
  • Treatment typically involves potassium supplements and addressing the underlying cause.
  • Hypernatremia
  • Hypernatremia is a condition where the sodium level in the blood is higher than normal.
  • It often occurs due to dehydration, water loss, or excessive sodium intake.
  • Symptoms can include thirst, confusion, muscle twitching, and, in severe cases, seizures or coma.
  • Treatment focuses on slowly rehydrating the patient and addressing the cause of the sodium imbalance.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1498

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Directive Principles of State Policy as ________ of the Indian constitution.

  1. AOption (a)

    soul of the state

  2. BOption (b)

    identity card of the constitution

  3. COption (c)

    The most precious part of the constitution

  4. DOption (d)

    a novel feature of the constitution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a novel feature of the constitution

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a novel feature of the constitution.

Key Points

  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the principal architect of the Indian Constitution, described the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) as a novel feature of the Indian Constitution.
  • The DPSPs are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government and are considered fundamental in the governance of the country.
  • They are enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution, covering Articles 36 to 51.
  • The DPSPs aim to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life and also establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state.

Additional Information

  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
  • The DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.However, they are considered fundamental in the governance of the country and aim to establish a just society.
  • The principles have been borrowed from the Irish Constitution and are inspired by the Directive Principles of Social Policy.
  • They cover social and economic rights, Gandhian principles, and international peace and security.
  • Importance of DPSP
  • DPSPs act as a yardstick for measuring the performance of the government in terms of achieving social and economic justice.
  • They guide the government in policy-making and legislation.
  • They aim to create a welfare state where all citizens have equal opportunities for growth and development.
  • Despite being non-justiciable, they are fundamental in the governance of the country and aim to establish social and economic democracy.
  • Relation with Fundamental Rights
  • Fundamental Rights and DPSPs together form the conscience of the Indian Constitution.
  • While Fundamental Rights are justiciable and enforceable by the courts, DPSPs are non-justiciable.
  • Both aim to establish social, economic, and political justice in the country.
  • In case of conflict, the courts have generally given precedence to Fundamental Rights over DPSPs.
  • Amendments and DPSP
  • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a few DPSPs, such as the protection of the environment, promotion of equal justice, and provision of free legal aid.
  • The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 incorporated the principle that the state shall minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities.
  • These amendments reflect the dynamic nature of the Constitution and its ability to adapt to changing needs and aspirations of society.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1499

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Tera Tali folk dance is primarily associated with which of the following states?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rajasthan

  2. BOption (b)

    Assam

  3. COption (c)

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Haryana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rajasthan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

  • Tera Tali is a unique and traditional folk dance form predominantly performed in the state of Rajasthan.
  • This dance is a significant part of the culture of the Kamar tribe of Rajasthan.
  • It involves the use of manjiras (small brass cymbals) tied to different parts of the body, especially the hands and feet.
  • The performance is often accompanied by singing and is a reflection of the vibrant and rich cultural heritage of Rajasthan.

Additional Information

  • Rajasthan:
  • Rajasthan is the largest state in India by area, located in the northwestern part of the country.
  • It is known for its rich cultural heritage, historical forts, palaces, art, and traditional music and dance forms.
  • Rajasthan is home to other famous folk dances like Ghoomar, Kalbelia, and Bhavai.
  • The state's vibrant and colorful festivals like the Pushkar Camel Fair and the Jaipur Literature Festival attract tourists from all over the world.
  • Assam:
  • Assam is a state in northeastern India known for its tea plantations, wildlife, and the Brahmaputra River.
  • Bihu is the most important and widely celebrated festival in Assam, involving traditional dance and music.
  • The state is also known for its rich biodiversity and is home to the Kaziranga National Park, famous for the one-horned rhinoceros.
  • Madhya Pradesh:
  • Madhya Pradesh is located in central India and is often referred to as the "Heart of India" due to its geographical location.
  • The state has a rich cultural history and is known for its historical sites like Khajuraho, Bhimbetka rock shelters, and Sanchi Stupa.
  • Folk dances like Gaur, Phulpati, and Maanch are popular in Madhya Pradesh.
  • Haryana:
  • Haryana is a state in northern India, known for its agricultural prosperity and as the home of the Green Revolution.
  • The state is known for traditional folk dances like Jhumar, Dhamal, and Phag.
  • Haryana has a rich history and is known for its contributions to Indian sports, especially wrestling and kabaddi.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 13 Sept, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1500

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who among the following was the Vakil under the reign of Mughal Emperor, Akbar, who received the title of Khan-i-Khanan?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mulla do-Piyaza

  2. BOption (b)

    Birbal

  3. COption (c)

    Raja Todar Mal

  4. DOption (d)

    Bairam Khan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bairam Khan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bairam Khan.

Key Points

  • Bairam Khan was a prominent noble and general of the Mughal Empire during the reign of Emperor Akbar.
  • He served as the regent and guardian of young Akbar, managing the affairs of the state and the military.
  • Bairam Khan was conferred with the title of "Khan-i-Khanan," which means "Khan of Khans" or "Chief of Chiefs."
  • His loyalty and strategic expertise were instrumental in consolidating Mughal rule in India.

Additional Information

  • Vakil: The term "Vakil" in the Mughal administration refers to a representative or a high-ranking official who acted on behalf of the emperor. The Vakil was responsible for supervising the administration and ensuring that the emperor's orders were implemented.
  • Khan-i-Khanan: This title was one of the highest honors in the Mughal hierarchy, bestowed upon individuals who demonstrated exceptional loyalty and service to the emperor. It signified supreme authority and respect.
  • Akbar's Reign: Akbar, also known as Akbar the Great, was the third Mughal emperor who ruled from 1556 to 1605. His reign is noted for significant administrative, cultural, and military achievements, including the establishment of a centralized government and promoting a policy of religious tolerance.
  • Birbal and Raja Todar Mal: While Birbal was one of Akbar's trusted advisors and known for his wit and wisdom, Raja Todar Mal served as Akbar's finance minister and played a crucial role in the implementation of revenue reforms. Neither of them held the title of "Khan-i-Khanan."

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.