General Awareness PYQs

The Correct answer is The caves focus on Shaivite themes and feature sculptural depth through light and shadow.

Key Points

• The Elephanta Caves are located on the Elephanta Island, near Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• The caves primarily focus on Shaivite themes, highlighting the Hindu god Shiva in various forms such as Trimurti Shiva (three-faced Shiva), Ardhanarishvara (half-male, half-female form of Shiva), and Gangadhara (Shiva carrying the Ganga).
• They are renowned for their sculptural depth, achieved through intricate carvings that use light and shadow to create a sense of depth and realism.
• The caves date back to the 5^th to 7^th century CE and are considered significant for their artistic and architectural excellence.
• They represent the Gupta period's artistic style, showcasing highly detailed and expressive sculptures.
• The site is designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, emphasizing its cultural and historical importance.
• The artistic representation in the Elephanta Caves reflects the spiritual narratives and mythological episodes related to Shiva.

Additional Information

• Buddhist caves with large stupas
• This option refers to early Buddhist rock-cut architecture, such as the Ajanta Caves or Karle Caves, which are known for their large stupas and focus on Buddhist teachings.
• The Elephanta Caves are not Buddhist caves, as they primarily focus on Shaivite themes.
• Mix of Jain and Vaishnavite depictions in pillar halls
• This refers to sites such as the Ellora Caves, which have depictions of Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain art.
• The Elephanta Caves are focused exclusively on Shaivism and do not feature Jain or Vaishnavite depictions.
• Entirely monolithic structures from the Mauryan period
• Monolithic structures are carved from a single rock, such as the Barabar Caves, which belong to the Mauryan period.
• The Elephanta Caves, although rock-cut, belong to the Gupta period and are not entirely monolithic.

The Correct answer is Only 1 and 2.

Key Points

• The Goncha Festival is a famous festival celebrated in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh.
• The festival is marked by the use of Tupki, which is a mock gun made of bamboo, and it uses the Goncha fruit as its bullets. This is a playful and symbolic activity during the festival.
• The chariot procession, a significant part of the Goncha Festival, was started during the rule of the Chalukya dynasty. This tradition is still carried out with grandeur and devotion.
• The festival reflects the rich cultural heritage and traditions of the region, highlighting the historical and religious significance of the event.

Additional Information

• Statement 3: "Rath Yatra begins on Ashadh Shukla Dashmi and ends on Dutiya."
• This statement is incorrect as it does not align with the traditional timeline of the Goncha Festival. While the Rath Yatra is part of the festival, the dates mentioned are not accurate for this specific festival.
• The Goncha Festival is celebrated with unique practices like the playful use of Tupki, which symbolizes the harmonious coexistence of people from different communities.
• The festival emphasizes regional identity, showcasing the historical and cultural richness of the Bastar region.

The Correct answer is Khanda Jaati.

Key Points

• In Carnatic music, rhythm plays a vital role, and it is structured using various rhythmic cycles called talas.
• A laghu is a rhythmic unit within a tala, and its beat count is determined by the jaati.
• The term Khanda Jaati refers to a laghu with five beats.
• In the Khanda Jaati, the rhythmic pattern consists of five syllables or beats, which can be represented as ta ka ta ki ta.
• This is one of the five types of jaatis in Carnatic music, which include Tishra (3 beats), Chaturashra (4 beats), Khanda (5 beats), Mishra (7 beats), and Sankeerna (9 beats).
• The usage of Khanda Jaati in talas adds complexity and richness to the rhythmic structure, showcasing the intricacy of South Indian classical music.
• Khanda Jaati is often employed in compositions to create distinctive and challenging rhythmic patterns that test the skill of performers.

Additional Information

• Tishra Jaati
• Tishra Jaati consists of three beats in the laghu.
• This jaati is represented as ta ki ta.
• It is one of the simplest jaatis and is widely used in basic rhythmic compositions in Carnatic music.
• Chaturashra Jaati
• Chaturashra Jaati consists of four beats in the laghu.
• The rhythmic pattern for Chaturashra Jaati is ta ka di mi.
• This is the most common jaati in Carnatic music and serves as the foundation for many talas.
• Mishra Jaati
• Mishra Jaati consists of seven beats in the laghu.
• The rhythmic syllables are represented as ta ki ta ta ka di mi.
• This jaati is more intricate and is used to add complexity to compositions.

The correct answer is Judo was introduced in 1882 by Jigoro Kano in Japan.

Key Points

• Judo was founded by Jigoro Kano in 1882 in Tokyo, Japan, through the establishment of the Kodokan. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Statement 2: India's first National Judo Championship was held in 1966 at Hyderabad, not in 1970 at Delhi University. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 3: Indian judoka Kalpana Devi did not win a gold medal at the 2010 Judo World Cup. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
• Statement 4: Judo became an Olympic sport in 1964 at the Tokyo Olympics, not in 1965. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.
• Therefore, only option 1 is correct.

Additional Information

• Jigoro Kano (1860–1938) developed Judo by modifying traditional Japanese martial arts, especially Jujutsu.
• The term Judo means "Gentle Way" and emphasizes technique, balance, and leverage rather than brute strength.
• Judo was included as an official sport for men at the 1964 Tokyo Olympics and for women at the 1992 Barcelona Olympics.
• The international governing body of Judo is the International Judo Federation (IJF), established in 1951.
• In India, Judo is governed by the Judo Federation of India (JFI), which promotes the sport at national and international levels.

Important Points

• Judo is both a martial art and an Olympic combat sport.
• The highest score in Judo is called an Ippon, which results in an immediate victory.
• Prominent Indian judokas include Tulika Maan, Garima Chaudhary, and Avtar Singh, who have represented India in major international competitions.

The correct answer is 12^th January 2025, Meerut, Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• The 59^th National Cross Country Championships is scheduled to be held on 12^th January 2025.
• The event will take place in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh, a city known for its rich history and sports culture.
• Cross Country Championships are athletic events conducted over natural terrains such as grass, dirt trails, or hills, emphasizing endurance and strategy.
• The event is organized under the guidance of the Athletics Federation of India (AFI), which is the apex body for athletics in India.
• Meerut has a prominent reputation in sports equipment manufacturing and is a major contributor to the sports industry in India, making it a fitting choice for hosting such events.
• This championship attracts participants from across the nation, providing a platform for talented athletes to showcase their skills and gain recognition.
• Hosting the championship in Uttar Pradesh aligns with the state’s efforts to promote sports and athletics, further boosting regional development in this sector.

Additional Information

• 10^th January 2025, Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
• Lucknow, the capital city of Uttar Pradesh, is renowned for its historical monuments and cultural heritage.
• It has been a host to various national-level events and is equipped with modern sports infrastructure.
• 15^th January 2025, Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh
• Kanpur is an industrial hub and one of the largest cities in Uttar Pradesh.
• The city has a growing focus on sports and athletics, with several recent initiatives to upgrade its sports facilities.
• 12^th January 2025, Jaipur, Rajasthan
• Jaipur, the capital of Rajasthan, is known as the Pink City due to its distinct architectural style.
• Although primarily famous for its tourism, Jaipur has hosted various sports events in the past.

The Correct answer is Assures post-establishment investor confidence via standard and national treatment.

Key Points

• The 2024 India-UAE Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) focuses on post-establishment investor rights to ensure investor confidence.
• Key principles include standard treatment and national treatment, which ensure fair and equitable treatment of investments made by UAE investors in India and vice versa.
• This treaty aligns with India’s broader international investment strategy, which aims to create an investor-friendly environment while protecting national interests.
• It ensures that investments will not face arbitrary or discriminatory treatment, thereby promoting a secure investment climate.
• Such treaties are critical for strengthening bilateral economic ties and increasing foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows between the two nations.
• The BIT also aims to enhance transparency and provide a structured framework for resolving disputes through mechanisms such as mediation or arbitration.
• This approach helps in achieving a balance between investor protection and the host country’s regulatory autonomy.

Additional Information

• Proposes joint sovereign funds and links INR swap with UAE banks
• This option highlights potential financial mechanisms such as sovereign funds and INR swap arrangements, but these are not the core focus of the BIT.
• Such mechanisms are often discussed under separate financial agreements or trade pacts, not investment treaties.
• Focuses on pre-establishment rights and UAE-based arbitration
• The concept of pre-establishment rights involves granting foreign investors the right to invest even before they establish operations in a host country.
• However, the 2024 BIT primarily focuses on post-establishment rights, not pre-establishment rights.
• Additionally, UAE-based arbitration is not a major provision in this treaty; the treaty emphasizes balanced arbitration mechanisms.
• Aims at GCC-wide tax regulation under India-led digital framework
• This option refers to potential tax regulations across the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), but these are not the objectives of the BIT.
• Taxation agreements are usually part of separate double taxation avoidance agreements (DTAA) rather than investment treaties.

The correct answer is Riyadh.

Key Points

• The Santosh Trophy 2022-23 final was held in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. This was the first time the tournament was organized outside India, making it a unique event in the history of the Santosh Trophy.
• The final match took place between Karnataka and Meghalaya. Karnataka defeated Meghalaya to win the title after a gap of 54 years.
• The match was hosted at the King Fahd International Stadium in Riyadh, a renowned venue for international football matches.
• The decision to hold the final in Riyadh was part of an effort to promote Indian football internationally and to engage with the Indian diaspora in Saudi Arabia.
• This victory marked Karnataka’s fifth Santosh Trophy title, with their last win being in 1968-69.

Additional Information

• Santosh Trophy:
• The Santosh Trophy is a prestigious inter-state football tournament in India, organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF).
• It was established in 1941 and is named after the late Maharaja Sir Manmatha Nath Roy Chowdhary of Santosh, a prominent patron of football in India.
• Over the years, it has been a platform for discovering young and talented football players from across the country.
• Karnataka’s Performance:
• Karnataka has now won the Santosh Trophy title five times, with their first win in 1946.
• The 2022-23 win was a significant achievement as it ended a 54-year drought for the team in the tournament.
• King Fahd International Stadium:
• Located in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, this stadium is a major venue for international football events.
• It has a seating capacity of over 68,000 spectators and is known for hosting significant matches, including the AFC Champions League and Saudi Pro League games.
• Indian Football Abroad:
• Hosting the Santosh Trophy final in Riyadh reflects the growing efforts to globalize Indian football.
• It aims to connect with the large Indian expatriate community in the Middle East and promote the sport beyond national borders.

The Correct answer is A study on drought's human and ecological impacts in India.

Key Points

• "Landscapes of Loss: The Story of an Indian Drought" by Kavitha Iyer focuses on the human and ecological consequences of droughts in India.
• The book sheds light on the socio-economic impact of droughts on rural communities, particularly farmers, and their families.
• It explores how droughts lead to migrations, loss of livelihoods, and challenges related to water scarcity.
• The narrative highlights the struggles faced by rural India, delving into the personal stories of individuals and communities.
• It discusses the ecological ramifications of droughts, including degradation of land and water resources.
• The book advocates for sustainable water management and policy reforms to address these recurring issues in India.
• Kavitha Iyer, as a journalist, uses her expertise to provide an in-depth analysis of drought's impact on India's agrarian landscape.

Additional Information

• Option 2: A fictional story about a family in a drought-hit area
• The book is not fictional. It is a non-fictional account based on real events and experiences.
• It uses journalistic tools to highlight the real plight of communities facing droughts in India.
• Option 3: A history of monsoon patterns and ancient agriculture in India
• While the book discusses water scarcity and droughts, it does not focus on the historical aspects of monsoon patterns or ancient agriculture.
• The primary focus is on modern-day droughts and their impact on communities.
• Option 4: A colonial-era policy analysis of water management
• The book does not explore colonial-era water policies; its emphasis is on contemporary issues related to drought and water scarcity.

The Correct answer is 1 and 2 are correct.

Key Points

• Hanging valleys are formed by tributary glaciers that join the main glacier at a higher elevation. This happens because the main glacier erodes deeper and more extensively than the tributary glacier.
• These valleys often open into main glacial valleys at a higher elevation, appearing as steep cliffs or waterfalls after the ice melts.
• The spurs of such hanging valleys are truncated into triangular facets due to glacial erosion. This truncation occurs as the glacier carves through the valley, cutting across the spurs and leaving behind triangular landforms.
• Hanging valleys are commonly associated with waterfalls, as the streams from the tributary valleys flow down into the main valley after the ice melts. A notable example is the Yosemite Valley in the United States.
• The processes involved in the formation of hanging valleys and triangular facets are examples of how glaciers reshape landscapes through both erosion and deposition.
• These features provide key evidence of the intensity and direction of glacial movement in an area, helping researchers understand past glacial environments.

Additional Information

• Glacial Landforms
• Glaciers create various landforms through erosion, transportation, and deposition. These include features like cirques, horns, aretes, U-shaped valleys, and moraines.
• The study of glacial landforms helps in understanding climatic changes and the extent of glacial advances and retreats during the Earth's history.
• Glacial erosion processes like plucking and abrasion are responsible for the characteristic shape of valleys and other landforms.

The Correct answer is To eject the crew module to safety during launch emergencies.

Key Points

• The Crew Escape System (CES) is a critical safety feature integrated into the ISRO's Human Rated LVM3 (HLVM3) rocket.
• Its primary function is to eject the crew module safely in case of any emergency during the launch or ascent phase.
• The CES ensures the safety of astronauts in scenarios such as rocket malfunctions, anomalies, or other emergencies.
• This system uses quick-acting escape motors to propel the crew module away from the rocket, thereby ensuring it avoids any potential danger.
• The CES operates with high precision and is designed to activate within milliseconds of detecting an anomaly.
• It is an integral part of making the Human Rated LVM3 rocket reliable and meeting international standards for crewed space missions.
• The system demonstrates ISRO’s commitment to ensuring astronaut safety during its upcoming human spaceflight missions, such as the Gaganyaan Mission.
• Such systems are standard in human-rated rockets globally, used by agencies like NASA, Roscosmos, and SpaceX.

Additional Information

• To guide the crew module into its designated Low Earth Orbit
• This is the function of the main rocket engines, not the Crew Escape System. The HLVM3 rocket is responsible for placing the crew module into the intended orbit.
• Once in orbit, the crew module performs its mission objectives, such as experiments or docking.
• To assist in docking the crew module with a space station
• Docking is a separate operation involving specialized systems like docking mechanisms and does not involve the Crew Escape System.
• Docking capabilities are used in missions where the crew module needs to connect with a space station or another spacecraft.
• To provide thermal shielding during re-entry into Earth's atmosphere
• The responsibility for thermal shielding lies with the heat shield of the crew module, not the Crew Escape System.
• The heat shield protects astronauts during re-entry by enduring extremely high temperatures generated due to friction with the Earth's atmosphere.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• Justice Sanjiv Khanna became the 51^st Chief Justice of India (CJI). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• He succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, who demitted office after completing his tenure as the 50^th CJI. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• He did not serve as CJI from 2023. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud served as Chief Justice during 2022–2024. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Therefore, the correct option is 1 and 2 only.

Additional Information

• Chief Justice of India (CJI)
• Appointed under Article 124 of the Constitution of India.
• Appointed by the President of India following the convention of seniority.
• Retirement age: 65 years.
• Justice Sanjiv Khanna
• Elevated to the Supreme Court of India in January 2019.
• Previously served as a judge of the Delhi High Court.
• Belongs to a distinguished legal family; his uncle Justice H.R. Khanna was a renowned Supreme Court judge.
• Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
• Served as the 50^th Chief Justice of India.
• Known for landmark judgments related to constitutional law, fundamental rights, and digital privacy.

The correct answer is Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

Key Points

• The National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 was formulated with the objective of stabilizing the population of India while ensuring sustainable development and improving the quality of life of its citizens.
• One of the key goals of the policy is providing free and compulsory education up to 14 years of age, as outlined in the Directive Principles of State Policy under the Indian Constitution. This helps address population issues through better awareness and education.
• The policy aims to reduce the infant mortality rate (IMR) below 30 per 1000 live births by improving healthcare services, immunization programs, and maternal health facilities.
• Promoting delayed marriage for girls is another critical goal of the policy. Encouraging marriage at a later age not only helps in reducing fertility rates but also allows women to pursue education and professional opportunities.
• The policy focuses on several other measures such as addressing unmet needs for contraception, improving maternal healthcare, and achieving population stabilization by 2045.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Option: Increasing fertility rate to ensure demographic dividend
• This is incorrect as the National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 focuses on reducing the fertility rate, not increasing it.
• Reducing fertility rates helps to stabilize population growth and improve socioeconomic indicators.
• Achieving a stable Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is one of the major goals of the policy, aiming for a replacement-level TFR of 2.1.
• Importance of Infant Mortality Rate Reduction
• Reducing the infant mortality rate (IMR) is a key indicator of healthcare quality in a country.
• It reflects improvements in areas such as nutrition, immunization, sanitation, and access to healthcare services.

The Correct answer is Electron Transport Chain.

Key Points

• The electron transport chain (ETC) is a crucial pathway in cellular respiration that generates the most ATP (adenosine triphosphate).
• It occurs in the inner membrane of the mitochondria in eukaryotic cells.
• The ETC uses high-energy electrons from molecules like NADH and FADH₂, which are produced during earlier stages of respiration.
• Electrons are transferred through a series of protein complexes, including cytochromes, which pump protons (H⁺) across the mitochondrial membrane, creating a proton gradient.
• This proton gradient powers the enzyme ATP synthase to synthesize ATP via a process called oxidative phosphorylation.
• The ETC is responsible for producing approximately 34 ATP molecules per glucose molecule, making it the most efficient pathway in energy production.
• Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor in the ETC, combining with protons and electrons to form water, which is essential to the process.

Additional Information

• Glycolysis
• Glycolysis is the first step in cellular respiration, occurring in the cytoplasm of the cell.
• It breaks down glucose into two molecules of pyruvate, producing a net gain of 2 ATP molecules and 2 NADH molecules.
• Though it is an essential step, it generates far less ATP compared to the ETC.
• Krebs Cycle
• The Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.
• It produces NADH and FADH₂, which are used in the electron transport chain.
• The cycle directly generates only 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule.
• Fermentation
• Fermentation is an anaerobic process that occurs in the absence of oxygen.
• It produces ATP through glycolysis and regenerates NAD+ for continued glycolysis.
• However, it generates only 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule, making it far less efficient than aerobic respiration.

The correct answer is b-c-a.

Key Points

• The States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956. It restructured India's states and territories, marking a significant moment in the political and administrative history of the country.
• The First Central Zonal Council meeting was held after the creation of zonal councils, which were established following the States Reorganisation Act. These councils aimed to promote cooperation and coordination between states.
• The Eastern Zonal Council meeting in 2022 occurred significantly later and focused on contemporary issues related to the states in the eastern region of India.
• The chronological order of the events is therefore: States Reorganisation Act passed (b), followed by the First Central Zonal Council meeting (c), and finally the Eastern Zonal Council meeting in 2022 (a).

Additional Information

• States Reorganisation Act
• The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 was a major reform that reorganized the boundaries of Indian states and territories based on linguistic lines.
• It led to the creation of 14 states and 6 union territories.
• This Act also provided the basis for the establishment of Zonal Councils under the States Reorganisation Commission.
• Zonal Councils
• The Zonal Councils were set up to foster interstate cooperation and coordination, as recommended by the States Reorganisation Commission.
• They are statutory bodies, established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
• There are five Zonal Councils: Northern, Southern, Eastern, Western, and Central Zonal Councils.
• The Central Zonal Council includes states like Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Chhattisgarh.
• Eastern Zonal Council
• The Eastern Zonal Council comprises the states of West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar, and Jharkhand.
• It focuses on issues like economic and social development, border disputes, and security concerns specific to the eastern region of India.
• The 2022 meeting of the Eastern Zonal Council aimed at resolving issues related to connectivity, infrastructure, and law and order in the eastern states.

The Correct answer is It is a constitutional legal right that permits deprivation only by authority of law.

Key Points

• Under Article 300A of the Indian Constitution, the right to property is no longer a fundamental right. It was demoted to a constitutional legal right by the 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.
• This article states that no person shall be deprived of their property except by the authority of law.
• This ensures that property can only be taken by the state through a legally established process, providing protection against arbitrary deprivation.
• As a constitutional legal right, this provision primarily ensures that property rights are safeguarded as long as the deprivation occurs through proper legislation.
• Unlike fundamental rights, violations of Article 300A cannot be directly challenged under Article 32 in the Supreme Court.
• However, if property is taken away without following the due process of law, remedies can be sought through the High Courts under Article 226 or other legal avenues.
• The transformation of the right to property from fundamental to constitutional legal right reflects the state's ability to regulate property for public welfare, subject to legal procedures.

Additional Information

• It is a fundamental right that guarantees compensation for all property acquisitions.
• Before the 44^th Amendment Act, the right to property was a fundamental right under Articles 19(1)(f) and 31. However, post-amendment, Article 300A does not guarantee compensation for all acquisitions, and the right to property is now a constitutional legal right.
• It allows the State to deprive a person of property by any law, even without due process.
• This statement is incorrect as Article 300A explicitly requires deprivation to occur through the authority of law. Arbitrary deprivation without legal procedures violates the article.
• It permits citizens to claim property protection under Article 32 before the Supreme Court.
• Property rights under Article 300A cannot be enforced through Article 32, as they are not fundamental rights. Remedies for violations must be sought through High Courts under Article 226 or other legal mechanisms.

The Correct answer is The same for all particles.

Key Points

• In a rigid body, all particles are fixed relative to each other and move collectively during rotation.
• The angular velocity is a measure of the rate of rotation of a body about a given axis and is denoted as ω (omega).
• For a rigid body, the angular velocity of all particles is the same because they rotate together about the same axis at the same rate.
• While the linear velocity of particles depends on their distance from the axis of rotation, the angular velocity remains constant for all particles of the rigid body.
• This uniformity of angular velocity ensures that the body remains rigid and its shape does not change during rotation.
• Angular velocity is a vector quantity, having both magnitude and direction, where the direction is determined by the right-hand rule.
• The concept of angular velocity is widely used in mechanics, engineering, and physics to study rotational motion.

Additional Information

• Proportional to its distance from the axis
• The linear velocity of a particle in a rigid body is proportional to its distance from the axis of rotation. However, angular velocity is the same for all particles.
• This is because linear velocity (v) is calculated as v = ω × r, where r is the distance from the axis, and ω is the angular velocity.
• Inversely proportional to its distance from the axis
• This statement is incorrect because angular velocity does not depend on the distance from the axis. However, other properties, like torque, can depend inversely on certain factors.
• Always zero
• For a rigid body in rotational motion, angular velocity is never zero unless the body is at rest.
• If angular velocity were zero, the body would not exhibit any rotational motion.

The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

• The One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) scheme ensures the portability of food grains under the National Food Security Act (NFSA).
• Portability allows eligible beneficiaries to access their entitled food grains from any Fair Price Shop (FPS) in India, irrespective of their location.
• It particularly benefits migrant workers and their families who relocate to different states or regions for work or other reasons.
• The scheme uses Aadhaar-enabled biometric authentication to verify the identity of beneficiaries at FPS outlets. This ensures that food grains are delivered to the rightful beneficiaries.
• The integration of Aadhaar with the Public Distribution System (PDS) helps in preventing leakages, duplication, and fraud in the system.
• ONORC was introduced to support the vision of a unified India and address food security challenges faced by the migrant population.

Additional Information

• A is true, but R is false
• This option is incorrect because Reason (R) is true. The Aadhaar-enabled biometric authentication plays a crucial role in ensuring portability under the scheme.
• A is false, but R is true
• This option is incorrect because Assertion (A) is correct. The One Nation One Ration Card indeed ensures portability of food grains.
• Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
• This option is incorrect because Reason (R) directly supports Assertion (A). The Aadhaar-enabled system is a core component of ensuring portability.

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

• Cheraw, also known as the bamboo dance, is one of the most famous traditional dances of Mizoram.
• The dance involves the use of long bamboo sticks, which are held horizontally and tapped rhythmically on the ground by performers.
• The performers (usually women) move gracefully in and out of the bamboo sticks to the beat of the music without getting their feet caught.
• This dance holds cultural and religious significance for the Mizo community, as it is often performed during festivals and special occasions, such as weddings or harvest celebrations.
• The Cheraw dance reflects the rich heritage and traditions of the state of Mizoram.
• It symbolizes the harmony and coordination between nature and mankind through its intricate movements.
• Cheraw has gained international fame and is considered a symbol of Mizoram's cultural identity.

Additional Information

• Meghalaya
• Meghalaya is known for its rich tribal culture and several traditional dances, such as Wangala Dance, performed by the Garo tribe to celebrate the harvest festival.
• Another famous dance is the Shad Suk Mynsiem, performed by the Khasi tribe during the spring season.
• Arunachal Pradesh
• Arunachal Pradesh is famous for its diverse tribal dances such as Yak Dance, Buiya Dance, and Ajilamu Dance.
• These dances are often linked to religious rituals and seasonal celebrations.
• Sikkim
• Sikkim is known for its traditional dances like the Chu-Faat Dance and Mask Dance, performed during religious festivals.
• These dances are deeply rooted in Buddhist culture and depict various mythological stories and traditions.

The correct answer is Defense Budget.

Key Points

• The Global Firepower Military Strength Ranking evaluates the military capabilities of nations globally by analyzing several factors, including their defense budget.
• A country's defense budget directly impacts its ability to procure advanced weaponry, maintain military infrastructure, and invest in research and development for new technologies.
• The ranking considers the allocation of financial resources to defense-related activities as a critical element of a country's overall military strength.
• Countries with a larger and more consistent defense budget are typically better equipped to modernize their armed forces and maintain readiness.
• This factor is one of the most significant indicators of a nation's military might in terms of both quality and quantity of resources.
• Other elements of the ranking, such as manpower, equipment, and logistical capabilities, are often supported and enhanced by a robust defense budget.
• Leading nations like the United States, China, and India allocate substantial portions of their annual budgets to defense, which reflects their prioritization of national security.

Additional Information

• Economic Stability
• Economic stability refers to a country's ability to maintain a steady rate of economic growth and avoid inflation or deflation.
• Although related to national strength, it is not directly assessed in the Global Firepower Military Strength Ranking.
• Economic stability often indirectly supports military strength by ensuring the availability of resources for defense spending.
• Cultural Influence
• Cultural influence pertains to a nation's ability to impact others through its culture, values, and traditions.
• It is a component of soft power rather than military or hard power, making it irrelevant to the Global Firepower Military Strength Ranking.
• Healthcare Spending
• Healthcare spending involves a nation’s investment in the health and well-being of its citizens.
• While it contributes to a country's overall development and quality of life, it is not a parameter used in determining military strength.