SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

7100 Total Questions284 Official PapersYears: 2017–2025Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 1301–1320 of 7100Page 66 of 100
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1301

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Taxus wallichiana Zucc (Himalayan yew) is a medicinal plant found in which of the following states?

  1. AOption (a)

    Goa

  2. BOption (b)

    Jharkhand

  3. COption (c)

    Himachal Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Bihar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Himachal Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh

Key Points

The Himalayan Yew :

  • The Himalayan Yew (Taxus wallachiana) is a medicinal plant found in various parts of Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh.
  • The plant holds an important place in traditional medicine and its products are used by the local populations for treating common infections.
  • A chemical compound called ‘taxol’ is extracted from the bark, needles, twigs and roots of this tree, and it has been successfully used to treat some cancers – the drug is now the biggest selling anti-cancer drug in the world.
  • The species is under great threat due to over-exploitation.
  • In the last decade, thousands of yew trees have dried up in various parts of Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Yew has undergone a recent, range-wide population decline of at least 50% as per IUCN.
  • Due to the illegal cutting of plant parts and other anthropogenic pressures, Himalayan yew is endangered, and threatened with extinction, in Himalaya.
  • Throughout its range in the western Himalayas, it is declining in response to a range of threats.
  • In Afghanistan, up to 50% of the forests where it occurs have been destroyed or heavily logged (UNEP 2003) over the last 30 years.
  • In northwest India and western Nepal, exploitation associated with Taxol production has led to a national decline of up to 90% in Taxus populations throughout the country.
  • Also, in other countries such as Pakistan, overexploitation for fuel, fodder, and medicinal use has led to a significant decline.
  • The decline is continuing and while the causes are largely understood, in many areas they will not be reversible. On this basis, an assessment of Endangered is warranted.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1302

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nucleus: Lipid metabolism

  2. BOption (b)

    Lysosomes: Suicidal bags

  3. COption (c)

    Mitochondria: Power house of the cell

  4. DOption (d)

    Ribosomes: Protein factory

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Nucleus: Lipid metabolism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nucleus: Lipid metabolism.

Key Points

  • The nucleus is the control center of the cell, storing the cell's DNA and coordinating cellular activities such as growth, metabolism, and reproduction.
  • Lipid metabolism is primarily associated with the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and not the nucleus.
  • The nucleus is responsible for the transcription of DNA to mRNA, which is then translated into proteins by ribosomes.
  • The nucleus also contains the nucleolus, which is involved in ribosome synthesis and assembly.

Additional Information

  • Lysosomes:
  • Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles that contain enzymes to break down biomolecules.
  • They are often referred to as the "suicidal bags" of the cell because they can digest cellular components when the cell is damaged.
  • They play a key role in the degradation and recycling of cellular waste, cellular signaling, and energy metabolism.
  • Mitochondria:
  • Mitochondria are known as the "powerhouses of the cell" because they generate most of the cell's supply of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), used as a source of chemical energy.
  • They are involved in other processes such as signaling, cellular differentiation, and cell death, as well as the control of the cell cycle and cell growth.
  • Mitochondria have their own DNA and are thought to have originated from ancestral prokaryotes through endosymbiosis.
  • Ribosomes:
  • Ribosomes are the molecular machines responsible for protein synthesis.
  • They translate messenger RNA (mRNA) into amino acid sequences to build proteins.
  • Ribosomes can be found floating freely in the cytoplasm or bound to the endoplasmic reticulum, forming the rough ER.
  • They are made up of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins and consist of two subunits, a large and a small one.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1303

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following battles is considered the formal beginning of the British Raj in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    First Carnatic War

  2. BOption (b)

    Battle of Plassey

  3. COption (c)

    Battle of Wandiwash

  4. DOption (d)

    Battle of Buxar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Battle of Plassey

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Battle of Plassey.

Key Points

  • The Battle of Plassey was fought on 23 June 1757, in the eastern part of India.
  • This battle marked the beginning of British colonial rule in India.
  • It was fought between the British East India Company and the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj ud-Daulah.
  • The British victory in this battle was largely due to the betrayal of Nawab's commander, Mir Jafar, who sided with the British.

Additional Information

  • First Carnatic War
  • The First Carnatic War (1746-1748) was fought between the British and the French in India.
  • It was mainly a result of the War of Austrian Succession in Europe.
  • The war ended with the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle in 1748, resulting in a status quo ante bellum.
  • Battle of Wandiwash
  • The Battle of Wandiwash was fought on 22 January 1760 between the British and the French.
  • The British, under Sir Eyre Coote, decisively defeated the French forces.
  • This battle marked the end of French colonial ambitions in India.
  • Battle of Buxar
  • The Battle of Buxar was fought on 22 October 1764 between the British East India Company and the combined forces of the Nawab of Bengal, Nawab of Awadh, and the Mughal Emperor.
  • The British victory established their supremacy in the eastern parts of India.
  • This battle was crucial for the British as it consolidated their power after the Battle of Plassey.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1304

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following Indian states has the least number of operational airports as of 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bihar

  2. BOption (b)

    Maharashtra

  3. COption (c)

    Mizoram

  4. DOption (d)

    Karnataka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mizoram

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

  • Mizoram is a state in Northeast India, known for its scenic beauty and cultural heritage.
  • As of 2022, Mizoram has only one operational airport, which is Lengpui Airport.
  • Lengpui Airport is located near Aizawl, the capital city of Mizoram, and is the primary airport serving the state.
  • Due to the state's hilly terrain and lower population density, the development of multiple airports has been limited.

Additional Information

  • Operational Airports in India:
  • India has a network of airports spread across its vast geography, including both international and domestic airports.
  • The Airports Authority of India (AAI) is responsible for the development, maintenance, and management of civil aviation infrastructure in the country.
  • As of 2022, some states like Maharashtra and Karnataka have multiple operational airports due to their larger land area and higher population density.
  • Lengpui Airport:
  • Lengpui Airport is the only operational airport in Mizoram and serves as the main gateway to the state.
  • It is situated approximately 32 km from Aizawl, the state capital.
  • The airport is equipped to handle both domestic flights and is known for its picturesque approach due to the surrounding hills.
  • Lengpui Airport was inaugurated in 1998 and has since been a crucial part of Mizoram's connectivity.
  • Challenges in Airport Development in Hilly Regions:
  • Constructing and maintaining airports in hilly terrains like Mizoram presents unique challenges, including difficult topography and limited flat land availability.
  • High construction costs and environmental concerns also play significant roles in limiting the number of airports.
  • However, such regions can benefit greatly from air connectivity in terms of tourism and economic development.
  • Importance of Air Connectivity:
  • Air connectivity is crucial for the socio-economic development of any region, providing faster and more efficient transportation options.
  • It facilitates trade, tourism, and cultural exchange, contributing to the overall growth of the region.
  • For states like Mizoram, with challenging road infrastructure, air connectivity becomes even more important.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1305

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who among the following, while praising the amending feature of the Indian Constitution said that 'This variety in the amending process is wise but is rarely found'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Granville Austin

  2. BOption (b)

    Ivor Jennings

  3. COption (c)

    K C Wheare

  4. DOption (d)

    HM Seervai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

K C Wheare

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is K C Wheare.

Key Points

  • K C Wheare was a distinguished constitutional scholar known for his work on federalism and constitutional law.
  • He praised the Indian Constitution's amending process for its variety and flexibility, which he considered wise and unique.
  • Wheare emphasized that such variety in the amending process is rare among the world's constitutions.
  • His observations highlight the robustness and adaptability of the Indian Constitution in accommodating changes.

Additional Information

  • Granville Austin
  • Granville Austin was an American historian who studied the Indian Constitution extensively.
  • He is known for his seminal work, "The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation," which examines the making and functioning of the Indian Constitution.
  • Austin's work is highly regarded for its in-depth analysis and insight into the Indian constitutional process.
  • Ivor Jennings
  • Sir Ivor Jennings was a British lawyer and academic who made significant contributions to the study of constitutional law.
  • He was involved in the drafting of several constitutions in the Commonwealth countries, including India.
  • Jennings emphasized the importance of conventions and practices in the functioning of a constitution.
  • HM Seervai
  • H.M. Seervai was a prominent Indian jurist and constitutional expert.
  • He authored the influential book "Constitutional Law of India," which is a comprehensive commentary on the Indian Constitution.
  • Seervai's work is widely cited in legal circles and has greatly contributed to the understanding of the Indian constitutional law.
  • Amending Process in the Indian Constitution
  • The Indian Constitution provides a detailed procedure for its amendment in Part XX, Article 368.
  • The amending process is categorized into three types: simple majority, special majority, and special majority with ratification by states.
  • This flexibility allows the Constitution to be both rigid and flexible, accommodating necessary changes while maintaining stability.
  • Amendments require different levels of parliamentary support and, in some cases, ratification by state legislatures, ensuring a broad consensus.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1306

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Tabla player, Ustad Zakir Hussain was awarded which of the following awards by the Government of India in 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bharat Ratna

  2. BOption (b)

    Padma Shri

  3. COption (c)

    Padma Vibhushan

  4. DOption (d)

    Padma Bhushan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Padma Vibhushan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Padma Vibhushan.

Key Points

  • Ustad Zakir Hussain, a renowned tabla player, was awarded the Padma Vibhushan by the Government of India in 2023.
  • The Padma Vibhushan is the second-highest civilian award in India, recognizing exceptional and distinguished service in any field including service rendered by Government servants.
  • Ustad Zakir Hussain is globally acclaimed for his virtuosity and contributions to Indian classical music.
  • He has previously been awarded the Padma Shri in 1988 and the Padma Bhushan in 2002.

Additional Information

  • Padma Awards:
  • The Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honors of India announced annually on the eve of Republic Day.
  • The awards are given in three categories: Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service), Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of a high order), and Padma Shri (distinguished service).
  • The awards recognize achievements in all fields of activities or disciplines where an element of public service is involved.
  • The Padma Awards were instituted in the year 1954 and are announced every year on Republic Day (26th January).
  • Ustad Zakir Hussain:
  • Ustad Zakir Hussain is an Indian tabla virtuoso, composer, percussionist, music producer, and film actor.
  • He is the son of legendary tabla player Ustad Alla Rakha.
  • He has been awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, the highest Indian recognition given to practicing artists.
  • In addition to his work in Indian classical music, he has also collaborated with many international artists and has contributed to various genres of music.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1307

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Gangubai Hangal and Prabha Atre were exponents of the ________ Gharana.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rampur

  2. BOption (b)

    Jaipur

  3. COption (c)

    Kirana

  4. DOption (d)

    Mewati

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kirana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kirana

Key Points

  • Gangubai Hangal and Prabha Atre were exponents of the Kirana Gharana.
  • The Kirana Gharana is known for its focus on perfect intonation and the intricate use of microtones (shrutis).
  • Gangubai Hangal was an Indian classical singer of the khyal genre of Hindustani classical music.
  • Prabha Atre is also a renowned Indian classical vocalist from the same Gharana, known for her innovative approach and contributions to classical music.

Additional Information

  • Other Gharanas
  • Rampur Gharana is known for its mix of Dhrupad and Khayal styles.
  • Jaipur Gharana is recognized for its intricate and complex singing style.
  • The Mewati gharana is a Hindustani classical music apprenticeship tribe that was founded in the late 19th century by brothers Ghagge Nazir Khan and Wahid Khan of Indore.
  • Key Exponents - Pandit Jasraj, Ustad Rais Khan, Mohd Shafi  etc.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1308

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following famous Indian athletes won the Zurich Diamond League final 2022 in September 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bajrang Punia

  2. BOption (b)

    Mirabai Chanu

  3. COption (c)

    Neeraj Chopra

  4. DOption (d)

    PT Usha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Neeraj Chopra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Neeraj Chopra.

Key Points

  • Neeraj Chopra is an Indian track and field athlete who competes in the javelin throw.
  • He created history by becoming the first Indian to win a gold medal in athletics at the Olympic Games when he won the men's javelin throw at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics.
  • On 8th September 2022, Neeraj Chopra became the first Indian to win the Zurich Diamond League final with a throw of 88.44 meters.
  • He has consistently performed well in international competitions, bringing laurels to India in the field of athletics.

Important Points 

  • Zurich Diamond League
  • The Diamond League is an annual series of elite track and field athletic competitions comprising fourteen of the best invitational athletics meetings.
  • It was founded in 2010, and the Zurich meeting is one of the most prestigious events in this series.
  • Athletes accumulate points at each Diamond League meet and the top performers in each event compete in the final, where the winner is crowned the Diamond League champion.
  • Javelin Throw
  • Javelin throw is a track and field event where the javelin, a spear about 2.5 meters in length, is thrown.
  • The objective is to throw the javelin as far as possible; the athlete with the longest valid throw wins.
  • It has been a part of the modern Olympic Games since its inception for men in 1908 and for women in 1932.
  • Neeraj Chopra's Career Highlights
  • Neeraj Chopra won the gold medal at the 2018 Commonwealth Games and the 2018 Asian Games, where he also set a new Indian national record.
  • He made his mark internationally by becoming the World Junior Champion in 2016.
  • He is also the first Indian to win a Diamond League title, which he achieved in August 2022 in Lausanne before winning the Zurich final.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1309

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following Table Tennis World Championship events was held in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    19th World Championships, 1952

  2. BOption (b)

    17th World Championships, 1950

  3. COption (c)

    20th World Championships, 1953

  4. DOption (d)

    18th World Championships, 1951

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

19th World Championships, 1952

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 19th World Championships, 1952.

Key Points

  • The 19th World Table Tennis Championships were held in Bombay (now Mumbai), India, in 1952.
  • This event marked the first time that the World Table Tennis Championships were hosted in India.
  • The Championships featured both men's and women's events, including singles, doubles, and mixed doubles competitions.
  • India's hosting of the event was significant in promoting the sport within the country and the region.

Additional Information

  • Table Tennis World Championships:
  • The Table Tennis World Championships are an international event organized by the International Table Tennis Federation (ITTF).
  • The first World Championships were held in London in 1926.
  • The Championships include events for both individual players and national teams.
  • Over the years, the Championships have been held in various countries around the world, showcasing the global popularity of the sport.
  • International Table Tennis Federation (ITTF):
  • The ITTF is the governing body for all international table tennis associations.
  • It was founded in 1926 and is responsible for the organization of numerous international competitions, including the World Table Tennis Championships.
  • The ITTF oversees the rules and regulations of the sport, ensuring fair play and standardization across the globe.
  • Significance of Hosting International Events:
  • Hosting international sports events can significantly boost a country's visibility and reputation in the global arena.Such events often encourage the development of sports infrastructure and facilities within the host country.
  • They also inspire local athletes and increase public interest and participation in the sport.
  • Hosting events like the World Table Tennis Championships can have long-term economic benefits through tourism and international partnerships.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1310

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Match the concepts in column A with their respective descriptions in column B.

Column A

a. Devaluation

b. Depreciation

c. Deflation

d. Exchange control

Column B

  1. decline in the market rate of exchange

  2. contraction of home currency

  3. foreign exchange rationing

  4. official reduction in external value of the currency

  1. AOption (a)

    a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

  2. BOption (b)

    a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

  3. COption (c)

    a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

  4. DOption (d)

    a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • Devaluation refers to the official reduction in the external value of a country's currency, which is often done by the government or monetary authorities to improve the country's trade balance. Therefore, it matches with description 5.
  • Depreciation indicates a decline in the market rate of exchange for a currency. This is generally due to market forces and does not involve official action. Thus, it matches with description 1.
  • Deflation is characterized by a contraction of home currency. It is associated with a decrease in the general price level of goods and services, making the value of money higher. Therefore, it matches with description 2.
  • Exchange control involves foreign exchange rationing where the government restricts the amount of foreign currency or local currency that can be used or exchanged. Thus, it matches with description 3.

Additional Information

  • Devaluation
  • It is a deliberate downward adjustment to the value of a country's currency relative to another currency, group of currencies, or standard.
  • This is often used as a tool to enhance the competitiveness of a country's exports by making them cheaper in the global market.
  • Devaluation can lead to inflation as import prices become more expensive.
  • Depreciation
  • Depreciation is the decrease in the value of a currency in the context of the foreign exchange market.
  • This can occur due to changes in market dynamics, such as shifts in investor sentiment or economic fundamentals.
  • Unlike devaluation, depreciation is not a result of an official policy decision by the government.
  • Deflation
  • Deflation is the decline in the general price level of goods and services.
  • It can increase the real value of money, allowing consumers to buy more with the same amount of money.
  • However, deflation can also lead to reduced consumer spending and investment, potentially resulting in economic recession.
  • Exchange Control
  • Exchange control involves regulating the use of foreign exchange by the government or central bank.
  • It can include measures such as limiting the purchase of foreign currency, restricting the amount of foreign currency that can be brought into or taken out of the country, and controlling the exchange rate.
  • The objective is often to stabilize the currency, manage the balance of payments, and control inflation.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1311

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

When haloalkanes and aryl and vinyl halides react with magnesium metal they yield which reagent?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hinsberg reagent

  2. BOption (b)

    Grignard reagent

  3. COption (c)

    Tollens' reagent

  4. DOption (d)

    Fehling reagent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Grignard reagent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Grignard reagent.

Key Points

  • When haloalkanes and aryl and vinyl halides react with magnesium metal, they yield Grignard reagents.
  • Grignard reagents are of the form RMgX, where R is an alkyl or aryl group and X is a halogen.
  • These reagents are essential in organic synthesis for forming carbon-carbon bonds.
  • Grignard reagents are highly reactive and can react with a variety of electrophiles to form new compounds.
  • The reaction typically occurs in an anhydrous ether solvent to stabilize the Grignard reagent.

Additional Information

  • Hinsberg reagent is used to distinguish between primary, secondary, and tertiary amines.
  • Tollens' reagent is used to detect aldehydes, where it forms a silver mirror on the test tube.
  • Fehling reagent is another test for aldehydes, particularly in distinguishing between aldehydes and ketones.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1312

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

How many chambers are there in the heart of fishes?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2.

Key Points

  • Fishes have a two-chambered heart consisting of one atrium and one ventricle.
  • The blood flows in a single circuit, from the heart to the gills for oxygenation and then to the rest of the body.
  • The two-chambered heart is efficient for the aquatic life of fishes, supporting their metabolism and oxygen needs.
  • Having a two-chambered heart is a characteristic feature of most fish species.

Additional Information

  • Chambers of the Heart
  • Atrium: The atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body and sends it to the ventricle.
  • Ventricle: The ventricle pumps the deoxygenated blood to the gills for oxygenation.
  • Circulatory System in Fishes
  • Fishes have a single circulatory system, meaning blood passes through the heart only once during each complete circuit of the body.
  • After oxygenation in the gills, the oxygen-rich blood is delivered directly to the tissues without returning to the heart.
  • This system is different from mammals and birds, which have a double circulatory system.
  • Gills
  • Gills are the respiratory organs in fishes that allow them to extract oxygen from water.
  • Blood flows through the gill filaments where gas exchange occurs – carbon dioxide is released into the water and oxygen is absorbed.
  • Adaptations
  • The two-chambered heart and single circulatory system are highly adapted to an aquatic environment where oxygen levels can vary.
  • These adaptations ensure efficient oxygen delivery to support the metabolism and activity levels of fishes.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1313

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

As per the report of the NITI Aayog in 2023, which among the following states in India has the lowest percentage of the total population that is multidimensionally poor?

  1. AOption (a)

    Goa

  2. BOption (b)

    Kerala

  3. COption (c)

    Sikkim

  4. DOption (d)

    Uttarakhand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kerala

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • According to the NITI Aayog report of 2023, Kerala has the lowest percentage of the total population that is multidimensionally poor.
  • Kerala's robust health and education infrastructure contribute significantly to its low multidimensional poverty rate.
  • The state has consistently performed well in various human development indices, including literacy and life expectancy.
  • Kerala's social policies and investments in public services have played a crucial role in reducing poverty.

Additional Information

  • Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)
  • The MPI is a measure that captures the multiple deprivations that people face in their daily lives, including poor health, lack of education, and inadequate living standards.
  • It is an international measure developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
  • The MPI assesses poverty at the individual level by considering various factors like nutrition, child mortality, years of schooling, school attendance, cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing, and assets.
  • The MPI helps policymakers target resources and interventions more effectively to address the specific needs of the poor.
  • NITI Aayog
  • NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
  • It was established in 2015, replacing the Planning Commission of India, with the aim to foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the states on a continuous basis.
  • NITI Aayog's primary objectives include promoting sustainable development, enhancing the use of technology, and improving governance and policy implementation.
  • It plays a crucial role in designing strategic and long-term policies and programs for the Government of India.
  • Human Development Index (HDI)
  • The HDI is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education, and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries into four tiers of human development.
  • It is a measure of a country's social and economic development, developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
  • HDI scores are used to assess and compare the level of human development across countries and regions.
  • The HDI helps in understanding the broader picture of development and guiding policy decisions to improve living conditions.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1314

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

What is the unit of measurement for optical power of the lens?

  1. AOption (a)

    Yotta

  2. BOption (b)

    Katal

  3. COption (c)

    Radian

  4. DOption (d)

    Diopter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Diopter

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Diopter.

Key Points

  • The diopter (D) is the unit of measurement for the optical power of a lens or curved mirror.
  • It is defined as the reciprocal of the focal length (f) measured in meters (i.e., D = 1/f).
  • A lens with a focal length of 1 meter has an optical power of 1 diopter.
  • Lenses with positive diopters are converging lenses, while those with negative diopters are diverging lenses.

Additional Information

  • Optical Power:
  • Optical power, also known as lens power, is the degree to which a lens converges or diverges light.
  • It is an important concept in optics and is essential in the design of optical systems such as glasses, cameras, and telescopes.
  • Focal Length:
  • The focal length of a lens is the distance from the lens at which parallel rays of light converge to a single point.
  • It determines the magnifying power of the lens and is crucial in the formation of clear images.
  • Converging and Diverging Lenses:
  • Converging lenses (positive diopters) focus light to a point and are used in applications like magnifying glasses and corrective lenses for hyperopia (farsightedness).
  • Diverging lenses (negative diopters) spread light outwards and are used in devices like peepholes and corrective lenses for myopia (nearsightedness).
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1315

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

The Government of India allowed automatic approval of _____% of FDI by Reserve Bank of India in nine categories of

industries.

  1. AOption (a)

    Up to 51

  2. BOption (b)

    Up to 60

  3. COption (c)

    Up to 41

  4. DOption (d)

    Up to 74

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Up to 74

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Up to 74%.

Key Points

  • The Government of India has allowed automatic approval of up to 74% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) by the Reserve Bank of India in nine categories of industries.
  • This move was aimed at simplifying the investment process and making it more attractive for foreign investors.
  • FDI is a major source of non-debt financial resource for the economic development of India.
  • Automatic approval means that foreign investors do not need prior approval from the government for investment up to 74% in these industries.

Additional Information

  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI):
  • FDI refers to the investment made by a firm or individual in one country into business interests located in another country.
  • It usually involves participation in management, joint-venture, transfer of technology and expertise.
  • FDI is considered crucial for the economic development of a country as it brings in capital, technology, and expertise.
  • Automatic Route:
  • Under the automatic route, foreign investment does not require prior approval from the government or the Reserve Bank of India.
  • Investors are only required to inform the Reserve Bank's regional office within 30 days of receipt of inward remittances and file the required documents.
  • Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
  • The RBI is the central banking institution of India, which controls the issuance and supply of the Indian rupee and oversees the country's monetary policy.
  • It also plays an essential role in regulating the financial system and ensuring its stability.
  • Industries Eligible for 74% FDI:
  • The government has specified nine categories of industries where up to 74% FDI is allowed under the automatic route.
  • These categories include sectors like pharmaceuticals, telecommunications, and various manufacturing industries.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1316

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who among the following was the last sultan of Delhi sultanate?

  1. AOption (a)

    Firoz Shah Tughlaq

  2. BOption (b)

    Sikandar Lodi

  3. COption (c)

    Muhammed Bin Tughlaq

  4. DOption (d)

    Ibrahim Lodi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ibrahim Lodi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ibrahim Lodi.

Key Points

  • Ibrahim Lodi was the last ruler of the Delhi Sultanate from the Lodi dynasty.
  • He reigned from 1517 until his defeat and death in the First Battle of Panipat in 1526.
  • Ibrahim Lodi was the son of Sikandar Lodi and ascended to the throne after his father's death.
  • His rule marked the end of the Delhi Sultanate and the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India.

Additional Information

  • Delhi Sultanate
  • The Delhi Sultanate was a Muslim kingdom that ruled over large parts of the Indian subcontinent for over 300 years, from 1206 to 1526.
  • It was established by Qutb-ud-din Aibak after the defeat of Prithviraj Chauhan and marked the beginning of Muslim rule in India.
  • The Sultanate saw the rise and fall of several dynasties including the Mamluks, Khaljis, Tughlaqs, Sayyids, and Lodis.
  • It played a crucial role in shaping the culture, architecture, and administration of India during the medieval period.
  • First Battle of Panipat
  • The First Battle of Panipat was fought on April 21, 1526, between the forces of the Mughal ruler Babur and the Lodi dynasty's Sultan Ibrahim Lodi.
  • The battle marked the end of the Delhi Sultanate and the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India.
  • Babur's use of innovative military tactics and artillery was instrumental in his victory.
  • This battle is considered one of the most significant events in Indian history as it led to the establishment of Mughal rule, which lasted for over three centuries.
  • Mughal Empire
  • The Mughal Empire was an empire that controlled large parts of the Indian subcontinent from the early 16th to the mid-19th century.
  • It was founded by Babur, a descendant of Timur and Genghis Khan, after his victory in the First Battle of Panipat.
  • The Mughal Empire is known for its rich cultural contributions, including significant developments in art, architecture, and cuisine.
  • Some of the most famous Mughal rulers include Akbar, Shah Jahan, and Aurangzeb.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1317

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT related to the Indian domestic cricket?

  1. AOption (a)

    Duleep Trophy

  2. BOption (b)

    Durand Cup

  3. COption (c)

    Deodhar Trophy

  4. DOption (d)

    Ranji Trophy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Durand Cup

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Durand Cup.

Key Points

  • The Durand Cup is a football competition in India.
  • It is one of the oldest football tournaments in the world, having been founded in 1888.
  • The competition is named after Sir Mortimer Durand, the then Foreign Secretary in charge of India.
  • The Durand Cup is not associated with cricket and is instead a significant event in Indian football.

Additional Information

  • Duleep Trophy
  • The Duleep Trophy is a first-class cricket tournament in India.
  • It was named after Kumar Shri Duleepsinhji of Nawanagar, an Indian cricket player.
  • The competition started in 1961-62 and is played between teams representing geographical zones of India.
  • The Duleep Trophy is an important event in the Indian domestic cricket calendar.
  • Deodhar Trophy
  • The Deodhar Trophy is a List A cricket competition in Indian domestic cricket.
  • It was named after Prof. D. B. Deodhar, who is known as the Grand Old Man of Indian cricket.
  • The tournament started in 1973-74 and is played between teams selected by the national selectors from the best of the domestic players.
  • The Deodhar Trophy is a significant tournament for aspiring cricketers in India.
  • Ranji Trophy
  • The Ranji Trophy is a first-class cricket championship played in India.
  • The competition is named after the famous Indian cricketer Ranjitsinhji.
  • It was founded in 1934 and is played between various regional teams across India.
  • The Ranji Trophy is considered the premier first-class cricket tournament in India.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1318

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

In the context of water bodies, Neap Tides occur:

  1. AOption (a)

    when the earth, moon and sun line up in a straight line

  2. BOption (b)

    when the sun and moon are on the opposite sides

  3. COption (c)

    when there is so much interference by continents

  4. DOption (d)

    when the sun and moon are at right angles to each other

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

when the sun and moon are at right angles to each other

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is when the sun and moon are at right angles to each other.

Key Points

  • Neap tides occur when the gravitational forces of the moon and the sun are perpendicular to one another with respect to the Earth.
  • These tides are characterized by the least difference between high and low tide levels, making them weaker compared to spring tides.
  • Neap tides occur during the first and third quarters of the moon phase, approximately every two weeks.
  • During neap tides, the tidal range is reduced because the sun's gravitational pull partially cancels out the moon's gravitational pull on the Earth's oceans.

Additional Information

  • Spring Tides
  • Spring tides occur when the Earth, moon, and sun are aligned, leading to the highest high tides and the lowest low tides.
  • This alignment occurs during full moon and new moon phases.
  • The combined gravitational force of the moon and sun leads to a greater tidal range.
  • Gravitational Forces
  • The gravitational forces of the moon and sun both affect the Earth's oceans, causing tides.
  • The moon's gravitational force has a more significant impact due to its proximity to Earth.
  • Tidal Range
  • The tidal range is the difference in height between consecutive high and low tides.
  • It varies depending on the alignment of the Earth, moon, and sun.
  • Phases of the Moon
  • The moon goes through different phases (new moon, first quarter, full moon, third quarter) as it orbits the Earth.
  • These phases affect the gravitational pull on the Earth's oceans, leading to different types of tides.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1319

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Chittani Ramachandra Hegde was associated with which of the following dances?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chhau dance

  2. BOption (b)

    Chappeli dance

  3. COption (c)

    Yakshagana dance

  4. DOption (d)

    Hutari dance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Yakshagana dance

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is Yakshagana dance.

Key Points

  • Chittani Ramachandra Hegde was associated with Yakshagana, a traditional dance-drama form from Karnataka, India.
  • He was a legendary figure in Yakshagana, particularly known for his brilliant portrayal of heroic and villainous characters, bringing vibrancy and depth to the art form.
  • Hegde was widely regarded as one of the finest exponents of Yakshagana and was honored with several awards for his contribution to the art, including the prestigious Padma Shri in 2012.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 11 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 1320

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

The idols of which three Gods are installed in Jagannath Temple, Puri?

  1. AOption (a)

    Brahma, Vishnu and Mahesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Radha, Krishna and Balram

  3. COption (c)

    Jagannath, Balabhadra and Subhadra

  4. DOption (d)

    Ram, Lakshman and Janaki

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Jagannath, Balabhadra and Subhadra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jagannath, Balabhadra and Subhadra.

Key Points

  • The Jagannath Temple in Puri is dedicated to Lord Jagannath (a form of Lord Vishnu).
  • The temple also houses idols of Balabhadra (Lord Jagannath's elder brother) and Subhadra (their sister).
  • This temple is one of the four Hindu pilgrimage sites known as the Char Dham.
  • The idol of Jagannath is made of wood and is ceremoniously replaced every twelve or nineteen years in a process known as Nabakalebara.

Additional Information

  • Jagannath Temple
  • Located in Puri, Odisha, the Jagannath Temple is a famous Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Jagannath.
  • The temple is an important pilgrimage destination for Hindus, especially Vaishnavas.
  • It is famous for its annual Ratha Yatra or Chariot Festival, where the three principal deities are pulled on huge and elaborately decorated temple cars.
  • Non-Hindus are not allowed to enter the temple premises, but they can view the temple from the nearby Raghunandan Library.
  • Char Dham
  • Char Dham refers to the four holy pilgrimage sites for Hindus, which include Badrinath, Dwarka, Puri, and Rameswaram.
  • These sites are highly revered and are visited by devotees to attain spiritual salvation.
  • The pilgrimage to Char Dham is considered a way to cleanse oneself of sins and attain Moksha (liberation).
  • Nabakalebara
  • Nabakalebara is a ritual that involves the renewal of the wooden idols of Jagannath, Balabhadra, Subhadra, and Sudarshana.
  • This ritual is performed when there are two Ashadha months in a year, which happens according to the Hindu calendar approximately every 12 to 19 years.
  • During Nabakalebara, new idols are carved from specially chosen neem trees, and the old idols are buried in a sacred place within the temple premises.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.