General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is nitrogen cycling.

Key Points

• Nitrogen Cycle-
• Nitrogen is an essential constituent of protein and is a basic building block of all living tissue. It constitutes nearly 16% by weight of all the proteins that is, converted to ammonia, nitrites or nitrates before it can be taken up by plants.
• Nitrogen fixation on earth is accomplished in three different ways:

a) By microorganisms (bacteria and blue-green algae)

b) By man using industrial processes (fertilizer factories) and

c) To a limited extent by atmospheric phenomena such as thunder and lighting

• Certain microorganisms are capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium ions. These include free-living nitrifying bacteria (e.g. aerobic Azotobacter and anaerobic Clostridium) and symbiotic nitrifying bacteria living in association with leguminous plants and symbiotic bacteria living in non-leguminous root nodule plants (e.g. Rhizobium) as well as blue-green algae (e.g. Anabaena, Spirulina).
• Ammonium ions can be directly taken up as a source of nitrogen by some plants, or are oxidized to nitrites or nitrates by two groups of specialised bacteria: Nitrosomonas bacteria promote the transformation of ammonia into nitrite. Nitrite is then further transformed into nitrate by the bacteria Nitrobacter.
• The nitrates synthesised by bacteria in the soil are taken up by plants and converted into amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. These then go through higher trophic levels of the ecosystem. During excretion and upon the death of all organisms nitrogen is returned to the soil in the form of ammonia.
• Certain quantities of soil nitrates, being highly soluble in water, are lost to the system by being transported away by surface run-off or groundwater. In the soil as well as oceans there are special denitrifying bacteria (e.g. Pseudomonas), which convert the nitrates/nitrites to elemental nitrogen. This nitrogen escapes into the atmosphere, thus completing the cycle.
• The periodic thunderstorms convert the gaseous nitrogen in the atmosphere to ammonia and nitrates which eventually reach the earth’s surface through precipitation and then into the soil to be utilized by plants.

Additional Information

• Carbon Cycle
• The carbon cycle involves several processes, including photosynthesis, respiration, decomposition, and combustion. Plants absorb carbon dioxide (CO₂) during photosynthesis, while animals release CO₂ through respiration.
• Carbon is stored in various reservoirs, including the atmosphere (as CO₂), oceans (as dissolved CO₂ and organic carbon), soil (as organic matter), and living organisms. These reservoirs play a crucial role in regulating global climate.
• Human activities, such as fossil fuel combustion and deforestation, significantly alter the carbon cycle by increasing atmospheric CO₂ levels, contributing to global warming and climate change.​
• Water Cycle-
• The hydrologic cycle is the continuous circulation of water in the Earth-atmosphere system which is driven by solar energy. Water on our planet is stored in major reservoirs like atmosphere, oceans, lakes, rivers, soils, glaciers, snowfields, and groundwater. Water moves from one reservoir to another by the processes of evaporation, transpiration, condensation, precipitation, deposition, runoff, infiltration, and groundwater flow.
• Water as an important ecological factor determines the structure and function of the ecosystem. Cycling of all other nutrients is also dependent upon water as it provides their transportation during the various steps. It acts as a solvent medium for their uptake of nutrients by organisms.
• Sulphur Cycle-
• The sulphur reservoir is in the soil and sediments where it is locked in organic (coal, oil and peat) and inorganic deposits (pyrite rock and sulphur rock) in the form of sulphates, sulphides and organic sulphur.
• It is released by weathering of rocks, erosional runoff and decomposition of organic matter and is carried to terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems in a salt solution.
• The sulphur cycle is mostly sedimentary except two of its compounds hydrogen sulphide (H2S) and sulphur dioxide (SO2) add a gaseous component to its normal sedimentary cycle.
• Sulphur enters the atmosphere from several sources like volcanic eruptions, combustion of fossil fuels, from the surface of the ocean and from gases released by decomposition. Atmospheric hydrogen sulphide also gets oxidised into sulphur dioxide.
• Atmospheric sulphur dioxide is carried back to the earth after being dissolved in rainwater as weak sulphuric acid.

The correct answer is 10 May.

Key Points

• The Sepoy Mutiny of the 1857 War of Independence started in Meerut city.
• Indian Mutiny, also called Sepoy Mutiny or First War of Independence, widespread but unsuccessful rebellion against British rule in India in 1857–59.
• Begun in Meerut by Indian troops (sepoys) in the service of the British East India Company, it spread to Delhi, Agra, Kanpur, and Lucknow.
• In India, it is often called the First War of Independence and other similar names.
• On 6^th May 1857 A.D., 85 out of 90 Indian soldiers at Meerut refused to bite the greased cartridges with their teeth.
• These 85 soldiers were court-martialled and imprisoned for 10 years.
• They were stripped of their uniforms in the presence of the entire Indian crowd.
• The revolt spread over the entire area from the neighbourhood of Patna to the borders of Rajasthan.
• The Revolt of 1857 lasted for more than a year.
• It was suppressed by the middle of 1858.
• On July 8, 1858, fourteen months after the outbreak at Meerut, peace was finally proclaimed by Lord Canning.

The correct answer is Amitabh Kant.

Key Points

• India's Sherpa for the G20 presidency in 2022-2023 was Amitabh Kant.
• As Sherpa, he played a crucial role in shaping India's G20 agenda, which focused on themes like "One Earth, One Family, One Future".
• He led negotiations, coordinated with G20 member countries, and ensured a smooth conduct of the presidency.
• Amitabh Kant's experience and diplomatic skills were instrumental in elevating India's global standing during its G20 presidency.

The correct answer is Pir Panjal range.

Key Points

• Pir Panjal range
• The Pir Panjal Range is situated in the Kashmir region.
• It is named after the Pir Panjal Pass.
• Indrasan is the highest peak of Pir Panjal Range.
• Mount Indrasan is located at an altitude of 6221 meters above sea level.
• It is one of the most difficult mountains to climb.
• Deo Tibba and Indrasan are the major peaks of Pir Panjal range.
• The Kashmir valley lies between the Himadri and Pir Panchal range.

Additional Information

• The Purvanchal Range, or Eastern Mountains, is a sub-mountain range of the Himalayas in North-East India.
• The Purvanchal comprises :
• The Patkai Hills
• The Naga Hills
• Manipur Hills
• The Mizo Hills
• The Patkai Hills:
• The Patkai Hills are the hills on India's north-eastern border with Burma or Myanmar.
• The Naga Hills:
• The Naga Hills lie on the border of India and Burma.
• The Mizo Hills:
• Mizo Hills is a mountain range in southeastern Mizoram state.
• Mizo Hills form part of the north Arakan Yoma system.
• The range is an eastern extension of the Himalayan Range System, in northeastern India.
• It bends sharply to the south beyond the Dihang River gorge and spreads along the eastern boundary of India with Myanmar.
• The Purvanchal includes the hill of the Patkai hills, Naga Hills, Mizo Hills, and Manipur hills.

The correct answer is 1928.

Key Points

• India made its Olympic debut in hockey at the 1928 Amsterdam Olympics.
• In its debut, the Indian hockey team won the gold medal, defeating the Netherlands in the final match.
• The victory in 1928 marked the beginning of India’s illustrious history in Olympic hockey.
• India went on to dominate the sport, winning six consecutive Olympic gold medals from 1928 to 1956.
• Significance of 1928
• Established India as a formidable force in international hockey.
• Helped promote the sport within the country and inspired future generations of players.

Additional Information

• History of Indian Hockey
• Indian hockey gained international recognition during the British colonial era.
• Field hockey is considered a national sport in India, with a rich legacy of success in various tournaments.
• Olympic Games
• The Olympics are held every four years, featuring a wide array of sports and countries participating.
• Hockey has been a prominent sport in the Olympics since its inclusion in 1908.

The correct answer is To protect and improve the natural environment.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee.
• The idea of Fundamental Duties is inspired from the Constitution of Russia.
• The Fundamental duties are non-justiciable in nature.
• There are total 11 Fundamental Duties listed in Article 51-A of the Constitution

Fundamental Duties:

• ​To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom;
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
• To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture;
• To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures;
• To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
• To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
• To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; and
• To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years (added by the 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002).

The correct answer is SMILE-75.

Key Points

SMILE-75 Initiative:

• Under the “SMILE-75” Initiative, 75 Municipal Corporations will undertake comprehensive rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of begging in the spirit of Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav.
• Municipal Corporations, in collaboration with NGOs and other stakeholders, will cover several comprehensive welfare measures for persons who are engaged in the act of begging, with a focus extensively on rehabilitation, provision of medical facilities, counselling, awareness, education, skill development, economic linkages and convergence with other Government welfare programmes etc.
• The Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment has also allocated a total budget of Rs.100 crore for the SMILE project for the coming years till 2025-26.
• It seeks to develop a support mechanism for the holistic rehabilitation of those engaged in the act of begging.
• Implementing Ministry: The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
• It includes the sub-scheme of Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of Begging.

Additional Information

• About Project "SMILE":
• SMILE: Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise.
• It is a new umbrella scheme that aims to provide welfare measures to the Transgender community and the people engaged in the act of begging.
• It was launched by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment on 12 August 2022.
• The Ministry has allocated Rs. 365 Crore for the scheme from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
• The Housing facility in the form of ‘Garima Greh’ ensures food, clothing, recreational facilities, skill development opportunities, recreational activities medical support, etc. to the Transgender community and the people engaged in the act of begging.
• The focus of the scheme is extensively on rehabilitation, provision of medical facilities, counseling, basic documentation, education, skill development, economic linkages, and so on.
• It is estimated that approximately 60,000 poorest persons would be benefited under this scheme for leading a life of dignity.

The correct answer is Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
• Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is a financial inclusion scheme launched by the Government of India.
• Its objective is to provide access to banking services to all households in the country.
• The scheme was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on August 15, 2014.
• Under the scheme, any individual can open a savings or current account with zero balance.
• Account holders are also provided with a free debit card and an accident insurance cover of Rs 1 lakh.
• Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana has played an important role in promoting financial inclusion in India.

Additional Information

• Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana
• It was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India in June 2011.
• It aims at creating efficient and effective institutional platforms of the rural poor, enabling them to increase household income through sustainable livelihood enhancements and improved access to financial services.
• It is aided in part through investment support from the World Bank.
• In addition, the poor would be facilitated to achieve increased access to rights, entitlements, and public services, diversified risk, and better social indicators of empowerment.
• The blocks and districts in which all components of N.R.L.M are implemented are treated as ‘intensive’ blocks and districts, whereas the remaining as ‘non-intensive’ blocks and districts.
• In a typical intensive block, the first 3 years are spent building the organizations of the poor by mobilizing them into SHGs, Federations at Village, Cluster level, and Block levels.
• Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
• Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana relates to the skill development of rural youth.
• Union government on 25 September 2014 launched Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana to train 1 million rural youths by 2017.
• It targets youth, in the age group of 15–35 years.
• It aims to provide them with jobs having regular monthly wages or above the minimum wages.
• It is a part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM).
• National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) is the Mission for poverty reduction called Aajeevika.
• The Yojana was launched during the 98^th birth anniversary of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay.
• Earlier the Yojana was known as Aajeevika Skills Development Programme (ASDP).
• ​Swaranjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
• The Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) was implemented at the beginning of the 1999–2000 fiscal year to replace six other related programmes.
• The initiative was created as a comprehensive plan to support rural impoverished people who work for themselves.
• It is funded by the Centre and the State in a 75:25 ratio and is implemented by commercial banks, regional banks and cooperative banks.

The correct answer is Vikramorvasiyam.

Key Points

• Harshavardhana ruled from 606 - 647 AD.
• His earliest capital was Thaneswar.
• Harshavardhana (606-647 A.D.) ascended the throne of Thaneshwar and Kannauj on the death of his brother, Rajyavardhana.

Additional Information

• Harshavardhana belonged to the Pushyabhuti dynasty.
• It was founded by Naravardhana close to the 5^th or beginning of the 6^th century A.D.
• The dynasty flourished under Prabhakarvardhana (father of Harshavardhana).
• He assumed the title of Maharajadhiraja.
• Harshavardhana succeeded the throne in 606 A.D.
• Harsha was also known as Sakalottarapathanatha.
• He conquered Magadha.
• He established his capital at Kannauj.
• His empire extended from Punjab to northern Orissa and from the Himalayas to the bank of Narmada.
• The period of Harsha is well documented in Harshacharitra written by Banabhatta.
• Chinese scholar Hiuen-Tsang visited Harsha's court in 631 A.D.
• The empire came to an end along with the death of Harshavardhana in 647 A.D.
• Harshavardhan wrote three Sanskrit plays viz. Nagananda, Ratnavali and Priyadarshika.
• Hiuen-Tsang mentioned the grand assembly held at Kannauj in 643 A.D. which was attended by twenty kings, four thousand Buddhist monks and about three thousand Jains and Brahmans.
• He also organised Mahamoksha Harishad, a religious festival, at Prayaga (Allahabad).

The correct answer is Monera.

Key Points

• Monera kingdom:
• These organisms lack a defined nucleus or organelles and none of them has multicellular bodies.
• Some of them have cell walls while some do not.
• This group of species may either synthesize their own food (autotrophic) or obtain it from the environment (heterotrophic).
• Bacteria, blue-green algae (cyanobacteria), and mycoplasma are examples.

Additional Information

• Fungi kingdom:
• These are heterotrophic eukaryotic organisms.
• Some of them are known as saprotrophs, which feed on decaying organic matter.
• Others feed on the living protoplasm of a host organism. They are called parasites.
• Many of them have the capacity to become multicellular organisms at certain stages in their lives.
• Their cell walls are made of chitin, a tough complex sugar.
• Examples are yeasts, moulds, and mushrooms.
• Protista kingdom
• Protista kingdom single-celled eukaryotes.
• Characteristics of Protista are given bellow:
• Unicellular organism.
• Normally aquatic.
• Reproduction: Asexual & sexual.
• Well defined nucleus & membrane-bounded organelles.
• Group of Protista are given bellow:
• Prokaryotic: Dinoflagellate, Diatoms, Euglenoids.
• Consumer: Slime moulds, Myxomycetes.
• Protozoans: Slime moulds, Myxomycetes.
• Plantae
• Kingdom plantae includes all eukaryotic, chlorophyll-containing organisms called plants.
• Some of these members are primarily heterotrophic, such as insectivorous plants or parasites.
• Kingdom plantae is divided into 5 major divisions:
• Algae (Thallophyta)
• Bryophytes
• Pteridophytes
• Gymnosperms and
• Angiosperms
• Algae (Thallophyta)
• Algae are chlorophyll-containing, simple, thalloid, autotrophic and largely aquatic (both freshwater and marine) organisms.
• Algae are self-feeders.
• Bryophytes
• The bryophytes are generally classified into two main groups
• Liverworts
• Liverworts usually grow in moist, shady places such as banks of streams, marshy ground, damp soil, the bark of trees, and deep in the woods.
• Mosses
• Mosses grow in dense mats over moist shady places, especially during rainy seasons.
• Pteridophytes
• Pteridophytes are primitive seedless vascular plants also called cryptogams.
• The pteridophytes are found in cool, damp shady places though some may flourish well in sandy-soil conditions.
• Gymnosperms
• Gymnosperms are vascular plants having naked seeds.
• The gymnosperms are plants in which the ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed, both before and after fertilisation.
• Angiosperms
• Angiosperms are seed bearing plants or flowering plants.
• Unlike gymnosperms where the ovules are naked, in angiosperms the sporophylls are organized into flowers and seeds are produced inside fruits,

The correct answer is Article 63.

Key Points

• Article 63
• Article 63 of the Indian Constitution states that "There shall be a vice president of India."
• The vice president acts as president in the absence of the president due to death, resignation, impeachment, or other situations.
• The vice president of India is also ex officio chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. When a bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha, the vice president decides whether it is a financial bill or not.
• If he is of the opinion, a bill introduced in the Rajya Sabha is a money bill, he would refer the case to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha for deciding it.

Additional Information

• Article 61
• The process for the impeachment of the President is outlined in Article 61 of the Indian Constitution.
• Either House of Parliament may file the impeachment accusations.
• The President must be notified 14 days in advance, and these allegations must be signed by one-fourth of the House members who framed them.
• The other House, which is tasked with conducting an investigation into the allegations, receives the impeachment resolution when it has been approved by a two-thirds majority of the entire membership of that House.
• The President has the right to show up and be represented during such an investigation.
• The President is removed from office as of the date the resolution is passed if the other House concurs with the accusations and approves the impeachment resolution with a two-thirds majority of its members.
• Impeachment is a quasi-judicial process in Parliament as a result.
• In this context, it is important to keep in mind two things:
• nominated members of either House of Parliament may take part in the impeachment of the President even though they did not cast a ballot in his election;
• and elected members of state legislative assemblies and the union territories of Delhi and Puducherry may not, even though they cast a ballot in the President's election.
• Article 65
• Article 65 deals with the Vice-President acting as President or discharging the functions of the President in the event of a vacancy.
• ​Article 62
• Article 62 of the Indian Constitution deals with the time frame for holding an election to fill a vacancy in the office of the President.

The correct answer is curvilinear.

Key Points

• Javelin
• A javelin is a light spear designed to be thrown. Historically it was a weapon, but from the Ancient Greeks to today it was used for sport. The javelin is almost always thrown by hand.
• The athlete holds the javelin in one arm and, while running, throws it as far as possible. It is an official Olympic sport.
• It has been part of the modern Olympic Games program since 1908 for men and 1932 for women.

The correct answer is 131.9.

Key Points

• The green revolution is the rise in agricultural productivity, particularly in developing nations, made possible by the use of novel crops and farming techniques.
• Given that he started the Green Revolution in India, M. S. Swaminathan is regarded as its father. He was motivated by Norman Borlaug's effort.
• Norman Borlaug started the Green Revolution movement in the 1960s. He is referred to as the "Father of the Green Revolution" globally. For his efforts in creating High Yielding Varieties (HYVs) of wheat, it resulted in him being awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970.
• In order to enhance food production and reduce hunger and poverty, high-yielding cultivars of rice and wheat were first introduced in India in the 1960s.
• In Punjab, the Green Revolution in India was first implemented in late 1966 or early 1967 as a part of a development initiative launched by international donor organisations and the Indian government.
• One of the innovative techniques created during the Green Revolution was drip irrigation. This technology allowed water to drop slowly and steadily to the roots of plants, saving water and promoting more sustainable agriculture.
• India has achieved significant progress thanks to the Green Revolution, which has brought about a previously unheard-of level of food security. It has helped many non-poor people avoid the poverty and hunger they would have otherwise faced while lifting a significant number of poor people out of poverty

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

• Let's denote the oxidation number of sulfur as 'x'.
• In H₂S₂O₇:
• Hydrogen (H) has an oxidation number of +1.
• Oxygen (O) has an oxidation number of -2.
• The overall charge of the molecule is 0.
• So, we can set up the equation:
• 2(+1) + 2(x) + 7(-2) = 0
• Simplifying:
• 2 + 2x - 14 = 0
• 2x = 12
• x = +6
• Therefore, the oxidation number of sulfur (S) in H₂S₂O₇ is +6.

The correct answer is A major airport is one which has an annual traffic of minimum 35 lakh passengers.

Key Points

• On March 24, 2021, the Lok Sabha received the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India (Amendment) Bill, 2021.
• The 2008 Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act is being modified.
• The Airport Economic Regulatory Authority was founded under the 2008 Act.
• AERA regulates tariffs and other charges (such as airport development fees) for aeronautical services rendered at major airports in India.

 Additional Information

• A major airport is one that receives at least 35 lakh passengers annually, according to the 2008 Act.
• Any airport may be designated as a major airport by notification from the federal government.
• According to the Bill, the federal government may group airports and declare the group to be a major airport.

The correct answer is Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited.

Key Points

• Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) is one of India's largest public sector engineering and manufacturing enterprises.
• BHEL was established in 1964 and is owned and managed by the Government of India.
• It operates in the power, transmission, industry, transportation, renewable energy, oil & gas, and defense sectors.
• As a public sector undertaking, BHEL plays a significant role in the industrial development and energy sector of India.

Additional Information

• Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
• PSUs are government-owned corporations or state-owned enterprises created to undertake commercial activities on behalf of the government.
• They are usually established through a special act of parliament or a government order.
• PSUs play a crucial role in the economic development of the country by providing essential services and infrastructure.
• Examples of major PSUs in India include BHEL, Indian Oil Corporation (IOC), and Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC).
• Bajaj Auto
• Bajaj Auto is a private sector automobile company in India.
• It is one of the largest manufacturers of two-wheelers and three-wheelers in the country.
• Bajaj Auto is part of the Bajaj Group and was founded in 1945.
• Dabur
• Dabur is a private sector company specializing in healthcare, personal care, and food products.
• It is one of the leading FMCG (Fast Moving Consumer Goods) companies in India.
• Dabur was founded in 1884 and is known for its Ayurvedic products.
• Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO)
• TISCO, now known as Tata Steel, is a private sector steel manufacturing company in India.
• It is part of the Tata Group and was established in 1907.
• Tata Steel is one of the largest steel producers in the world.

The correct answer is 2014.

Key Points

• The Pro Kabaddi League (PKL) was established in India in the year 2014.
• It was inspired by the popularity of the Kabaddi tournament at the 2006 Asian Games.
• PKL is based on the format of the Indian Premier League (IPL) for cricket.
• It was launched by Mashal Sports, with Charu Sharma and Anand Mahindra being the key figures behind its inception.

Additional Information

• Pro Kabaddi League (PKL)
• The Pro Kabaddi League is a professional-level Kabaddi league in India, which started in 2014.
• The league follows a round-robin format followed by playoffs and a final to determine the winner.
• PKL has significantly contributed to the resurgence and popularity of Kabaddi in India.
• It features players from India and abroad, showcasing the sport's international appeal.
• Kabaddi
• Kabaddi is a contact team sport that originated in ancient India.
• The game involves two teams, each occupying opposite halves of a field, and taking turns sending a "raider" into the other half to tag and return to their half without being tackled.
• The sport is popular in South Asia and is the national game of Bangladesh.
• Kabaddi is also played professionally in the Pro Kabaddi League in India and various other leagues around the world.
• Indian Premier League (IPL)
• The Indian Premier League is a professional Twenty20 cricket league in India contested during March or April and May of every year by teams representing Indian cities.
• The league was founded by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) in 2008.
• It is the most-attended cricket league in the world and ranks sixth among all sports leagues.
• The IPL has helped popularize the T20 format and has provided a platform for many young cricketers to showcase their talent.
• Mashal Sports
• Mashal Sports is a sports management company based in India.
• The company was founded by sports commentator Charu Sharma and industrialist Anand Mahindra.
• Mashal Sports is known for organizing the Pro Kabaddi League, which has become a prominent sports league in India.
• The company aims to elevate the status of Kabaddi and other sports in India through professional leagues and events.

The correct answer is six.

Key Points

• The Vedangas are six auxiliary disciplines associated with the study of the Vedas.
• They were developed in ancient India to support the proper understanding and interpretation of the Vedas.
• The six Vedangas are: Shiksha (Phonetics), Vyakarana (Grammar), Chandas (Meter), Nirukta (Etymology), Jyotisha (Astronomy), and Kalpa (Rituals).
• Each Vedanga serves a specific purpose in ensuring the accurate preservation, recitation, and understanding of the Vedic texts.

Additional Information

• Shiksha (Phonetics)
• Shiksha deals with the sounds of the Sanskrit language, including the rules of pronunciation, accent, and intonation.
• It is essential for maintaining the oral tradition of the Vedas by ensuring accurate and consistent recitation.
• Vyakarana (Grammar)
• Vyakarana is the study of Sanskrit grammar and linguistic analysis.
• The most famous text of Vyakarana is Panini's Ashtadhyayi, which codifies the rules of Sanskrit grammar.
• Chandas (Metrics)
• Chandas is the study of poetic meters used in Vedic texts.
• It helps in understanding the structure and rhythmic patterns of Vedic hymns.
• Nirukta (Etymology)
• Nirukta involves the interpretation and explanation of difficult Vedic words.
• Yaska's Nirukta is a significant work in this field, providing meanings and contexts of Vedic terms.
• Jyotisha (Astronomy)
• Jyotisha is the study of astronomy and astrology as related to Vedic rituals.
• It includes the calculation of auspicious times (muhurta) for performing Vedic rituals.
• Kalpa (Rituals)
• Kalpa deals with the procedures and rituals of Vedic ceremonies.
• It includes various texts like the Shrauta Sutras, Grihya Sutras, and Dharma Sutras, which guide the performance of Vedic rituals.

The correct answer is 3.6%.

Key Points

• The First Five-Year Plan of India was launched in 1951 and lasted until 1956.
• The primary objective of the First Five-Year Plan was to improve the living standards of the people of India by making judicious use of the country's resources.
• The plan focused heavily on agriculture, irrigation, and energy to boost the economy.
• The actual growth rate achieved during the First Five-Year Plan was 3.6% (0.036), which was more than the targeted growth rate of 2.1% (0.021).

Additional Information

• Five-Year Plans
• The Five-Year Plans were a series of centralized economic and social growth initiatives in India, modeled after the Soviet Union's own plans.
• They aimed to create a balance in the country's economy and promote steady growth in various sectors such as agriculture, industry, and services.
• The Planning Commission, an institution in the Government of India, was responsible for drafting and executing these plans.
• The First Five-Year Plan focused mainly on the agricultural sector to address the food shortage that the country was facing post-independence.
• Planning Commission
• The Planning Commission was an institution in the Government of India, which formulated India's Five-Year Plans, among other functions.
• It was established in March 1950 by a resolution of the Government of India.
• The Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) in 2015.
• The commission played a crucial role in allocating resources, formulating policies, and defining the direction of economic development in the country.
• Economic Growth Rate
• The economic growth rate is a measure of the increase in a country’s economic output and is often calculated as the percentage increase in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• It is an important indicator of economic health and is used by policymakers to gauge the effectiveness of economic policies.
• A higher growth rate indicates a thriving economy with more jobs and higher income levels, while a lower rate may suggest economic problems.

The correct answer is Flies, fingers, fomites, food and fluid.

Key Points

• Indirect transmission refers to the transfer of infectious agents to a susceptible person through a contaminated intermediate object or organism.
• The five Fs of indirect transmission are: Flies, fingers, fomites, food, and fluid.
• These five Fs represent the common pathways through which pathogens can be transmitted indirectly.
• Understanding these pathways is crucial in implementing effective infection control measures to prevent the spread of diseases.

Additional Information

• Flies: Flies can act as vectors by carrying pathogens on their bodies and contaminating food or surfaces they land on.
• Fingers: Hands can become contaminated through contact with infected surfaces, body fluids, or during the handling of contaminated objects, leading to the spread of pathogens.
• Fomites: Fomites are inanimate objects like doorknobs, utensils, or clothing that can harbor infectious agents and facilitate their transmission when touched by individuals.
• Food: Contaminated food can be a source of infection if it is prepared, handled, or stored improperly, allowing pathogens to multiply and cause illness.
• Fluid: Contaminated water or other fluids can serve as a medium for the transmission of pathogens, especially in areas with poor sanitation and hygiene practices.