Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL 2024 Tier-II Official Paper-I (Held On: 20 Jan, 2025) (Previous Year Paper)

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Section I (60 questions)

Question 1

ABCD is a quadrilateral in which diagonal BD = 70 cm. AL ⊥ BD and CM ⊥ BD such that AL = 18 cm and CM = 20. Find the area (in cm²) of the quadrilateral ABCD.

  1. AOption (a)

    1320

  2. BOption (b)

    1310

  3. COption (c)

    1330

  4. DOption (d)

    1300

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1330

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The area of a general quadrilateral equals half the product of its diagonal and the sum of perpendiculars dropped on it.

⇒ Area = 1/2 × Diagonal × (Sum of perpendiculars)

⇒ Area = 1/2 × 70 × (18 + 20)

⇒ Area = 35 × 38 = 1330

∴ The correct answer is 1330 cm2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Diagonal BD = 70 cm

Perpendicular AL = 18 cm

Perpendicular CM = 20 cm

Formula Used:

Area of a triangle = 1/2 × base × height

Area of Quadrilateral ABCD = Area of ΔABD + Area of ΔBCD

Calculation:

⇒ Area of ΔABD = 1/2 × BD × AL

⇒ Area of ΔABD = 1/2 × 70 × 18 = 630 cm2

⇒ Area of ΔBCD = 1/2 × BD × CM

⇒ Area of ΔBCD = 1/2 × 70 × 20 = 700 cm2

⇒ Total Area = 630 + 700 = 1330 cm2

∴ The correct answer is 1330 cm2.

Additional Information

Area of Rhombus

The area is calculated as half the product of its diagonals: Area = 1/2 × d1 × d2.

Area of Trapezium

Calculated as half the sum of parallel sides multiplied by the distance between them: Area = 1/2 × (a + b) × h.

Cyclic Quadrilateral

A quadrilateral whose vertices all lie on a single circle. Its area can be found using Brahmagupta's formula: Area = √((s−a)(s−b)(s−c)(s−d)), where s is the semi-perimeter.

Question 2

A tank when full can be emptied by an outlet pipe A in 5.6 hours, while an inlet pipe B can fill the same empty tank in 7 hours. If pipes A and B are turned on alternatively for 1 hour each starting with pipe A when the tank is full, how long will it take to empty the tank?

  1. AOption (a)

    56 hours

  2. BOption (b)

    55 hours

  3. COption (c)

    48 hours

  4. DOption (d)

    47 hours

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

47 hours

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total capacity = LCM(5.6, 7) = 28 units.

Efficiency: Pipe A = +5 units/hr (emptying), Pipe B = −4 units/hr (filling).

Net work in 1 cycle (2 hours) = 5 − 4 = 1 unit emptied.

Safe zone before Pipe A's final turn = 28 − 5 = 23 units.

Time for 23 units = 23 × 2 = 46 hours, remaining 5 units emptied by A in 1 hour.

∴ The correct answer is 47 hours.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by outlet pipe A to empty the tank = 5.6 hours.

Time taken by inlet pipe B to fill the tank = 7 hours.

Pipes are opened alternatively for 1 hour each, starting with A.

Calculations:

PipeHoursTotal WorkEfficiency
Pipe A5.6285
Pipe B7−4

⇒ Let emptying the tank be positive work (+), and filling be negative work (−).

⇒ Work done in the 1st hour by A = 5 units.

⇒ Work done in the 2nd hour by B = −4 units.

⇒ Total work done in 1 cycle (2 hours) = 5 − 4 = 1 unit.

⇒ Since A can empty 5 units in its turn, we calculate full cycles for 28 − 5 = 23 units.

⇒ Time required to empty 23 units = 23 cycles × 2 hours/cycle = 46 hours.

⇒ Remaining work = 28 − 23 = 5 units.

⇒ In the 47th hour, Pipe A will empty the remaining 5 units in exactly 1 hour.

⇒ Total time taken = 46 + 1 = 47 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 47 hours.

Additional Information

Pipes and Cisterns

Inlet pipes add to the volume (+ efficiency) and outlet pipes remove volume (− efficiency). The total work is assumed as the LCM of the given time periods.

Alternate Work Concept

When positive and negative work happen alternatively, always subtract the positive work of the final step from the total work to avoid overcounting cycles, similar to the monkey climbing a greased pole puzzle.

Efficiency vs Time

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time taken. Total Work = Efficiency × Time.

Question 3

If a : b = 2 : 3, b : c  = 5 : 7, then find the ratio c : a. 

  1. AOption (a)

    15 : 21

  2. BOption (b)

    20 : 21

  3. COption (c)

    21 : 10

  4. DOption (d)

    10 : 21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

21 : 10

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

To find the ratio of the extremes (c : a) directly, multiply the given ratios and invert.

⇒ a / c = (a / b) × (b / c)

⇒ a / c = (2 / 3) × (5 / 7) = 10 / 21

⇒ c / a = 21 / 10

∴ The correct answer is 21 : 10.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ a : b = 2 : 3

⇒ b : c = 5 : 7

Calculations:

⇒ To combine the ratios, make the common term 'b' equal in both.

⇒ The value of b is 3 in the first ratio and 5 in the second.

⇒ Multiply the first ratio by 5 and the second ratio by 3 (LCM of 3 and 5 is 15).

⇒ a : b = (2 × 5) : (3 × 5) = 10 : 15

⇒ b : c = (5 × 3) : (7 × 3) = 15 : 21

⇒ Combining them, we get a : b : c = 10 : 15 : 21

⇒ Therefore, the ratio c : a = 21 : 10

∴ The correct answer is 21 : 10.

Additional Information

Compound Ratio

When two or more ratios are multiplied together, the result is called a compound ratio. For a : b and c : d, it is ac : bd.

Duplicate and Sub-duplicate Ratio

The duplicate ratio of a : b is a2 : b2. The sub-duplicate ratio of a : b is √a : √b.

Invertendo and Alternendo

For a proportion a : b = c : d, invertendo gives b : a = d : c, and alternendo gives a : c = b : d.

Question 4

In a circle centered at O, a diameter AB is extended to a point C outside the circle. CD is a tangent at point D on the circle. If CD = 7√3 cm and ∠DBC = 120°, then the length of the diameter of the circle is equal to: 

  1. AOption (a)

    16 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    20 cm

  3. COption (c)

    18 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    14 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

14 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Since ABC forms a straight line, ∠OBD = 180° − 120° = 60°.

Because OB and OD are radii, ΔOBD is equilateral, making ∠BOD = 60°.

The tangent CD is perpendicular to radius OD, so ∠ODC = 90°.

In right-angled ΔODC, tan(60°) = CD ÷ OD ⇒ √3 = 7√3 ÷ R.

Solving this gives R = 7 cm. The diameter is 2 × 7 = 14 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 14 cm.

Alternate Method

O A B C D

120° 60° 7√3 R

Given:

⇒ CD is tangent to the circle at point D.

⇒ CD = 7√3 cm

⇒ ∠DBC = 120°

Formula Used:

⇒ In a right-angled triangle, tan(θ) = Perpendicular ÷ Base

⇒ Angles forming a linear pair add up to 180°

Calculations:

⇒ Since point B lies on the straight line AC, ∠OBD and ∠DBC form a linear pair.

⇒ ∠OBD + ∠DBC = 180°

⇒ ∠OBD = 180° − 120° = 60°

⇒ In ΔOBD, OB and OD are both radii of the same circle, so OB = OD.

⇒ Angles opposite to equal sides are equal, hence ∠ODB = ∠OBD = 60°.

⇒ Using the sum of angles in a triangle, ∠BOD = 180° − (60° + 60°) = 60°.

⇒ Because CD is a tangent at D, the radius OD is perpendicular to it. Therefore, ∠ODC = 90°.

⇒ In right-angled ΔODC, ∠DOC = 60°.

⇒ tan(∠DOC) = CD ÷ OD

⇒ tan(60°) = 7√3 ÷ R

⇒ √3 = 7√3 ÷ R

⇒ R = 7 cm

⇒ The diameter of the circle = 2 × R = 2 × 7 = 14 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 14 cm.

Additional Information

Tangent-Radius Theorem

A tangent to a circle always forms a right angle (90°) with the radius drawn to the exact point of tangency. This geometric property is universally useful for creating right-angled triangles to solve for missing lengths.

Isosceles Triangle Property

When two sides of a triangle are equal (such as the radii of a circle drawn from the center), the angles strictly opposite to those sides must also be equal. This frequently helps deduce that a triangle is equilateral.

Exterior Angle Theorem

The exterior angle of a triangle equals the sum of its two interior opposite angles. In ΔOBD, ∠DBC acts as an exterior angle, ensuring that ∠DBC = ∠BOD + ∠ODB (120° = 60° + 60°).

Question 5

If x = 4 + √6 and y = 4 - √6 then the value of x2 + y2 is:

  1. AOption (a)

    51

  2. BOption (b)

    42

  3. COption (c)

    44

  4. DOption (d)

    43

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

44

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Use the direct algebraic identity: (a + b)2 + (a − b)2 = 2(a2 + b2)

Here, the given values are x = 4 + √6 and y = 4 − √6.

Substituting a = 4 and b = √6 into the identity directly:

⇒ x2 + y2 = 2 × (42 + (√6)2)

⇒ x2 + y2 = 2 × (16 + 6) = 2 × 22 = 44

∴ The correct answer is 44.

Alternate Method

Given:

x = 4 + √6 and y = 4 − √6

Formula Used:

x2 + y2 = (x + y)2 − 2xy

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of x and y (x + y) = (4 + √6) + (4 − √6) = 8

⇒ Product of x and y (xy) = (4 + √6) × (4 − √6)

⇒ Using (a + b)(a − b) = a2 − b2

⇒ xy = 42 − (√6)2 = 16 − 6 = 10

⇒ Now substituting these values into the formula:

⇒ x2 + y2 = (8)2 − 2 × 10

⇒ x2 + y2 = 64 − 20 = 44

∴ The correct answer is 44.

Additional Information

Difference of Squares

The formula a2 − b2 = (a + b)(a − b) is very useful for multiplying conjugate expressions directly without expanding.

Conjugate Surds

Expressions of the form a + √b and a − √b are known as conjugate surds. Their sum and product always result in rational numbers.

Subtraction of Perfect Squares

(a + b)2 − (a − b)2 = 4ab. This identity helps directly compute the difference between squares of conjugates.

Sum of Cubes Identity

x3 + y3 = (x + y)(x2 − xy + y2) or equivalently (x + y)3 − 3xy(x + y).

Question 6

If cos⁡27°=Pq\rm \cos27°=\frac{P}{q}, then find the value of cosec 27° - cos 63°.

  1. AOption (a)

    pqq2−p2\rm \frac{p}{q\sqrt{q^2-p^2}}

  2. BOption (b)

    p2qq2−p2\rm \frac{p^2}{q\sqrt{q^2-p^2}}

  3. COption (c)

    qpq2−p2\rm \frac{q}{p\sqrt{q^2-p^2}}

  4. DOption (d)

    q2pq2−p2\rm \frac{q^2}{p\sqrt{q^2-p^2}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

p2qq2−p2\rm \frac{p^2}{q\sqrt{q^2-p^2}}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Convert to the same angle using complementary property: cos 63° = sin(90° − 27°) = sin 27°.

Simplify expression: cosec 27° − sin 27° = (1 − sin2 27°) / sin 27° = cos2 27° / sin 27°.

From given cos 27° = p / q, we find sin 27° = √(1 − p2/q2) = √(q2 − p2) / q.

Substitute these values directly: (p / q)2 ÷ [√(q2 − p2) / q] = p2 / [q√(q2 − p2)].

∴ The correct answer is p2 / (q√(q2 − p2)).

Alternate Method

Given:

cos 27° = p / q

Concept Used:

In a right-angled triangle, cos θ = Base / Hypotenuse

By Pythagoras Theorem: Perpendicular = √(Hypotenuse2 − Base2)

cos(90° − θ) = sin θ

cosec θ = Hypotenuse / Perpendicular

Calculations:

⇒ Base = p, Hypotenuse = q

⇒ Perpendicular = √(q2 − p2)

⇒ We need to find the value of: cosec 27° − cos 63°

⇒ Using complementary angle relation, cos 63° = cos(90° − 27°) = sin 27°

⇒ sin 27° = Perpendicular / Hypotenuse = √(q2 − p2) / q

⇒ cosec 27° = Hypotenuse / Perpendicular = q / √(q2 − p2)

⇒ Expression = [q / √(q2 − p2)] − [√(q2 − p2) / q]

⇒ Expression = [q2 − (q2 − p2)] / [q√(q2 − p2)]

⇒ Expression = [q2 − q2 + p2] / [q√(q2 − p2)]

⇒ Expression = p2 / [q√(q2 − p2)]

∴ The correct answer is p2 / (q√(q2 − p2)).

Additional Information

Trigonometric Identities

Fundamental identities include sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1 and cosec θ = 1 ÷ sin θ.

Complementary Angles

The trigonometric ratios of complementary angles are related as sin(90° − θ) = cos θ and cos(90° − θ) = sin θ.

Pythagoras Theorem

In a right-angled triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the base and the perpendicular: H2 = B2 + P2.

Question 7

The average of first 92 even numbers is

  1. AOption (a)

    94

  2. BOption (b)

    92

  3. COption (c)

    93

  4. DOption (d)

    91

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

93

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The average of the first n even numbers can be directly determined using the formula: (n + 1).

Here, the number of even numbers (n) = 92.

⇒ Average = 92 + 1 = 93

∴ The correct answer is 93.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of terms (n) = 92

The series represents the first 92 even numbers: 2, 4, 6, 8, ..., 184

Formula Used:

For any uniformly spaced series (Arithmetic Progression), Average = (First Term + Last Term) ÷ 2

Average of First 92 Even Numbers

1st Term 2

4

Average 93

182

92nd Term 184

... ...

Avg = (2 + 184) ÷ 2 = 93

Calculations:

⇒ First term of the series (a) = 2

⇒ Last term of the series (l) = 92 × 2 = 184

⇒ Average = (First Term + Last Term) ÷ 2

⇒ Average = (2 + 184) ÷ 2

⇒ Average = 186 ÷ 2 = 93

∴ The correct answer is 93.

Additional Information

Average of first n Odd Numbers

The average of the first n odd numbers is always equal to n.

Average of first n Natural Numbers

The average of the first n natural numbers is evaluated as (n + 1) ÷ 2.

Average of Uniformly Spaced Numbers

For any consecutive series or Arithmetic Progression, the average is exactly midway between the limits: Average = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2.

Question 8

Simplify (5z - 7y)2 + (7z + 5y)2 - 49z2

  1. AOption (a)

    30z2 + 83y2

  2. BOption (b)

    35z2 + 70y2

  3. COption (c)

    26z2 + 82y2

  4. DOption (d)

    25z2 + 74y2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

25z2 + 74y2

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Apply the Brahmagupta−Fibonacci algebraic identity: (ax − by)2 + (bx + ay)2 = (a2 + b2)(x2 + y2)

For the given expression (5z − 7y)2 + (7z + 5y)2, substitute a = 5, b = 7, x = z, and y = y.

Sum = (52 + 72)(z2 + y2) = (25 + 49)(z2 + y2) = 74(z2 + y2)

Expression becomes: 74z2 + 74y2 − 49z2

Result = 25z2 + 74y2

∴ The correct answer is 25z2 + 74y2.

Alternate Method

Given:

(5z − 7y)2 + (7z + 5y)2 − 49z2

Formula Used:

(a − b)2 = a2 − 2ab + b2

(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2

Calculations:

⇒ Expanding the first term: (5z − 7y)2 = (5z)2 − 2 × (5z) × (7y) + (7y)2 = 25z2 − 70zy + 49y2

⇒ Expanding the second term: (7z + 5y)2 = (7z)2 + 2 × (7z) × (5y) + (5y)2 = 49z2 + 70zy + 25y2

⇒ Adding both expansions: (25z2 − 70zy + 49y2) + (49z2 + 70zy + 25y2)

⇒ Grouping similar terms: (25z2 + 49z2) + (−70zy + 70zy) + (49y2 + 25y2)

⇒ The middle terms cancel out: 74z2 + 0 + 74y2

⇒ Now, subtract the remaining 49z2 from the original expression: 74z2 + 74y2 − 49z2

⇒ Final simplification: (74 − 49)z2 + 74y2 = 25z2 + 74y2

∴ The correct answer is 25z2 + 74y2.

Additional Information

Brahmagupta−Fibonacci Identity

This identity expresses the product of two sums of squares as a sum of squares: (a2 + b2)(x2 + y2) = (ax − by)2 + (bx + ay)2. It is incredibly useful for instantly expanding and grouping complex crossed algebraic pairs without calculating individual terms.

Standard Algebraic Identities

Other essential identities for quick simplification include: (a + b)2 + (a − b)2 = 2(a2 + b2) and (a + b)2 − (a − b)2 = 4ab.

BODMAS Rule in Algebra

Always follow the order of operations when simplifying polynomials: evaluate brackets and exponent powers first, then handle the addition or subtraction of grouped coefficients.

Question 9

Let PQR be a right angled triangle, right-angled at R. Let PQ = 29 cm, QR = 21 cm and ∠Q = θ. Find the value of cos2 θ – sin2 θ.

  1. AOption (a)

    41841\frac{41}{841}

  2. BOption (b)

    84141\frac{841}{41}

  3. COption (c)

    84040\frac{840}{40}

  4. DOption (d)

    40840\frac{40}{840}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

41841\frac{41}{841}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In a right-angled triangle, if the hypotenuse is 29 and the base is 21, the third side directly forms the standard Pythagorean triplet (20, 21, 29).

Thus, Perpendicular = 20.

cos θ = 21/29 and sin θ = 20/29

cos2 θ − sin2 θ = (21/29)2 − (20/29)2 = (441 − 400) / 841 = 41/841

∴ The correct answer is 41/841.

Alternate Method

Given:

In right-angled triangle PQR, right-angled at R:

Hypotenuse (PQ) = 29 cm

Base (QR) = 21 cm

∠Q = θ

Formula Used:

Pythagoras Theorem: Hypotenuse2 = Perpendicular2 + Base2

cos θ = Base / Hypotenuse

sin θ = Perpendicular / Hypotenuse

Calculation:

⇒ PQ2 = PR2 + QR2

⇒ 292 = PR2 + 212

⇒ 841 = PR2 + 441

⇒ PR2 = 841 − 441 = 400

⇒ PR = √400 = 20 cm

⇒ cos θ = QR / PQ = 21/29

⇒ sin θ = PR / PQ = 20/29

Now, substitute the values into the required expression:

⇒ cos2 θ − sin2 θ = (21/29)2 − (20/29)2

⇒ cos2 θ − sin2 θ = (441/841) − (400/841)

⇒ cos2 θ − sin2 θ = (441 − 400) / 841 = 41/841

∴ The correct answer is 41/841.

Additional Information

Pythagorean Triplets

A set of three positive integers a, b, and c that satisfy the equation a2 + b2 = c2. Commonly asked triplets in exams include (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), (8, 15, 17), and (20, 21, 29).

Trigonometric Identities

The three fundamental identities are: sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1, 1 + tan2 θ = sec2 θ, and 1 + cot2 θ = cosec2 θ.

Double Angle Formula

The term evaluated in the question, cos2 θ − sin2 θ, is mathematically equivalent to the double angle formula cos(2θ).

Question 10

(a5×b3×c7)(a4×b8×c9)\rm \frac{(a^5\times b^3\times c^7)}{(a^4\times b^8\times c^9)} in simplified form is:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a-1) × (b4) × (c-5)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a1) × (b-5) × (c-2​)

  3. COption (c)

    (a-3) × (b-10) × (c-4)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a6) × (b6) × (c-4​)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a1) × (b-5) × (c-2​)

Why this answer is correct

Given:

a5×b3×c7a4×b8×c9\frac{a^5 \times b^3 \times c^7}{a^4 \times b^8 \times c^9}

Formula used:

xm / xn = xm-n

Calculation:

⇒ a5-4 × b3-8 × c7-9

⇒ a1 × b-5 × c-2

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 11

Which number among 38211, 38121, 32118, and 31128 is divisible by 24?

  1. AOption (a)

    32118

  2. BOption (b)

    38121

  3. COption (c)

    38211

  4. DOption (d)

    31128

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

31128

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For a number to be divisible by 24, it must be divisible by both 3 and 8.

Since 8 is an even number, any number divisible by it must also be even, eliminating 38211 and 38121.

Check the last 3 digits of the remaining numbers for divisibility by 8.

For 32118: 118 ÷ 8 = 14.75 → Not divisible.

For 31128: 128 ÷ 8 = 16 → Completely divisible.

∴ The correct answer is 31128.

Alternate Method

Given:

Numbers to check: 38211, 38121, 32118, 31128

Concept Used:

Divisibility rule of 24: A number is divisible by 24 if it is divisible by its co-prime factors, 3 and 8.

Calculations:

⇒ Step 1: Check divisibility by 3 (sum of the digits must be a multiple of 3).

⇒ Sum of digits for all options = 3 + 8 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 15.

⇒ Since 15 is divisible by 3, all given numbers are divisible by 3.

⇒ Step 2: Check divisibility by 8 (last three digits must form a number divisible by 8).

⇒ 38211 → The last digit is odd, so it is not divisible by 8.

⇒ 38121 → The last digit is odd, so it is not divisible by 8.

⇒ 32118 → The last three digits are 118. 118 ÷ 8 = 14.75 → Not divisible.

⇒ 31128 → The last three digits are 128. 128 ÷ 8 = 16 → Divisible.

⇒ Thus, 31128 is the only number divisible by both 3 and 8.

∴ The correct answer is 31128.

Additional Information

Divisibility by Composite Numbers

To check divisibility by a composite number, test the divisibility of its co-prime factors. For example, since 24 = 3 × 8 (where 3 and 8 are co-prime), a number divisible by 24 must be divisible by both 3 and 8.

Divisibility Rule of 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of all its digits is a multiple of 3.

Divisibility Rule of 8

A number is divisible by 8 if the number formed by its last three digits is a multiple of 8.

Question 12

P and Q take part in 400 m race. P runs at 12 km/hr. P gives Q a start of 20 m and still beats him by 13 seconds. The speed of Q is: (Round up to two decimal places.)

  1. AOption (a)

    10.87 km/hr

  2. BOption (b)

    10.29 km/hr

  3. COption (c)

    11.38 km/hr

  4. DOption (d)

    11.61 km/hr

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10.29 km/hr

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Speed of P in m/s = 12 × (5/18) = 10/3 m/s.

Time taken by P to finish the race = 400 ÷ (10/3) = 120 seconds.

Time taken by Q = 120 + 13 = 133 seconds.

Distance run by Q = 400 − 20 = 380 m.

Speed of Q = 380 ÷ 133 = 20/7 m/s ⇒ (20/7) × (18/5) = 72/7 = 10.29 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 10.29 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total distance of race = 400 m

Speed of P = 12 km/hr

Start distance given to Q = 20 m

Time by which P beats Q = 13 seconds

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Speed conversion: 1 km/hr = 5/18 m/s

Calculations:

⇒ Speed of P = 12 × (5/18) = 10/3 m/s

⇒ Time taken by P to complete the race = 400 ÷ (10/3) = 120 seconds

⇒ P gives Q a start of 20 m, so distance covered by Q = 400 − 20 = 380 m

⇒ P beats Q by 13 seconds, so Time taken by Q = Time taken by P + 13

⇒ Time taken by Q = 120 + 13 = 133 seconds

⇒ Speed of Q in m/s = Distance ÷ Time = 380 ÷ 133 = 20/7 m/s

⇒ Speed of Q in km/hr = (20/7) × (18/5) = 72/7 km/hr

⇒ Speed of Q ≈ 10.2857 km/hr

⇒ Rounding up to two decimal places, Speed of Q = 10.29 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 10.29 km/hr.

Additional Information

Start Distance in Races

If A gives B a start of x meters in a race of L meters, it means A has to run the complete L meters while B only has to run (L − x) meters.

Start Time in Races

If A beats B by t seconds, it implies B takes t seconds more than A to complete his designated track distance.

Speed Conversions

To convert km/hr into m/s, multiply the value by 5/18. To convert m/s into km/hr, multiply the value by 18/5.

Question 13

The ratio of the ages of two friends is 4 : 3 which will become 6 : 5 after 4 years. What will be the sum of their ages (in years) after 22 years from now?

  1. AOption (a)

    50

  2. BOption (b)

    52

  3. COption (c)

    56

  4. DOption (d)

    58

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

58

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Present ratio of ages = 4 : 3

Ratio of ages after 4 years = 6 : 5

Notice that the increase in ratio parts is the same for both friends: 6 − 4 = 2 parts, and 5 − 3 = 2 parts.

⇒ 2 parts = 4 years ⇒ 1 part = 2 years.

Current sum of their ages = (4 + 3) parts = 7 × 2 = 14 years.

Sum of their ages after 22 years from now = 14 + (2 × 22) = 14 + 44 = 58 years.

∴ The correct answer is 58 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of present ages of the two friends = 4 : 3

Ratio of their ages after 4 years = 6 : 5

Calculations:

Let the present ages of the two friends be 4x and 3x years respectively.

⇒ After 4 years, their ages will be (4x + 4) and (3x + 4) years.

⇒ According to the given condition: (4x + 4) ÷ (3x + 4) = 6 ÷ 5

⇒ 5 × (4x + 4) = 6 × (3x + 4)

⇒ 20x + 20 = 18x + 24

⇒ 20x − 18x = 24 − 20

⇒ 2x = 4

⇒ x = 2

⇒ The present ages of the two friends are 4 × 2 = 8 years and 3 × 2 = 6 years.

⇒ Present sum of their ages = 8 + 6 = 14 years.

⇒ After 22 years, the age of the first friend = 8 + 22 = 30 years.

⇒ After 22 years, the age of the second friend = 6 + 22 = 28 years.

⇒ Sum of their ages after 22 years = 30 + 28 = 58 years.

∴ The correct answer is 58 years.

Additional Information

Ratio Difference Trick for Age Problems

If the difference between the respective ratio parts of the ages for multiple individuals is equal, you can directly equate the difference in ratio parts to the change in years. If the difference is unequal, you must first cross-multiply the difference of alternate ratios to equalize them before applying the shortcut.

Future and Past Ages Sum Rule

If the present sum of the ages of n people is S, their sum after t years will be S + n × t, and their sum t years ago was S − n × t. Every individual adds or subtracts t years simultaneously.

Cross-Multiplication Method

For proportions formatted as a/b = c/d, you can determine the unknown variables by multiplying diagonally across the equal sign resulting in: a × d = b × c. This fundamental property transforms ratio equations into manageable linear equations.

Question 14

If sin⁡A=513\rm \sin A=\frac{5}{13}, then find the value of cos⁡A−2tan⁡Asin⁡A+3tan⁡A\rm \frac{\cos A-2\tan A}{\sin A+3\tan A}.

  1. AOption (a)

    11255\frac{11}{255}

  2. BOption (b)

    13255\frac{13}{255}

  3. COption (c)

    12255\frac{12}{255}

  4. DOption (d)

    14255\frac{14}{255}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

14255\frac{14}{255}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Using the 5-12-13 triplet for sin A = 5/13, we get P = 5, H = 13, and B = 12.

Thus, cos A = 12/13 and tan A = 5/12.

Numerator = 12/13 − 2×(5/12) = (144 − 130) / 156 = 14/156.

Denominator = 5/13 + 3×(5/12) = (60 + 195) / 156 = 255/156.

Value = Numerator ÷ Denominator = 14/255.

∴ The correct answer is 14/255.

Alternate Method

Given:

sin A = 5/13

Formula Used:

In a right-angled triangle:

sin A = Perpendicular ÷ Hypotenuse

cos A = Base ÷ Hypotenuse

tan A = Perpendicular ÷ Base

Pythagoras Theorem: (Hypotenuse)2 = (Perpendicular)2 + (Base)2

Calculations:

⇒ Let Perpendicular = 5 and Hypotenuse = 13

⇒ Base = √(132 − 52) = √(169 − 25) = √144 = 12

⇒ cos A = 12/13

⇒ tan A = 5/12

⇒ Numerator = cos A − 2×tan A = 12/13 − 2×(5/12) = 12/13 − 10/12

⇒ Numerator = (144 − 130) / 156 = 14/156

⇒ Denominator = sin A + 3×tan A = 5/13 + 3×(5/12) = 5/13 + 15/12

⇒ Denominator = (60 + 195) / 156 = 255/156

⇒ Required Value = (14/156) ÷ (255/156) = 14/255

∴ The correct answer is 14/255.

Additional Information

Pythagorean Triplets

These are sets of three integers that strictly satisfy Pythagoras Theorem. Common examples include (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), and (8, 15, 17).

Trigonometric Identities

The most fundamental identity is sin2 A + cos2 A = 1, from which values of cos A can be directly determined without drawing a triangle.

Tangent Relation

The tangent of an angle can always be derived from sine and cosine using the relation tan A = sin A ÷ cos A.

Question 15

A man sells a mobile phone for ₹680 and loses something. If he had sold it for ₹1070, his gain would have been double the former loss. The cost price (in ₹) of the mobile phone is:

  1. AOption (a)

    820

  2. BOption (b)

    830

  3. COption (c)

    810

  4. DOption (d)

    800

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

810

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Loss to Gain = 1 : 2

Total difference in parts = 1 + 2 = 3 parts

Difference in Selling Prices = ₹1070 − ₹680 = ₹390

3 parts = ₹390 ⇒ 1 part (Loss) = ₹130

Cost Price = SP1 + Loss = 680 + 130 = ₹810

∴ The correct answer is ₹810.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price 1 (SP1) = ₹680

Selling Price 2 (SP2) = ₹1070

Gain at SP2 is double the loss at SP1.

Formula Used:

Loss = Cost Price (CP) − Selling Price (SP)

Gain = Selling Price (SP) − Cost Price (CP)

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Cost Price of the mobile phone be CP.

⇒ Loss when sold at ₹680 = CP − 680

⇒ Gain when sold at ₹1070 = 1070 − CP

⇒ According to the given condition: Gain = 2 × Loss

⇒ 1070 − CP = 2 × (CP − 680)

⇒ 1070 − CP = 2CP − 1360

⇒ 3CP = 1070 + 1360

⇒ 3CP = 2430

⇒ CP = 2430 ÷ 3 = ₹810

∴ The correct answer is ₹810.

Additional Information

Cost Price (CP) & Selling Price (SP)

Cost Price is the amount paid to purchase an article. Selling Price is the amount at which the article is sold to the customer.

Profit & Loss Basics

Profit occurs when the Selling Price is greater than the Cost Price (Profit = SP − CP). Loss occurs when the Cost Price is greater than the Selling Price (Loss = CP − SP).

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is a reduction given on the Marked Price (MP) of an article before selling. It is calculated as: Selling Price = MP − Discount.

Question 16

If the diameter of the base of a cone is 56 cm and its curved surface area is 3080 cm2, then what will be its volume (in cm3)? (Use π = 22/7)

  1. AOption (a)

    12250

  2. BOption (b)

    14670

  3. COption (c)

    17248

  4. DOption (d)

    15391

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

17248

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Radius (r) = 56 ÷ 2 = 28 cm.

Slant height (l) = CSA ÷ (πr) = 3080 ÷ (22/7 × 28) = 35 cm.

Using Pythagorean triplet (3, 4, 5) × 7 → (21, 28, 35), height (h) = √(352 − 282) = 21 cm.

Volume = 1/3 × πr2h = 1/3 × 22/7 × 282 × 21 = 17248 cm3.

∴ The correct answer is 17248 cm3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Diameter of the base = 56 cm

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 3080 cm2

Formula Used:

Radius (r) = Diameter ÷ 2

CSA = πrl (where l is the slant height)

l2 = r2 + h2

Volume = (1/3)πr2h

Calculations:

⇒ Radius (r) = 56 ÷ 2 = 28 cm

⇒ πrl = 3080

⇒ (22/7) × 28 × l = 3080

⇒ 88 × l = 3080

⇒ l = 3080 ÷ 88 = 35 cm

⇒ h = √(l2 − r2)

⇒ h = √(352 − 282)

⇒ h = √(1225 − 784) = √441 = 21 cm

⇒ Volume = (1/3) × (22/7) × 28 × 28 × 21

⇒ Volume = 22 × 4 × 28 × 7

⇒ Volume = 17248 cm3

∴ The correct answer is 17248 cm3.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of a Cone

The total surface area includes the curved surface and the circular base: TSA = πr(r + l).

Volume of a Cylinder

A cylinder with the same base radius and height as a cone has exactly three times its volume. Volume = πr2h.

Frustum of a Cone

When a cone is cut by a plane parallel to its base, the lower part is a frustum. Volume = (1/3)πh(R2 + r2 + Rr).

Question 17

If A and B are two events such that P(A∪B)=34,P(A∩B)=14\rm P(A\cup B)=\frac{3}{4}, P(A\cap B) = \frac{1}{4} and P(B)=12\rm P(B) = \frac{1}2 , then the events A and B are _____.

  1. AOption (a)

    Independent

  2. BOption (b)

    Not Mutually Exclusive

  3. COption (c)

    Dependent

  4. DOption (d)

    Mutually Exclusive

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Independent

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

From the addition theorem: P(A) = P(A ∪ B) + P(A ∩ B) − P(B)

⇒ P(A) = 3/4 + 1/4 − 1/2 = 1/2

Now, calculate P(A) × P(B) = 1/2 × 1/2 = 1/4

Since P(A ∩ B) = P(A) × P(B) = 1/4, the events A and B are independent.

∴ The correct answer is Independent.

Alternate Method

Given:

P(A ∪ B) = 3/4

P(A ∩ B) = 1/4

P(B) = 1/2

Formula Used:

Addition Rule: P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) − P(A ∩ B)

Independence Rule: Events are independent if P(A ∩ B) = P(A) × P(B)

Calculation:

⇒ 3/4 = P(A) + 1/2 − 1/4

⇒ 3/4 = P(A) + 1/4

⇒ P(A) = 3/4 − 1/4

⇒ P(A) = 2/4 = 1/2

Now check the condition for independent events:

⇒ P(A) × P(B) = 1/2 × 1/2

⇒ P(A) × P(B) = 1/4

⇒ We are given P(A ∩ B) = 1/4.

⇒ Therefore, P(A ∩ B) = P(A) × P(B)

This perfectly satisfies the condition for independent events.

∴ The correct answer is Independent.

Additional Information

Independent Events

Two events are independent if the occurrence of one does not affect the probability of the other. The key mathematical condition is: P(A ∩ B) = P(A) × P(B).

Mutually Exclusive Events

Two events are mutually exclusive if they cannot occur at the same time, meaning they share no common outcomes. The condition is: P(A ∩ B) = 0.

Addition Rule of Probability

For any two overlapping events A and B, the probability of either event occurring is given by the formula: P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) − P(A ∩ B).

Question 18

Find the median of the following data.

Class Interval0-2020-4040-6060-8080-100
Frequency91624154
  1. AOption (a)

    55

  2. BOption (b)

    50

  3. COption (c)

    58

  4. DOption (d)

    47.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

47.5

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Cumulative Frequencies: 9, 25, 49, 64, 68. Total frequency N = 68 ⇒ N ÷ 2 = 34. The first cumulative frequency > 34 is 49, hence the median class is 40-60. Median = l + [(N/2 − CF) ÷ f] × h Median = 40 + [(34 − 25) ÷ 24] × 20 = 40 + (9 ÷ 24) × 20 = 47.5 ∴ The correct answer is 47.5. Alternate Method Given: Class Intervals: 0-20, 20-40, 40-60, 60-80, 80-100 Frequencies: 9, 16, 24, 15, 4 Formula Used: Median = l + [(N/2 − CF) ÷ f] × h Where: l = lower limit of median class N = total frequency CF = cumulative frequency of the preceding class f = frequency of the median class h = class size Calculations: ⇒ First, let us construct the cumulative frequency (CF) distribution: ⇒ 0-20: 9 ⇒ 20-40: 9 + 16 = 25 ⇒ 40-60: 25 + 24 = 49 ⇒ 60-80: 49 + 15 = 64 ⇒ 80-100: 64 + 4 = 68 ⇒ Total frequency (N) = 68 ⇒ N ÷ 2 = 68 ÷ 2 = 34 ⇒ The cumulative frequency just greater than 34 is 49, corresponding to the class 40-60. ⇒ Median class = 40-60 ⇒ Here, l = 40, CF = 25, f = 24, h = 20 ⇒ Median = 40 + [(34 − 25) ÷ 24] × 20 ⇒ Median = 40 + (9 ÷ 24) × 20 ⇒ Median = 40 + (3 ÷ 8) × 20 ⇒ Median = 40 + (60 ÷ 8) ⇒ Median = 40 + 7.5 = 47.5 ∴ The correct answer is 47.5. Additional Information Mode of Grouped Data Mode = l + [(f1 − f0) ÷ (2f1 − f0 − f2)] × h, where f1 is the modal class frequency, f0 is the preceding class frequency, and f2 is the succeeding class frequency. Mean of Grouped Data Mean = Σ(fixi) ÷ Σfi, where xi represents the class mark or midpoint of each interval, calculated as (lower limit + upper limit) ÷ 2. Empirical Relationship Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean. This formula is highly useful to find one of the measures of central tendency when the other two are known for a moderately skewed distribution.

Question 19

Two years ago, the population of a town was 9487500. Due to migration to big cities, it decreases every year at the rate of 8%. The present population of the town is:

  1. AOption (a)

    8070120

  2. BOption (b)

    8030220

  3. COption (c)

    9060110

  4. DOption (d)

    7060320

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

8030220

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Present population = Initial Population × (Multiplying Factor)2 = 9487500 × 0.92 × 0.92

Instead of full calculation, apply the Digital Sum method to find the correct option.

Digital sum of 9487500 = 9 + 4 + 8 + 7 + 5 = 33 → 6 and 0.92 = 9 + 2 = 11 → 2

Resulting Digital Sum = 6 × 2 × 2 = 24 → 6

Only the value 8030220 has a digital sum of 6 (8 + 0 + 3 + 0 + 2 + 2 + 0 = 15 → 6).

∴ The correct answer is 8030220.

Alternate Method

Given:

Population 2 years ago (P) = 9487500

Rate of decrease (R) = 8% per year

Time (n) = 2 years

Formula Used:

A = P × (1 − R / 100)n

Calculations:

⇒ Present Population (A) = 9487500 × (1 − 8 / 100)2

⇒ A = 9487500 × (92 / 100)2

⇒ A = 9487500 × (23 / 25) × (23 / 25)

⇒ A = 9487500 × (529 / 625)

⇒ A = 15180 × 529

⇒ A = 8030220

∴ The correct answer is 8030220.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Decrease

If a value decreases by x% and y% successively, the net percentage change is given by: Net Decrease = −x − y + (x × y) / 100 %. For a repeated 8% decrease, the overall effective reduction is −8 − 8 + 0.64 = −15.36%.

Digital Sum Concept

The digital sum is found by repeatedly adding the digits of a number until a single digit remains. In multiplication, the Digital Sum of the product equals the product of the Digital Sums of the individual multipliers. It is a highly reliable shortcut for verifying complex decimal and fraction multiplications.

Population Growth & Decay Formula

When a population uniformly changes at R% per year for n years, the new population is directly calculated using the compound interest formula approach: A = P × (1 ± R / 100)n.

Question 20

Adi and Dia together have ₹1,440. If 310\frac{3}{10} of Adi's amount is equal to 35\frac{3}{5} of Dia's amount, how much amount does Dia have?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹464

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹540

  3. COption (c)

    ₹512

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹480

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹480

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Equating the fractions: (3/10) × Adi = (3/5) × Dia

Ratio of Adi to Dia = (3/5) : (3/10) = 2 : 1

Total parts = 2 + 1 = 3 parts, which corresponds to ₹1440.

Dia's share = 1 part = 1440 ÷ 3 = ₹480.

∴ The correct answer is ₹480.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total amount of Adi and Dia = ₹1440

(3/10) of Adi's amount = (3/5) of Dia's amount

Adi (2 parts) Dia (1 part)

Total Amount = ₹1440

₹960 ₹480

Calculations:

⇒ Let Adi's amount be A and Dia's amount be D.

⇒ (3/10) × A = (3/5) × D

⇒ A / D = (3/5) × (10/3)

⇒ A / D = 30 / 15 = 2 / 1

⇒ This implies A = 2D

⇒ We know that A + D = 1440

⇒ 2D + D = 1440

⇒ 3D = 1440

⇒ D = 1440 ÷ 3 = 480

∴ The correct answer is ₹480.

Additional Information

Ratio & Proportion

When a given quantity is divided into a ratio a : b, the first part is (a / (a + b)) × Total and the second part is (b / (a + b)) × Total.

Equality of Fractions

If fractions multiplied by quantities are equal (e.g., x × A = y × B), their inverse ratio yields the ratio of the quantities (A : B = y : x). This is highly useful for directly converting fractional relations into ratios.

Question 21

The LCM of 23 × 92 × 13, 22 × 132 × 19 and 93 × 132 × 192 is

  1. AOption (a)

    23 × 93 × 132 × 192

  2. BOption (b)

    23 × 92 × 13 × 19​2

  3. COption (c)

    23 × 92 × 132 × 19​3

  4. DOption (d)

    23 × 92 × 132 × 19​

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

23 × 93 × 132 × 192

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

To find the LCM of exponential numbers, directly pick the highest power for each distinct base across all given terms.

Bases present in the given expressions: 2, 9, 13, and 19.

Highest power for 2 is 3 → 23

Highest power for 9 is 3 → 93

Highest power for 13 is 2 and for 19 is 2 → 132 × 192

∴ The correct answer is 23 × 93 × 132 × 192.

Alternate Method

Given:

First term = 23 × 92 × 13

Second term = 22 × 132 × 19

Third term = 93 × 132 × 192

Formula Used:

The Least Common Multiple (LCM) of expressions is the product of all distinct bases raised to their highest respective powers.

Calculation:

⇒ Let us list the powers of all distinct bases for each given term:

⇒ For base 2: The powers are 3, 2, and 0. The highest power is 3.

⇒ For base 9: The powers are 2, 0, and 3. The highest power is 3.

⇒ For base 13: The powers are 1, 2, and 2. The highest power is 2.

⇒ For base 19: The powers are 0, 1, and 2. The highest power is 2.

⇒ Taking the product of these highest powers, we get the required LCM.

⇒ LCM = 23 × 93 × 132 × 192

∴ The correct answer is 23 × 93 × 132 × 192.

Additional Information

Highest Common Factor (HCF)

To find the HCF of numbers in exponential form, select the lowest power of each common prime factor across all numbers.

Product of Two Numbers

For any two numbers A and B: A × B = LCM(A, B) × HCF(A, B). Note that this rule applies only to exactly two numbers, not three or more.

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is 1. The LCM of two co-prime numbers is simply their product.

Question 22

8 kg of maize costing ₹51 per kg, is mixed with 9 kg of maize costing ₹68 per kg. The average per kg price of mixed maize is:

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹60

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹61

  3. COption (c)

    ₹59

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹58

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹60

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the assumed average price be ₹51 per kg.

Net deviation of 9 kg maize = 9 × (68 − 51) = +153

Distribute this net deviation over the total mixture (8 kg + 9 kg = 17 kg).

Average increase = 153 ÷ 17 = +9

Actual average = 51 + 9 = ₹60 per kg.

∴ The correct answer is ₹60.

Alternate Method

Given:

Quantity of first type (Q1) = 8 kg, Cost (P1) = ₹51 per kg

Quantity of second type (Q2) = 9 kg, Cost (P2) = ₹68 per kg

Formula Used:

Average price = (Q1 × P1 + Q2 × P2) ÷ (Q1 + Q2)

Calculations:

⇒ Total cost of 8 kg maize = 8 × 51 = ₹408

⇒ Total cost of 9 kg maize = 9 × 68 = ₹612

⇒ Total cost of the mixture = 408 + 612 = ₹1020

⇒ Total quantity of the mixture = 8 + 9 = 17 kg

⇒ Average price = 1020 ÷ 17 = ₹60 per kg

∴ The correct answer is ₹60.

Additional Information

Rule of Alligation

It helps to find the exact ratio in which two ingredients at given prices must be mixed to produce a mixture of a desired average price. Ratio = (Dearer Price − Average Price) : (Average Price − Cheaper Price).

Weighted Average

When different quantities have varying numeric values, the combined average is given by: A = (w1x1 + w2x2 + ...) ÷ (w1 + w2 + ...).

Replacement Method

If V is the total volume of pure liquid, and x volume is repeatedly replaced with water n times, the final volume of pure liquid is: Final = Initial × (1 − x ÷ V)n.

Question 23

Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 at 6.5% per annum rate of interest for the period from 13 February 2023 to 27 April 2023

  1. AOption (a)

    24

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    26

  4. DOption (d)

    27

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

26

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total time from 13 Feb to 27 Apr = 15 (Feb) + 31 (Mar) + 27 (Apr) = 73 days.

Time in years = 73 ÷ 365 = 1/5 year.

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (2000 × 6.5 × 1) ÷ (100 × 5)

⇒ SI = 20 × 1.3 = ₹26

∴ The correct answer is ₹26.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹2000

Rate of Interest (R) = 6.5% p.a.

Time Period = From 13 February 2023 to 27 April 2023

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ The year 2023 is an ordinary year, so February has 28 days.

⇒ Days left in February = 28 − 13 = 15 days

⇒ Days in March = 31 days

⇒ Days in April = 27 days

⇒ Total Days (T) = 15 + 31 + 27 = 73 days

⇒ Converting time into years, T = 73 ÷ 365 = 1/5 years

⇒ SI = (2000 × 6.5 × 1/5) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (2000 × 6.5) ÷ 500

⇒ SI = 4 × 6.5

⇒ SI = 26

∴ The correct answer is ₹26.

Additional Information

Total Amount Formula

The total amount at the end of the term is the sum of the initial Principal and the Simple Interest earned: Amount = P + SI.

Day Calculation Rule

When calculating interest for a specific period of days, typically either the depositing date or the withdrawal date is counted, but not both.

Rule of 72

It is a quick shortcut to estimate the number of years required to double your invested money at a given annual fixed rate. (Years ≈ 72 ÷ Rate).

Question 24

The age of some students is given in years as 12, 13, 16, 18,14, 19, 13, 17, 15 and 11. The median age (in years) of the students is:

  1. AOption (a)

    14

  2. BOption (b)

    14.5

  3. COption (c)

    13.5

  4. DOption (d)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

14.5

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Arrange the given data in ascending order: 11, 12, 13, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19.

Since the number of terms n = 10 (even), the median is the simple average of the two middle terms.

Median = Average of the 5th and 6th terms.

Median = (14 + 15) ÷ 2 = 14.5.

∴ The correct answer is 14.5 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

The ages of 10 students (in years): 12, 13, 16, 18, 14, 19, 13, 17, 15, and 11.

Formula Used:

For an even number of observations n, Median = [(n/2)th term + (n/2 + 1)th term] ÷ 2

11

12

13

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

Median Position

Average = 14.5

Calculation:

⇒ Total number of observations, n = 10 (even number).

⇒ First, sort the given ages in ascending order:

⇒ 11, 12, 13, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19

⇒ Median = [(10/2)th term + (10/2 + 1)th term] ÷ 2

⇒ Median = [5th term + 6th term] ÷ 2

⇒ Here, the 5th term is 14, and the 6th term is 15.

⇒ Median = (14 + 15) ÷ 2

⇒ Median = 29 ÷ 2 = 14.5

∴ The correct answer is 14.5 years.

Additional Information

Mean

The mean is the simple average of a given set of numbers. It is calculated by Mean = Sum of all observations ÷ Total number of observations.

Median

The median is the exact middle value when a data set is ordered from least to greatest. If n is odd, Median = ((n+1)÷2)th term. If n is even, the Median is the average of the two central terms.

Mode

The mode is the value that appears most frequently in a data set. A set of data may have one mode, multiple modes, or no mode at all.

Question 25

Murlidhar, the owner of a grocery store, offers a discount scheme 'buy 5 water bottles get 1 for free' to his customers. What is the effective percentage discount offered by Murlidhar? (correct up to two decimal places)

  1. AOption (a)

    13.33%

  2. BOption (b)

    16.67%

  3. COption (c)

    13.67%

  4. DOption (d)

    20.00%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

16.67%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For a 'Buy X Get Y free' scheme, the effective discount percentage is given by:

Discount % = [Free Items ÷ Total Items] × 100

Here, Paid Items (X) = 5 and Free Items (Y) = 1

⇒ Discount % = [1 ÷ (5 + 1)] × 100

⇒ Discount % = (1 ÷ 6) × 100 = 16.67%

∴ The correct answer is 16.67%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Offer: Buy 5 water bottles, get 1 for free.

Formula Used:

Discount % = (Total Discount ÷ Total Marked Price) × 100

Calculations:

Let the Marked Price (MP) of 1 water bottle be 10 units.

⇒ Total MP of 6 bottles (5 paid + 1 free) = 6 × 10 = 60 units

Since the customer pays for only 5 bottles, the Selling Price (SP) becomes:

⇒ Total SP of 6 bottles = 5 × 10 = 50 units

⇒ Discount = MP − SP = 60 − 50 = 10 units

⇒ Discount % = (10 ÷ 60) × 100

⇒ Discount % = (1 ÷ 6) × 100 = 16.666... ≈ 16.67%

∴ The correct answer is 16.67%.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts of a% and b% are given, the equivalent single discount is [a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100]%.

Marked Price vs Cost Price

The ratio of Marked Price (MP) to Cost Price (CP) when profit and discount are given is MP ÷ CP = (100 + Profit %) ÷ (100 − Discount %).

Discount Percentage

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP) unless specified otherwise. Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100.

Question 26

The present ages of Sweeta and Suman are in the ratio 4 : 5. Six years back, the ratio of their ages was 2 : 3. What is the present age of Sweeta?

  1. AOption (a)

    8 years

  2. BOption (b)

    12 years

  3. COption (c)

    20 years

  4. DOption (d)

    16 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12 years

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of present ages of Sweeta and Suman = 4 : 5

Ratio of their ages 6 years ago = 2 : 3

Difference in ratio parts = (4 − 2) = 2 parts for Sweeta, and (5 − 3) = 2 parts for Suman.

Since the difference in parts is equal, 2 parts difference corresponds to 6 years.

⇒ 1 part = 3 years ⇒ Sweeta's present age = 4 × 3 = 12 years.

∴ The correct answer is 12 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of present ages of Sweeta and Suman = 4 : 5

Ratio of their ages 6 years ago = 2 : 3

Calculations:

Let the present ages of Sweeta and Suman be 4x and 5x years respectively.

6 years ago, Sweeta's age = (4x − 6) years

6 years ago, Suman's age = (5x − 6) years

According to the question,

⇒ (4x − 6) / (5x − 6) = 2 / 3

By cross-multiplying,

⇒ 3 × (4x − 6) = 2 × (5x − 6)

⇒ 12x − 18 = 10x − 12

⇒ 12x − 10x = 18 − 12

⇒ 2x = 6

⇒ x = 3

Sweeta's present age = 4x

⇒ 4 × 3 = 12 years

∴ The correct answer is 12 years.

Additional Information

Equalising Ratio Differences

If the difference between numerator parts and denominator parts isn't equal, multiply the ratios by the difference of their own parts to balance them before equating to the given actual values.

Cross-Multiplication Method

When a ratio a : b changes to c : d by adding or subtracting x to both, the common variable value is found quickly by equating differences: |ad − bc| = x|c − d|.

Past and Future Ages

If present age is n, then t years ago age was (n − t) and t years hence age will be (n + t). The difference in ages of any two people always remains strictly constant over any period of time.

Question 27

Amit gets 6% increase in his sale amount in the first year and 20% in the second year, with that his present sale is ₹254400, what was his sale (in ₹) two years ago?

  1. AOption (a)

    240000

  2. BOption (b)

    180000

  3. COption (c)

    200000

  4. DOption (d)

    212000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

200000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

We can use the multiplying factor method for successive percentage changes.

First year multiplying factor = 100% + 6% = 1.06

Second year multiplying factor = 100% + 20% = 1.20

Initial Sale × 1.06 × 1.20 = 254400

Initial Sale = 254400 ÷ 1.272 = 200000

∴ The correct answer is ₹200000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sale increase in the 1st year (r1) = 6%

Sale increase in the 2nd year (r2) = 20%

Present sale = ₹254400

Formula Used:

Present Value = Past Value × (1 + r1/100) × (1 + r2/100)

Calculation:

Let the sale two years ago be x.

⇒ x × (1 + 6/100) × (1 + 20/100) = 254400

⇒ x × (106/100) × (120/100) = 254400

⇒ x × (53/50) × (6/5) = 254400

⇒ x × (318/250) = 254400

⇒ x = (254400 × 250) ÷ 318

⇒ x = 800 × 250

⇒ x = 200000

∴ The correct answer is ₹200000.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value undergoes successive percentage changes of a% and b%, the net percentage change is given by: Net Change = a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100.

Multiplying Factor Method

An increase of r% is equivalent to multiplying the base value by (1 + r/100). For successive increases, we multiply the base value sequentially by the respective factors to reach the final value quickly.

Reverse Percentage Calculation

To find an original value from a final value after multiple percentage changes, divide the final value by the overall multiplying factor instead of improperly subtracting percentages.

Question 28

Akshay places three identical rings of diameter 21 cm in such a manner that each one touches the other two rings. He observes that there is a space enclosed by the circles. What is the area (in cm2) of this portion? (Take π = 227\frac{22}{7})

Note — Rounded off to nearest 2 decimal places and √3 = 1.732

  1. AOption (a)

    20.65

  2. BOption (b)

    17.70

  3. COption (c)

    18.25

  4. DOption (d)

    24.12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

17.70

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Area enclosed by three equal circles touching each other = r2(√3 − π/2) where r = 21 ÷ 2 = 10.5 cm.

Enclosed Area = (10.5)2 × (1.732 − 11/7)

Enclosed Area = (110.25 × 1.732) − (110.25 × 11 ÷ 7)

Enclosed Area = 190.953 − 173.25 = 17.703 ≈ 17.70 cm2

∴ The correct answer is 17.70 cm2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Diameter of each ring = 21 cm

Radius (r) = 21 ÷ 2 = 10.5 cm

Concept Used:

When three identical circles touch each other externally, their centers form an equilateral triangle with side length equal to 2r.

Area of enclosed space = Area of Equilateral Triangle − Area of 3 Sectors enclosed inside the triangle

Calculations:

⇒ Side of the equilateral triangle (a) = r + r = 10.5 + 10.5 = 21 cm

⇒ Area of equilateral triangle = (√3 ÷ 4) × a2

⇒ Area of equilateral triangle = (1.732 ÷ 4) × 212

⇒ Area of equilateral triangle = 0.433 × 441 = 190.953 cm2

⇒ The equilateral triangle has three interior angles of 60°, so the three sectors combined form a semi-circle (180°).

⇒ Area of the 3 sectors = (1 ÷ 2) × π × r2

⇒ Area of the 3 sectors = (1 ÷ 2) × (22 ÷ 7) × (10.5)2

⇒ Area of the 3 sectors = 11 × 1.5 × 10.5 = 173.25 cm2

⇒ Area of enclosed space = 190.953 − 173.25 = 17.703 cm2

⇒ Rounding off to nearest 2 decimal places, we get 17.70 cm2.

∴ The correct answer is 17.70 cm2.

Additional Information

Area of Enclosed Space Between Three Circles

When three equal circles of radius r touch each other externally, the area of the enclosed space is mathematically given as r2(√3 − π/2).

Perimeter of the Enclosed Space

The boundary of the enclosed space is formed by three inward arcs of 60° each. Its total perimeter is equal to the circumference of a semi-circle, which is πr.

Radius of Inscribed Circle

The radius of the largest possible circle that can be inscribed exactly in the empty space between three touching identical circles is r((2 ÷ √3) − 1).

Question 29

In a circle with centre O, an arc ABC subtends an angle of 134° at the centre of the circle. The chord AB is produced to a point P. ∠CBP is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    45°

  2. BOption (b)

    67°

  3. COption (c)

    89°

  4. DOption (d)

    113°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

67°

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The angle subtended by an arc at the major arc is half of the angle subtended at the centre.

⇒ Interior opposite angle = 134° ÷ 2 = 67°.

For any cyclic quadrilateral, the exterior angle is directly equal to the interior opposite angle.

⇒ ∠CBP = Interior opposite angle = 67°.

∴ The correct answer is 67°.

Alternate Method

Given:

∠AOC = 134° (Angle subtended by arc ABC at the centre)

AB is produced to P

Formula Used:

Angle subtended at circumference = Angle at centre ÷ 2

Sum of opposite angles in a cyclic quadrilateral = 180°

Angles on a straight line add up to 180°

134°

67°

113°

67°

O A B C D P

Calculations:

⇒ Let D be a point on the major arc AC. Points A, B, C, and D form a cyclic quadrilateral.

⇒ The angle subtended by arc AC at the centre is ∠AOC = 134°.

⇒ The angle subtended by the same arc at the major arc is ∠ADC.

⇒ ∠ADC = ∠AOC ÷ 2

⇒ ∠ADC = 134° ÷ 2 = 67°

⇒ Since ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, the sum of its opposite angles is 180°.

⇒ ∠ABC + ∠ADC = 180°

⇒ ∠ABC + 67° = 180°

⇒ ∠ABC = 180° − 67° = 113°

⇒ Line segment ABP is a straight line, so angles ∠ABC and ∠CBP form a linear pair.

⇒ ∠ABC + ∠CBP = 180°

⇒ 113° + ∠CBP = 180°

⇒ ∠CBP = 180° − 113° = 67°

∴ The correct answer is 67°.

Additional Information

Angle at Centre Theorem

The angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angle subtended by it at any remaining part of the circle.

Cyclic Quadrilateral

A quadrilateral whose all four vertices lie on a circle is called a cyclic quadrilateral. The sum of either pair of opposite angles is exactly 180°.

Exterior Angle Property

If one side of a cyclic quadrilateral is produced, the exterior angle so formed is equal to the interior opposite angle. In this question directly, ∠CBP = ∠ADC = 67°.

Question 30

The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular park is 3 : 2, and the perimeter of the park is 120 m. Find the area (in m2) of the park.

  1. AOption (a)

    968

  2. BOption (b)

    454

  3. COption (c)

    144

  4. DOption (d)

    864

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

864

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Sum of length and breadth = Perimeter ÷ 2 = 120 ÷ 2 = 60 m.

Value of 1 ratio part = 60 ÷ (3 + 2) = 60 ÷ 5 = 12.

Length = 3 × 12 = 36 m, Breadth = 2 × 12 = 24 m.

Area = 36 × 24 = 864 m2.

∴ The correct answer is 864 m2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of length (L) and breadth (B) = 3 : 2

Perimeter of the park = 120 m

Formula Used:

Perimeter of a rectangle = 2 × (L + B)

Area of a rectangle = L × B

Length (L) = 3x Breadth (B) = 2x Area = L × B Perimeter = 2(L + B) = 120 m

Calculation:

Let the length and breadth of the rectangular park be 3x and 2x respectively.

⇒ 2 × (3x + 2x) = 120

⇒ 2 × 5x = 120

⇒ 10x = 120

⇒ x = 12

⇒ Length = 3x = 3 × 12 = 36 m

⇒ Breadth = 2x = 2 × 12 = 24 m

⇒ Area = 36 × 24 = 864 m2

∴ The correct answer is 864 m2.

Additional Information

Properties of a Rectangle

Opposite sides are equal and parallel. Every interior angle is 90°. Length of diagonal = √(L2 + B2).

Square

A special type of rectangle where all four sides are equal. Perimeter = 4a. Area = a2, where 'a' is the side length.

Parallelogram

A quadrilateral with opposite sides parallel. Area = Base × Height. Perimeter = 2(a + b), where 'a' and 'b' are adjacent sides.

Question 31

Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: All symbol moving clockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 32

A question is followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and select the appropriate option.

Question:

Shourya delivered parcels to five locations A, B, C, D and E while prioritising delivery of heavier parcels first. Which location was delivered in the end?

Statements:

(I) The parcel for location C was heavier than all other parcels.

(II) The parcel for location D was lighter than the parcels assigned to locations B and A.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in statements (I) and (II) together are sufficient to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    Data in statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question, whereas data in statement (I) alone is not.

  3. COption (c)

    Data in statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question, whereas data in statement (II) alone is not.

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Data in statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Question: Shourya delivered parcels to five locations A, B, C, D and E while prioritising delivery of heavier parcels first. Which location was delivered in the end?

Statements:

(I) The parcel for location C was heavier than all other parcels.

Statement (I) tells us that C was the heaviest, meaning it was delivered first. However, it provides no information about the relative weights of A, B, D, and E. 

Therefore, we cannot determine which location was delivered last.

(II) The parcel for location D was lighter than the parcels assigned to locations B and A.

Statement (II) tells us that D was lighter than B and A. But it doesn't give us any information about the weights of C and E, or the relative weights of B and A.

Therefore, we cannot determine which location was delivered last.

Analysis of Statements (I) and (II) together:

Even when we combine the information from both statements, we still cannot determine which location was delivered last. We know C was delivered first, and D was lighter than B and A, but we don't know the relative weights of B, A, and E, or how they compare to D.

Thus, the data provided in both statements (I) and (II) are not sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 33

Read the following information and answer the question which follows.

“Like seasoned gardeners, Gardener G practices crop rotation to maintain soil fertility, leading to thriving and diverse plant growth."

Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement? (An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be derived from the given facts/information in the statement)

  1. The thriving and diverse plant growth in Gardener G's garden is likely influenced by the practice of crop rotation.
  2. Gardener G is consulted by other gardeners in the area for best gardening practices.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only (I) can be inferred.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (I) and (II) can be inferred.

  3. COption (c)

    Only (II) can be inferred.

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither (I) nor (II) can be inferred.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only (I) can be inferred.

Why this answer is correct

Given: "Like seasoned gardeners, Gardener G practices crop rotation to maintain soil fertility, leading to thriving and diverse plant growth."

Inferences:

  1. The thriving and diverse plant growth in Gardener G's garden is likely influenced by the practice of crop rotation.

The statement explicitly links Gardener G's crop rotation practice to "thriving and diverse plant growth." The phrase "leading to" indicates a causal relationship. Therefore, it is logical to infer that the crop rotation is a likely influence on the healthy plants. This inference directly aligns with the information provided.

  1. Gardener G is consulted by other gardeners in the area for best gardening practices.

The statement mentions "seasoned gardeners" and that Gardener G is "like" them. This implies experience and skill. However, it does not explicitly state or imply that other gardeners seek Gardener G's advice. While possible, it is not a direct or necessary inference from the given statement.

Inference 1 is directly supported by the statement's causal link between crop rotation and plant growth. Inference 2 is a potential interpretation but is not explicitly derived from the statement.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1."

Question 34

Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. AOption (a)

    286 - 11

  2. BOption (b)

    104 - 4

  3. COption (c)

    494 - 19

  4. DOption (d)

    521 - 20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

521 - 20

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) 286 / 11 = 26 (Whole number)

Option 2) 104 / 4 = 26 (Whole number)

Option 3) 494 / 19 = 26 (Whole number)

Option 4)  521 / 20 = 26.05 (Not a whole number)

Thus, the pair 521 - 20 does not follow the same pattern as the other pairs.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 35

In a certain code language, ‘CURB’ is coded as ‘3517’ and ‘BOAT’ is coded as ‘4638’. What is the code for ‘B’ in the given code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3

Why this answer is correct

The given code language is:

Thus, code for 'B' is 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 36

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The figure which complete the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 37

Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The correct option for embedded is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 38

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

98 ÷ 7 + 288 × 2 − 144 × 3 − 152 ÷ 2 + 120 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    774

  2. BOption (b)

    671

  3. COption (c)

    432

  4. DOption (d)

    743

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

774

Why this answer is correct

Given:

98 ÷ 7 + 288 × 2 − 144 × 3 − 152 ÷ 2 + 120 = ?

Conditions:

  1. '+' and '-' are interchanged.
  2. '×' and '÷' are interchanged.

Step 1: Replace the operators according to the given conditions.

The equation becomes: 98 × 7 − 288 ÷ 2 + 144 ÷ 3 + 152 × 2 − 120 = ?

Applying BODMAS rule.

→ 98 × 7 − 288 ÷ 2 + 144 ÷ 3 + 152 × 2 − 120

→ 98 × 7 − 144 + 48 + 152 × 2 − 120

→ 686 − 144 + 48 + 304 − 120

→ 542 + 48 + 304 − 120

→ 894 - 120 = 774

Therefore, 774 is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 39

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

98, 50, 26, 14, ?, 5

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

8

Why this answer is correct

Given: 98, 50, 26, 14, ?, 5

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Dividing the previous number by 2 and adding 1.

Step 1: 98 ÷  2 + 1 = 49 + 1 = 50

Step 2: 50 ÷ 2 + 1 = 25 + 1 = 26

Step 3: 26 ÷ 2 + 1 = 13 + 1 = 14

Step 4: 14 ÷ 2 + 1 = 7 + 1 = 8

Step 5: 8 ÷ 2 + 1 = 4 + 1 = 5

Therefore, the missing number is 8.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4"..

Question 40

How many six-lettered meaningful words can be formed using all these letters but each letter only once in the word. 

R F I

G E D

  1. AOption (a)

    One

  2. BOption (b)

    Four

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    Two

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

One

Why this answer is correct

Given Letters : R, F, I, G, E, D

Only one meaningful six-letter word can be formed using the letters R, F, I, G, E, D.

Here, the only meaningful six-letter word is "FRIDGE".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"..

Question 41

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Set goals 2. Budget 3. Review 4. Invest 5. Assess
  1. AOption (a)

    1, 5, 2, 4, 3

  2. BOption (b)

    5, 2, 4, 3, 1

  3. COption (c)

    3, 5, 1, 2, 4

  4. DOption (d)

    5, 1, 2, 3, 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1, 5, 2, 4, 3

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

  1. Set goals -This is the initial step where you identify and define your financial objectives.
  2. Assess -Evaluate your current financial situation to understand where you stand in relation to your goals.
  3. Budget - Create a budget to plan your income and expenses, ensuring that you allocate resources towards achieving your goals.
  4. Invest - Invest your money according to your budget and goals to grow your wealth.
  5. Review -Periodically review your financial plan to track progress and make necessary adjustments.

So, the order would be: '1, 5, 2, 4, 3'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 42

A question is given, followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: Five houses of five different colours (blue, green, yellow, red and violet), with equal space between every two adjacent houses, are constructed in a row facing north. Which coloured house is exactly in the middle of the row?

Statements:

(I) Green and yellow coloured houses are constructed at the extreme ends of the row.

(II) Violet and blue coloured houses are immediate neighbouring houses of green and yellow coloured houses, respectively.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in Statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question

  2. BOption (b)

    Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement II is not

  3. COption (c)

    Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement I is not

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in Statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Data in Statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

Question: Five houses of five different colours (blue, green, yellow, red and violet), with equal space between every two adjacent houses, are constructed in a row facing north. Which coloured house is exactly in the middle of the row?

Statements:

(I) Green and yellow coloured houses are constructed at the extreme ends of the row.

Statement I tells us that green and yellow are at the extreme ends. However, it doesn't give us the positions of the other colors (red, violet, and blue).

Therefore, we cannot determine which color is in the middle.

(II) Violet and blue coloured houses are immediate neighbouring houses of green and yellow coloured houses, respectively.

Statement II tells us that violet is next to green and blue is next to yellow. But it doesn't tell us the exact order or which end they are on.

Therefore, we cannot determine the middle house.

Combining both statements, we can deduce the arrangement of the houses:

From statement I, we know either Green -  _  -  _  -  _  -  Yellow

or Yellow  -  _  -  _  -  _  -  Green.

From statement II, we know that Violet is next to Green and Blue is next to Yellow. So the arrangement must be:

Green - Violet -  _  - Blue - Yellow

or Yellow - Blue -  _  - Violet - Green.

Since we have all 5 colors, the remaining color, Red, has to be in the middle.

Thus, Data in Statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 43

In a certain code language,

P + Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’,

P – Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’,

P x Q means ‘P is the wife of Q’ and

P ÷ Q means ‘P is the father of Q’.

Based on the above, how is U related to Z if ‘U – V + W ÷ Y x Z’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wife's Father's Mother's Brother

  2. BOption (b)

    Wife's Mother's Mother's Brother

  3. COption (c)

    Wife's Mother's Mother's Father

  4. DOption (d)

    Wife's Father's Mother's Father

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Wife's Father's Mother's Brother

Why this answer is correct

P is
Symbol+-×÷
MeaningMotherBrotherWifeFather
to Q

 

Given: U – V + W ÷ Y x Z’

U – V means U is brother of V

V + W means V is mother of W

W ÷ Y means W is father of Y

Y x Z means Y is wife of Z

Thus, 'U' is Wife's Father's Mother's Brother of 'Z'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 44

Given below is a statement (Cause) followed by possible effects numbered I, II and III. Read the ‘Cause’ carefully and decide which of the three can be possible effect/s.

Cause – Heavy rains yesterday in City X have caused flooding in many areas including the railway station and airport.

Effect I – Railways has announced a delay in the departure of three trains scheduled to start from City X this morning.

Effect II – A number of flights were unable to land in the airport of City X last evening.

Effect III – Finance ministry has extended the date for filing tax returns by a month.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II is a possible effect.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both II and III are possible effects.

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II are possible effects

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I is a possible effect.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both I and II are possible effects

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Cause: Heavy rains yesterday in City X have caused flooding in many areas including the railway station and airport.

Effects:

I. Railways has announced a delay in the departure of three trains scheduled to start from City X this morning.

The cause states that the railway station was flooded. Flooding can disrupt railway operations, leading to delays. Therefore, it is logical to assume that the railway delay is a direct effect of the heavy rains and flooding. Effect I is a possible consequence of the given cause.

II. A number of flights were unable to land in the airport of City X last evening.

The cause also states that the airport was flooded. Flooding can make it dangerous or impossible for planes to land. Therefore, it is logical to assume that flights being unable to land is a direct effect of the heavy rains and flooding. Effect II is also a possible consequence of the given cause.

III. Finance ministry has extended the date for filing tax returns by a month.

The cause is related to weather and transportation disruptions. Extending the date for filing tax returns is a financial decision made by the Finance Ministry. There is no direct or logical link between heavy rains causing flooding and the Finance Ministry extending tax return deadlines. Effect III is not a probable consequence of the given cause.

Effects I and II are direct and logical consequences of the flooding caused by heavy rains. Effect III is unrelated to the given cause.

Hence, the answer correct is "Option 3".

Question 45

Paras ranked 5th from the top and 24th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in his class?

  1. AOption (a)

    27

  2. BOption (b)

    26

  3. COption (c)

    29

  4. DOption (d)

    28

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

28

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Position of Paras from the top = 5th

Position of Paras from the bottom = 24th

So,

Total number of students = Position of Paras from the top + Position of Paras from the bottom - 1

= 5 + 24 - 1

= 29 - 1 = 28.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 46

Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?

: ORW :: RUZ : %

  1. AOption (a)

    = UYD % = KNS

  2. BOption (b)

    = VYD % = LNS

  3. COption (c)

    = VYD % = KNS

  4. DOption (d)

    = VYD % = KNK

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

= VYD % = KNS

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

: ORW :: RUZ : %

Option 1) # = UYD % = KNS

Here, not follow same logic.

Option 2) # = VYD % = LNS

Here, not follow same logic.

Option 3) # = VYD % = KNS

Here, follow the same logic.

Option 4) # = VYD % = KNK

 

Here, not follow same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 47

In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’,

A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,

A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and

A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above, how is U related to Z if ‘U – V x W ÷ Y + Z’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mother's father's father

  2. BOption (b)

    Mother's father's brother

  3. COption (c)

    Mother's mother's brother

  4. DOption (d)

    Mother's mother's father

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mother's mother's brother

Why this answer is correct

A is
Symbol+-×÷
MeaningMotherBrotherWifeFather
to B

 

Given: U – V x W ÷ Y + Z

U – V means U is brother of V

V x W means V is wife of W

W ÷ Y means W is father of Y

Y + Z means Y is mother of Z

Thus, U is Mother's mother's brother of Z.

Hence, correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 48

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 49

Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G, scored different marks (out of 100) in an exam. G scored the lowest marks. B scored second highest marks, which were 80. A scored 72. E scored more than F but less than C. Marks scored by C were a multiple of 11 and less than 70. The sum of marks scored by C and F was 120. What is the score of F?

  1. AOption (a)

    56

  2. BOption (b)

    50

  3. COption (c)

    54

  4. DOption (d)

    55

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

54

Why this answer is correct

Given: Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G scored different marks (out of 100) in an exam.

G scored the lowest marks. B scored second highest marks, which were 80. A scored 72.

So the order, so far, is _ > 80 (B) > 72 (A) > _ > _ >  _ > G.

E scored more than F but less than C. Marks scored by C were a multiple of 11 and less than 70.

The sum of marks scored by C and F was 120. C scored a multiple of 11 and less than 70. The multiples of 11 less than 70 are 11, 22, 33, 44, 55, and 66.

E scored less than C, and the sum of C and F is 120.

Let's test the possible values of C. If C = 66, then F = 120 - 66 = 54. This satisfies the condition that E is between F and C.

C scored 66 and F scored 54.

The current order is  _ > 80 (B) > 72 (A) > 66 (C) > E > 54 (F) > G.

D is the only remaining person.

So the final order is  D > 80 (B) > 72 (A) > 66 (C) > E > 54 (F) > G.

Here, F scored 54.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 50

Each of the digits in the number 3571869 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that/those in the original number?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two

  2. BOption (b)

    One

  3. COption (c)

    None

  4. DOption (d)

    Three

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

One

Why this answer is correct

Given: 3571869

Arrange in ascending order: 1 3 5 6 7 8 9

The digits that remain unchanged in their positions are:

Original : 3 5 7 1 8 6 9

Ascending order: 1 3 5 6 7 8 9

Thus, the positions of one digits remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 51

Three of the following four pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the pair that does not belong to that group?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹¥£−Currency£ - Currency

  2. BOption (b)

    ABCD - Letters

  3. COption (c)

    ×+−÷ - Text

  4. DOption (d)

    1234 - Numbers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

×+−÷ - Text

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

₹¥$£  - Currency symbols

ABCD  - Alphabetical letters

× + − ÷  - Mathematical operators not Text.

1234  - Numerical digits

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".$

Question 52

Figure A is related to B in a certain pattern. Following the same pattern, figure C is related to D. Study the pattern and select the figure which should be placed in place of D.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: 1. New element added in middle upper side figure.

2. Same symbol is increase by one in middle left and middle right.  

3. Same symbol is increase by one in bottom left corner and shifted to bottom right corner.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 53

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All dolls are robots.

Some robots are toys.

Some toys are cycles.

Conclusions:

(I) Some toys are dolls.

(II) No cycle is a robot.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion (II) is true.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion (I) is true.

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusions (I) and (II) are true.

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is true.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

(I) Some toys are dolls → False ( there is no direct relation between toys and dolls. so, it can be a possibility)

(II) No cycle is a robot → False ( there is no direct relation between cycle and robot. so, it can be a possibility)

Thus, Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 54

In this question, a statement is followed by two courses of action, numbered I and II. You must assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the course of action/s logically follows for pursuing.

Statement: Many people have complained to the Finance Ministry regarding a delay in receiving refunds of their Income Tax returns.

Courses of action:

The Finance Ministry must institute an enquiry into the complaints received regarding delay in income tax refunds.

The Finance Ministry must compensate the income tax payees by paying interest on their refunds for the duration of the delay.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither I nor II follows.

  2. BOption (b)

     Only I follows. 

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II follow.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

 Only I follows. 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Statement: Many people have complained to the Finance Ministry regarding a delay in receiving refunds of their Income Tax returns.

Course of Action I:

The Finance Ministry must institute an enquiry into the complaints.

Follows logically.

An enquiry is a reasonable first step to investigate the issue.

Course of Action II:

The Finance Ministry must compensate taxpayers by paying interest.

Does not necessarily follow.

Compensation can only be decided after confirming the cause and responsibility for the delay.

Thus, only Course of Action I logically follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 55

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 56

17 is related to 159 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 11 is related to 105. To which of the following is 13 related, following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. AOption (a)

    116

  2. BOption (b)

    103

  3. COption (c)

    123

  4. DOption (d)

    109

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

123

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number × 9 + 6 = 2nd number.

17 is related to 159

→ 17 × 9 + 6

→ 153 + 6

→ 159. ( 2nd number)

And

11 is related to 105

→ 11 × 9 + 6

→ 99 + 6

→ 105. ( 2nd number)

Similarly,

13 is related to 

→ 13 × 9 + 6

→ 117 + 6

→ 123. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 57

Four of the following five figures are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group?

  1. AOption (a)

    D

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    A

  4. DOption (d)

    E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

E

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Option A) 

1 element is repeat one.

2nd element is repeat thrice.

Option B)

1 element is repeat one.

2nd element is repeat thrice.

Option C)

1 element is repeat one.

2nd element is repeat thrice.

Option D)

1 element is repeat one.

2nd element is repeat thrice.

Option E)

1 element is repeat twice.

2nd element is repeat twice.

Not follow the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 58

In a certain code language, ‘he enjoys music’ is coded as ‘lo po jo’ and ‘music and dance’ is coded as ‘kb jo fk’. How is ‘music’ coded in the given language?

  1. AOption (a)

    jo

  2. BOption (b)

    po

  3. COption (c)

    lo

  4. DOption (d)

    fk

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

jo

Why this answer is correct

The code language is:

Thus, code for music is 'jo'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 59

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Plant 2. Pollination 3. Seed 4. Seedling 5. Fruit
  1. AOption (a)

    3, 4, 1, 2, 5

  2. BOption (b)

    3, 4, 1, 5, 2

  3. COption (c)

    4, 1, 2, 5, 3

  4. DOption (d)

    4, 3, 1, 2, 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3, 4, 1, 2, 5

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

  1. Seed 
  2. Seedling  
  3. Plant  
  4. Pollination 
  5. Fruit 

So, the order would be: 3, 4, 1, 2, 5

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 60

M, N, O, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). O is an immediate neighbour of Y. Z sits second to the right of O. X is the immediate neighbour of both M and N. Mis not an immediate neighbour of O. Who sits to the immediate left of Y?

  1. AOption (a)

    X

  2. BOption (b)

    O

  3. COption (c)

    N

  4. DOption (d)

    M

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

O

Why this answer is correct

Given: M, N, O, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

  1. O is an immediate neighbour of Y.

  2. Z sits second to the right of O.

  3. X is the immediate neighbour of both M and N.

  4. M is not an immediate neighbour of O.

Thus, 'O' is sitting to the immediate left of Y.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Section II (70 questions)

Question 61

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

He said, "I shall need a copy of the documents."

  1. AOption (a)

    He said that he will need a copy of the documents.

  2. BOption (b)

    He said that he shall need a copy of the document.

  3. COption (c)

    He said that he is going to need a copy of the document

  4. DOption (d)

    He said that he would need a copy of the documents

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

He said that he would need a copy of the documents

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option (4).

 

Key Points

  • Indirect Speech: He said that he would need a copy of the documents.
  • Direct to Indirect Speech:
  • Pronoun Change:
  • "I" is changed to "he" to match the subject of the reporting verb.
  • Phrasing:
  • "shall" changed to "would" according to the subject.
  • Sentence Structure:
  • The phrase "a copy of the documents" remains unchanged as it is the object of the need.
  • Punctuation and Format:
  • No quotation marks are used in indirect speech.
  • The reporting clause "He said..." starts the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (4).

 

Correct Sentence: "He said he would need a copy of the documents."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "He said that he would need a copy of the documents."
  • Changes "shall" to "would," which may not accurately convey the original future intent in some contexts.
  • Option 2: "He asked if I would need a copy of the documents."
  • Changes the statement to a question, which is incorrect in this context.
  • Option 3: "He mentioned that he needed a copy of the documents."
  • Changes the future tense "shall" to the past tense "needed," which inaccurately alters the original meaning.

Question 62

Sentences of a paragraph are given below. While the first and the last sentences (1 and 6) are in the correct order, the sentences in between are jumbled up. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

  1. There are some backward areas in Andhra Pradesh.

A. Rayalaseema is one of them.

B. Massive degradation of natural resources and extensive changes in land use have resulted in poor crop productivity in Rayalaseema.

C. The National Soil Survey and Land use planning organisation is doing its job by giving suggestions to the farmers of Rayalaseema.

D. Soil Organic Carbon (SOC), which is crucial for maintaining soil quality, has decreased by 84% in the region. Poor soil fertility and soil degradation, like in Rayalaseema region, are the major causes of food shortage.

  1. The advice is about which crops are to be cultivated and which not.
  1. AOption (a)

    CBAD

  2. BOption (b)

    DCBA

  3. COption (c)

    CDBA

  4. DOption (d)

    ABDC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ABDC

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The paragraph starts by mentioning backward areas in Andhra Pradesh.
  • Sentence A follows since it identifies one of such backward areas:
  • "Rayalaseema is one of them."
  • Sentence B is next because it explains the result of degradation in Rayalaseema:
  • "Massive degradation of natural resources and extensive changes in land use have resulted in poor crop productivity in Rayalaseema."
  • Sentence D follows as it elaborates on the technical details of soil degradation:
  • "Soil Organic Carbon (SOC), which is crucial for maintaining soil quality, has decreased by 84% in the region. Poor soil fertility and soil degradation, like in Rayalaseema region, are the major causes of food shortage."
  • Sentence C is the last before the concluding sentence as it introduces the efforts of the National Soil Survey and Land use planning organisation:
  • "The National Soil Survey and Land use planning organisation is doing its job by giving suggestions to the farmers of Rayalaseema."
  • The concluding sentence (6) ties back to the suggestions provided.
  • The correct sequence is ABDC.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"There are some backward areas in Andhra Pradesh. Rayalaseema is one of them. Massive degradation of natural resources and extensive changes in land use have resulted in poor crop productivity in Rayalaseema. Soil Organic Carbon (SOC), which is crucial for maintaining soil quality, has decreased by 84% in the region. Poor soil fertility and soil degradation, like in Rayalaseema region, are the major causes of food shortage. The National Soil Survey and Land use planning organisation is doing its job by giving suggestions to the farmers of Rayalaseema. The advice is about which crops are to be cultivated and which not."

Question 63

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

The nation has chosen the government by the people over monarchy.

  1. AOption (a)

    democracy

  2. BOption (b)

    oligarchy

  3. COption (c)

    theocracy

  4. DOption (d)

    autocracy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

democracy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. democracy.

Key Points

  • The word "democracy" means a system of government by the whole population, typically through elected representatives. (लोकतंत्र)
  • Example: India is the world's largest democracy, where citizens elect their leaders through voting.
  • "Government by the people" refers to a form of government in which the people have the authority to deliberate and decide legislation (direct democracy) or to choose governing officials to do so (representative democracy). (जनता द्वारा सरकार)
  • Example: The United States is a government by the people, where citizens have the power to elect their leaders.
  • Hence, we can infer that "government by the people" is best replaced by "democracy".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. democracy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Oligarchy (गुटतंत्र): A small group of people having control of a country, organization, or institution.
  • Example: The country was run by an oligarchy of wealthy families.
  • Theocracy (धर्मतंत्र): A system of government in which priests rule in the name of God or a god.
  • Example: Iran is an example of a theocracy where religious leaders have significant influence over the government.
  • Autocracy (स्वेच्छाचारिता): A system of government by one person with absolute power.
  • Example: North Korea is often cited as an example of an autocracy due to the centralization of power in one leader.

Question 64

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Thrifty

  1. AOption (a)

    Extravagant

  2. BOption (b)

    Thankful

  3. COption (c)

    Intolerant

  4. DOption (d)

    Indifferent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Extravagant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The word "Thrifty" means using money and other resources carefully and not wastefully. (मितव्ययी)
  • Example: Being thrifty, she always looks for the best deals and discounts.
  • "Extravagant" refers to spending much more than is necessary or wise, often in a wasteful manner. (अपव्ययी)
  • Example: His extravagant lifestyle quickly depleted his savings.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'thrifty' is 'extravagant'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Thankful (आभारी): Feeling or expressing gratitude.
  • Example: She was thankful for all the support she received from her friends.
  • Intolerant (असहिष्णु): Not willing to accept views, beliefs, or behaviors that differ from one's own.
  • Example: He was intolerant of any criticism towards him.
  • Indifferent (उदासीन): Having no particular interest or sympathy; unconcerned.
  • Example: She was indifferent to the outcome of the election.

Question 65

Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

A lot of people are still ______ over the GDP issue.

  1. AOption (a)

    over the fence

  2. BOption (b)

    sitting on the fence

  3. COption (c)

    by the fence

  4. DOption (d)

    breaking a leg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

sitting on the fence

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The word "sitting on the fence" means to be undecided or not to take sides in a dispute. (निर्णय न कर पाना या किसी पक्ष में न जाना)
  • Example: Many voters are still sitting on the fence, unable to decide who to vote for.
  • "over the fence" refers to something that is beyond a boundary or limit, but it is not an idiom used for indecision. (सीमा के पार)
  • Example: The ball went over the fence into the neighbor's yard.
  • "by the fence" means near the fence, and is not an idiom related to indecision. (बाड़ के पास)
  • Example: She stood by the fence watching the sunset.
  • "breaking a leg" is an idiom used to wish someone good luck, especially before a performance. (शुभकामनाएँ देना)
  • Example: Break a leg! I know you'll do great in your play tonight.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: over the fence (सीमा के पार): This phrase refers to something beyond a boundary, but it does not relate to indecision.
  • Example: The ball went over the fence into the neighbor's yard.
  • Option 3: by the fence (बाड़ के पास): This phrase means near the fence, and is not related to indecision.
  • Example: She stood by the fence watching the sunset.
  • Option 4: breaking a leg (शुभकामनाएँ देना): This idiom is used to wish someone good luck, typically before a performance.
  • Example: Break a leg! I know you'll do great in your play tonight.

Question 66

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Prescription safety glasses provide the _____________ tailored protection for individuals with vision correction needs.

  1. AOption (a)

    finer

  2. BOption (b)

    more finely

  3. COption (c)

    finest

  4. DOption (d)

    fine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

finest

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'finest'.

Key Points

  • The superlative form "finest" is used to denote the highest degree of quality among all potential options.
  • In this context, "finest" appropriately describes the highest level of tailored protection provided by prescription safety glasses for individuals with vision correction needs.
  • Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect as they do not convey the intended superlative degree that "finest" does.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "Prescription safety glasses provide the finest tailored protection for individuals with vision correction needs."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "finer" is incorrect because "finer" is a comparative form used when comparing two items, while the context here implies the highest degree, requiring the superlative form.
  • Option 2: "more finely" is incorrect because "more finely" is an adverbial phrase that does not fit the grammatical structure or context of the sentence.
  • Option 4: "fine" is incorrect because "fine" is a positive degree adjective and does not convey the superlative degree needed in this context.

Question 67

Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

Good characteristics are indispensible to succeed in life

  1. AOption (a)

    Indespensable

  2. BOption (b)

    Indespensible

  3. COption (c)

    Indispenscibe

  4. DOption (d)

    Indispensable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Indispensable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

  • The word "Indispensable" means something that is absolutely necessary or essential. (अनिवार्य)
  • Example: Good health is indispensable for a happy life.
  • The word "Indispensible" is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "Indispensable". (अनिवार्य)
  • Example: Good leadership is indispensable for the success of any organization.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Indespensable (अनिवार्य): This is an incorrect spelling of "Indispensable".
  • Example: N/A
  • Indespensible (अनिवार्य): This is an incorrect spelling of "Indispensable".
  • Example: N/A
  • Indispenscibe (अनिवार्य): This is an incorrect spelling of "Indispensable".
  • Example: N/A

Question 68

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Someone who loves and admires himself the most

  1. AOption (a)

    Recluse

  2. BOption (b)

    Narcissist 

  3. COption (c)

    Altruist

  4. DOption (d)

    Omniscient

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Narcissist 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The word "Narcissist" means someone who has an excessive interest in or admiration of themselves. (आत्ममुग्ध व्यक्ति)
  • Example: John is such a narcissist; he spends hours looking at himself in the mirror.
  • "Narcissist" refers to a person who loves and admires themselves the most, often to the point of ignoring others. (आत्ममुग्ध व्यक्ति)
  • Example: Her narcissistic behavior made it difficult for her to form genuine friendships.
  • Hence, we can infer that the one-word substitute for "Someone who loves and admires himself the most" is 'Narcissist'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Recluse (एकांतवासी): A person who lives a solitary life and tends to avoid other people.
  • Example: The old man lived as a recluse in a small cabin in the woods.
  • Altruist (परोपकारी): A person who has an unselfish concern for the welfare of others.
  • Example: She is known as an altruist because of her endless charitable work.
  • Omniscient (सर्वज्ञ): Knowing everything.
  • Example: The novel is narrated by an omniscient narrator who knows everything about the characters' thoughts and feelings.

Question 69

A sentence has been split up into segments and given below in jumbled order. While the first and the last segments of the sentence (1 and 6) are in the correct order, the segments in between are jumbled up. Arrange the segments in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent sentence.

  1. An outstanding feature of the 21st century has been

P) greater security and education which

Q) the improvement of the income and

R) living conditions of the

S) working man leading to

  1. has meant greater political power
  1. AOption (a)

    Q, R, S, P

  2. BOption (b)

    S, P, Q, R

  3. COption (c)

    S, R, Q, P

  4. DOption (d)

    P, R, Q, S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Q, R, S, P

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence begins with stating an outstanding feature of the 21st century.
  • Segment Q follows as it starts explaining the improvement:
  • "the improvement of the income and"
  • Segment R is next as it continues the thought:
  • "living conditions of the"
  • Segment S follows as it connects the working man's living conditions with a result:
  • "working man leading to"
  • Segment P is last before the concluding segment as it explains the result:
  • "greater security and education which"
  • The concluding segment (6) ties back to what the greater security and education have meant.
  • The correct sequence is Q, R, S, P.

 

Coherent sentence after rearrangement:

"An outstanding feature of the 21st century has been the improvement of the income and living conditions of the working man leading to greater security and education which has meant greater political power."

Question 70

Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

Through the dense forest, / the hikers / trekked / for hours / before reaching / the mountain peak.

  1. AOption (a)

    Through the dense forest for hours trekked the hikers before reaching the mountain peak.

  2. BOption (b)

    The hikers trekked for hours through the dense forest before reaching the mountain peak.

  3. COption (c)

    Before reaching the mountain peak, the hikers through the dense forest trekked for hours.

  4. DOption (d)

    The hikers for hours through the dense forest trekked before reaching the mountain peak.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The hikers trekked for hours through the dense forest before reaching the mountain peak.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. The hikers trekked for hours through the dense forest before reaching the mountain peak. 

Key Points

  • This sentence describes a sequence of actions that the hikers undertook.
  • The order of the clauses logically follows the chronology of the actions.
  • The subject of the sentence "the hikers" should be followed by the main verb "trekked".
  • The phrase "for hours" indicates the duration of the action and follows directly after the verb 'trekked'.
  • The prepositional phrase "through the dense forest" shows where the action took place and modifies the verb.
  • Finally, the infinitive phrase "before reaching the mountain peak" shows the concluding action after the hike.

Additional Information

  • The placement of adverbial phrases (like "for hours" and "through the dense forest") is important for clarity and flow.
  • The structure used in the correct sentence typically follows the pattern: Subject + Main Verb + Additional information describing the action (such as adverbials of time, place, or manner).
  • In English, the placement of time-related information generally comes after the verb or at the end of the sentence.
  • Understanding the role and typical placement of these sentence components can help construct clear, coherent sentences.

Question 71

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Someone who walks on foot

  1. AOption (a)

    Pedestrian

  2. BOption (b)

    Auditor

  3. COption (c)

    Decanter

  4. DOption (d)

    Stalker

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Pedestrian

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The word "Pedestrian" means someone who walks on foot. (पैदल यात्री)
  • Example: The pedestrian crossed the street at the crosswalk.
  • "Pedestrian" refers to someone who travels by walking, usually on roads or pavements. (पैदल यात्री)
  • Example: Pedestrians should always use the sidewalk for safety.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Auditor (लेखापरीक्षक): A person who conducts an audit.
  • Example: The auditor found several discrepancies in the financial report.
  • Decanter (शराब की बोतल): A vessel used to hold the decantation of a liquid.
  • Example: The waiter poured the wine from the decanter into the glasses.
  • Stalker (पीछा करने वाला): A person who harasses or persecutes someone with unwanted and obsessive attention.
  • Example: The celebrity had to get a restraining order against the stalker.

Question 72

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word

  1. AOption (a)

    Apparent

  2. BOption (b)

    Practitionaire

  3. COption (c)

    Recommend

  4. DOption (d)

    Memento

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Practitionaire

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The word "Practitionaire" is not correctly spelled in English. The correct spelling is "Practitioner" which means someone who is actively engaged in an art, discipline, or profession, especially medicine. (व्यवसायिक)
  • Example: She is a well-respected practitioner in the field of cardiology.
  • "Practitioner" is the correct word and it means someone who practices a learned profession, such as in law or medicine. (व्यवसायिक)
  • Example: The practitioner attended to the patient with utmost care and professionalism.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Apparent (स्पष्ट): Clearly visible or understood; obvious.
  • Example: Her disappointment was apparent to everyone in the room.
  • Recommend (सिफारिश करना): To suggest that someone or something would be good or suitable for a particular job or purpose.
  • Example: I highly recommend this book for its insightful content.
  • Memento (स्मृति चिन्ह): An object kept as a reminder or souvenir of a person or event.
  • Example: She kept the ticket stub as a memento of their first concert together.

Question 73

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The blueberries in the basket are blue.

The denotation of the word ‘blue’ is ___________.

  1. AOption (a)

    gloominess

  2. BOption (b)

    sadness

  3. COption (c)

    a colour

  4. DOption (d)

    negativity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a colour

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'a colour'.

 

Key Points

  • The denotation of a word is its direct, explicit meaning or definition, which is objective and not influenced by feelings or experiences.
  • In this context, the word "blue" is used to describe the colour of the blueberries in the basket.
  • Options 1, 2, and 4 refer to connotations of the word "blue", which are the emotional or cultural associations with the word, but they do not represent its denotation.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "The denotation of the word 'blue' is a colour."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "gloominess" is incorrect because it reflects a connotation rather than the direct meaning.
  • Option 2: "sadness" is incorrect; it also represents a connotation rather than the direct meaning.
  • Option 4: "negativity" is incorrect because it is another connotation and does not denote the colour blue.

Question 74

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

The soldier said to his fellow soldiers, "I have buried our brave comrade here

  1. AOption (a)

    The soldier told his fellow soldiers that he had buried their brave comrade there.

  2. BOption (b)

    The soldier told us that I had buried their brave comrade here.

  3. COption (c)

    The soldier told his fellow soldiers that I had buried our brave comrade there.

  4. DOption (d)

    The soldier told us that he had buried our brave comrade there.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The soldier told his fellow soldiers that he had buried their brave comrade there.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • Indirect Speech: The soldier told his fellow soldiers that he had buried their brave comrade there.
  • Direct to Indirect Speech:
  • Pronoun Change:
  • "I" is changed to "he" to match the subject of the reporting verb.
  • "our" is changed to "their" to align with the perspective of the fellow soldiers.
  • Tense Change:
  • "have buried" is changed to "had buried" to signify that the action is being reported in the past.
  • Word Change:
  • "here" is changed to "there" to properly reflect the change in location when reporting.
  • Punctuation and Format:
  • No quotation marks are used in indirect speech.
  • The reporting clause "The soldier told his fellow soldiers that..." starts the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "The soldier told his fellow soldiers that he had buried their brave comrade there."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "The soldier told us that I had buried their brave comrade here."
  • Incorrectly changes the audience to "us" instead of "his fellow soldiers."
  • Does not change "I" to "he," and "here" remains "here" instead of "there," which is not correct in reported speech.
  • Option 3: "The soldier told his fellow soldiers that I had buried our brave comrade there."
  • Does not change "I" to "he," and "our" remains "our" instead of "their," which is not correct in reported speech.
  • Option 4: "The soldier told us that he had buried our brave comrade there."
  • Incorrectly changes the audience to "us" instead of "his fellow soldiers."
  • "our" remains "our" instead of "their," which is not correct in reported speech.

Question 75

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given below.

Ameliorate

  1. AOption (a)

    Recondite

  2. BOption (b)

    Motto

  3. COption (c)

    Exacerbate

  4. DOption (d)

    Succour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Exacerbate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "ameliorate" means to make something better or improve a situation. (सुधारना)
  • Example: The government took several measures to ameliorate the living conditions of the poor.
  • "Exacerbate" refers to making a bad situation worse. (बिगाड़ना)
  • Example: The heavy rains exacerbated the flooding problem in the city.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'ameliorate' is 'exacerbate'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Recondite (गूढ़): Dealing with difficult to understand or obscure subject matter.
  • Example: The professor's lecture on quantum mechanics was so recondite that many students struggled to follow it.
  • Motto (सूक्ति): A short sentence or phrase that expresses a principle or goal.
  • Example: The school's motto is "Knowledge is Power".
  • Succour (सहायता): Assistance and support in times of hardship and distress.
  • Example: The volunteers provided succour to the flood victims.

Question 76

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Speaking disrespectfully about sacred or religious things

  1. AOption (a)

    Biped

  2. BOption (b)

    Belligerent

  3. COption (c)

    Bigamy

  4. DOption (d)

    Blasphemy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Blasphemy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

  • The word "Blasphemy" means speaking disrespectfully about sacred or religious things. (ईश-निंदा)
  • Example: He was accused of blasphemy for making disrespectful remarks about the church.
  • "Blasphemy" refers to any act, utterance, or writing showing contempt or lack of reverence for God or something sacred. (ईश-निंदा)
  • Example: The writer faced severe backlash for his blasphemous comments in his latest book.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Biped (द्विपाद): An animal that walks on two legs.
  • Example: Humans are bipeds, meaning we walk on two legs.
  • Belligerent (युद्धकारी): Hostile and aggressive.
  • Example: The belligerent nations were on the brink of war.
  • Bigamy (द्विविवाह): The act of marrying someone while already being married to another person.
  • Example: He was charged with bigamy after his first wife discovered he had married another woman.

Question 77

Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice.

After we come to power at the Centre, we will conduct a countrywide caste census

  1. AOption (a)

    A countrywide caste census should be conducted by us when we come to power at the Centre.

  2. BOption (b)

    A countrywide caste census will be conducted by us as and when we come to power at the Centre. 

  3. COption (c)

    A countrywide caste census will be conducted by us after we come to power at the Centre.

  4. DOption (d)

    A countrywide caste census will have been conducted by us after we come to power at the Centre.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A countrywide caste census will be conducted by us after we come to power at the Centre.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
  • In the active voice, the sentence is: "After we come to power at the Centre, we will conduct a countrywide caste census."
  • To convert to passive voice: Place the object "a countrywide caste census" at the beginning.
  • Change the active verb form "will conduct" to "will be conducted" (future simple passive).
  • Add the preposition "by" followed by the original subject "us."
  • Ensure the time phrase "after we come to power at the Centre" remains in the sentence for clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "A countrywide caste census will be conducted by us after we come to power at the Centre."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "A countrywide caste census should be conducted by us when we come to power at the Centre." – Incorrect use of "should" instead of "will."
  • Option 2: "A countrywide caste census will be conducted by us as and when we come to power at the Centre." – The phrase "as and when" is not typically used correctly in the context.
  • Option 4: "A countrywide caste census will have been conducted by us after we come to power at the Centre." – Incorrect tense (future perfect passive).

Question 78

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

I, you and she/ have been working happily/ in the same company and in the same branch/ for the last nine years.

  1. AOption (a)

    have been working happily

  2. BOption (b)

    I, you and she

  3. COption (c)

    in the same company and in the same branch

  4. DOption (d)

    for the last nine years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I, you and she

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. I, you and she .

Key Points

  • In English, the correct order for pronouns in a compound subject should be: Second person (you), third person (he/she/they), and then first person (I).
  • Thus the correct phrase should be "you, she and I" to follow the standard pronoun order.
  • The error in "I, you and she" is the placement of pronouns in the wrong order.

Additional Information

  • When listing multiple people, the polite order usually followed in English is "you, he/she/they, and I".
  • This helps in setting a respectful tone, placing the focus on others before oneself.
  • Examples:
  • Correct: "You, she, and I are attending the meeting."
  • Incorrect: "I, you, and she are attending the meeting."

Question 79

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Charisma

  1. AOption (a)

    Reputation

  2. BOption (b)

    Charm

  3. COption (c)

    Atmosphere

  4. DOption (d)

    Influence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Charm

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Charm.

Key Points

  • The word "Charisma" means a compelling attractiveness or charm that can inspire devotion in others. (आकर्षण)
  • Example: The leader's charisma was undeniable, drawing people from all walks of life to support his cause.
  • "Charm" refers to the power or quality of giving delight or arousing admiration. (मनोहरता)
  • Example: Her charm was evident in every interaction, making her well-liked by everyone she met.
  • Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'Charisma' is 'Charm'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Charm.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Reputation (प्रतिष्ठा): The beliefs or opinions that are generally held about someone or something.
  • Example: He has a reputation for being very trustworthy.
  • Atmosphere (वातावरण): The pervading tone or mood of a place, situation, or creative work.
  • Example: The restaurant had a romantic atmosphere that made it perfect for dates.
  • Influence (प्रभाव): The capacity to have an effect on the character, development, or behavior of someone or something.
  • Example: His influence over the company was substantial.

Question 80

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Scientists have recently discovered a new species of marine life in the unexplored depths of the ocean.

  1. AOption (a)

    A new species of marine life was recently being discovered in the unexplored depths of the ocean by scientists

  2. BOption (b)

    A new species of marine life has recently been discovered in the unexplored depths of the ocean by scientists.

  3. COption (c)

    A new species of marine life had recently been discovered in the unexplored depths of the ocean by scientists.

  4. DOption (d)

    A new species of marine life was recently discovered in the unexplored depths of the ocean by scientists.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A new species of marine life has recently been discovered in the unexplored depths of the ocean by scientists.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
  • In the active voice, the sentence is: "Scientists have recently discovered a new species of marine life in the unexplored depths of the ocean."
  • To convert to passive voice: Place the object "a new species of marine life" at the beginning.
  • Change the active verb form "have discovered" to "has been discovered" (present perfect passive).
  • Add the preposition "by" followed by the original subject "scientists."
  • Ensure the time phrase "recently" remains in the sentence for clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "A new species of marine life has recently been discovered in the unexplored depths of the ocean by scientists."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "A new species of marine life was recently being discovered in the unexplored depths of the ocean by scientists." – Incorrect tense (past continuous passive).
  • Option 3: "A new species of marine life had recently been discovered in the unexplored depths of the ocean by scientists." – Incorrect tense (past perfect passive).
  • Option 4: "A new species of marine life was recently discovered in the unexplored depths of the ocean by scientists." – Incorrect tense (simple past passive).

Question 81

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.

In the makeshift place of activity, debate or conflict, there were hundreds of people with the queen's team of advisors and servants sitting within the ring against the wall.

  1. AOption (a)

    dormitory

  2. BOption (b)

    casino

  3. COption (c)

    arena

  4. DOption (d)

    aviary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

arena

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "makeshift" means a temporary substitute or a place that is not meant to be permanent. (अस्थायी)
  • Example: They used old wooden planks to build a makeshift table for the picnic.
  • "Arena" refers to a central area or stage where events, debates, or conflicts take place, typically surrounded by seating for spectators. (मैदान, अखाड़ा)
  • Example: The gladiators fought bravely in the arena, cheered on by the roaring crowd.
  • Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate substitution for "makeshift place of activity, debate or conflict" is 'arena'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Dormitory (छात्रावास): A large bedroom for a number of people in a school or institution.
  • Example: The students returned to their dormitory after the evening classes.
  • Casino (जुआघर): A facility for certain types of gambling.
  • Example: They spent the night playing poker at the casino.
  • Aviary (पक्षीशाला): A large enclosure for keeping birds.
  • Example: The zoo's aviary houses many exotic bird species.

Question 82

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The comedian's jokes were so funny that the entire audience erupted in __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    latter

  2. BOption (b)

    later

  3. COption (c)

    loiter

  4. DOption (d)

    laughter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

laughter

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'laughter'.

 

Key Points

  • The word "laughter" is a noun that refers to the act or sound of laughing, which appropriately describes the audience's reaction to the comedian's jokes.
  • In this context, the sentence is describing the reaction of the entire audience to the jokes, making "laughter" the correct choice.
  • Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect as they do not relate to the act of laughing.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "The comedian's jokes were so funny that the entire audience erupted in laughter."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "latter" is incorrect because "latter" refers to the second of two mentioned items and does not fit the context of the sentence.
  • Option 2: "later" is incorrect because "later" refers to a time following a particular event and is not related to the context of the sentence.
  • Option 3: "loiter" is incorrect because "loiter" means to stand or wait around idly and does not fit the context of the sentence.

Question 83

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

Kanhaiya said to me, “Do you want to sing?”

  1. AOption (a)

    Kanhaiya said that I would sing or not

  2. BOption (b)

    Kanhaiya said that whether I would sing

  3. COption (c)

    Kanhaiya asked me if I wanted to sing.

  4. DOption (d)

    Kanhaiya enquires if I want to sing.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kanhaiya asked me if I wanted to sing.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • Indirect Speech: Kanhaiya asked me if I wanted to sing.
  • Direct to Indirect Speech:
  • Reporting Verb Change:
  • 'said to' is changed to 'asked' to indicate a question.
  • Pronoun Change:
  • "you" is changed to "I" to match the perspective of the person being addressed.
  • Tense Change:
  • "want" is changed to "wanted" to reflect the past tense in reported speech.
  • Question Word Change:
  • "Do" is omitted and replaced by "if" to form an indirect question.
  • Punctuation and Format:
  • No quotation marks are used in indirect speech.
  • The reporting clause "Kanhaiya asked me if..." starts the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "Kanhaiya asked me if I wanted to sing."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Kanhaiya said that I would sing or not"
  • Does not properly convert the question into reported speech.
  • The phrase "would sing or not" is not correctly framed and doesn't make sense in the context.
  • Option 2: "Kanhaiya said that whether I would sing"
  • Incorrectly frames the indirect speech by using "said that whether" instead of "asked if."
  • The sentence structure is incomplete and does not convey the original intent properly.
  • Option 4: "Kanhaiya enquires if I want to sing."
  • Uses "enquires" instead of "asked," which is less common in everyday usage, especially in past tense reporting.
  • Fails to change "want" to "wanted" to reflect the past tense in reported speech.

Question 84

Complete the dialogue for Person B using the correct idiom.

Person A: We are all going to the club this weekend. Do you want to come?

Person B: Thank you for asking. But I don’t like clubs. It’s ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    my cup of coffee

  2. BOption (b)

    not my cup of coffee

  3. COption (c)

    not my cup of tea

  4. DOption (d)

    not my cup, not my tea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

not my cup of tea

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'not my cup of tea'.

 

Key Points

  • The idiom "not my cup of tea" means something that one does not like or is not interested in.
  • In this dialogue, Person B is expressing that they do not enjoy going to clubs, so this idiom is appropriate.
  • Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect as they either modify the idiom in a non-standard way or use incorrect versions.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Dialogue: "Person A: We are all going to the club this weekend. Do you want to come? Person B: Thank you for asking. But I don’t like clubs. It’s not my cup of tea."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "my cup of coffee" is incorrect because the standard idiom is "cup of tea", not "cup of coffee".
  • Option 2: "not my cup of coffee" is incorrect; again, the idiom traditionally uses "cup of tea".
  • Option 4: "not my cup, not my tea" is incorrect because it is not a recognized idiom.

Question 85

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Don't park your car here.

  1. AOption (a)

    Let your car be parked here

  2. BOption (b)

    Let not your car be parked here.

  3. COption (c)

    Let your car not be parked here

  4. DOption (d)

    Have not your car be parked here.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Let your car not be parked here

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • In the active voice, the sentence is: "Don't park your car here."
  • To convert this to the passive voice, we use the structure "Let + object + not + be + past participle."
  • In this case, the object is "your car".
  • The verb "park" in the passive voice becomes "be parked".

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "Let your car not be parked here."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Let your car be parked here" – Incorrect, the negative imperative ("don't") is missing.
  • Option 2: "Let not your car be parked here" – Less common and more formal word order for the negative imperative.
  • Option 4: "Have not your car be parked here" – Incorrect structure, "have" is not used in passive imperatives.

Question 86

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

This is the ___________ book that I have read till now.

  1. AOption (a)

    most interesting

  2. BOption (b)

    more interesting

  3. COption (c)

    interesting

  4. DOption (d)

    better interest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

most interesting

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'most interesting'.

 

Key Points

  • The superlative form "most interesting" is used to compare more than two items, indicating that this book is the highest in terms of interest among all books read so far.
  • In this context, the sentence is comparing this book to all other books read "till now," making the superlative form appropriate.
  • Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they do not convey the intended comparison.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "This is the most interesting book that I have read till now."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "more interesting" is incorrect because the comparative form "more interesting" is used when comparing two items, not multiple items.
  • Option 3: "interesting" is incorrect because it lacks the comparative or superlative degree which is necessary in this context.
  • Option 4: "better interest" is incorrect because this phrase is grammatically incorrect and does not fit in the context of describing a book.

Question 87

Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank.

Rabindranath Tagore, ________ poet, was famous for his poetical work, Gitanjali.

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    the

  3. COption (c)

    an

  4. DOption (d)

    no article required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'a'.

Key Points

  • The article "a" is used before words that start with a consonant sound and when referring to a single, non-specific item.
  • In this context, "a poet" refers to Rabindranath Tagore being one of many poets, without specifying any particular one.
  • Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they do not fit the context of the sentence appropriately.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "Rabindranath Tagore, a poet, was famous for his poetical work, Gitanjali."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "the" is incorrect because "the poet" would imply that he is the only poet being referenced directly, which is not the case in this generic usage.
  • Option 3: "an" is incorrect because "an" is used before words that start with a vowel sound, and "poet" begins with a consonant sound.
  • Option 4: "no article required" is incorrect because "poet" is a singular countable noun that requires an article before it.

Question 88

The given sentence is divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

When I returned to the office, / no work was left / as my friend Rahul / has done everything.

  1. AOption (a)

    When I returned to the office,

  2. BOption (b)

    as my friend Rahul

  3. COption (c)

    has done everything

  4. DOption (d)

    no work was left

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

has done everything

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '3' i.e. has done everything .

Key Points

  • The sentence refers to past events, so the past perfect tense should be used to describe actions that were completed before another action in the past.
  • "Has done everything" is present perfect tense, which is not appropriate in this context.
  • It should be "had done everything" to correctly follow the past perfect tense.

Additional Information

  • The past perfect tense is used to refer to an action that was completed before another action in the past.
  • Examples:
  • Correct: "When I arrived at the party, everyone had left."
  • Incorrect: "When I arrived at the party, everyone has left."

Question 89

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Melancholy

  1. AOption (a)

    Miserable

  2. BOption (b)

    Pleasant

  3. COption (c)

    Profitable

  4. DOption (d)

    Mechanical

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Pleasant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Pleasant.

Key Points

  • The word "melancholy" means a deep, pensive, and long-lasting sadness. (उदासी)
  • Example: After the loss of his pet, he was in a state of melancholy for weeks.
  • "Pleasant" refers to something that is enjoyable, pleasing, or giving a sense of happy satisfaction. (सुखद)
  • Example: The weather today is very pleasant, perfect for a walk in the park.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'melancholy' is 'pleasant'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Pleasant.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Miserable (दुखी): Extremely unhappy or uncomfortable.
  • Example: She felt miserable when she heard the bad news.
  • Profitable (लाभदायक): Yielding profit or financial gain.
  • Example: The new business venture turned out to be very profitable.
  • Mechanical (यांत्रिक): Operated by machinery or relating to machines.
  • Example: He has a mechanical approach to solving problems, often lacking creativity.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. 

The greatest disease in the West today is not TB or leprosy; it is being unwanted, unloved, and uncared for. We can cure (1)........ diseases with medicine, but the only cure for loneliness, despair, and hopelessness is love. There are many in the world who are (2)........ for a piece of bread but there are many more dying for a little love. The poverty in the West is a different kind of poverty – it is not only a poverty of (3)........ but also of (4)......... There's a hunger for affection as there is a hunger for God.

Question 90

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    masculine

  2. BOption (b)

    stubborn

  3. COption (c)

    radical

  4. DOption (d)

    physical

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

physical

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: physical. "Physical" means related to the body or tangible matter. Contextually, it fits the blank as it appropriately aligns with the intended meaning or subject of the statement.

Question 91

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    neglecting

  2. BOption (b)

    disregarding

  3. COption (c)

    dying

  4. DOption (d)

    ignoring

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

dying

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: dying.

"Dying" refers to the process of life ending. Contextually, it fits the blank as it aligns with the sentence's intended meaning, unlike other options, which imply indifference or omission.

Question 92

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    lavishness

  2. BOption (b)

    loneliness

  3. COption (c)

    profusion

  4. DOption (d)

    abundance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

loneliness

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: loneliness.

Loneliness means a state of being alone or isolated. It fits the blank contextually because the statement likely conveys an emotional or situational sense of isolation at blank 3.

Question 93

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    covetous

  2. BOption (b)

    spirituality

  3. COption (c)

    educate

  4. DOption (d)

    materialistic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

spirituality

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: spirituality. Explanation: Spirituality refers to a focus on the soul, inner peace, or higher purpose. It fits the blank contextually, contrasting other options like "materialistic," which imply worldly or physical pursuits.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Reading is an important communication skill that has many benefits and it has great impact on a person's life. We should develop a reading habit as it allows us to learn new information and gives us access to a wide range of opportunities and ideas. So, reading regularly not only broadens our aspect and knowledge but also improves our intelligence, perspective, judgement and understanding of the world. It helps to stimulate creativity and imagination, to relieve the stress and pressure, and to provide a source of entertainment. The major benefit of reading is to develop the analytical and critical skills of a reader. The former involves gathering information and breaking it down into parts for better understanding, while the latter involves evaluating the same information and making judgments based on evidence. Reading a book or any content improves our language and vocabulary, so we can easily comprehend the words and their use in the context. It also helps in cognitive development in young children so at the primary level, children are more involved in reading rather than writing.

Question 94

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Cognitive development in a child is related to:

  1. AOption (a)

    social development

  2. BOption (b)

    mental development

  3. COption (c)

    environmental development

  4. DOption (d)

    technical development

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

mental development

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: mental development. Cognitive development refers to the growth of a child's thinking, problem-solving, and understanding abilities, which directly aligns with mental development as indicated in the passage.

Question 95

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which skill is used by a reader when he gathers information and breaks it down in a logical pattern to solve a problem?

  1. AOption (a)

    Speaking skill

  2. BOption (b)

    Analytical skill

  3. COption (c)

    Reasoning skill

  4. DOption (d)

    Critical skill

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Analytical skill

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Analytical skill. Analytical skill is marked as correct because it involves gathering information, breaking it down logically, and solving problems, which aligns with the reader's task described in the passage.

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, what is the role of reading?

  1. AOption (a)

    To give strength to the body

  2. BOption (b)

    To learn new information to avail opportunity

  3. COption (c)

    To not to share information

  4. DOption (d)

    To make environment healthy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To learn new information to avail opportunity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 - To learn new information to avail opportunity.

This option is correct because the passage highlights the importance of reading as a means to gain knowledge and leverage opportunities effectively.

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which skill is used by a reader when he evaluates the same information and makes judgments based on evidence?

  1. AOption (a)

    Analytical skill

  2. BOption (b)

    Drawing skill

  3. COption (c)

    Technical skill

  4. DOption (d)

    Critical skill

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Critical skill

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Critical skill. Critical skill is required when a reader evaluates information and makes judgments based on evidence, as it involves analyzing and assessing the validity and reliability of the content.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

The extraction of indigo dye involves harvesting the small, green leaves of the Indigofera plant before its flowers bloom. These leaves undergo a process of soaking in water and churning until a navy blue froth is released. The upper portion of the resulting mixture is drained for irrigation, while the leaves are repurposed as fertilizer. After allowing the water and fine sediment to settle for a day, the liquid is separated from the sediment. The obtained deep blue paste is then subjected to filtration to remove dirt and impurities, followed by compression into cakes and drying for several days. Once dried, the indigo is ready for use as a dye. Lime (Ca(OH)₂) can be added to the initial water and leaves mixture, and various natural sugars can be dissolved into the paste to enhance the extraction process.

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'impurities' from the options given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    cleanliness

  2. BOption (b)

    purity

  3. COption (c)

    scum

  4. DOption (d)

    pureness

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

scum

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • In the context of the passage, "impurities" refers to the unwanted dirt or foreign substances that must be filtered out to obtain a clean, usable dye paste.
  • The word "scum" is a synonym that refers to a layer of dirt or impure matter that forms on the surface of a liquid or is found within a mixture.
  • The passage mentions that the paste is "subjected to filtration to remove dirt and impurities," reinforcing the idea that these are undesirable elements.
  • While "scum" often refers to the froth on top, in a general sense, it describes the waste or impure material in a chemical or extraction process.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Contextual Sentence from Text: "The obtained deep blue paste is then subjected to filtration to remove dirt and impurities..."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Cleanliness – This is an antonym (opposite) of impurities.
  • Option 2: Purity – This is also an antonym; it refers to the state of being free from impurities.
  • Option 4: Pureness – This is a synonym for purity and, therefore, another antonym for the word in question.

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In the extraction process described, what is the purpose of allowing the water and fine sediment at the bottom of the tank to settle for a day?

  1. AOption (a)

    To enhance the aroma of the indigo dye

  2. BOption (b)

    To create a unique texture in the final indigo paste

  3. COption (c)

    To facilitate the separation of liquid from sediment

  4. DOption (d)

    To promote the growth of additional indigo leaves

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To facilitate the separation of liquid from sediment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage details a sequence of physical separation steps to isolate the dye from the plant matter and water.
  • It states that after the churning process, the mixture must sit so that the "fine sediment" can "settle for a day."
  • The immediate next step mentioned is that "the liquid is separated from the sediment," which eventually becomes the deep blue paste.
  • Therefore, the settling period is a mechanical requirement to facilitate the separation of the desired dye material from the excess water.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence from Text: "After allowing the water and fine sediment to settle for a day, the liquid is separated from the sediment."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Enhance the aroma – The passage does not mention the smell or aroma of the dye at any point.
  • Option 2: Create a unique texture – While the end result is a paste, the purpose of settling is the separation of components, not the modification of texture.
  • Option 4: Promote the growth of leaves – Settling occurs after the leaves have already been harvested and processed; it has no impact on plant growth.

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the overall tone of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Informative and instructional

  2. BOption (b)

    Emotional and sentimental

  3. COption (c)

    Critical and analytical

  4. DOption (d)

    Humorous and light-hearted

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Informative and instructional

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The passage provides a factual, step-by-step description of how indigo dye is extracted from the Indigofera plant.
  • It focuses on the process (harvesting, soaking, churning, settling, filtering, drying) and provides technical details like the chemical formula for lime (Ca(OH)2Ca(OH)_2).
  • The language is objective and neutral, aimed at explaining a procedure to the reader rather than expressing a personal opinion or emotion.
  • Because it describes "how-to" steps and conveys facts, the tone is classified as informative and instructional.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Summary from Text: "The extraction of indigo dye involves... soaking... churning... filtration... compression into cakes and drying..."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Emotional and sentimental – Incorrect; the author does not use any emotional language or share personal feelings about the plants or the dye.
  • Option 3: Critical and analytical – Incorrect; while the reader might use analytical skills to understand it, the author is not "critiquing" or evaluating the process, merely describing it.
  • Option 4: Humorous and light-hearted – Incorrect; there are no jokes, irony, or playful language used in this technical description.

Question 101

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the central theme of the passage describing the extraction process of indigo dye from the Indigofera plant?

  1. AOption (a)

    The cultivation and growth cycle of the Indigofera plan

  2. BOption (b)

    The various uses of indigo dye in different industries

  3. COption (c)

    The impact of lime and natural sugars on the indigo extraction process

  4. DOption (d)

    The intricate process of harvesting and processing indigo leaves

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The intricate process of harvesting and processing indigo leaves

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The passage provides a comprehensive, sequential account of how indigo is produced, starting from the harvesting of the leaves to the final drying of the dye cakes.
  • While other elements are mentioned (like lime or irrigation), they are secondary details within the broader framework of the processing steps.
  • The text covers harvesting, soaking, churning, settling, filtering, compressing, and drying—which collectively define the intricate process of turning a plant into a usable dye.
  • Options 1, 2, and 3 focus on specific sub-details or outside contexts, whereas Option 4 captures the entirety of the narrative's focus.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Summary from Text: "The extraction of indigo dye involves harvesting... soaking... churning... filtration... compression into cakes and drying..."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Cultivation and growth cycle – The passage only mentions harvesting before flowers bloom; it does not discuss how to plant or grow the crop.
  • Option 2: Various uses in industries – The text only says it is "ready for use as a dye," without listing specific industrial applications like textiles or ink.
  • Option 3: Impact of lime and sugars – These are mentioned only at the very end as additives to "enhance" the process, not as the primary subject of the entire text.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Engaging in regular physical activity is not only beneficial for physical well-being but also has a profound impact on mental health. Studies have shown that exercise releases endorphins, chemicals in the brain that act as natural painkillers and mood elevators. Additionally, consistent exercise has been linked to reduced symptoms of anxiety and depression. Contrary to common misconceptions, it doesn't require intense workouts; even moderate activities like walking or yoga can contribute to improved mental well-being. Making exercise a regular part of one's routine not only supports physical fitness but also nurtures a positive and resilient mindset

Question 102

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is a fact mentioned in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Exercise releases endorphins, contributing to improved mental well-being

  2. BOption (b)

    Exercise requires intense workouts for mental health benefits.

  3. COption (c)

    Regular exercise has no impact on mental health

  4. DOption (d)

    Only intense physical activities are linked to reduced anxiety and depression.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Exercise releases endorphins, contributing to improved mental well-being

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Exercise releases endorphins, contributing to improved mental well-being, is a fact mentioned in the passage, highlighting its positive impact on mental health.

Question 103

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Determine the tone of the passage by choosing the option that reflects the overall emotional quality of the writing

  1. AOption (a)

    Critical

  2. BOption (b)

    Humorous

  3. COption (c)

    Informative

  4. DOption (d)

    Dramatic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Informative

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Informative. The passage primarily aims to convey knowledge or facts without emotional bias, highlighting its objective and educational tone, making "Informative" the correct choice.

Question 104

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the option that provides an accurate summary of the main points discussed in the passage.

  1. AOption (a)

    Engaging in regular physical activity positively impacts mental health by releasing endorphins and reducing symptoms of anxiety and depression.

  2. BOption (b)

    The passage discusses the negative effects of technology on health.

  3. COption (c)

    Exercise requires intense workouts for mental health benefits.

  4. DOption (d)

    Exercise only impacts physical well-being, not mental health.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Engaging in regular physical activity positively impacts mental health by releasing endorphins and reducing symptoms of anxiety and depression.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1. Option 1 accurately summarizes the passage, which highlights the positive effects of regular physical activity on mental health, such as reducing anxiety and depression through endorphin release.

Question 105

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate title for the given passage.

  1. AOption (a)

    The Impact of Technology on Health

  2. BOption (b)

    The Benefits of Mindfulness Meditation

  3. COption (c)

    The Importance of a Balanced Diet

  4. DOption (d)

    Importance of Regular Physical Activities

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Importance of Regular Physical Activities

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Importance of Regular Physical Activities. This option is correct because the passage emphasizes the significance of engaging in physical activities for maintaining health and overall well-being.

Question 106

Which theme encapsulates Wings India 2024, the Aviation Expo, that was inaugurated by Union Minister for Civil Aviation in January 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aviation Expo-Wings India in Amrit Kaal: Shaping the Future of Indian Civil Aviation

  2. BOption (b)

    Aviation and Sustainable Development in the Indian Aerospace: Future possibilities in Amrit Kaal

  3. COption (c)

    Advancements in Aerospace: A Glimpse into India's Aviation Future in Amrit Kaal

  4. DOption (d)

    Connecting India to the World in Amrit Kaal: Setting the Stage for India Civil Aviation @2047.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Connecting India to the World in Amrit Kaal: Setting the Stage for India Civil Aviation @2047.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Connecting India to the World in Amrit Kaal: Setting the Stage for India Civil Aviation @2047.

Key Points

  • Wings India 2024 is a premier aviation event aimed at showcasing advancements and growth in the Indian civil aviation sector.
  • The theme "Connecting India to the World in Amrit Kaal: Setting the Stage for India Civil Aviation @2047" emphasizes India's aspirations to become a global aviation hub.
  • The event focuses on creating a roadmap for the civil aviation sector's growth and development till 2047, aligning with India's 100 years of independence.
  • Inaugurated by the Union Minister for Civil Aviation, the expo features participation from global aviation leaders, policymakers, and industry stakeholders.
  • It includes exhibitions, conferences, and networking opportunities to discuss strategies and innovations for the future of Indian aviation.

Additional Information

  • Amrit Kaal
  • Amrit Kaal refers to the period leading up to India’s 100th year of independence in 2047, aimed at achieving significant milestones and transformative growth.
  • The term was first introduced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to outline a vision for India's development and progress.
  • Indian Civil Aviation Sector
  • India is one of the fastest-growing aviation markets in the world, with a significant increase in passenger traffic and aircraft fleet size.
  • The government has launched several initiatives, such as the UDAN scheme, to enhance regional connectivity and make air travel affordable.
  • Wings India
  • Wings India is a biennial event organized by the Ministry of Civil Aviation and FICCI, focusing on the growth and development of the aviation sector.
  • The event serves as a platform for stakeholders to discuss industry trends, technological advancements, and regulatory policies.
  • Global Aviation Leaders
  • Global aviation leaders include major airlines, aircraft manufacturers, and service providers who play a crucial role in shaping the industry’s future.
  • Their participation in events like Wings India facilitates knowledge sharing, partnerships, and investment opportunities.

Question 107

The equation F=k(q1×q2r2)\rm F=k\left(q_1\times \frac{q_2}{r^2}\right) is representation of:  

(Where F is the attractive or repulsive electric force of two point charges q1 and q2 and r is the distance between two charges)

  1. AOption (a)

    Coulomb’s law

  2. BOption (b)

    Biot-Savart law

  3. COption (c)

    Charle's law

  4. DOption (d)

    Ohm’s law

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Coulomb’s law

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Coulomb's law.

Key Points

  • Coulomb's law states that the electric force (F) between two point charges (q1 and q2) is directly proportional to the product of the magnitudes of charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance (r) between them.
  • The law is mathematically represented as F = k * (q1 * q2) / r², where k is Coulomb's constant.
  • Coulomb's constant (k) is approximately equal to 8.9875 × 10⁹ N m²/C² in vacuum.
  • The force can be attractive or repulsive depending on the nature of the charges (like charges repel, unlike charges attract).

Additional Information

  • Biot-Savart Law:
  • This law relates magnetic fields to the currents which are their sources.
  • It is used to calculate the magnetic field produced by a steady current.
  • Charles's Law:
  • It describes how gases tend to expand when heated.
  • The law states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, assuming the pressure is constant.
  • Ohm's Law:
  • It states that the current through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage across the two points.
  • It is commonly written as V = IR, where V is the voltage, I is the current, and R is the resistance.

Question 108

Which of the following is NOT the qualification for the appointment of judges of supreme court?

  1. AOption (a)

    An advocate of high court for at least ten years

  2. BOption (b)

    A distinguished judge in the opinion of the President

  3. COption (c)

    A judge of high court for at least five years

  4. DOption (d)

    An advocate of supreme court for at least ten years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

An advocate of supreme court for at least ten years

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is An advocate of supreme court for at least ten years.

Key Points

  • According to the Indian Constitution, the qualifications for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court are outlined in Article 124.
  • An individual must be a judge of one or more High Courts for at least five years.
  • Alternatively, an individual should have been an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years.
  • The person can also be deemed a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President of India.
  • Being an advocate of the Supreme Court for ten years is not a recognized qualification for appointment as a Supreme Court judge.

Additional Information

  • Article 124 of the Indian Constitution
  • It deals with the establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court of India.
  • It prescribes the qualifications, appointment, and tenure of the judges of the Supreme Court.
  • Appointment of Judges
  • The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme Court.
  • The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President after consultation with other judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts as deemed necessary.
  • Tenure of Judges
  • Supreme Court judges hold office until they attain the age of 65 years.
  • They may resign by writing to the President or can be removed by the President on grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity.
  • Removal of Judges
  • A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed by an order of the President only after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
  • This process is known as 'impeachment'.

Question 109

Which letter code indicates mid-latitude desert climate in Köppen climate classification?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dw

  2. BOption (b)

    Cfa

  3. COption (c)

    BWk

  4. DOption (d)

    EF

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

BWk

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is BWk.

Key Points

  • In the Köppen climate classification, BWk represents the mid-latitude desert climate.
  • This climate type is characterized by low annual precipitation, typically less than 250 mm (10 inches).
  • BWk climates usually have hot summers and cold winters, distinguishing them from the hot desert climates (BWh).
  • Examples of regions with BWk climate include parts of the Gobi Desert in Mongolia and China.
  • This classification helps in understanding the geographical distribution of arid and semi-arid regions.

Additional Information

  • Köppen Climate Classification
  • Developed by Vladimir Köppen, this classification system categorizes the world's climates based on temperature and precipitation.
  • The main categories are Tropical (A), Dry (B), Temperate (C), Continental (D), and Polar (E).
  • It is widely used in climatology, geography, and environmental science to study climate patterns.
  • Desert Climate (BWh)
  • Hot desert climates (BWh) have extremely high temperatures during the day and cool temperatures at night.
  • These regions receive very little rainfall, often less than 250 mm annually.
  • Examples include the Sahara Desert in Africa and the Arabian Desert in the Middle East.
  • Steppe Climate (BSk)
  • Steppe climates (BSk) are semi-arid regions that receive slightly more precipitation than deserts.
  • These areas have hot summers and cool to cold winters.
  • Examples include the Great Plains in the United States and the Eurasian Steppe.
  • Climate Change Impact
  • Climate change is altering precipitation patterns, potentially expanding desert and semi-arid areas.
  • Understanding climate classifications helps in predicting and mitigating the impacts of climate change.

Question 110

The Kushan emperor Kanishka, who ruled from the late first to the early/ mid-second century AD was the ____________ Kushan ruler.

  1. AOption (a)

    second

  2. BOption (b)

    third

  3. COption (c)

    fourth

  4. DOption (d)

    fifth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

third

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is third

Key Points

  • Kanishka was the fourth Third of the Kushan Empire.
  • He succeeded his father, Vima Kadphises, the second ruler of the Kushan Empire.
  • Kanishka is known for his military, political, and spiritual achievements.
  • His reign is notable for the vast expansion of the Kushan Empire and the promotion of Buddhism.

Additional Information

  • Kushan Empire
  • The Kushan Empire was a syncretic empire formed by the Yuezhi in the Bactrian territories in the early 1st century.
  • The empire reached its cultural and economic zenith under Kanishka.
  • It played a crucial role in the spread of Buddhism to Central Asia and China.
  • Kanishka's Contributions
  • Kanishka is remembered for convening the Fourth Buddhist Council in Kashmir around 78 AD.
  • He is credited with the promotion and spread of Mahayana Buddhism.
  • Kanishka's era is considered one of the greatest periods of Buddhist art, literature, and culture.
  • Kanishka's Coinage
  • Kanishka's coins depict various deities from different cultures, reflecting the empire's diverse religious influence.
  • His coins are an important source of information about the history and culture of his time.
  • Kanishka Stupa
  • Kanishka is attributed with the construction of the Kanishka Stupa in Peshawar, a major center of Buddhist worship.
  • The stupa was described by Chinese pilgrims such as Xuanzang.

Question 111

Which endemic species of owl of Central India is listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List since 2018?

  1. AOption (a)

    Long-eared Owlet

  2. BOption (b)

    Barn Owlet

  3. COption (c)

    Forest Owlet

  4. DOption (d)

    Snowy Owle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Forest Owlet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Forest Owlet.

Key Points

  • The Forest Owlet (Heteroglaux blewitti) is an endemic species to Central India.
  • It has been listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List since 2018.
  • This species was thought to be extinct until it was rediscovered in 1997.
  • The Forest Owlet is primarily found in the forests of Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.
  • Its population is estimated to be fewer than 250 mature individuals, making it critically endangered.

Additional Information

  • IUCN Red List:
  • The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List is a critical indicator of the health of the world’s biodiversity.
  • It provides information about the global extinction risk status of animal, fungus, and plant species.
  • Species are categorized into nine groups: Not Evaluated, Data Deficient, Least Concern, Near Threatened, Vulnerable, Endangered, Critically Endangered, Extinct in the Wild, and Extinct.
  • Endangered Species:
  • Endangered species are those at a very high risk of extinction in the wild.
  • Factors contributing to the endangered status include habitat loss, poaching, and climate change.
  • Conservation efforts are crucial to prevent their extinction.
  • Conservation Efforts:
  • Conservation efforts for endangered species like the Forest Owlet include habitat protection, anti-poaching measures, and breeding programs.
  • Organizations like the Wildlife Conservation Society and BirdLife International are actively involved in such efforts.
  • Habitat of Forest Owlet:
  • The Forest Owlet prefers deciduous forests with dense undergrowth.
  • Conservation of these habitats is crucial for its survival.

Question 112

In which year was the fluid mosaic model proposed by Singer and Nicolson? The model commonly represented cell membrane structure and dynamics.

  1. AOption (a)

    1960

  2. BOption (b)

    1981

  3. COption (c)

    1993

  4. DOption (d)

    1972

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1972

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1972.

Key Points

  • The fluid mosaic model was proposed by S.J. Singer and G.L. Nicolson in 1972.
  • This model describes the structure of cell membranes as a mosaic of components that gives the membrane a fluid character.
  • It emphasizes that the cell membrane is flexible and constantly in motion, rather than being static.
  • The model was revolutionary for illustrating the dynamic nature of the lipid bilayer and the embedded proteins.

Additional Information

  • Lipid Bilayer:
  • A double layer of lipids that forms the core structure of the cell membrane.
  • Each lipid molecule has a hydrophilic (water-attracting) head and two hydrophobic (water-repelling) tails.
  • Integral Proteins:
  • Proteins that are embedded within the lipid bilayer.
  • They can span the entire membrane (transmembrane proteins) or be attached to only one side.
  • Peripheral Proteins:
  • Proteins that are attached to the exterior or interior surfaces of the lipid bilayer.
  • They are not embedded within the lipid bilayer.
  • Fluidity:
  • Refers to the viscous nature of the lipid bilayer, allowing lateral movement of molecules within the layer.
  • Fluidity is influenced by temperature and the composition of the lipid molecules.
  • Mosaic Nature:
  • Describes the heterogeneous composition of the cell membrane, including lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates.
  • These components are not uniformly distributed, contributing to the diverse functionality of the cell membrane.

Question 113

What is the primary goal of the International Comparison Programme (ICP), led by the United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD)?

  1. AOption (a)

    To implement statistical offices globally

  2. BOption (b)

    To calculate Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs) and price level indices

  3. COption (c)

    To produce unemployment estimates globally

  4. DOption (d)

    To collect data on international trade

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To calculate Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs) and price level indices

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To calculate Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs) and price level indices.

Key Points

  • The International Comparison Programme (ICP) is a global statistical initiative led by the United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD).
  • The primary goal of the ICP is to calculate Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs) and price level indices across different countries.
  • PPPs allow for the comparison of the purchasing power of countries' currencies by measuring the relative price levels of a fixed basket of goods and services.
  • These calculations are essential for making more accurate comparisons of economic indicators like GDP and income levels across countries.
  • The ICP data is used by international organizations, policymakers, and researchers to inform economic policies and development strategies.

Additional Information

  • Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)
  • PPP is a method used to determine the relative value of different currencies.
  • It involves comparing the cost of a common basket of goods and services in different countries.
  • PPP helps to eliminate the differences in price levels between countries, providing a more accurate measure of economic performance.
  • Price Level Indices
  • These indices measure the relative cost of living between countries.
  • They are used to compare the average price levels of goods and services in different economies.
  • This helps to identify which countries have higher or lower costs of living relative to others.
  • GDP Comparisons
  • GDP comparisons using PPPs provide a more accurate reflection of the economic output of different countries.
  • They account for differences in price levels, making it possible to compare the real purchasing power of income and expenditure across countries.
  • International Organizations
  • Organizations like the World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF) use ICP data to analyze global economic trends.
  • This data is crucial for developing global economic policies and for making cross-country comparisons.

Question 114

Which amino acid is a precursor to serotonin, a neurotransmitter that regulates your appetite, sleep and mood?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tryptophan

  2. BOption (b)

    Isoleucine

  3. COption (c)

    Valine

  4. DOption (d)

    Methionine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tryptophan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tryptophan.

Key Points

  • Tryptophan is an essential amino acid that serves as a precursor for serotonin synthesis in the human body.
  • Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that plays a critical role in regulating mood, appetite, and sleep.
  • Tryptophan is absorbed from dietary sources such as turkey, chicken, milk, cheese, yogurt, eggs, nuts, seeds, tofu, and soy products.
  • Once ingested, tryptophan undergoes hydroxylation and decarboxylation to produce serotonin in the brain.

Additional Information

  • Serotonin
  • Serotonin is also known as 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT).
  • It is primarily found in the gastrointestinal tract, blood platelets, and the central nervous system.
  • In the brain, serotonin is involved in the regulation of mood, anxiety, and happiness.
  • Abnormal levels of serotonin are linked to depression, anxiety disorders, and other mood disorders.
  • Essential Amino Acids
  • Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained from the diet.
  • There are nine essential amino acids, including tryptophan, histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, and valine.
  • Hydroxylation and Decarboxylation
  • Hydroxylation is a chemical process that introduces a hydroxyl group (-OH) into an organic compound.
  • Decarboxylation is a chemical reaction that removes a carboxyl group and releases carbon dioxide (CO2).
  • Dietary Sources of Tryptophan
  • Animal-based sources: Turkey, chicken, milk, cheese, yogurt, and eggs.
  • Plant-based sources: Nuts, seeds, tofu, soy products, and legumes.

Question 115

Which of the following is the headquarters of the South Central Zone of Indian Railways?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jabalpur

  2. BOption (b)

    Secunderabad

  3. COption (c)

    Hajipur

  4. DOption (d)

    Bilaspur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Secunderabad

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Secunderabad.

Key Points

  • The South Central Railway (SCR) zone of Indian Railways is headquartered at Secunderabad in Telangana.
  • Secunderabad is one of the major railway stations and serves as a central hub for rail traffic in the region.
  • South Central Railway was formed on October 2, 1966, with its headquarters at Secunderabad.
  • SCR zone covers the states of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and parts of Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka.

Additional Information

  • Indian Railways Zones
  • Indian Railways is divided into 18 zones, each headed by a General Manager.
  • Each zone is further divided into divisions, with a Divisional Railway Manager overseeing operations.
  • The zones were created for better management and operational efficiency of the extensive railway network in India.
  • Secunderabad Railway Station
  • Secunderabad Junction is one of the oldest railway stations in India, established in 1874.
  • It is an important station in the South Central Railway zone, with over 190 trains originating or passing through it daily.
  • The station is well-equipped with modern amenities and facilities for passengers.
  • Formation of South Central Railway
  • South Central Railway was formed by carving out the Vijayawada and Hubli Divisions from Southern Railway and the Sholapur Division from Central Railway.
  • SCR aims to enhance the rail connectivity and services in the southern and central parts of India.
  • Major Divisions under SCR
  • SCR comprises six divisions: Secunderabad, Hyderabad, Vijayawada, Guntakal, Guntur, and Nanded.
  • Each division is strategically important, catering to both passenger and freight traffic.

Question 116

According to Census of India 2011, what was the recorded population growth rate of Hindu religion?

  1. AOption (a)

    16.8%

  2. BOption (b)

    14,3%

  3. COption (c)

    18.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    11.7%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

16.8%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 16.8.

Key Points

  • According to the Census of India 2011, the growth rate of the Hindu population was recorded at 16.8%.
  • Hinduism remains the largest religion in India, with a significant majority.
  • India's total population as per the 2011 Census was approximately 1.21 billion.
  • The Hindu population was approximately 966 million out of the total population.

Additional Information

  • Religious Demographics in India:
  • India is known for its religious diversity with Hinduism, Islam, Christianity, Sikhism, Buddhism, and Jainism being the major religions.
  • Hindus constituted 79.8% of the total population in 2011.
  • Muslims were the second-largest religious group, making up 14.2% of the population.
  • Census Methodology:
  • The Census of India is conducted every 10 years by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • The census collects data on population size, distribution, and various demographic factors.
  • Population Growth Rate:
  • Population growth rate refers to the increase in the number of individuals in a population over a specified period.
  • It is often expressed as a percentage of the population.
  • Socio-Economic Impact:
  • Population growth rates can have significant implications for a country’s economy, resources, and development policies.
  • High population growth can strain resources and infrastructure, while low growth can impact labor markets and economic dynamism.

Question 117

What is the name of the software launched by the National Minorities Development and Finance Corporation (NMDFC) for digitising loan accounting processes and integrating the MIS portal, including the release of mobile apps for Android and IOS?

  1. AOption (a)

    LOAN-X (Loan Accounting Network for NMDFC)

  2. BOption (b)

    MILAN (Minority Loan Accounting for NMDFC)

  3. COption (c)

    DIGIT (Digital Integration for Government Transactions)

  4. DOption (d)

    MILAP (Minority Loan Accounting Software for Projects)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

MILAN (Minority Loan Accounting for NMDFC)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is MILAN (Minority Loan Accounting for NMDFC).

Key Points

  • The National Minorities Development and Finance Corporation (NMDFC) launched the software named MILAN for digitising loan accounting processes.
  • MILAN stands for Minority Loan Accounting for NMDFC, aimed at simplifying loan disbursement and tracking for minority communities.
  • The software integrates the Management Information System (MIS) portal, ensuring seamless operation and transparency.
  • The initiative includes the release of mobile apps compatible with both Android and IOS platforms, enhancing accessibility.
  • It aims to improve operational efficiency, accountability, and ease of access for minority beneficiaries.

Additional Information

  • National Minorities Development and Finance Corporation (NMDFC)
  • NMDFC is a government body under the Ministry of Minority Affairs, aimed at promoting economic and developmental activities for the benefit of backward sections of notified minorities.
  • The corporation provides concessional finance for self-employment and income-generating activities to eligible beneficiaries.
  • Loan Accounting Software
  • Loan accounting software is designed to manage and streamline the processes associated with loan disbursement, repayment, and tracking.
  • Such software ensures accuracy, reduces manual errors, and enhances the efficiency of financial operations.
  • Management Information System (MIS)
  • MIS is a computerized database that tracks and manages data, providing essential information for decision-making and operational efficiency.
  • It helps organizations monitor performance, manage projects, and streamline processes.
  • Mobile App Integration
  • Mobile app integration refers to the process of connecting a mobile application with other systems, software, or hardware to ensure seamless functionality and user experience.
  • This allows users to access services and information on the go, enhancing convenience and accessibility.

Question 118

Which of the following is NOT an antecedent river in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ganga

  2. BOption (b)

    Yamuna

  3. COption (c)

    Kosi

  4. DOption (d)

    Indus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Yamuna

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Yamuna.

Key Points

  • The Yamuna river is not an antecedent river in India. It is a tributary of the Ganga river.
  • Antecedent rivers are those that maintain their original course and pattern despite the changes in the underlying rock topography.
  • The Ganga, Kosi, and Indus rivers are examples of antecedent rivers in India.
  • Yamuna river originates from the Yamunotri Glacier in the Himalayas and flows through the states of Uttarakhand, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh before merging with the Ganga at Prayagraj.

Additional Information

  • Antecedent Rivers
  • These are rivers that were established before the current topography was formed.
  • They have the ability to cut through rising mountain ranges due to their strong erosive power.
  • Examples include the Indus, Ganga, and Kosi rivers.
  • Yamuna River
  • It is the largest tributary river of the Ganga in northern India.
  • The river has significant cultural and religious importance in India.
  • Major cities along the Yamuna include Delhi, Mathura, and Agra.
  • Ganga River
  • The Ganga is one of the major rivers in India and holds immense religious significance.
  • It is an antecedent river, originating from the Gangotri Glacier in the Himalayas.
  • It flows through northern India into Bangladesh, eventually emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
  • Indus River
  • The Indus is a major transboundary river in Asia, flowing through China, India, and Pakistan.
  • It is also an antecedent river, originating in Tibet and flowing through the Himalayas.
  • The Indus River basin is one of the largest in the world, supporting a significant population.

Question 119

Which substance is commonly used as an acid-base indicator, which turns red in acidic solutions and blue in basic solutions?

  1. AOption (a)

    Litmus paper

  2. BOption (b)

    Methyl orange

  3. COption (c)

    Phenol

  4. DOption (d)

    Bromothymol blue

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Litmus paper

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Litmus paper.

Key Points

  • Litmus paper is a common acid-base indicator used in laboratories.
  • It turns red in acidic solutions (pH less than 7).
  • It turns blue in basic solutions (pH greater than 7).
  • Litmus paper is derived from lichens, which are symbiotic associations between fungi and algae.

Additional Information

  • Acid-Base Indicators
  • Substances that change color based on the pH level of the solution they are in.
  • Common indicators include methyl orange, phenolphthalein, and bromothymol blue.
  • Each indicator has a specific pH range over which it changes color.
  • pH Scale
  • A scale ranging from 0 to 14 used to measure how acidic or basic a solution is.
  • A pH of 7 is neutral, below 7 is acidic, and above 7 is basic.
  • Lichens
  • Organisms formed from a symbiotic relationship between fungi and algae.
  • They are capable of surviving in harsh environments and are used to produce litmus.
  • Uses of Litmus Paper
  • Commonly used in educational laboratories to teach about acids and bases.
  • Used for testing the acidity or alkalinity of various substances in industrial applications.

Question 120

In which of the following years did Mahatma Gandhi led the Satyagraha and hunger strike for the first time in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    1917

  2. BOption (b)

    1919

  3. COption (c)

    1918

  4. DOption (d)

    1920

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1918

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1918.

Key Points

  • Mahatma Gandhi led the first Satyagraha and hunger strike in India in 1918.
  • This event is known as the Ahmedabad mill workers.
  • The Satyagraha was aimed at addressing the grievances of farmers who were forced to grow indigo under oppressive conditions.
  • Gandhi's leadership in this non-violent protest marked the beginning of his prominent role in the Indian independence movement.
  • The success of the Ahmedabad mill workers established the effectiveness of non-violent resistance in India.

Additional Information

  • Champaran Satyagraha:
  • This was Gandhi's first active involvement in the Indian independence movement.
  • It was a major success and demonstrated the power of non-violent resistance (Satyagraha).
  • Gandhi arrived in Champaran in 1917 and led the movement in 1918.
  • It resulted in the abolition of the oppressive tinkathia system where farmers were forced to grow indigo on a portion of their land.
  • Satyagraha:
  • A form of non-violent resistance or civil resistance.
  • The term was coined and developed by Mahatma Gandhi.
  • It played a significant role in the Indian independence movement and influenced numerous other freedom and civil rights movements globally.
  • Indigo Cultivation:
  • Indigo was a cash crop grown in India during British rule.
  • Farmers were often forced to grow indigo by British planters under oppressive conditions.
  • The Champaran Satyagraha specifically addressed the exploitation and hardships faced by indigo farmers.
  • Non-violent Resistance:
  • A method of protest that seeks to achieve goals through symbolic protests, civil disobedience, and other non-violent means.
  • Gandhi's philosophy of non-violence (Ahimsa) was central to his approach to resistance.
  • Non-violent resistance has been adopted by various movements around the world, including the Civil Rights Movement in the United States.

Question 121

In which of the following cases did the Supreme court of India give a ruling that, 'in case of any conflict between the fundamental rights and the directive principles, the former would prevail'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Champakam Doraijan Case, 1951

  2. BOption (b)

    Keshvananda Bharti Case, 1973

  3. COption (c)

    Golaknath Case. 1967

  4. DOption (d)

    Minerva Mills Case, 1980

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Champakam Doraijan Case, 1951

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Champakam Dorairajan Case, 1951.

Key Points

  • The Supreme Court of India ruled in the Champakam Dorairajan Case, 1951, that fundamental rights have supremacy over directive principles in case of any conflict between the two.
  • This landmark judgment emphasized the importance of fundamental rights as enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
  • The case involved the challenge against a communal Government Order of Madras that provided caste-based reservations in educational institutions.
  • The Supreme Court held that such reservations violated the fundamental right to equality guaranteed under Article 15(1).
  • Consequently, this ruling led to the First Amendment of the Constitution in 1951, allowing the state to make special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes.

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Rights
  • Fundamental Rights are the basic human rights guaranteed to all citizens by the Constitution of India.
  • They are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution and include rights such as the right to equality, freedom of speech, and protection against exploitation.
  • These rights are enforceable by the courts, subject to specific restrictions.
  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
  • DPSPs are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government, outlined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution.
  • They are not enforceable by any court but are considered fundamental in the governance of the country.
  • DPSPs aim to create social and economic conditions under which citizens can lead a good life.
  • First Amendment of the Indian Constitution
  • It was enacted in 1951 to address judicial decisions and public criticism of certain provisions of the Constitution.
  • The amendment added Article 15(4) to allow the state to make special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
  • It also added Articles 31A and 31B to protect laws providing for the acquisition of estates, etc., from being challenged on the ground that they contravened the fundamental rights.
  • Article 15 of the Indian Constitution
  • It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • Article 15(1) ensures that no citizen shall be discriminated against on these grounds in matters of access to public places.
  • Article 15(4) allows the state to make special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Question 122

Who was the first sultan (in the recorded history of the Dargah Sharif) to visit the shrine of khwaja Muinuddin Chisti?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jalaluddin Khilji

  2. BOption (b)

    Balban

  3. COption (c)

    Alauddin Khilji

  4. DOption (d)

    Muhammad bin Tughluq

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Muhammad bin Tughluq

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Muhammad bin Tughluq.

Key Points

  • Muhammad bin Tughluq was the first Sultan to visit the shrine of Khwaja Muinuddin Chisti.
  • Muhammad bin Tughluq ruled from 1325 to 1351 and was known for his ambitious projects and eccentric ideas.
  • The visit of Muhammad bin Tughluq to the Dargah Sharif marked the beginning of royal patronage to the shrine.
  • The shrine of Khwaja Muinuddin Chisti, located in Ajmer, Rajasthan, is a significant Sufi pilgrimage site in India.

Additional Information

  • Khwaja Muinuddin Chisti was a prominent Sufi saint whose teachings emphasized love, tolerance, and openness.
  • The Dargah Sharif in Ajmer is one of the most revered Sufi shrines in India and attracts millions of devotees annually.
  • Muhammad bin Tughluq's reign is often noted for his attempts to introduce token currency and shifting the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad.
  • The Tughluq dynasty was part of the Delhi Sultanate, a major Muslim kingdom in India before the Mughal Empire.
  • The visit of sultans and other rulers to the Dargah Sharif helped in spreading the influence of Sufism in the Indian subcontinent.

Question 123

Which international treaty was adopted in 1992 to combat global warming and prepare for its effects?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer

  2. BOption (b)

    Minamata Convention on Mercury

  3. COption (c)

    Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants

  4. DOption (d)

    United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.

Key Points

  • The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was adopted in 1992 at the Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
  • The primary objective of the UNFCCC is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere to prevent dangerous human interference with the climate system.
  • It serves as the foundation for global efforts to combat climate change and has been ratified by 197 parties, including nearly all countries worldwide.
  • The UNFCCC led to the establishment of the annual Conference of the Parties (COP), where nations meet to negotiate and review progress in addressing climate change.

Additional Information

  • Kyoto Protocol:
  • A landmark international treaty adopted under the UNFCCC in 1997 and came into force in 2005.
  • It legally binds developed countries to emission reduction targets.
  • It introduced market-based mechanisms like emissions trading, clean development mechanism (CDM), and joint implementation (JI).
  • Paris Agreement:
  • An agreement within the UNFCCC adopted in 2015 and came into force in 2016.
  • It aims to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.
  • Countries submit nationally determined contributions (NDCs) outlining their climate actions.
  • Green Climate Fund (GCF):
  • Established under the UNFCCC in 2010 to assist developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
  • Aims to mobilize $100 billion per year by 2020 from various sources.
  • Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC):
  • Provides scientific assessments on climate change to inform policy decisions.
  • Established in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)$.

Question 124

Who set a new Guinness World Record for the fastest badminton shot, measuring a speed of 565 km/hr in July 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kidambi Srikanth

  2. BOption (b)

    Saina Nehwal

  3. COption (c)

    PV Sindhu

  4. DOption (d)

    Satwiksairaj Rankireddy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Satwiksairaj Rankireddy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Satwiksairaj Rankireddy.

Key Points

  • Satwiksairaj Rankireddy set a new Guinness World Record for the fastest badminton shot in July 2023.
  • The record-breaking shot was measured at a speed of 565 km/hr.
  • This achievement surpassed the previous record held by Malaysian player Tan Boon Heong at 493 km/hr.
  • Satwiksairaj Rankireddy is a prominent Indian badminton player, primarily known for his doubles performance.

Additional Information

  • Badminton Speed Records:
  • Badminton is known for its fast-paced nature, with shuttle speeds often exceeding 300 km/hr in professional play.
  • The speed of a badminton smash is determined by the player's technique, strength, and the shuttlecock's design.
  • Satwiksairaj Rankireddy:
  • Born on August 13, 2000, in Amalapuram, Andhra Pradesh, India.
  • He has represented India in various international tournaments, often partnering with Chirag Shetty in men's doubles.
  • Rankireddy and Shetty have won multiple titles, including the Thailand Open and the India Open.
  • Guinness World Records:
  • The Guinness World Records is a reference book published annually, listing world records both human achievements and the extremes of the natural world.
  • It was first published in 1955 and has since become a global authority on record-breaking achievements.
  • Badminton as a Sport:
  • Badminton is a racquet sport played using racquets to hit a shuttlecock across a net.
  • It is widely played as a casual outdoor activity in a yard or on a beach; formal games are played on a rectangular indoor court.
  • The game is governed internationally by the Badminton World Federation (BWF).

Question 125

When did James Chadwick prove the existence of the neutron – an elementary particle devoid of any electric charge?

  1. AOption (a)

    1920

  2. BOption (b)

    1932

  3. COption (c)

    1941

  4. DOption (d)

    1955

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1932

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1932.

Key Points

  • James Chadwick, an English physicist, proved the existence of the neutron in 1932.
  • His discovery of the neutron was a significant breakthrough in nuclear physics.
  • Chadwick's experiment involved bombarding beryllium with alpha particles, which resulted in the emission of a new type of radiation.
  • This new radiation was later identified as being composed of neutrons, particles with no electric charge.
  • Chadwick was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1935 for his discovery of the neutron.

Additional Information

  • Neutron:
  • A neutron is a subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom.
  • It has no electric charge and a mass slightly greater than that of a proton.
  • Neutrons play a crucial role in the stability of atomic nuclei.
  • Alpha particles:
  • Alpha particles are a type of ionizing radiation ejected by certain radioactive materials.
  • They consist of two protons and two neutrons bound together.
  • Alpha particles are relatively heavy and positively charged.
  • Nobel Prize in Physics:
  • It is one of the most prestigious awards in the field of physics.
  • James Chadwick received this honor in 1935 for his discovery of the neutron.
  • The Nobel Prize in Physics recognizes outstanding contributions to the field of physics.
  • Nuclear Physics:
  • It is a branch of physics that studies the constituents and interactions of atomic nuclei.
  • The discovery of the neutron was a major milestone in nuclear physics.
  • Nuclear physics has applications in various fields, including energy production and medical imaging.

Question 126

Who among the following was the President of India when India launched its first Nuclear test in Pokhran?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dr APJ Abdul Kalam

  2. BOption (b)

    Giani Zail Singh

  3. COption (c)

    VV Giri

  4. DOption (d)

    Fakhruddin ali Ahmed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

VV Giri

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is VV Giri

Key Points

  • India conducted its first nuclear test, codenamed "Smiling Buddha," on 18 May 1974, in Pokhran, Rajasthan.
  • VV Giri was the President of India when India launched its first Nuclear test in Pokhran.
  • During the nuclear test, the Prime Minister of India was Indira Gandhi.
  • The test made India the sixth country in the world to conduct a successful nuclear explosion.

Additional Information

  • Pokhran Test Range
  • It is a key test site for India's nuclear weapons program located in the Thar Desert in Rajasthan.
  • The site has been used for nuclear testing in 1974 and 1998.
  • Smiling Buddha
  • Codenamed "Smiling Buddha," it was the name given to India's first successful nuclear bomb test.
  • The test was conducted in a controlled environment under the supervision of the Indian Army.
  • Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
  • India has not signed the NPT, maintaining that the treaty is discriminatory.
  • The NPT aims to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and promote peaceful uses of nuclear energy.
  • Indira Gandhi's Role
  • Prime Minister Indira Gandhi played a pivotal role in pushing for the nuclear test.
  • Her leadership was crucial in the decision to advance India's nuclear capabilities.

Question 127

Who discovered the laws of levers and pulleys, which allow us to move heavy objects using small forces?

  1. AOption (a)

    Archimedes

  2. BOption (b)

    Pythagoras

  3. COption (c)

    Eudoxus

  4. DOption (d)

    Democritus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Archimedes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Archimedes.

Key Points

  • Archimedes was a Greek mathematician, physicist, engineer, inventor, and astronomer.
  • He is known for formulating the law of the lever, which states that the force needed to move an object is inversely proportional to the distance from the pivot point.
  • Archimedes also discovered the principle of mechanical advantage in the use of pulleys.
  • His work laid the foundation for the field of statics, which studies forces in static equilibrium.
  • Archimedes’ contributions greatly influenced the development of both theoretical and applied mechanics.

Additional Information

  • Levers:
  • A lever is a simple machine consisting of a rigid beam and a fulcrum, used to magnify force.
  • The three classes of levers are determined by the relative positions of the load, effort, and fulcrum.
  • Levers are used in various applications, from seesaws to crowbars and scissors.
  • Pulleys:
  • A pulley is a wheel on an axle or shaft designed to support the movement and change the direction of a taut cable.
  • Pulleys are used to lift loads, apply forces, and transmit power.
  • They can be combined to form a block and tackle, which significantly reduces the amount of force needed to lift a load.
  • Statics:
  • Statics is the branch of mechanics that deals with bodies at rest and forces in equilibrium.
  • It involves analyzing the distribution of forces and their impact on structures.
  • Statics principles are essential for the design and analysis of buildings, bridges, and other structures.
  • Archimedean Principle:
  • The Archimedean principle states that a body submerged in a fluid experiences an upward buoyant force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the body.
  • This principle explains why objects float or sink in water.
  • It is a fundamental concept in fluid mechanics and engineering.

Question 128

The productivity of which of the following crops had initially increased due to the Green Revolution?

  1. AOption (a)

     Rice and cotton

  2. BOption (b)

    Wheat and sugarcane

  3. COption (c)

    Rice and pulses

  4. DOption (d)

    Wheat and rice

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Wheat and rice

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Wheat and rice.

Key Points

  • The Green Revolution in India began in the 1960s and was primarily aimed at increasing agricultural productivity.
  • Wheat and rice were the primary beneficiaries of the Green Revolution due to the introduction of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds.
  • The use of chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and improved irrigation techniques further boosted the productivity of these crops.
  • The Green Revolution led to self-sufficiency in food grains, particularly in wheat and rice, significantly reducing India's dependence on food imports.
  • Punjab, Haryana, and Western Uttar Pradesh were the major regions where the impact of the Green Revolution on wheat and rice production was most significant.

Additional Information

  • High-Yielding Variety (HYV) Seeds:
  • HYV seeds were a cornerstone of the Green Revolution, designed to produce more grain per plant.
  • These seeds required proper irrigation, chemical fertilizers, and pesticides to achieve high yields.
  • Fertilizers and Pesticides:
  • The Green Revolution saw a massive increase in the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides to enhance crop productivity.
  • While these inputs increased yields, they also led to environmental concerns and soil degradation over time.
  • Irrigation:
  • Improved irrigation facilities, including the construction of dams and canal systems, were crucial for the success of the Green Revolution.
  • Reliable water supply was essential for the HYV seeds to reach their full potential.
  • Socio-Economic Impact:
  • The Green Revolution led to increased agricultural income and improved living standards for many farmers in the areas where it was implemented.
  • However, it also widened the income disparity between large and small farmers, as the latter often could not afford the necessary inputs.
  • Long-Term Challenges:
  • The intensive farming practices led to issues such as groundwater depletion, soil health deterioration, and increased pest resistance.
  • There is a need for sustainable agricultural practices to address these long-term challenges.

Question 129

Which of the following best defines liberalisation?

  1. AOption (a)

    The process of maintaining existing government regulations and restrictions on economic activities.

  2. BOption (b)

    The process of reducing or removing government regulations and restrictions on economic activities.

  3. COption (c)

    The process of increasing government regulations and restrictions on economic activities.

  4. DOption (d)

    The process of enforcing strict government control over economic activities.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The process of reducing or removing government regulations and restrictions on economic activities.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2: The process of reducing or removing government regulations and restrictions on economic activities..

Key Points

  • Liberalisation refers to the process of reducing or eliminating government regulations and restrictions in an economy to encourage the free operation of market forces.
  • This process often involves deregulation of industries and reducing barriers to trade, such as tariffs and import quotas.
  • Liberalisation aims to increase efficiency and promote economic growth by creating a more competitive environment.
  • It is typically associated with economic policies that support free-market principles and reduce the role of the state in economic activities.

Additional Information

  • Privatisation
  • Refers to the transfer of ownership of property or businesses from a government to a privately owned entity.
  • Aims to increase efficiency by introducing private sector management practices.
  • Often accompanies liberalisation as part of broader economic reforms.
  • Globalisation
  • Refers to the increasing interconnectedness and interdependence of the world's markets and businesses.
  • Encourages cross-border trade, investment, and cultural exchange.
  • Facilitated by advances in technology, transportation, and communication.
  • Deregulation
  • The process of removing or reducing state regulations.
  • Aims to improve business operations and promote competition.
  • Often associated with liberalisation policies.
  • Free Market Economy
  • An economic system where prices for goods and services are determined by open market and consumers.
  • Minimal government intervention in the economy.
  • Encourages competition and innovation.

Question 130

In which sport did India defeat Pakistan 2-1 to lift the Men's Junior Asia Cup in 2023, overtaking them in winning the maximum titles at the prestigious event?

  1. AOption (a)

    Basketball

  2. BOption (b)

    Hockey

  3. COption (c)

    Football

  4. DOption (d)

    Badminton

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hockey

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hockey.

Key Points

  • India defeated Pakistan 2-1 to lift the Men's Junior Asia Cup in 2023.
  • This victory allowed India to overtake Pakistan in winning the maximum titles at the prestigious event.
  • The Men's Junior Asia Cup is a field hockey tournament organized by the Asian Hockey Federation.
  • India has a strong history in the Men's Junior Asia Cup, having won multiple titles in previous editions.
  • The 2023 victory was significant in showcasing the talent and future potential of Indian hockey.

Additional Information

  • Asian Hockey Federation (AHF)
  • The governing body for field hockey in Asia.
  • Organizes various tournaments, including the Men's Junior Asia Cup.
  • Works to promote and develop the sport across the Asian continent.
  • Field Hockey
  • A popular team sport played on grass or artificial turf.
  • Each team has 11 players, including a goalkeeper.
  • The objective is to score goals by hitting a ball into the opponent's net using a hockey stick.
  • Junior Hockey Tournaments
  • Competitions typically for players under the age of 21.
  • Serve as a platform for young talent to showcase their skills.
  • Help in the development and scouting of future national team players.
  • India-Pakistan Hockey Rivalry
  • One of the most intense rivalries in field hockey.
  • Both countries have a rich history and tradition in the sport.
  • Matches between India and Pakistan often draw large audiences and high viewership.

Computer Knowledge (20 questions)

Question 131

Which file extension is most commonly used for executable installation files on a Windows system?

  1. AOption (a)

    .exe

  2. BOption (b)

    .mp3

  3. COption (c)

    .txt

  4. DOption (d)

    .jpg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

.exe

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is .exe.

Key Points

  • .exe is the file extension used for executable files on Windows operating systems, which are designed to run programs and install software.
  • Executable files contain machine code that is directly executed by the computer's CPU, making them essential for software deployment.
  • Windows operating systems use .exe files for a variety of tasks, including software installation, application launching, and script execution.
  • Security features such as User Account Control (UAC) often prompt users before allowing .exe files to run, helping to prevent unauthorized or malicious activity.

Additional Information

  • File Extensions and Their Uses
  • .mp3 - A file extension for audio files that use the MPEG-1 or MPEG-2 Audio Layer III compression standard, commonly used for music and podcasts.
  • .txt - Represents plain text files that contain unformatted text, used for simple documents and notes.
  • .jpg - A commonly used file extension for images, employing the JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group) compression method, widely used for digital photos.
  • Executable File Security
  • Executable files can be a vector for malware and other security threats if downloaded from untrusted sources.
  • Users are advised to install antivirus software and keep their systems updated to mitigate risks associated with .exe files.
  • Alternative Executable Formats
  • .msi - Microsoft Installer files, used for software installation, updates, and configuration.
  • .bat - Batch files containing a series of commands to be executed by the Windows command interpreter.

Question 132

ROM is primarily used for which of the following purposes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Random data access

  2. BOption (b)

    Temporary data storage

  3. COption (c)

    Storing files for permanent access

  4. DOption (d)

    Storing the BIOS or firmware

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Storing the BIOS or firmware

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Storing the BIOS or firmware.

Key Points

  • ROM (Read-Only Memory) is non-volatile memory, which means it retains its data even when the power is turned off.
  • It is primarily used to store the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) or firmware of a computer, which is essential for the initial boot process.
  • The BIOS or firmware contains the necessary instructions for the computer to start up and communicate with its hardware components.
  • ROM is not meant for random data access or temporary data storage, as it can only be read and not easily modified.

Additional Information

  • BIOS (Basic Input/Output System)
  • It is the firmware used to perform hardware initialization during the booting process.
  • BIOS provides runtime services for operating systems and programs.
  • The BIOS firmware is built into the PC and is the first software that runs when powered on.
  • Firmware
  • Firmware is a specific class of computer software that provides low-level control for a device's specific hardware.
  • It is embedded in the hardware and can be updated to improve functionality and security.
  • EEPROM (Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory)
  • A type of ROM that can be electronically erased and reprogrammed.
  • It allows for limited write cycles, making it useful for storing configuration settings.
  • Volatile vs. Non-Volatile Memory
  • Volatile memory requires power to maintain stored information (e.g., RAM).
  • Non-volatile memory retains data even when the power is turned off (e.g., ROM, Flash Memory).

Question 133

What is the purpose of enabling passwords on a PC?

  1. AOption (a)

    For improving the data signal strength

  2. BOption (b)

    For providing an additional layer of security

  3. COption (c)

    For reducing the installed applications

  4. DOption (d)

    For printing of the data in the PC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

For providing an additional layer of security

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is For providing an additional layer of security.

Key Points

  • Passwords help in protecting sensitive information stored on the PC by restricting access only to authorized users.
  • They act as the first line of defense against unauthorized access and potential data breaches.
  • Passwords help in maintaining the privacy of personal and professional data.
  • Enabling passwords can prevent unauthorized changes to system settings and software configurations.

Additional Information

  • Encryption
  • Encryption is the process of converting data into a code to prevent unauthorized access.
  • It is used to protect sensitive data both in transit and at rest.
  • Common encryption methods include AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) and RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman).
  • Two-Factor Authentication (2FA)
  • 2FA adds an extra layer of security by requiring two forms of identification before access is granted.
  • This usually includes something you know (password) and something you have (mobile device for OTP).
  • 2FA is widely used in online banking, email services, and secure systems.
  • Biometric Authentication
  • Biometric authentication uses unique biological traits such as fingerprints, retina scans, or facial recognition for identification.
  • It is considered more secure than traditional passwords as biometrics are harder to replicate.
  • Commonly used in smartphones, secure facilities, and high-security areas.
  • Antivirus Software
  • Antivirus software is designed to detect, prevent, and remove malware, including viruses, worms, and trojans.
  • Regular updates are essential for antivirus software to protect against the latest threats.
  • Popular antivirus programs include Norton, McAfee, and Kaspersky.

Question 134

Which of the following actions can typically be performed in the Outbox?

  1. AOption (a)

    Viewing archived emails

  2. BOption (b)

    Deleting received emails

  3. COption (c)

    Editing emails that are yet to be sent

  4. DOption (d)

    Managing contact lists

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Editing emails that are yet to be sent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Editing emails that are yet to be sent.

Key Points

  • The Outbox is a folder where emails that are ready to be sent are temporarily stored.
  • Users can edit emails in the Outbox before they are actually sent.
  • This functionality allows for last-minute changes or corrections to the email content.
  • Emails stay in the Outbox when there is a connectivity issue or when the user manually saves the email to be sent later.

Additional Information

  • Inbox
  • The Inbox is used for storing received emails.
  • Users can organize, read, and respond to emails in the Inbox.
  • Emails in the Inbox can be marked as read, unread, or moved to other folders.
  • Sent Items
  • The Sent Items folder stores copies of emails that have been successfully sent.
  • Users can review their sent emails for reference and follow-up.
  • Drafts
  • The Drafts folder is used for storing emails that are being composed but are not yet ready to be sent.
  • Users can continue editing their drafts and send them when ready.
  • Trash
  • The Trash folder temporarily stores deleted emails.
  • Emails in the Trash can be restored or permanently deleted.

Question 135

Which of the following scenarios correctly illustrates the interdependence of system software and application software?

  1. AOption (a)

    An antivirus program relying on system utilities to perform disk scans and remove malware.

  2. BOption (b)

    A word processor functioning independently without the need for an operating system.

  3. COption (c)

    An operating system requiring a media player to manage hardware resources

  4. DOption (d)

    A device driver operating as application software to provide printing functionality.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

An antivirus program relying on system utilities to perform disk scans and remove malware.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is An antivirus program relying on system utilities to perform disk scans and remove malware..

Key Points

  • Antivirus programs rely on system utilities to access and scan disk files, ensuring that the malware detection process is thorough and effective.
  • System utilities, which are part of system software, provide the necessary functions and interfaces that antivirus programs use to interact with the hardware and file system.
  • System software such as the operating system manages hardware resources, which antivirus applications depend on to monitor and protect the system.
  • Without system utilities and the underlying operating system, antivirus programs would not be able to execute their scanning and removal processes effectively.

Additional Information

  • System Software
  • Includes the operating system and all utility programs that manage computer resources at a low level.
  • Examples are Windows, macOS, Linux, and system utilities like disk defragmenters and file management tools.
  • Application Software
  • Software designed to help the user perform specific tasks such as word processing, web browsing, or managing antivirus protection.
  • Examples include Microsoft Word, Google Chrome, and Norton Antivirus.
  • Interdependence
  • Application software relies on system software to function properly, as it provides the necessary environment and resources for applications to run.
  • System software acts as a mediator between the hardware and application software, ensuring efficient resource allocation and management.
  • Examples of Interdependence
  • Device drivers allow the operating system to communicate with hardware peripherals, which application software then uses to perform tasks.
  • Web browsers (application software) require network protocols handled by the operating system to access the internet.

Question 136

Which keyboard shortcut is used to increase the indent in a paragraph in MS Word 2010?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ctrl + U

  2. BOption (b)

    Ctrl + D

  3. COption (c)

    Ctrl + M

  4. DOption (d)

    Ctrl + K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ctrl + M

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ctrl + M.

Key Points

  • The keyboard shortcut Ctrl + M is used in MS Word to increase the indent of a paragraph.
  • When you press Ctrl + M, the entire paragraph is indented to the right by one tab stop.
  • This shortcut is particularly useful for formatting documents, making it easier to distinguish between different sections or points.
  • Indentation is a common formatting feature in word processors and helps in improving the readability of documents.

Additional Information

  • Paragraph Indentation
  • Indentation refers to the space between the text and the page margin.
  • In MS Word, indentation can be controlled through the ruler or by using specific shortcut keys.
  • Types of Indentation
  • First Line Indent: Indents the first line of a paragraph.
  • Hanging Indent: Indents all lines of a paragraph except the first one.
  • Left Indent: Moves the entire paragraph to the right.
  • Right Indent: Moves the entire paragraph to the left.
  • Customizing Indents
  • Indents can be customized through the Paragraph dialog box in MS Word.
  • You can set specific measurements for indents to achieve the desired formatting.
  • Other Useful Shortcuts for MS Word
  • Ctrl + L: Aligns text to the left.
  • Ctrl + E: Aligns text to the center.
  • Ctrl + R: Aligns text to the right.
  • Ctrl + J: Justifies the text.

Question 137

How can you exit a slide show and return to editing mode in MS PowerPoint?

  1. AOption (a)

    Press Ctrl + S

  2. BOption (b)

    Press Esc

  3. COption (c)

    Press Spacebar

  4. DOption (d)

    Press Alt + Tab

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Press Esc

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Press Esc.

Key Points

  • Pressing the Esc key on your keyboard immediately exits the slide show and returns you to the editing mode in MS PowerPoint.
  • The Esc key is used for escaping or exiting full-screen modes and other types of ongoing tasks in various software applications.
  • In MS PowerPoint, Esc is the default shortcut for terminating the presentation mode.
  • This action will take you back to the normal view where you can edit slides.

Additional Information

  • Slide Show Mode in PowerPoint
  • Slide Show mode allows the presentation to be displayed full screen, making it suitable for viewing by an audience.
  • In this mode, animations, transitions, and multimedia elements are activated.
  • The presentation can be navigated using the keyboard, mouse, or a remote clicker.
  • Normal View
  • Normal View is the primary editing view in PowerPoint, which includes the Slide pane, Notes pane, and the Slide thumbnail pane.
  • This view allows users to create and edit slides, add text, images, and other elements.
  • Keyboard Shortcuts for PowerPoint
  • F5: Start the slide show from the beginning.
  • Shift+F5: Start the slide show from the current slide.
  • Ctrl+P: Annotate the slide show with a pen.
  • B: Make the screen black during the slide show.
  • Exiting Other Modes
  • Alt+Tab: Switch between open applications in Windows.
  • Ctrl+S: Save the current document or project in most applications.
  • Spacebar: Used primarily for advancing to the next slide in PowerPoint, not for exiting.

Question 138

The _________ method is commonly used to verify the integrity of data.

  1. AOption (a)

    Hashing

  2. BOption (b)

    Caching

  3. COption (c)

    Duplication

  4. DOption (d)

    Compression

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hashing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hashing.

Key Points

  • Hashing is a process of converting data into a fixed-size string of characters, which is typically a hash code.
  • It is commonly used to verify the integrity of data by ensuring that the data has not been altered.
  • Hash functions are designed to be fast and to produce unique hashes for unique inputs.
  • Popular hashing algorithms include MD5, SHA-1, and SHA-256, each with varying levels of security.
  • Hashing is widely used in applications such as password storage, data verification, and digital signatures.

Additional Information

  • Hash Function
  • A hash function takes an input and returns a fixed-size string of bytes.
  • Even a small change to the input will produce a significantly different output.
  • Collision
  • A collision occurs when two different inputs produce the same hash output.
  • Good hash functions minimize the chances of collisions.
  • MD5
  • MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5) produces a 128-bit hash value.
  • It is widely used but is considered cryptographically broken and unsuitable for further use.
  • SHA-256
  • SHA-256 (Secure Hash Algorithm 256-bit) is part of the SHA-2 family, designed by the NSA.
  • It produces a 256-bit hash value and is widely used in security applications and protocols.
  • Digital Signatures
  • Hashing is used in digital signatures to create a unique representation of data.
  • Digital signatures ensure data authenticity and integrity.

Question 139

What are the correct steps for creating a blank presentation in MS PowerPoint?

  1. AOption (a)

    File -> New -> Blank Presentation

  2. BOption (b)

    File -> Blank Presentation -> New

  3. COption (c)

    New -> Blank Presentation -> File

  4. DOption (d)

    Blank Presentation -> New -> File

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

File -> New -> Blank Presentation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is File -> New -> Blank Presentation.

Key Points

  • To create a blank presentation in MS PowerPoint, you start by clicking on the File tab located in the top left corner of the interface.
  • Next, you select the New option from the dropdown menu.
  • After selecting New, you will be given various templates and themes. To create a blank presentation, you choose Blank Presentation.
  • This process ensures that you begin with a clean slate, allowing you to build your presentation from scratch without any pre-set designs or content.

Additional Information

  • MS PowerPoint Interface
  • The PowerPoint interface includes several key areas such as the Ribbon, Slide Pane, Notes Section, and the Slide Sorter.
  • The Ribbon at the top contains tabs like Home, Insert, Design, Transitions, Animations, Slide Show, Review, and View, each offering different tools and options.
  • Templates and Themes
  • PowerPoint offers a range of templates and themes to provide pre-designed slides with various layouts and design elements.
  • Templates can save time and ensure consistency in design throughout the presentation.
  • Slide Master
  • The Slide Master is a tool that allows users to make universal design changes to the entire presentation by modifying the master slide.
  • Changes made in the Slide Master reflect on all slides that follow that master template.
  • Shortcut Keys
  • PowerPoint offers several shortcut keys for efficiency, such as Ctrl+N for creating a new presentation, Ctrl+M for inserting a new slide, and F5 to start the slideshow from the beginning.
  • Utilizing shortcut keys can significantly speed up the workflow.

Question 140

Which option in MS Word allows a user to align text within a document to the left, center, right, or justify it across the page?

  1. AOption (a)

    Font Style: Changes the appearance of text but does not affect its alignment

  2. BOption (b)

    Paragraph Alignment: Adjusts the alignment of text to the left, center, right, or justifies it

  3. COption (c)

    Line Spacing: Adjusts the space between lines of text but does not affect text alignment

  4. DOption (d)

    Text Direction: Changes the orientation of the text, such as vertical or horizontal, but not its alignment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Paragraph Alignment: Adjusts the alignment of text to the left, center, right, or justifies it

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Paragraph Alignment.

Key Points

  • Paragraph Alignment in MS Word allows users to align text to the left, center, right, or justify it across the page.
  • This feature can be accessed via the Home tab in the Paragraph group.
  • Users can apply paragraph alignment to a selected portion of text or an entire document.
  • Justification ensures that text is evenly distributed across the width of the page, providing a clean and professional look.

Additional Information

  • Font Style
  • Changes the appearance of the text, such as bold, italic, or underline.
  • Does not affect the alignment of the text.
  • Line Spacing
  • Adjusts the space between lines of text.
  • Does not affect the alignment of the text.
  • Text Direction
  • Changes the orientation of the text, such as vertical or horizontal.
  • Does not affect the alignment of the text.
  • Paragraph Group
  • Located in the Home tab of MS Word.
  • Includes various options for text alignment, indentation, and spacing.

Question 141

What type of media is commonly used for WAN communication?

  1. AOption (a)

    HDMI Cable

  2. BOption (b)

    Twisted Pair Cable

  3. COption (c)

    Fiber Optic Cable

  4. DOption (d)

    Coaxial Cable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Fiber Optic Cable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fiber Optic Cable.

Key Points

  • Fiber optic cables use light to transmit data, allowing for high-speed data transfer over long distances.
  • They are less susceptible to electromagnetic interference, making them ideal for WAN communication where signal integrity is crucial.
  • Fiber optic cables can carry significantly more data compared to traditional copper cables, supporting higher bandwidths.
  • Due to their efficiency and reliability, fiber optic cables are widely used in modern WANs, including internet backbones and global telecommunications networks.
  • They are essential for applications requiring high data transmission rates, such as video conferencing, online gaming, and cloud computing.

Additional Information

  • HDMI Cable
  • HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface) cables are used primarily for transmitting audio and video signals between devices like TVs, monitors, and gaming consoles.
  • They are not suitable for WAN communication due to their limited range and use case.
  • Twisted Pair Cable
  • Twisted pair cables are commonly used for LAN (Local Area Network) connections, such as in Ethernet networks.
  • While they can be used for shorter WAN links, they are not ideal for long-distance WAN communication.
  • Coaxial Cable
  • Coaxial cables are used for cable television and internet services but are less common for modern WANs due to their lower bandwidth capacity compared to fiber optics.
  • They are more susceptible to signal degradation over long distances.
  • Advantages of Fiber Optic Cables
  • Fiber optic cables offer higher bandwidth, allowing for faster internet speeds and larger data transfers.
  • They have a lower signal attenuation rate, meaning signals can travel longer distances without losing strength.
  • They provide better security as they are harder to tap into without being detected.
  • Fiber optics are lightweight and thinner compared to copper cables, making them easier to install and manage.

Question 142

What happens when a user inserts a new row into an MS Excel worksheet?

  1. AOption (a)

    The existing rows are shifted to the right.

  2. BOption (b)

    The existing data in the row is overwritten.

  3. COption (c)

    The existing rows are shifted down.

  4. DOption (d)

    The new row is added at the bottom of the worksheet.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The existing rows are shifted down.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The existing rows are shifted down..

Key Points

  • When a new row is inserted in MS Excel, the existing rows are shifted down to accommodate the new entry.
  • This operation does not overwrite any existing data; instead, it pushes all the data in the rows below the insertion point down by one row.
  • Inserting a new row can be done by right-clicking on a row number and selecting "Insert," or by using the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + Shift + "+".
  • This feature helps in maintaining the integrity of data while making space for new entries without losing existing information.

Additional Information

  • MS Excel Data Management
  • MS Excel allows users to manage large datasets efficiently, including sorting, filtering, and organizing data into rows and columns.
  • Features like "Insert" and "Delete" rows/columns provide flexibility in structuring the data dynamically as per user requirements.
  • Excel's built-in functions and formulas facilitate complex calculations and data analysis.
  • Excel's ability to create charts and graphs from data helps in visual representation and better understanding of information.
  • Excel Shortcuts
  • Keyboard shortcuts in MS Excel enhance productivity by allowing quick execution of commands without navigating menus.
  • Common shortcuts include Ctrl + C (Copy), Ctrl + V (Paste), Ctrl + Z (Undo), and Ctrl + S (Save).
  • Knowing and utilizing Excel shortcuts can significantly speed up data entry and management tasks.
  • Excel Data Integrity
  • Maintaining data integrity involves ensuring the accuracy and consistency of data throughout its lifecycle.
  • Excel provides features like Data Validation to control the type of data or the values that users enter into a cell.
  • Proper use of formulas and functions can prevent errors and ensure reliable data analysis.

Question 143

Why do desktop and laptop operating systems require more advanced memory management techniques than embedded systems?

  1. AOption (a)

    They utilise more hardware resources and need dynamic memory allocation.

  2. BOption (b)

    Memory management is not necessary for desktop and laptop operating systems.

  3. COption (c)

    They run only one application at a time, simplifying memory management.

  4. DOption (d)

    They rely on static memory allocation due to limited hardware resources.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

They utilise more hardware resources and need dynamic memory allocation.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is They utilise more hardware resources and need dynamic memory allocation..

Key Points

  • Desktop and laptop operating systems handle a wide range of applications simultaneously, necessitating advanced memory management techniques.
  • They require dynamic memory allocation to efficiently manage varying memory needs of different applications.
  • These systems need to optimize the use of RAM and virtual memory to ensure smooth multitasking and application performance.
  • Advanced memory management helps in preventing memory leaks and ensuring efficient memory utilization, which is crucial for the performance of these systems.

Additional Information

  • Dynamic Memory Allocation:
  • It involves allocating memory storage as needed at runtime, allowing efficient use of resources.
  • It is essential for applications that require varying memory sizes during execution.
  • Virtual Memory:
  • It is a memory management capability that provides an "idealized abstraction of the storage resources" that are actually available on a given machine.
  • It helps in running large applications that exceed the physical memory by using disk space as an extension of RAM.
  • Memory Leaks:
  • Memory leaks occur when a program does not release the memory it has allocated, leading to reduced performance or system crashes.
  • Advanced memory management techniques help in detecting and preventing such leaks.
  • Multitasking:
  • Multitasking refers to the ability of an operating system to execute multiple tasks simultaneously.
  • Efficient memory management is crucial for ensuring that all running tasks have the required memory resources.

Question 144

What does the function COUNT() do in MS Excel 2010?

  1. AOption (a)

    Prints the number of cells

  2. BOption (b)

    Counts the number of cells

  3. COption (c)

    Duplicates the number of cells

  4. DOption (d)

    Stores the number of cells

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Counts the number of cells

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Counts the number of cells.

Key Points

  • The COUNT() function in MS Excel is used to count the number of cells that contain numbers.
  • It helps in quickly determining the number of numeric entries in a selected range of cells.
  • The function ignores empty cells and cells containing text or logical values.
  • Basic syntax: =COUNT(value1, [value2], ...), where value1, value2, etc., can be cell references or ranges.

Additional Information

  • COUNTA()
  • Similar to COUNT(), but counts all cells that are not empty, including text and logical values.
  • Syntax: =COUNTA(value1, [value2], ...)
  • COUNTIF()
  • Counts the number of cells that meet a specified condition.
  • Syntax: =COUNTIF(range, criteria)
  • COUNTBLANK()
  • Counts the number of empty cells in a specified range.
  • Syntax: =COUNTBLANK(range)
  • COUNTIFS()
  • Counts cells based on multiple criteria.
  • Syntax: =COUNTIFS(criteria_range1, criteria1, [criteria_range2, criteria2], ...)

Question 145

In a Local Area Network (LAN), which of the following is most commonly used to ensure that data packets are efficiently forwarded to the correct device, based on its MAC address?

  1. AOption (a)

    Router

  2. BOption (b)

    Bridge

  3. COption (c)

    Hub

  4. DOption (d)

    Layer 3 Switch

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Layer 3 Switch

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Layer 3 Switch.

Key Points

  • A Layer 3 Switch is designed to function both as a switch and a router, which allows it to efficiently forward data packets to the correct device within a LAN.
  • These switches use MAC addresses to switch data and IP addresses to route data, making them highly efficient in data forwarding.
  • Layer 3 switches are commonly used in enterprise networks to ensure high performance and low latency in data communication.
  • They are capable of performing routing functions while maintaining the speed and performance of switching.

Additional Information

  • MAC Address (Media Access Control Address)
  • A unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications at the data link layer of a network segment.
  • Used in networking technologies such as Ethernet and Wi-Fi.
  • Router
  • A networking device that forwards data packets between computer networks.
  • Routers perform traffic directing functions on the Internet.
  • Hub
  • A basic networking device that connects multiple computers in a LAN.
  • Hubs broadcast data to all devices on a network, which can lead to inefficiencies.
  • Bridge
  • A device that connects and filters traffic between two or more network segments.
  • Operates at the data link layer and helps to reduce network traffic by dividing it into segments.

Question 146

Which of the following statements about the Central Processing Unit (CPU) is/are correct?

The CPU is often referred to as the 'brain' of the computer.

The CPU consists of three main units: the control unit (CU), arithmetic logic unit (ALU), and cache memory.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Both 1 and 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • The Central Processing Unit (CPU) is frequently referred to as the 'brain' of the computer.
  • The CPU is responsible for executing instructions from computer programs by performing basic arithmetic, logical, control, and input/output operations.
  • The CPU typically consists of the Control Unit (CU), the Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU), and various registers.
  • The Control Unit directs the operation of the processor by fetching and interpreting instructions from memory.

Additional Information

  • Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
  • The ALU is a fundamental part of the CPU that performs arithmetic and logical operations.
  • It operates on binary data inputs and produces binary results, which are stored in registers.
  • Control Unit (CU)
  • The CU directs the operation of the processor by fetching instructions from memory and decoding them.
  • It coordinates the activities of the ALU, registers, and other components.
  • Registers
  • Registers are small, fast storage locations within the CPU used to hold data temporarily.
  • They include the instruction register, program counter, and accumulator, among others.
  • Cache Memory
  • Although not considered one of the three main units of the CPU, cache memory is crucial for improving processing speed.
  • It stores frequently accessed data and instructions to reduce the time taken to fetch them from main memory.

Question 147

What is the size of each ASCII character in bits?

  1. AOption (a)

    4 bits

  2. BOption (b)

    16 bits

  3. COption (c)

    8 bits

  4. DOption (d)

    5 bits

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

8 bits

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 8 bits.

Key Points

  • Each ASCII character is represented using 8 bits (1 byte).
  • ASCII stands for American Standard Code for Information Interchange.
  • ASCII codes are used to represent text in computers and other devices that use text.
  • The standard ASCII character set includes 128 characters (0 to 127).
  • Extended ASCII sets use the full 8 bits, allowing for 256 characters (0 to 255).

Additional Information

  • Character Encoding
  • Character encoding is a system of converting characters into bytes for storage and transmission.
  • Other popular encoding standards include Unicode, UTF-8, and ISO-8859-1.
  • ASCII History
  • ASCII was developed in the early 1960s by the American National Standards Institute (ANSI).
  • It was designed to standardize character representation across various devices and platforms.
  • ASCII Applications
  • ASCII is widely used in programming, data processing, and communications.
  • It is the basis for text representation in most modern computer systems.
  • Limitations of ASCII
  • Standard ASCII can only represent English characters and a limited set of symbols.
  • Extended ASCII and other encoding schemes were developed to support additional characters and languages.

Question 148

What is a common sign that a computer might be infected with a virus?

  1. AOption (a)

    Improved system security

  2. BOption (b)

    Unusual system slowdowns and unexpected errors

  3. COption (c)

    Faster system boot times

  4. DOption (d)

    Increased hard drive space

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Unusual system slowdowns and unexpected errors

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Unusual system slowdowns and unexpected errors.

Key Points

  • One of the common symptoms of a computer virus infection is unusual system slowdowns that occur without any apparent reason.
  • Unexpected errors and crashes are also indicative of a potential virus infection, disrupting normal operations.
  • Infected systems may display frequent and unwanted pop-up ads, even when not browsing the internet.
  • Another sign is the presence of unknown programs or processes running in the background, which were not installed by the user.
  • Changes in system settings and the appearance of unfamiliar toolbars in the browser can also indicate a virus infection.

Additional Information

  • Virus Definition
  • A computer virus is a type of malicious software program designed to replicate itself by modifying other programs and inserting its own code.
  • Viruses typically require a host program to function and spread from one computer to another.
  • Common Types of Viruses
  • File Infector Virus: Attaches itself to executable files and spreads when the infected file is run.
  • Macro Virus: Embeds itself into documents and spreadsheets that contain macros.
  • Boot Sector Virus: Infects the master boot record and is activated when the computer is started.
  • Prevention Measures
  • Install and regularly update antivirus software to detect and remove viruses.
  • Avoid downloading and opening email attachments from unknown or untrusted sources.
  • Keep your operating system and all software up to date with the latest security patches.
  • Impact of Viruses
  • Viruses can lead to data loss, system corruption, and unauthorized access to sensitive information.
  • They can also cause significant downtime and financial losses for both individuals and organizations.

Question 149

In a multipart email message, what does the boundary parameter in the Content-Type header signify?

  1. AOption (a)

    It defines the length of the email message.

  2. BOption (b)

    It separates the email's body from the attachments.

  3. COption (c)

    It marks the start and end of each part in a multipart message.

  4. DOption (d)

    It limits the file size of each attachment.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It marks the start and end of each part in a multipart message.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It marks the start and end of each part in a multipart message..

Key Points

  • The boundary parameter in the Content-Type header is crucial for distinguishing different parts of a multipart email message.
  • It is an identifier that marks the beginning and ending of each part within the message.
  • Each boundary is a unique string that should not appear in the content of the message parts.
  • The boundary string allows email clients to correctly parse and separate the individual parts of the email, such as text, images, and attachments.

Additional Information

  • Multipart Email:
  • A multipart email contains multiple parts, such as plain text, HTML, and attachments.
  • These parts are separated by boundary strings defined in the Content-Type header.
  • Content-Type Header:
  • It specifies the media type of the resource, for example, text/html for HTML files.
  • In emails, it indicates the type of content, such as multipart/mixed for emails with attachments.
  • MIME (Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions):
  • MIME is an Internet standard that extends the format of email to support text in character sets other than ASCII, as well as attachments.
  • It is used to encode the body of the email in a way that can be interpreted by different email clients.
  • Boundary String:
  • A boundary string is a sequence of characters that indicate where parts of the multipart message begin and end.
  • It is defined in the Content-Type header and used by email clients to split the email into its constituent parts.

Question 150

What is the role of User Account Control (UAC) in Windows when modifying system settings?

  1. AOption (a)

    To monitor memory usage and performance

  2. BOption (b)

    To adjust display settings

  3. COption (c)

    To automate software updates

  4. DOption (d)

    To prompt for permission before making system-wide changes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To prompt for permission before making system-wide changes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To prompt for permission before making system-wide changes.

Key Points

  • User Account Control (UAC) is a security feature in Windows operating systems.
  • Its primary role is to prevent unauthorized changes to the operating system.
  • UAC prompts users for permission or an administrator password before allowing changes that could affect the system's operation.
  • It helps in preventing malware and unauthorized applications from making system-wide changes without user consent.
  • UAC adds an additional layer of security by ensuring that all changes to the system settings are intentional.

Additional Information

  • Operating System Security:
  • Operating system security includes measures to protect the OS from threats, including malware and unauthorized access.
  • Common security features include firewalls, antivirus programs, and user account management.
  • Administrator Account:
  • An administrator account has full access to the system and can make system-wide changes.
  • It is recommended to use a standard user account for daily activities and an administrator account only when necessary.
  • Standard User Account:
  • A standard user account has limited access and cannot make system-wide changes without permission.
  • This account is suitable for most daily tasks and helps in maintaining system security.
  • Security Tokens:
  • In UAC, security tokens are used to determine the level of access a user has.
  • When a user logs in, Windows assigns a security token that includes their user rights and privileges.

150 questions in the full paper