General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia.

Key Points

• The 17^th edition of the joint India-Mongolia military exercise, Nomadic Elephant, was conducted in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia.
• This exercise focuses on counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations under the United Nations mandate.
• The event aims to enhance mutual cooperation, interoperability, and camaraderie between the Indian Army and the Mongolian Armed Forces.
• Nomadic Elephant is an annual bilateral military exercise that alternates between India and Mongolia.
• The exercise strengthens defense ties and showcases India’s strategic outreach towards Mongolia under its Act East Policy.

Additional Information

• Key Aspects of Nomadic Elephant:
• Focus: Counter-terrorism, peacekeeping (UN mandate), mountain warfare, special forces tactics, and interoperability.
• Frequency: Annual, alternating locations.
• Participants: Indian Army special forces/units and Mongolian Armed Forces.
• Recent Edition: The 17^th edition was held in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia, in 2025.
• Training Modules: Include field training, reflex shooting, room intervention, cyber warfare, and drone operations.

The correct answer is Gumi, South Korea.

Key Points

• The Asian Athletics Championships 2025 is set to be hosted in Gumi, South Korea, a city known for its industrial development and modern infrastructure.
• The event will feature participation from over 40 Asian nations, highlighting the best talent from the continent in track and field events.
• The Asian Athletics Championships is organized by the Asian Athletics Association (AAA), which governs athletics activities in Asia.
• Gumi’s state-of-the-art sports facilities and its rich history of hosting international events make it an ideal venue for the Championships.
• The Championships serve as a significant platform for athletes to qualify for global events, including the World Athletics Championships and the Olympics.

Additional Information

• Busan, South Korea
• Busan is South Korea’s second-largest city and a major port known for its beaches and modern skyscrapers.
• It hosted the 2002 Asian Games and the 2002 FIFA World Cup in collaboration with Japan, showcasing its capability to organize large-scale sporting events.
• Seoul, South Korea
• Seoul, the capital city of South Korea, hosted the 1988 Summer Olympics, which played a significant role in putting South Korea on the global stage.
• It is a hub of culture, technology, and sports, with state-of-the-art stadiums and facilities for international events.
• Tokyo, Japan
• Tokyo, the capital city of Japan, recently hosted the 2020 Summer Olympics, which were delayed to 2021 due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• The city is renowned for its advanced infrastructure and experience in organizing international sporting events.

The correct answer is Stories exploring immigrant life, cultural identity, and arranged marriage challenges..

Key Points

• "Arranged Marriage" by Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni is a critically acclaimed collection of short stories.
• The book addresses themes such as immigrant experiences, cultural identity, and the complexities of arranged marriages.
• Each story explores the struggles of Indian women navigating the traditional and modern worlds, often dealing with alienation, identity crises, and adaptation in foreign lands.
• The stories shed light on the cultural dilemmas and unique challenges faced by Indian immigrants, particularly women, in balancing their heritage with Western values.
• This collection has won several literary awards, including the American Book Award, and is widely praised for its emotional depth and nuanced storytelling.

Additional Information

• Key Novels of Chitra Banerjee:
• The Mistress of Spices (1997): A magical realism novel about a spice shop owner, later adapted into a film.
• Sister of My Heart (1999): Focuses on the bond between two cousins in Kolkata, navigating family secrets and cultural pressures.
• The Palace of Illusions (2008): A feminist retelling of the Mahabharata from Draupadi's perspective, a major bestseller.
• The Forest of Enchantments (2019): A retelling of the Ramayana, giving voice to Sita.
• Independence (2023): Her most recent novel, exploring the partition of India.
• Before We Visit the Goddess (2016): A multi-generational story of three Bengali women across India and the U.S..

The correct answer is It is an unsorted mix of materials deposited directly by ice..

Key Points

• Glacial till is characterized by its unsorted nature, meaning it contains particles of varying sizes ranging from clay and silt to large boulders.
• It is deposited directly by the movement or melting of glacial ice, without water sorting the materials.
• Unlike water-laid glacial sediments, glacial till often appears chaotic and lacks any layering or stratification.
• Glacial till is typically composed of angular particles, as the materials are broken and transported by ice rather than smoothed by water.
• It is a key indicator of past glacial activity and is commonly found in moraines, drumlins, and other glacial landforms.

Additional Information

• Glacial Deposits
• Glacial deposits include both till (unsorted materials directly deposited by ice) and stratified drift (sorted sediments deposited by meltwater).
• These deposits are essential in understanding past glacial movements, climate changes, and geological processes.
• Studying glacial deposits helps reconstruct the history of glaciated regions and provides insights into Earth's geomorphological evolution.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• Gita Upadhyay is a noted Hindi writer from Assam who has contributed significantly to Hindi literature and literary translation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• She is known for translating several literary works, including “The Diary of Anne Frank”, into Indian languages to make the work accessible to a wider audience. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• In 2025, she was honored with the Padma Shri, not the Padma Bhushan. Therefore, the statement mentioning Padma Bhushan is incorrect. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• Padma Awards are among the highest civilian honours in India and are announced annually on the eve of Republic Day.
• Statement-wise Analysis:
• Statement 1 – Correct.
• Statement 2 – Correct.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect.
• Hence, the correct answer is Statements 1 and 2 only.

Additional Information

• Padma Awards: India’s civilian awards include Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri.
• Padma Shri is awarded for distinguished service in fields such as literature, education, arts, science, social work, and public affairs.
• Anne Frank was a Jewish girl whose diary documented her experiences during the Second World War and the Nazi occupation.
• The Diary of Anne Frank is one of the world’s most translated and widely read autobiographical works.
• Assam has contributed significantly to Indian literature through works in Assamese, Hindi, Bengali, and regional dialects.

Important Points

• Translation literature plays an important role in spreading global literary works into regional Indian languages.
• Questions related to Padma Award recipients and notable literary personalities are frequently asked in competitive examinations.

The correct answer is A is true, but R is false.

Key Points

• The Population Enumeration phase of Census 2011 was conducted in most parts of India in February 2011, as per the scheduled timeline.
• The Census of India is conducted in two phases: the House Listing and Housing Census, and the Population Enumeration.
• The House Listing and Housing Census phase of Census 2011 was conducted earlier in 2010, not postponed, and served as the preparatory phase for Population Enumeration.
• The Population Enumeration phase collects critical information on the population's demographic, socio-economic, and cultural characteristics.
• Thus, the Assertion (A) is true, but the Reason (R) is false since House Listing and Housing Census was not postponed for simultaneous data collection.

Additional Information

• Census 2011:
• The Census 2011 was the 15^th Census of India and the 7^th Census after Independence.
• The Census was conducted under the Census Act, 1948, which provides the legal framework for the exercise.
• The Census process is carried out by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• It provides comprehensive data on the population size, distribution, literacy, gender ratio, economic activity, housing, and other critical socio-economic parameters.

The correct answer is Option 1: Only Statement 1 is correct.

Key Points

• Sun-synchronous orbits are designed to allow satellites to maintain consistent local solar time over a specific region. This is due to the synchronization of their orbital plane with the Earth's rotation and seasonal position of the Sun.
• These orbits are commonly used in Earth observation satellites to capture images under consistent lighting conditions, which enhances the accuracy of data collection and analysis.
• The inclination of a sun-synchronous orbit is typically between 96° to 98°, ensuring that the satellite crosses the equator at the same local solar time every day.
• Such orbits are highly beneficial for applications such as weather forecasting, environmental monitoring, and agricultural planning.
• Statement 2 is incorrect because geostationary orbits are not related to sun-synchronous functionality. Geostationary satellites remain fixed above a specific location on Earth, and their primary purpose is communication and broadcasting rather than maintaining consistent solar time.

Additional Information

• Geostationary orbits are located approximately 35,786 kilometers above Earth's equator and match the rotation of the Earth.
• Satellites in geostationary orbit are primarily used for telecommunications, weather monitoring, and broadcasting services.
• Unlike sun-synchronous orbits, geostationary satellites do not maintain consistent solar time. Instead, they remain stationary relative to a fixed point on Earth.
• Solar-powered satellites in geostationary orbit are effective due to constant sunlight exposure but are not related to the concept of sun-synchronous orbits.
• Geostationary vs. Sun-Synchronous Orbits:
• Geostationary orbits are fixed over one location, while sun-synchronous orbits move relative to the Earth's surface.
• Sun-synchronous orbits are ideal for Earth observation, while geostationary orbits are better suited for communication and weather satellites.

The correct answer is Hypothalamus.

Key Points

• The hypothalamus is a small region of the brain located below the thalamus and above the brainstem, playing a crucial role in maintaining the body’s internal balance (homeostasis).
• It regulates the circadian rhythm by controlling the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), which is the brain’s master clock.
• The SCN receives light signals from the retina and adjusts the body’s internal clock according to the light-dark cycle of the environment.
• The hypothalamus influences several biological processes, including sleep-wake cycles, hormone release, temperature regulation, and other daily physiological rhythms.
• Disruption in the hypothalamus or SCN can lead to sleep disorders and abnormalities in circadian rhythm regulation.

Additional Information

• Cerebellum
• The cerebellum is primarily responsible for coordinating voluntary movements such as posture, balance, and speech.
• It does not regulate circadian rhythm but plays a key role in motor control and cognitive functions.
• Although it is not directly linked to circadian rhythms, research suggests it may indirectly influence motor activities during different times of the day.
• Medulla oblongata
• Located in the brainstem, the medulla oblongata controls vital autonomic functions such as respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure.
• It does not directly regulate circadian rhythms but ensures the continuous functioning of essential life-sustaining processes.
• The medulla is part of the brainstem, which communicates with other brain regions, including the hypothalamus, for integrated physiological control.
• Thalamus
• The thalamus acts as the brain’s relay center, transmitting sensory and motor signals to the cerebral cortex.
• It is involved in sleep regulation and consciousness but is not directly responsible for controlling circadian rhythms.
• The thalamus works closely with the hypothalamus in sleep-wake transitions and sensory processing during different states of alertness.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, as stated under Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution.
• Collective responsibility means that the entire Council of Ministers shares responsibility for any decision or action taken by the government.
• They remain in office as long as they enjoy the confidence of the Lok Sabha. A vote of no-confidence can lead to their resignation.
• This principle ensures accountability of the executive (Council of Ministers) to the legislature (Lok Sabha) in a parliamentary system of government.
• Option 2 is incorrect because in states with bicameral legislatures, the State Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly, not the Legislative Council, as per Article 164(2).

Additional Information

• Article 164(2): Responsibility of State CoM
• At the state level, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly, not the Legislative Council, even in states with bicameral legislatures.
• This ensures that the executive at the state level remains accountable to the directly elected house of the legislature.
• Vote of No Confidence
• A government loses power if it fails to maintain the confidence of the Lok Sabha through a majority vote.
• A no-confidence motion can be moved against the government, and its passage results in the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers.
• Bicameral Legislature
• In India, a bicameral legislature refers to a legislative body with two houses: the Legislative Assembly (lower house) and the Legislative Council (upper house).
• The Legislative Assembly is the directly elected body, while the Legislative Council is partly elected and partly nominated.
• Collective responsibility applies only to the Legislative Assembly as it represents the will of the people.

The correct answer is Option 2: 1 & 3 correct.

Key Points

• Statement 1: The Governor's discretionary power to recommend President's Rule is indeed mentioned in Article 356(1) of the Indian Constitution.
• Article 356(1) allows the Governor to report to the President if the governance in a state cannot be carried out according to the provisions of the Constitution, thereby leading to the imposition of President's Rule.
• Statement 3: The Sarkaria Commission, which was constituted to examine the relationship between the Union and State governments, recommended that Governors should not be removed arbitrarily and must be allowed to complete their term unless there are rare and compelling reasons for their removal.
• The Sarkaria Commission's recommendations are widely recognized as a guiding framework for maintaining the independence and impartiality of the Governor's position.
• Statement 2 is incorrect as the 41^st Constitutional Amendment did not curtail the Governor's term. The Governor's term remains five years, as per Article 156 of the Constitution.

Additional Information

• Article 356 of the Indian Constitution:
• It is also known as the "President's Rule" provision.
• The Governor of a state can report to the President if there is a failure of the constitutional machinery in the state.
• Based on this report, the President can assume control over the state's administration.
• It is considered a controversial article, as it has been invoked multiple times, often leading to debates about misuse.
• The Sarkaria Commission:
• Constituted in 1983 to review the working of the Centre-State relations in India and suggest improvements.
• Among its key recommendations was the advice that Governors should be apolitical and impartial.
• It emphasized that the Governor should be allowed to complete their five-year term except in exceptional circumstances.
• 42^nd Constitutional Amendment:
• This amendment was passed in 1976 during the Emergency period in India.
• It extended the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from five years to six years.
• However, this was reversed by the 44^th Constitutional Amendment in 1978, bringing the term back to five years.
• It had no impact on the term of Governors, which remains five years as per Article 156.

The correct answer is 25 cm.

Key Points

• The least distance of distinct vision for a normal human eye is approximately 25 cm.
• This is the minimum distance at which the eye can focus an object clearly without straining.
• The distance is determined by the ability of the eye lens to accommodate and focus the light on the retina.
• At distances shorter than 25 cm, the ciliary muscles of the eye experience strain, making it difficult to maintain a clear focus.
• This limit is applicable to individuals with normal vision and may vary for people with vision impairments such as myopia or hypermetropia.

Additional Information

• Concept of Least Distance of Distinct Vision:
• The least distance of distinct vision is also called the near point of the eye.
• It varies with age; for example, children may have a near point closer than 25 cm, while older individuals might have a farther near point due to presbyopia.
• The near point is critical for tasks requiring close focus, such as reading or sewing.

The correct answer is 60 days.

Key Points

• Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, a Magistrate can authorize detention for a maximum period of 60 days for offences punishable with less than 10 years of imprisonment before default bail becomes applicable.
• Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), which is mirrored in the BNSS, governs the detention period authorized by a Magistrate.
• The 60-day period applies to cases where the offence is not punishable with death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment exceeding 10 years.
• If the investigation is not completed within 60 days, the accused becomes entitled to default bail as per the provisions of the law.
• This provision ensures the protection of individual liberty and prevents unnecessary prolonged detention without trial.

Additional Information

• The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, is a comprehensive legislation replacing the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
• It aims to streamline criminal procedures and ensure justice delivery while safeguarding the rights of the accused and victims.

The correct answer is A is true, but R is false.

Key Points

• SVAMITVA stands for Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas, launched by the Government of India in April 2020.
• The scheme aims to map rural inhabited lands using drone technology and provides property cards to the owners of these lands.
• It is implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, in collaboration with State Revenue Departments.
• The property cards generated under this scheme serve as legal ownership documents for rural inhabitants.
• SVAMITVA focuses exclusively on rural areas and does not cover urban regions, making Reason (R) incorrect.

Additional Information

• Drone Technology in SVAMITVA:
• Drones are used to conduct surveys and create high-resolution maps of rural inhabited lands.
• The use of drones ensures accuracy and reduces disputes over property boundaries.
• This modern technology enables the creation of a robust digital land record system in rural India.
• Coverage of SVAMITVA:
• The scheme is limited to rural areas and is not extended to urban regions.
• The primary objective is to empower rural citizens by providing legal ownership of their properties.
• Urban areas are covered under separate land record programs.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Poikkal Kuthirai Aattam, also known as the dummy horse dance, is a traditional folk dance performed in Tamil Nadu, India.
• This dance is primarily showcased during religious festivals and cultural events, reflecting the rich heritage of Tamil Nadu.
• The performer wears a costume resembling a horse, which is constructed using lightweight materials like bamboo and cloth, giving the illusion of riding a horse.
• The dance is often accompanied by traditional Tamil music and percussion instruments such as thavil and nadaswaram, creating an energetic atmosphere.
• Poikkal Kuthirai Aattam has deep cultural and religious significance, often performed to honor deities during temple festivals.

Additional Information

• Kerala
• Kerala is renowned for its classical dance forms, including Kathakali and Mohiniyattam.
• These dances are deeply rooted in Kerala’s cultural and religious traditions, often narrating stories from Hindu mythology.
• While Kerala has a rich tradition of folk and classical performances, Poikkal Kuthirai Aattam is not a native dance form of the state.
• Karnataka
• Karnataka is famous for its traditional dances such as Yakshagana, a theatrical dance-drama that combines storytelling, music, and vibrant costumes.
• Yakshagana is performed in Kannada-speaking regions and is distinct from Tamil Nadu’s Poikkal Kuthirai Aattam.
• The state also has folk dances like Dollu Kunitha, showcasing the cultural diversity of Karnataka.
• Telangana
• Telangana is known for its folk dances, including Perini Shivatandavam, a dance performed as an offering to Lord Shiva.
• Bonalu and Bathukamma are popular festivals in Telangana that feature unique traditional performances.

The correct answer is More corruption.

Key Points

• The Corruption Perception Index (CPI) is developed by Transparency International, a global organization dedicated to combating corruption.
• The CPI ranks countries based on their perceived levels of public sector corruption, as determined by expert assessments and surveys.
• The CPI score ranges from 0 to 100, where 0 represents the highest level of perceived corruption and 100 indicates the lowest.
• A lower score (closer to 0) signifies more corruption and poor governance, lack of transparency, and inadequate measures to prevent corrupt practices.
• Countries with a lower CPI score often face challenges like weak institutions, lack of accountability, and limited enforcement of anti-corruption laws.

Additional Information

• Less corruption
• A higher CPI score (closer to 100) indicates less corruption and better governance.
• Countries with higher scores tend to have strong institutions, robust anti-corruption measures, and greater transparency in public administration.
• Examples of countries with high CPI scores include Denmark, Finland, and New Zealand.
• Higher transparency
• While transparency is closely related to corruption levels, the CPI primarily measures corruption perceptions rather than transparency.
• Higher transparency often correlates with lower corruption, but transparency alone does not encompass the full scope of corruption-related issues.
• Better governance
• Better governance typically leads to lower corruption levels, as it ensures accountability, rule of law, and ethical conduct in public administration.
• The CPI indirectly reflects governance quality, but its primary focus remains on corruption perceptions.

The correct answer is Cotton textiles and Sugar.

Key Points

• Agro-based industries are industries that primarily depend on agricultural raw materials for their production.
• Cotton textiles are an agro-based industry as they depend on cotton, which is an agricultural product, as the primary raw material.
• The sugar industry is also an agro-based industry since it relies on sugarcane, a crop grown widely in India, as its raw material.
• These industries play a significant role in the Indian economy, providing employment and contributing to exports.
• Both cotton textiles and sugar industries are part of agro-based industries because of their strong dependence on agricultural resources for raw materials.

Additional Information

• Cement and Petrochemicals:
• Cement and petrochemical industries are not agro-based; they rely on minerals and chemicals as raw materials.
• Cement is produced using limestone, clay, and gypsum, which are mineral-based resources.
• Petrochemicals are derived from crude oil and natural gas, making them part of the chemical industry rather than agro-based industries.
• Jute textiles and Steel:
• Jute textiles rely on jute, which is an agricultural product, and therefore jute textiles are considered an agro-based industry.
• However, steel production depends on iron ore and other minerals, making it a mineral-based industry rather than agro-based.
• This option is incorrect because steel is not agro-based.
• Edible oil and Aluminium:
• Edible oil production depends on agricultural products such as mustard, sunflower, and groundnuts and is considered agro-based.
• Aluminium production, however, depends on bauxite (a mineral), making it part of the mineral-based industries.
• This option is incorrect because aluminium is not agro-based.

The correct answer is Desert National Park.

Key Points

• Desert National Park is located in the state of Rajasthan, India, and is known for its vast expanse of sand dunes and desert ecosystems.
• The park is one of the last natural habitats of the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard, a species that is emblematic of India’s desert ecosystem.
• In recent years, conservation efforts, including the breeding and reintroduction programs, have been successfully implemented to save the dwindling population of the Great Indian Bustard.
• The park spans over 3162 square kilometers and includes unique geographical features such as salt lakes, craggy rocks, and fixed dunes, making it a thriving ecosystem for diverse flora and fauna.
• It is a designated UNESCO World Heritage Site under the category of natural heritage, emphasizing its ecological significance and the need for conservation.

Additional Information

• Sariska National Park
• Located in the Alwar district of Rajasthan, Sariska National Park is famous for its tiger reserve under Project Tiger.
• The park is home to Bengal tigers, leopards, and other wildlife such as hyenas, jackals, and various bird species.
• It is known for the successful relocation of tigers after the species was locally extinct in the park in the early 2000s.
• Kuno National Park
• Kuno National Park is located in Madhya Pradesh and is known for being the site of the Asiatic Cheetah reintroduction project in 2022.
• The park is home to diverse flora and fauna, including leopards, jackals, and antelopes.
• It has been proposed as an alternative site for relocating Asiatic lions from Gir National Park in Gujarat.
• Panna Tiger Reserve
• Panna Tiger Reserve is situated in Madhya Pradesh and is well-known for its tiger conservation efforts.
• The park was declared a Biosphere Reserve by UNESCO in 2020.
• The Ken-Betwa river interlinking project has drawn attention to the reserve due to its potential environmental impact on the local flora and fauna.
• Conservation of the Great Indian Bustard
• The Great Indian Bustard is listed as critically endangered by the IUCN and is protected under the Wildlife Protection Act of India, 1972.
• Its population has been declining due to habitat loss, hunting, and human-induced threats such as power lines and agricultural expansion.
• The Government of India has initiated the ‘Habitat Improvement and Conservation Breeding Programme’ to protect and increase the population of the species.

The correct answer is Right to Property.

Key Points

• The Right to Property was originally a Fundamental Right under Article 31 of the Indian Constitution.
• It was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights through the 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, and moved to the category of legal rights under Article 300A.
• The amendment was implemented to curb the misuse of property rights and facilitate equitable land reforms, ensuring that the state could acquire private property for public purposes by providing compensation.
• As a legal right, the Right to Property is enforceable through the courts, but it no longer enjoys the same elevated status and protection as Fundamental Rights.
• Currently, Article 300A states: "No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law."

Additional Information

• Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
• It ensures equality before the law and equal protection of laws for all citizens.
• Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth (Article 15).
• Abolishes untouchability (Article 17) and titles except for military or academic distinctions (Article 18).
• Right to Freedom (Article 19-22)
• Guarantees six essential freedoms, including freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession (Article 19).
• Protects against arbitrary arrest and detention (Article 22).
• However, these rights are subject to reasonable restrictions for maintaining public order, sovereignty, and security.
• Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24)
• Prohibits human trafficking, forced labor, and other forms of exploitation (Article 23).
• Prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in hazardous jobs or industries (Article 24).
• Theme of the Question: Fundamental Rights
• Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, from Articles 12 to 35, and are considered essential for the development of individuals and democracy.
• These rights include the Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, and Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• They are justiciable, meaning citizens can approach courts if these rights are violated.

The correct answer is ASPEX.

Key Points

• ASPEX (Aditya Solar wind Particle Experiment) is a scientific payload onboard the Aditya-L1 mission designed to monitor the solar wind at the Lagrange point 1 (L1).
• The primary objective of ASPEX is to study the composition and energy distribution of solar wind particles, including protons, alpha particles, and heavy ions.
• The payload helps in understanding the interaction of solar wind with Earth’s magnetosphere and its impact on space weather.
• ASPEX provides critical data on the dynamics of solar wind, enabling scientists to predict geomagnetic storms and their potential effects on satellites, power grids, and communication systems.
• It plays a crucial role in enhancing our understanding of heliophysics and solar-terrestrial interactions by analyzing the solar wind in real-time from a vantage point at L1.

Additional Information

• SUIT (Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope):
• SUIT is one of the key payloads of the Aditya-L1 mission, designed to capture full-disk images of the Sun in the ultraviolet (UV) spectrum.
• It studies the dynamics of the Sun’s photosphere and chromosphere, contributing to understanding solar activity and its influence on space weather.
• SUIT also measures solar irradiance variations in the UV band, which have implications for Earth’s climate and atmospheric processes.
• SoLEXS (Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer):
• SoLEXS is a payload on Aditya-L1 that observes X-ray emissions from the Sun.
• It monitors solar flares and estimates their energy output, providing insights into the Sun’s high-energy processes.
• The data from SoLEXS help in understanding the heating mechanisms of the Sun’s corona and its impact on the heliosphere.
• HEL1OS (High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer):
• HEL1OS is another payload on Aditya-L1 that studies high-energy X-rays emitted by the Sun.
• It focuses on detecting and characterizing solar flares, coronal mass ejections (CMEs), and other energetic solar phenomena.
• The instrument aids in understanding the acceleration of particles in the Sun’s atmosphere and their subsequent propagation through the solar system.

The correct answer is Only 1.

Key Points

• Indian federalism is considered biased towards the Centre because the Constitution of India establishes a quasi-federal structure, where the Centre has more power compared to the states.
• The Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains more items (97 subjects initially, now 100) compared to the State List (66 subjects initially, now 61), ensuring greater control for the Centre.
• The President of India has significant powers, such as the ability to impose President's Rule under Article 356, which allows the Centre to take over the administration of a state.
• Financial arrangements also favor the Centre, as it controls the major sources of revenue and allocates funds to the states, as per recommendations of the Finance Commission.
• However, the Constitution does not explicitly use the term "federal." Instead, it describes India as a "Union of States" in Article 1, emphasizing the indestructible nature of the Union.

Additional Information

• Federal Features of the Indian Constitution:
• Division of powers between the Union and the States through three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
• Independent judiciary with the Supreme Court as the final arbiter in disputes between the Centre and the states.
• Bicameral legislature at the Centre, consisting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, representing both the people and the states.
• Unitary Features of the Indian Constitution:
• Emergency provisions allow the Centre to assume greater control over states during crises (Articles 352, 356, and 360).
• Centralized financial powers, as the Centre collects and allocates major sources of revenue.
• The Governor, appointed by the President, acts as the Centre's representative in states.