General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is The proportion of GDP contributed by the agricultural sector declined significantly but not the employment depending on the agriculture sector..

Key Points

• Post-independence, the share of agriculture in India's GDP has seen a significant decline. This is due to the growth of the industrial and service sectors.
• Despite the decline in the GDP contribution, a large proportion of the Indian workforce is still dependent on agriculture for their livelihood.
• Structural transformation in the economy is observed where the labor force shifts from agriculture to other sectors, but this transition has been slow in India.
• Employment in agriculture remains high due to slow industrialization and the inability of other sectors to absorb the growing workforce.

Additional Information

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP):
• GDP is the total monetary or market value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific time period.
• It serves as a comprehensive scorecard of a given country’s economic health.
• Agriculture Sector:
• This sector includes farming, fishing, and forestry, and it is a primary sector of the economy.
• It provides food, raw materials, and employment to a large section of the population.
• Employment in Agriculture:
• A large proportion of the workforce in developing countries like India is employed in agriculture.
• It includes jobs in crop production, animal husbandry, fisheries, and forestry.
• Structural Transformation:
• This refers to the shift of economic activities and labor force from agriculture to the industrial and service sectors.
• It is a key feature of economic development and involves changes in the structure of the economy.

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru.

Key Points

• Jawaharlal Nehru Port, also known as Nhava Sheva, is the largest container port in India.
• Located east of Mumbai in Maharashtra, this port was developed to relieve pressure on the Mumbai Port.
• It was inaugurated on 26 May 1989 and named after the first Prime Minister of India, Jawaharlal Nehru.
• The port is crucial for the country's shipping and logistics sector, handling a significant portion of India's containerized cargo.

Additional Information

• Ports in India
• India has a long coastline of about 7,517 km, which is serviced by 12 major ports and over 200 non-major ports.
• Major ports are managed by the central government, while non-major ports are managed by state governments.
• Major ports handle about 60% of the country's total cargo traffic.
• Importance of Satellite Ports
• Satellite ports are developed to alleviate congestion in major ports and to enhance port capacity.
• They play a vital role in regional economic development and help in improving logistics efficiency.
• Satellite ports can be specialized for certain types of cargo, thereby streamlining operations and reducing turnaround times.
• Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT)
• JNPT is an autonomous corporation under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
• It has state-of-the-art facilities including container terminals, liquid cargo terminals, and dry bulk cargo terminals.
• The port is equipped with modern technology to ensure efficient and seamless operations.
• JNPT has been instrumental in boosting India's trade and commerce by providing a robust infrastructure for maritime logistics.

The correct answer is Sodium Bicarbonate.

Key Points

• Sodium bicarbonate, commonly known as baking soda, is a white crystalline powder that is often used as a leavening agent in baking.
• It is widely used in fire extinguishers due to its ability to produce carbon dioxide when heated, which helps to suffocate fires.
• Sodium bicarbonate can neutralize acids and bases, making it a useful compound in various chemical reactions and for pH control.
• It is also used in medical applications, for instance, to treat acid indigestion and heartburn by neutralizing stomach acid.

Additional Information

• Sodium Bisulphite:
• Sodium bisulphite (NaHSO3) is a chemical compound commonly used as a food preservative and in the treatment of wastewater.
• It has reducing properties and is used in various industrial applications to prevent oxidation.
• Sodium Thiosulphate:
• Sodium thiosulphate (Na2S2O3) is an inorganic compound used in photographic processing, gold extraction, and medical treatment of cyanide poisoning.
• It is also used in water treatment to dechlorinate water before disposal or reuse.
• Sodium Chromate:
• Sodium chromate (Na2CrO4) is a chemical compound used in the manufacture of pigments, coatings, and other industrial applications.
• It is highly toxic and carcinogenic, and its use is regulated due to environmental and health concerns.
• Sodium Bicarbonate:
• Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3) is a versatile compound with applications in baking, cleaning, fire extinguishing, and medical treatments.
• It is a mild base that can neutralize acids and is used in various household and industrial applications.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• Chhath Puja is a significant festival dedicated to the Sun God (Surya) and Chhathi Maiya.
• It is predominantly celebrated in the Indian state of Bihar, along with Jharkhand, Eastern Uttar Pradesh, and the Madhesh region of Nepal.
• The festival involves rigorous rituals including holy bathing, fasting, and abstaining from drinking water (vrata), standing in water for long periods, and offering prasad (prayer offerings) and arghya to the setting and rising sun.
• Chhath Puja is unique to the worship of the Sun God and is observed over a span of four days.

Additional Information

• Chhath Puja
• It is an ancient Hindu Vedic festival historically native to the Indian subcontinent, more specifically the Indian states of Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, and the country of Nepal.
• The worship is dedicated to the Solar deity (Surya) to thank him for bestowing the bounties of life on earth and to request the granting of certain wishes.
• The ritual of Chhath Puja includes taking dips in the holy rivers, fasting, and abstaining from drinking water (vrata), standing in water for long periods, and offering prasad (prayer offerings) and arghya to the setting and rising sun.
• The main worship on the day of Chhath Puja involves offering arghya to the setting Sun, and on the final day, to the rising Sun.
• Sun God (Surya)
• In Hinduism, Surya is the chief solar deity and is considered to be a source of energy and light.
• Surya is often depicted as riding a chariot harnessed by seven horses, which represent the seven colors of the rainbow or the seven chakras in the human body.
• Worship of the Sun God is believed to cure diseases, ensure longevity, and bring prosperity.
• Chhathi Maiya
• Chhathi Maiya is the goddess worshipped during Chhath Puja and is believed to be the sister of the Sun God.
• She is considered the protector of children and the provider of offspring.
• Devotees believe that worshiping Chhathi Maiya ensures the well-being and prosperity of their children.
• Significance of Chhath Puja
• Chhath Puja is one of the few Hindu festivals that do not involve any idol worship.
• The festival is an expression of gratitude to the Sun God for sustaining life on Earth and is a means to seek blessings for the well-being and prosperity of family and loved ones.
• The festival is also known for its rigorous rituals which include fasting, standing in water, and offering prayers at sunrise and sunset.

The correct answer is Vakataka.

Key Points

• Vindhyashakti was the founder of the Vakataka dynasty, which ruled parts of central and southern India during the 3^rd to 5^th centuries CE.
• The Vakataka dynasty was contemporaneous with the Gupta Empire and played a crucial role in the politics of ancient India.
• They were known for their patronage of arts and culture, significantly contributing to the Ajanta Caves' development.
• The Vakatakas established a powerful kingdom that included regions of present-day Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh.

Additional Information

• Pallava Dynasty
• The Pallavas were a significant dynasty in South India, ruling from the 3^rd century to the 9^th century CE.
• They were known for their architectural achievements, especially the rock-cut temples at Mahabalipuram.
• The Pallava capital was Kanchipuram, which became a major center of learning and culture.
• The dynasty played a crucial role in the spread of Dravidian architecture and culture.
• Maukhar Dynasty
• The Maukharis were a prominent dynasty in northern India during the 6^th century CE.
• They initially served as vassals of the Guptas before establishing their independent rule.
• Their kingdom included parts of present-day Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
• The Maukhari dynasty is known for its conflicts with the later Guptas and the rise of the Pushyabhuti dynasty.
• Chalukya Dynasty
• The Chalukyas were an influential dynasty in southern and central India, with three distinct but related branches: the Badami Chalukyas, the Eastern Chalukyas, and the Western Chalukyas.
• The Badami Chalukyas ruled from the 6^th to the 8^th centuries CE and were known for their contributions to temple architecture.
• The Western Chalukyas, also known as the Kalyani Chalukyas, ruled from the 10^th to the 12^th centuries CE.
• The Eastern Chalukyas ruled in the eastern Deccan region and were known for their role in the development of Telugu culture.

The correct answer is Chintaman Raghunath Vyas.

Key Points

• Chintaman Raghunath Vyas was a renowned classical vocalist of the Gwalior Gharana.
• He was born in 1924 and was popularly known as C.R. Vyas.
• He made significant contributions to Hindustani classical music and wrote several books, including 'Raag Sarita'.
• C.R. Vyas was honored with prestigious awards like the Padma Bhushan for his contributions to Indian classical music.

Additional Information

• Gwalior Gharana
• The Gwalior Gharana is one of the oldest and most prominent schools of Hindustani classical music.
• It was founded in the 19^th century by Naththan Khan and Ustad Haddu Khan.
• The Gharana is known for its emphasis on precision in swara (notes) and laya (tempo).
• Many great maestros, including C.R. Vyas, have been associated with this Gharana.
• Hindustani Classical Music
• Hindustani classical music is the traditional music of northern regions of the Indian subcontinent.
• It has a rich history and has evolved over centuries, incorporating various elements from different cultures and eras.
• The music is based on ragas (melodic frameworks) and talas (rhythmic cycles).
• It includes both vocal and instrumental traditions, with prominent instruments like the sitar, tabla, and harmonium.
• Padma Bhushan
• The Padma Bhushan is the third-highest civilian award in India, established in 1954.
• It is awarded to individuals for distinguished service of a high order in any field, including arts, education, industry, literature, science, sports, medicine, social service, and public affairs.
• Recipients of the award are announced annually on Republic Day (26^th January).
• C.R. Vyas received this honor for his significant contributions to Indian classical music.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• The Uprising of Khurda, also known as the Paika Rebellion, took place in the Khurda region of Odisha.
• It was led by Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar, the commander of the forces of the Raja of Khurda.
• The rebellion was a response to the British East India Company's oppressive policies and land revenue systems.
• The Paikas, the traditional warrior class of Odisha, played a significant role in the uprising, showcasing their valor and resistance against British colonial rule.

Additional Information

• Uprising of Khurda:
• The Uprising of Khurda in 1817 is also known as the Paika Rebellion.
• The Paikas were the landed militia of Odisha, who were rendered landless by the policies of the British East India Company.
• The rebellion was one of the earliest organized armed rebellions against British rule in India.
• It was led by Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar, who mobilized the Paikas and other sections of society against the British.
• The revolt was primarily a reaction to the British land revenue policies, which were exploitative and led to widespread discontent among the peasants and landed gentry.
• The Paikas attacked British establishments, looted the treasury, and set fire to government buildings as a mark of their protest.
• Though the rebellion was eventually suppressed by the British, it is remembered for its significant impact on the resistance movements against colonial rule in India.
• Odisha:
• Odisha is an eastern state of India known for its rich history, culture, and heritage.
• The state was known as Kalinga in ancient times and has a long history of resistance against external invasions, including that of the Maurya Empire.
• Odisha is famous for its temples, such as the Jagannath Temple in Puri, which is a major pilgrimage site for Hindus.
• The state has a diverse cultural heritage, with various traditional dance forms like Odissi, folk music, and art.
• Economically, Odisha is known for its mineral resources and industries, including steel, aluminum, and power generation.

The correct answer is Hilton Young Commission.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established on the basis of the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
• The Hilton Young Commission was set up in 1926 to review the working of the Indian currency and to suggest changes for its stabilization and better management.
• The Commission's report led to the enactment of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• The Reserve Bank of India commenced operations on April 1, 1935, as the central bank of the country.

Additional Information

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
• The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of the country, responsible for regulating the issue of banknotes, maintaining reserves to ensure monetary stability, and operating the currency and credit system of India.
• It was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• The RBI plays a crucial role in the development strategy of the Government of India.
• The institution is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra, India.
• Hilton Young Commission
• The Hilton Young Commission, also known as the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, was established in 1926.
• The Commission was chaired by Sir Edward Hilton Young.
• Its primary purpose was to examine the Indian currency system and to recommend measures for its stabilization and management.
• The Commission's recommendations were instrumental in the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India.
• Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
• The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, is the legislative framework that led to the creation of the Reserve Bank of India.
• The Act was passed to constitute the Reserve Bank of India to regulate the issue of banknotes and the keeping of reserves to ensure monetary stability in India.
• It also aims to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage.
• The Act came into force on April 1, 1935, which is when the RBI began its operations.

The correct answer is Mangrove forests.

Key Points

• Sundari trees are the dominant species in the mangrove forests, especially in the Sundarbans.
• The Sundarbans is the largest mangrove forest in the world and is located in the delta region of Padma, Meghna, and Brahmaputra river basins.
• Mangrove forests are located in coastal intertidal zones, where they thrive in saline or brackish water.
• Mangroves play a crucial role in coastal protection, preventing soil erosion, and supporting a diverse range of marine life.

Additional Information

• Mangrove Forests:
• Mangrove forests are unique ecosystems found at the interface between land and sea in tropical and subtropical regions.
• The trees in these forests have specialized root systems that help them to survive in salty and oxygen-poor soils.
• Mangroves provide habitat for a variety of wildlife, including fish, crabs, and birds.
• They act as natural barriers against storm surges and coastal erosion, thus protecting inland areas.
• Tropical Deciduous Forests:
• Tropical deciduous forests are characterized by trees that shed their leaves during the dry season to conserve water.
• These forests receive moderate rainfall and have a rich biodiversity, including species like teak, sal, and bamboo.
• They are found in regions with distinct wet and dry seasons.
• Such forests are crucial for timber production and support a variety of wildlife.
• The Thorn Forests and Scrubs:
• Thorn forests and scrublands are found in arid and semi-arid regions where the climate is hot and dry.
• Vegetation is typically sparse, consisting of hardy plants like cacti, acacia, and thorny bushes.
• These ecosystems are adapted to conserve water and withstand prolonged drought conditions.
• They are important for preventing desertification and providing habitat for drought-resistant species.
• Tropical Evergreen Forests:
• Tropical evergreen forests are found in regions with high rainfall and no significant dry season.
• These forests are characterized by dense canopies, high biodiversity, and evergreen trees that do not shed their leaves.
• They are vital for carbon sequestration and maintaining global ecological balance.
• Some of the world's most diverse and complex ecosystems are tropical evergreen forests.

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

• Mumbai won the Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy for the first time in the 2022-2023 season.
• The Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy is a domestic T20 cricket competition in India, organized by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
• It is named after the famous Indian cricketer Syed Mushtaq Ali who was known for his aggressive batting style.
• Mumbai defeated Himachal Pradesh in the final to clinch the title.

Additional Information

• Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy
• The Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy is an Indian domestic T20 cricket championship.
• It was first introduced in the 2006-07 season.
• Named after Syed Mushtaq Ali, a former Indian cricketer known for his aggressive batting and contributions to Indian cricket.
• It is organized by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) and is a crucial platform for players to showcase their talents and make a case for national selection.

Domestic Cricket Formats in India

• First-Class Cricket:
• Format similar to Test cricket.
• Played over 4 days (some tournaments like Ranji Trophy have 5-day finals).
• Key Tournaments:
• Ranji Trophy: Prestigious inter-state competition.
• Duleep Trophy: Zonal competition.
• List A Cricket:
• Format similar to ODIs.
• Played at the domestic level.
• Key Tournaments:
• Vijay Hazare Trophy.
• T20 Domestic Cricket:
• Played at the state level.
• Key Tournaments:
• Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy.

The correct answer is Kannauj.

Key Points

• The Maukharis were an ancient Indian dynasty that ruled over parts of northern India after the decline of the Gupta Empire.
• They initially served as vassals of the Guptas before establishing their independent rule.
• The Maukharis made Kannauj their capital, which later became a prominent center of power and culture in northern India.
• Kannauj, under the Maukharis, became an important political, economic, and cultural hub during their reign.

Additional Information

• Maukharis Dynasty:
• The Maukharis were initially feudatories of the Guptas but later established their own independent rule in northern India.
• They ruled over the region that includes parts of present-day Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
• Key rulers of the Maukhari dynasty include Hari-varman and Aditya-varman.
• Kannauj:
• Kannauj is an ancient city in Uttar Pradesh, known for its historical and cultural significance.
• It became a major center of power during the rule of various dynasties, including the Maukharis, Harshavardhanas, and the Gurjara-Pratiharas.
• During the medieval period, Kannauj was a key battleground for dominance over northern India.
• Gupta Empire:
• The Gupta Empire was one of the largest and most powerful empires in ancient India, known for its advancements in arts, science, and political administration.
• It existed approximately from the 4^th to the 6^th century CE and is often referred to as the Golden Age of India.
• Key rulers include Chandragupta I, Samudragupta, and Chandragupta II.

The correct answer is Australia.

Key Points

• Australia won the ICC World Test Championship in 2023, defeating India in the final match.
• The final match was held at The Oval in London from June 7 to June 11, 2023.
• This victory marked Australia's first ICC World Test Championship title since the tournament's inception.
• Australia's team displayed remarkable performance throughout the tournament, leading to their well-deserved win.

Additional Information

• ICC World Test Championship
• The ICC World Test Championship (WTC) is a league competition for Test cricket run by the International Cricket Council (ICC).
• The championship was introduced to bring more context and excitement to Test cricket, which is the longest format of the sport.
• The WTC started in 2019, with the final match determining the world champion in Test cricket.
• The competition involves the top Test-playing nations, with each series contributing points towards the championship table.
• Final Match Details
• The final match of the 2023 ICC World Test Championship was held at The Oval, a historic cricket ground in London, England.
• Australia faced India in the final, showcasing top-notch cricketing skills from both sides.
• Australia emerged victorious, securing their first WTC title and adding another prestigious trophy to their cricketing achievements.
• Australia's Cricket Achievements
• Australia has a rich history in cricket, being one of the most successful teams in the sport.
• They have won multiple ICC Cricket World Cups, ICC Champions Trophies, and now the ICC World Test Championship.
• Australia is known for producing legendary cricketers and maintaining a high standard of performance in international cricket.

The correct answer is Angola.

Key Points

• The Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) Scheme was introduced by the Government of India in 2008.
• The scheme aims to provide market access at zero duty to products originating from Least Developed Countries (LDCs).
• Rwanda, Burundi, and Myanmar are some of the beneficiaries of the DFTP Scheme.
• Angola is currently not a beneficiary of India's Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) Scheme.

Additional Information

• Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) Scheme
• The DFTP Scheme was launched by India to provide preferential market access for goods originating from Least Developed Countries (LDCs).
• The main objective is to enhance South-South cooperation and contribute to the development of LDCs.
• The scheme covers around 98% of tariff lines, making a wide range of products from LDCs eligible for zero-duty benefits.
• It has the potential to significantly boost exports from LDCs to India, thereby supporting their economic growth and development.
• Least Developed Countries (LDCs)
• LDCs are a group of countries that are recognized by the United Nations as being the most disadvantaged in terms of their low gross national income, weak human assets, and economic vulnerability.
• As of October 2023, there are 46 countries classified as LDCs.
• LDCs benefit from various international support measures, including preferential market access and development assistance.
• The aim is to help these countries overcome structural challenges, eradicate poverty, and achieve sustainable development.

The correct answer is Article 80.

Key Points

• Article 80 of the Indian Constitution deals with the composition of the Council of States, which is commonly known as the Rajya Sabha.
• The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of India.
• As per Article 80, the Rajya Sabha consists of not more than 250 members.
• Out of these, 12 members are nominated by the President of India from among persons having special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as literature, science, art, and social service, and the remaining members are representatives of the States and Union territories.

Additional Information

• Article 76
• Article 76 of the Indian Constitution deals with the office of the Attorney General of India.
• The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India and has the right to participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament, but without a right to vote.
• Article 84
• Article 84 of the Indian Constitution specifies the qualifications required to be a member of Parliament.
• These qualifications include being a citizen of India, being not less than 30 years of age in the case of the Rajya Sabha and 25 years in the case of the Lok Sabha, and possessing such other qualifications as may be prescribed by law by the Parliament.
• Article 92
• Article 92 of the Indian Constitution deals with the provisions for the Chairman or Deputy Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
• It states that while the office of Chairman or Deputy Chairman is vacant, or in the absence of the Chairman from any sitting of the Council, the duties of the office shall be performed by the Deputy Chairman, or if the Deputy Chairman is also absent, by such member of the Council as may be determined by the rules of procedure of the Council.

The correct answer is 1869.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi was born on 2^nd October 1869.
• His full name was Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi.
• Gandhi is widely recognized as the Father of the Nation in India.
• He played a key role in India's independence movement against British rule through his philosophy of non-violence (Ahimsa).

Additional Information

• National Festivals of India
• India celebrates three national festivals: Republic Day (26^th January), Independence Day (15^th August), and Gandhi Jayanti (2^nd October).
• Gandhi Jayanti is observed to commemorate the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
• On this day, various events and activities are organized across the country to honor his contributions and teachings.
• It is also celebrated as the International Day of Non-Violence by the United Nations.
• Philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi
• Ahimsa: Non-violence, the principle of not causing harm to any living being.
• Satyagraha: The policy of passive political resistance, especially that advocated by Mahatma Gandhi against British rule in India.
• Swadeshi: The focus on self-sufficiency and the use of domestic goods.
• Sarvodaya: The welfare of all, a concept aiming for the progress and upliftment of all sections of society.
• Important Events in Gandhi's Life
• Salt March (1930): A nonviolent protest against the British salt monopoly.
• Quit India Movement (1942): A movement demanding an end to British rule in India.
• Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22): A mass protest demanding self-governance and full independence.
• Assassination: Mahatma Gandhi was assassinated on 30^th January 1948 by Nathuram Godse.

The correct answer is Opposite.

Key Points

• In an opposite phyllotaxy, two leaves arise at the same level from opposite sides of the stem.
• Each pair of leaves is typically perpendicular to the next pair above or below, providing a crisscross pattern.
• Opposite phyllotaxy ensures maximum light exposure for each leaf, which is beneficial for photosynthesis.
• This type of leaf arrangement is common in plants such as guava (Psidium guajava), calotropis, and jamun.

Additional Information

• Phyllotaxy
• Phyllotaxy refers to the arrangement of leaves on a plant stem.
• The primary types of phyllotaxy are alternate, opposite, and whorled.
• This arrangement plays a significant role in maximizing light capture and minimizing shading of lower leaves.
• Alternate Phyllotaxy
• In alternate phyllotaxy, each leaf arises at a different level on the stem, and the leaves are not directly opposite each other.
• Examples include sunflower and mustard.
• Whorled Phyllotaxy
• In whorled phyllotaxy, three or more leaves grow at the same level around the stem.
• This arrangement is less common and can be seen in plants like Nerium (oleander).

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Nandi Awards are the highest awards given for excellence in Telugu cinema, theatre, and television, presented annually by the Government of Andhra Pradesh.
• The awards were instituted in 1964 and have been presented annually ever since.
• The Nandi Award for Best Male Playback Singer was instituted in the year 1977.
• The awards are named after the big granite bull at Lepakshi, a cultural and historical symbol of the Telugu people.

Additional Information

• Telugu Cinema
• Telugu cinema, also known as Tollywood, is a part of Indian cinema producing films in the Telugu language.
• It is based in Film Nagar, a neighborhood of Hyderabad, Telangana.
• Telugu cinema is one of the largest film industries in India and produces a significant number of films annually.
• Andhra Pradesh
• Andhra Pradesh is a state in the southeastern coastal region of India.
• It is the seventh-largest state by area and the tenth-most populous state in India.
• The state has a rich cultural heritage and is known for its classical dance Kuchipudi and numerous historical monuments and temples.
• Other Notable Film Awards
• National Film Awards: Established in 1954, these are the most prominent film awards in India that honor the best of Indian cinema on a national level.
• Filmfare Awards: These are one of the oldest and most prestigious film awards in India, presented annually by The Times Group to honor artistic and technical excellence in the Hindi language film industry.
• IIFA Awards: The International Indian Film Academy Awards are presented annually by the International Indian Film Academy to honor artistic and technical excellence in Bollywood.

The correct answer is 1927.

Key Points

• The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) was established in 1927.
• The IOA is the body responsible for selecting athletes to represent India at the Olympic Games, Asian Games, and other international athletic meets.
• Sir Dorabji Tata and Dr. A.G. Noehren were the founding members of the IOA.
• The IOA is affiliated with the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and the Olympic Council of Asia.

Additional Information

• Olympic Games
• The Olympic Games are leading international sporting events featuring summer and winter sports competitions.
• The games are held every four years, with the Summer and Winter Games alternating every two years.
• The modern Olympic Games were first held in 1896 in Athens, Greece.
• The International Olympic Committee (IOC), established in 1894, is the governing body of the Olympic Movement.
• Asian Games
• The Asian Games, also known as Asiad, is a continental multi-sport event held every four years among athletes from all over Asia.
• The Games are regulated by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) under the supervision of the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India, in 1951.
• International Olympic Committee (IOC)
• The International Olympic Committee is a non-governmental sports organization based in Lausanne, Switzerland.
• The IOC is the authority responsible for organizing the modern Olympic Games.
• It was founded by Pierre de Coubertin and Demetrios Vikelas in 1894.

The correct answer is BHEL.

Key Points

• Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) is an Indian public sector engineering and manufacturing company.
• It is owned by the Government of India and was established in 1964.
• BHEL is one of the largest engineering and manufacturing companies of its kind in India.
• The company is engaged in the design, engineering, construction, testing, commissioning, and servicing of a wide range of products and services for the core sectors of the economy, viz. Power, Transmission, Industry, Transportation (Railways), Renewable Energy, Oil & Gas, and Defence.

Additional Information

• Reliance Industries Limited
• It is a private sector company and one of the largest conglomerates in India.
• Founded by Dhirubhai Ambani in 1966, it is involved in various sectors including petrochemicals, refining, oil, telecommunications, and retail.
• Tata Group
• It is an Indian multinational conglomerate founded in 1868 by Jamsetji Tata.
• While it operates in many sectors including steel, automobiles, IT, and hotels, it is a private sector entity.
• Adani Group
• Founded by Gautam Adani in 1988, it is an Indian multinational conglomerate.
• It operates in sectors such as energy, resources, logistics, agribusiness, real estate, financial services, and defense.
• It is a private sector company.

This code provides a detailed explanation for the question, including key points about the correct option (BHEL) and additional information about the other options.

The correct answer is Full-day discussion.

Key Points

• Full-day discussion is not a recognized device of parliamentary proceedings in India.
• Indian Parliament has specific mechanisms for discussions such as Half-an-hour discussion, Zero-hour discussion, and Two-hour (short) discussion.
• These mechanisms are structured to ensure organized and efficient proceedings within the Parliament.
• The concept of a "Full-day discussion" does not exist as a formal parliamentary procedure in India.

Additional Information

• Half-an-hour discussion
• It is a device in the Indian Parliament where members can raise a matter of public importance, which requires an oral answer from the concerned minister.
• This discussion takes place for half an hour, typically at the end of the day's session.
• It allows members to seek clarification on specific issues from the ministers.
• Zero-hour discussion
• It is an informal device available to the members of the Indian Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice.
• It starts immediately after the Question Hour and lasts until the agenda for the day is taken up.
• Members can raise urgent matters of public importance during this time.
• Two-hour (short) discussion
• This device allows for a discussion on a matter of urgent public importance for a duration of two hours.
• No formal motion is moved and no voting takes place at the end of the discussion.
• The aim is to allow members to express their views and enable the government to clarify its position on the issue.