SSC CGL 2023 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 24 Jul 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

⇒ 17 + 10 × 5 ÷ 9 + 18 = 53

(1) + and ÷

⇒ 17 + 10 × 5 ÷ 9 + 18 = 53

After interchanging the signs:

⇒ 17 ÷ 10 × 5 + 9 ÷ 18 = 53

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 1.7 × 5 + 0.5

⇒ 8.5 + 0.5 = 9

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(2) + and ×

⇒ 17 + 10 × 5 ÷ 9 + 18 = 53

After interchanging the signs:

⇒ 17 × 10 + 5 ÷ 9 × 18 = 53

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 17 × 10 + 0.55 × 18

⇒ 170 + 9.9 = 179.9

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(3) + and­ −

⇒ 17 + 10 × 5 ÷ 9 + 18 = 53

After interchanging the signs:

⇒ 17 - 10 × 5 ÷ 9 - 18 = 53

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 17 - 10 × 0.55 - 18

⇒ 17 - 5.5 - 18

⇒ 17 - 23.5 = (-6.5)

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(4) × and ÷

⇒ 17 + 10 × 5 ÷ 9 + 18 = 53

After interchanging the signs:

⇒ 17 + 10 ÷ 5 × 9 + 18 = 53

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 17 + 2 × 9 + 18 = 53

⇒ 17 + 18 + 18 = 53

⇒ 53 = 53

⇒ '17 + 10 ÷ 5 × 9 + 18 = 53'

Here, the equation is satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

From Figure (1) to (2):

The symbols are moved as shown below.

From Figure (2) to (3):

The symbols are moved as shown below.

From Figure (3) to (4):

The symbols are moved as shown below.

From Figure (4) to Answer Figure (5):

The symbols are moved as shown below.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The paper when unfolded will appear as shown below:

Hence, 'option 1' is the correct answer.

The answer figures is the exact mirror image of the given problem figure when the mirror is held at the right side is shown below:

Hence, 'option 3' is the correct answer.

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

 

Hence, 'option 1' is the correct answer.

Given:

(71, 114, 157)

(36, 79, 122)

Logic: Second no. = [(First no. + Third no.) ÷ 2]

(71, 114, 157) →

⇒ [(71 + 157) ÷ 2]

⇒ (228 ÷ 2) = 114

(36, 79, 122) →

⇒ [(36 + 122) ÷ 2]

⇒ (158 ÷ 2) = 79

Checking all the given options:

1. (52, 95, 137)

⇒ [(52 + 137) ÷ 2]

⇒ (189 ÷ 2) = 94.5

2. (25, 68, 111)

⇒ [(25 + 111) ÷ 2]

⇒ (136 ÷ 2) = 68

3. (16, 56, 98)

⇒ [(16 + 98) ÷ 2]

⇒ (114 ÷ 2) = 57

4. (5, 45, 88)

⇒ [(5 + 88) ÷ 2]

⇒ (93 ÷ 2) = 46.5

Here, (25, 68, 111) shows a similar relation to the given set of numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary is:

5. Cabinet
6. Called
7. Camera
8. Casual
9. Caught

Here, the correct order is '5, 4, 2, 1, 3'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

(I) Some pinks are peacocks. → Does not follow (There is no definite relation between pinks and peacocks. Hence, false)

(II) Some birds are pigeons. → Does not follow (There is no definite relation between birds and pigeons. Hence, false)

(III) Some peacocks are birds. → Does not follow (There is no definite relation between birds and peacocks. Hence, false)

Hence, 'None of the conclusion follow' is the correct answer.

Given:

5 ∶ 140 ∶∶ 8 ∶ 536 ∶∶ 6 ∶ ?

Logic: Second no. = [(First no.)³ + (First no. × 3)]

5 : 140 →

⇒ [(5)³ + (5 × 3)]

⇒ (125 + 15) = 140

8 : 536 →

⇒ [(8)3 + (8 × 3)]

⇒ (512 + 24) = 536

Similarly, for '6 : ?' →

⇒ [(6)3 + (6 × 3)]

⇒ (216 + 18) = 234

Here, '6 : 234' is the correct pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

The mother-in-law of the daughter-in-law of my father is my mother.

Mother-in-law of my mother is my paternal grandmother.

Therefore, Param is grandson of the woman.

Hence, 'Grandson' is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. Some parrots are birds. → Does not follow (There is no definite relation between parrots and birds. Hence, false)

II. Some parrots are ducks. → Follows (As, Some ducks are crows and All crows are parrots)

III. Some crows are birds. → Does not follow (There is no definite relation between crows and birds. Hence, false)

IV. All parrots are birds. → Does not follow (There is no definite relation between parrots and birds. Hence, false)

Hence, ‘Only conclusion II follows’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, '36' is the correct answer.

The option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary is:

2. Submerge
3. Submit
4. Subscribe
5. Subside
6. Subtle
7. Subtract

Here, the correct order is '2, 4, 5, 3, 6, 1'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Clearly, Q is daughter of S.

Hence, ‘Daughter’ is the correct answer.

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

⇒ 12 * 4 * 15 * 3 * 16 * 24

(1) +, −, ÷, ×, =

⇒ 12 * 4 * 15 * 3 * 16 * 24

After putting the signs:

⇒ 12 + 4 - 15 ÷ 3 × 16 = 24

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 12 + 4 - 5 × 16

⇒ 12 + 4 - 80

⇒ 16 - 80 = (-64)

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(2) −, +, ÷, ×, =

⇒ 12 * 4 * 15 * 3 * 16 * 24

After putting the signs:

⇒ 12 - 4 + 15 ÷ 3 × 16 = 24

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 12 - 4 + 5 × 16

⇒ 12 - 4 + 80

⇒ 92 - 4 = 88

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(3) ÷, −, +, ×, =

⇒ 12 * 4 * 15 * 3 * 16 * 24

After putting the signs:

⇒ 12 ÷ 4 - 15 + 3 × 16 = 24

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 3 - 15 + 3 × 16

⇒ 3 - 15 + 48

⇒ 51 - 15 = 36

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(4) ÷, +, ÷, +, =

⇒ 12 * 4 * 15 * 3 * 16 * 24

After putting the signs:

⇒ 12 ÷ 4 + 15 ÷ 3 + 16 = 24

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 3 + 5 + 16

⇒ 8 + 16 = 24

⇒ '12 ÷ 4 + 15 ÷ 3 + 16 = 24'

Here, the equation is satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Given:

Socks ∶ Feet → Socks are worn on the feet.

Similarly,

Glares : Eyes → Glares are used for eyes.

Here, 'Glares : Eyes' is the correct pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'SBFI' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, 'ZAT' is the correct answer.

The code for each letter is shown below:

Clearly, 5  is the code for 'E' in the given code language.

Hence, '5' is the correct answer.

From Figure (1) to (4):

180º clockwise rotation.

Similarly,

From Figure (2) to Answer Figure (5):

180º clockwise rotation.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The correct mirror image from the following options, when the mirror is placed on the right side of the given figure is shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic: [(x)³ , (x ÷ 2)³]

Checking all the given options:

1. (1000, 125) → [(10)³, (10 ÷ 2)³] → [(10)3, (5)3]

2. (216, 49) →  [(6)3, (6 +1)²] → [(6)³, (7)²]

3. (1728, 216) → [(12)3, (12 ÷ 2)3] → [(12)3, (6)3]
4. (512, 64) → [(8)3, (8 ÷ 2)3] → [(8)3, (4)3]

Here, in (216, 49) different logic is followed.

Hence, the correct answer is "(216, 49)".

The logic followed here is:

STOP: OQMO

JUMP: FRKO

Similarly,

MOVE:?

Hence, the correct answer is "ILTD".

Given:

16 ∶ 8 ∶∶ 36 ∶ 12 ∶∶ 64 ∶ ?

Logic: First no. = [Second no. × (Second no. ÷ 4)]

16 : 8 →

⇒ [8 × (8 ÷ 4)]

⇒ (8 × 2) = 16

36 : 12 →

⇒ [12 × (12 ÷ 4)]

⇒ (12 × 3) = 36

Similarly, for '64 : ?' →

⇒ [Y × (Y ÷ 4)] = 64

⇒ (Y)² = (64 × 4)

⇒ (Y)2 = 256

⇒ Y = 16

Hence, the correct answer is "16".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

⇒ 62 * 11 * 42 * 6 * 18 * 21 * 7

(1) +, −, =, ×, −, ÷

⇒ 62 * 11 * 42 * 6 * 18 * 21 * 7

After putting the signs:

⇒ 62 + 11 - 42 = 6 × 18 - 21 ÷ 7

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 73 - 42 = 6 × 18 - 3

⇒ 31 = 108 - 3

⇒ 31 = 105

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(2) =, ×, ÷, −, +, ÷

⇒ 62 * 11 * 42 * 6 * 18 * 21 * 7

After putting the signs:

⇒ 62 = 11 × 42 ÷ 6 - 18 + 21 ÷ 7

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 62 = 11 × 7 - 18 + 3

⇒ 62 = 77 - 18 + 3

⇒ 62 = 80 - 18

⇒ 62 = 62

Here, the equation is satisfied.

(3) −, +, =, ×, −, +

⇒ 62 * 11 * 42 * 6 * 18 * 21 * 7

After putting the signs:

⇒ 62 - 11 + 42 = 6 × 18 - 21 + 7

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 104 - 11 = 108 - 21 + 7

⇒ 93 = 115 - 21

⇒ 93 = 94

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(4) +, −, ÷, =, ×, +

⇒ 62 * 11 * 42 * 6 * 18 * 21 * 7

After putting the signs:

⇒ 62 + 11 - 42 ÷ 6 = 18 × 21 + 7

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 62 + 11 - 7 = 378 + 7

⇒ 73 - 7 = 385

⇒ 66 = 385

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "=, ×, ÷, −, +, ÷".

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• Majuli is a river island located in the Brahmaputra River in Assam, which is the world's largest river island and the cultural capital of the state.
• The Majuli festival is a popular cultural festival celebrated in Assam to showcase the state's rich cultural heritage and traditional art forms.
• It is a three-day festival held in November every year.
• The festival includes various cultural activities such as dance performances, folk music, traditional sports, and handicraft exhibitions.
• The festival also promotes environmental awareness and sustainable development practices.

Additional Information

• Famous festivals of Manipur include Gang-Ngai, Lui-Ngai-Ni, Yaosang, Cheiraoba, Kang and Heikru.
• Famous festivals of Sikkim include Maghe Sankranti, Sonam Lochar, Losar, Holi, Ramnawami (Chaite Dasain) and Good Friday.
• Famous festivals of Meghalaya include the Garo Wangala festival, Shad Suk, Mynsiem, and Nongkrem Dance.

The correct answer is the National Highways Authority of India.

Key Points

• The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is responsible for the development, maintenance, and management of national highways in India.
• NHAI is an autonomous agency under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways and was established in 1988.
• NHAI is responsible for the construction of new national highways, the widening of existing highways, and the maintenance of highways across the country.
• NHAI also collects tolls on the national highways to generate revenue for their maintenance and development.

Additional Information

• The Border Road Organisation (BRO) is responsible for the construction and maintenance of roads in border areas and is a part of the Indian Army.
• State governments and their respective Public Works Department are responsible for the development and maintenance of state highways and other roads within their respective states.
• The Indian road network is the second-largest in the world, with a total length of 5.5 million kilometers.
• The national highways in India account for only 2% of the total road network but carry 40% of the total road traffic.

The correct answer is Ribosomes, mitochondria and lysosomes are found in animal cells.

Key Points

• Ribosomes are found in all cells, including animal cells.
• Ribosomes are responsible for synthesizing proteins.
• Mitochondria are the energy-producing organelles in animal cells.
• Mitochondria are organelles that are found in eukaryotic cells (cells that have a nucleus) and are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP.
• Lysosomes are also found in animal cells and are responsible for breaking down waste materials.

Additional Information

• Bacteria do not have a nucleus and their energy-producing organelles are called "plasmids," not mitochondria.
• In fact, plant cells have additional organelles such as chloroplasts, cell walls, and large central vacuoles that are not found in animal cells.
• Chloroplasts are organelles that are found in plant cells and are responsible for photosynthesis, the process by which plants convert sunlight into energy.
• Fungal cells are eukaryotic cells that have a nucleus and organelles such as ribosomes and a nucleus.
• They do not have chloroplasts, which are only found in plant cells.

The correct answer is Gross fiscal deficit = Net borrowing at home + Borrowing from RBI + Borrowing from abroad.

 Key Points

• Gross fiscal deficit refers to the difference between the government's total expenditure and its total revenue.
• It takes into account all types of borrowing, including borrowing from RBI and borrowing from abroad.
• Typically, a significant increase in capital expenditures or an income shortfall causes a fiscal deficit.
• To construct long-term assets like factories, buildings, and other developments, capital expenditures are needed.
• Typically, a deficit is funded by borrowing from the nation's central bank or by raising funds on the capital markets through the issuance of bonds and treasury bills, among other instruments.

Additional Information

• Net borrowing at home refers to the difference between the government's borrowing from the market and its repayment of past loans.
• Borrowing from RBI refers to the government's borrowing from the central bank.
• Borrowing from abroad refers to the government's borrowing from foreign sources.

The correct answer is Devabhuti.

Key Points

• The last king of the Shunga dynasty was Devabhuti.
• Shunga dynasty ruled over a major part of northern India from the 2^nd century BCE to the 1^st century BCE.
• The Shunga dynasty was preceded by the Maurya dynasty and succeeded by the Kanva dynasty.
• The Shunga period saw the revival of Hinduism and Sanskrit literature, after the decline of Buddhism under the Mauryas.
• Devabhuti was a weak and ineffective ruler, who was overthrown by his minister Vasudeva Kanva, leading to the end of the Shunga dynasty.
• The Kanva dynasty ruled for a brief period of about 45 years, before being replaced by the Satavahanas in the Deccan region.
• The Satavahanas were contemporaries of the later Shunga kings, and their most famous ruler was Gautamiputra Satakarni, who defeated the Shunga ruler Vasumitra.

Additional Information

• Pushyamitra Shunga was the founder of the Shunga dynasty.
• He ruled from 185 BCE to 149 BCE.
• Bhavabhuti was a renowned Sanskrit playwright and poet who lived in the 8^th century CE, several centuries after the end of Shunga dynasty.
• His plays are regarded as being on par with Kalidasa's.
• Shashanka was a king of Gauda region in present-day West Bengal during the 7^th century CE, again several centuries after the end of Shunga dynasty.
• The Bengali calendar is attributed to Shashanka.

The correct answer is Vladimir Prelog.

Key Points

• The person who received the Nobel Prize 'for his research in the stereochemistry of organic molecules and reactions' in 1975 is Vladimir Prelog.
• Prelog was a Croatian-Swiss chemist who made significant contributions to the field of stereochemistry, which is the study of the spatial arrangement of atoms in molecules.
• His research focused on the three-dimensional structure of molecules and their interactions with other molecules, which helped to explain how chemical reactions occur.
• Prelog's work also led to the development of new drugs and materials with specific properties.

Additional Information

• Lipscomb received the prize in 1976 for his work on the structure of molecules.
• He was an American inorganic and organic scientist who studied biochemistry, boron chemistry, theoretical chemistry, and nuclear magnetic resonance.
• Wilkinson received the Nobel Prize in 1973 for his discoveries in organometallic chemistry.
• Wilkinson was a chemist who established homogeneous transition metal catalysis and inorganic chemistry.
• Flory received Nobel Prize in 1974 for his contributions to polymer chemistry.

The correct answer is Thailand.

Key Points

• Thailand was the debutant team in the ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2020.
• This was the first time Thailand participated in the ICC Women's T20 World Cup.
• Thailand played in Group B alongside heavyweights like Australia, India, New Zealand, and Sri Lanka.
• Although Thailand did not win any matches, they put up a spirited performance and earned respect from fans and opponents alike.

Additional Information

• The International Cricket Council (ICC), which oversees the sport, organizes the ICC Women's T20 World Cup.
• The inaugural event was held in England in 2009.
• There will also be twelve teams competing in the 2026 tournament.
• Bangladesh has played in all the previous editions of the ICC Women's T20 World Cup.
• Ireland has played in four previous editions of the ICC women's T20 World Cup.
• Afghanistan does not have a women's national cricket team, and hence, did not participate in the ICC women T20 World Cup.

The correct answer is Facebook.

 Key Points

• In July 2021, the Supreme Court of India rejected Facebook's plea against the summons issued by the Delhi Assembly's Peace and Harmony Committee.
• The summons were related to allegations of the social media platform's inaction against hate speech and posts promoting violence during the Delhi riots in February 2020.
• The committee had sought Facebook's representatives to appear before it for questioning, but the company argued that the summons was unconstitutional and violated its privacy rights.
• However, the Supreme Court ruled that the Delhi Assembly had the power to summon individuals and entities for its proceedings, and Facebook could not claim absolute immunity from such summons.
• The court also directed Facebook to cooperate with the committee's investigation and provide relevant documents and information.

Additional Information

• Twitter has also faced similar issues with the Delhi Assembly and the Indian government over its handling of content related to farmers' protests and other sensitive topics.
• The American multimedia instant messaging software and service Snapchat was created by Snap Inc., formerly known as Snapchat Inc.
• Instagram is a social networking website that allows users to share photos and videos.
• It is owned by Meta Platforms.

The correct answer is Tanzania, Uganda, and Kenya.

Key Points

• Lake Victoria is in Uganda, Tanzania, and Kenya.
• The lake is the largest in Africa and the second-largest freshwater lake in the world.
• It is an important source of water for the surrounding countries and supports a large fishing industry.
• The lake is also a popular tourist destination, known for its beautiful scenery and diverse wildlife.

Additional Information

• Three nations share the lake's landmass: Tanzania (49%), Uganda (45%), and Kenya (6%).
• The first British person to map the lake was John Hanning Speke, an explorer who went on an expedition with Richard Francis Burton in 1858 and dubbed it after Queen Victoria.
• Numerous native fish species have become extinct as a result of invasive fish like the Nile perch.
• A species of jumping spider (family Salticidae) unique to the area surrounding Lake Victoria in Kenya and Uganda is called Evarcha culicivora.
• It mostly consumes female mosquitoes for food.

The correct answer is Jaintia Hills.

 Key Points

• Jaintia Hills is a part of the Meghalaya plateau, which is located in the northeastern part of India.
• The Meghalaya Plateau is a part of the larger Deccan Plateau and consists of several hills and valleys.
• The Jaintia Hills are known for their rich biodiversity, including several endemic species of flora and fauna.
• The hills are also home to several indigenous tribes, including the Jaintia and Pnar communities.

Additional Information

• Cardamom Hills:-
• Located in the Western Ghats of southern India, the Cardamom Hills are known for their cardamom spice, which is grown in the cool elevations of the hills.
• The Nilgiri Hills are located in the Western Ghats.
• Nilgiris is renowned for producing bauxite in addition to tea and eucalyptus oil.
• Anaimalai Hills are also known as the Elephant Hills.
• These are located in Tamil Nadu and Kerala and are known for their rich wildlife and scenic beauty.

The correct answer is Ministry of Rural Development.

Key Points

• Prajwala Challenge is a nationwide initiative launched by the Ministry of Rural Development.
• The Prajwala Challenge was launched in 2019 and is open to individuals, startups, and organizations to submit innovative ideas and solutions for rural development.
• The objective of the Prajwala Challenge is to identify and support innovative solutions that can be scaled up and replicated to address the challenges faced by rural communities in areas such as agriculture, water, sanitation, health, education, and livelihoods.
• The Prajwala Challenge offers funding, mentorship, and networking opportunities to the selected participants to help them implement their ideas and solutions.
• The Ministry of Rural Development has also launched other initiatives such as the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) and the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) to promote rural development and livelihoods.

Additional Information

• On September 25, 2014, Union Ministers Nitin Gadkari and Venkaiah Naidu introduced DDU-GKY in honor of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya's 98^th birthday.
• "Transform rural poor youth into an economically independent and globally relevant workforce" is the mission statement of DDU-GKY.
• Youth in the 15–35 age range are the target demographic.
• The goal of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) initiative is to organize rural impoverished people and encourage self-employment.
• ​The purpose of this initiative is to enable self-employment by grouping the impoverished into Self Help Groups (SHGs). ​

The correct answer is Kathak.

Key Points

• Ishwari Prasad is associated with the Indian classical dance form of Kathak.
• The roots of the Kathak Lucknow Gharana may be traced back to Sri Ishwari Prasadji, an Allahabad inhabitant of the Handia Tehsil.
• Kathak is a North Indian classical dance form that originated in the Mughal era and is known for its intricate footwork and graceful movements.

Additional Information

• Manipuri is a classical dance form from Manipur in Northeast India.
• It is characterized by its slow and graceful movements.
• Kathakali is a classical dance-drama form from Kerala in South India.
• It is known for its elaborate makeup and costumes, and its use of facial expressions and hand gestures to convey emotions.
• Bharatanatyam is a classical dance form from Tamil Nadu in South India.
• It is known for its complex rhythms and expressive gestures.

The correct answer is Ishwari Prasad.

 Key Points

• Ishwari Prasad was a prominent dancer and musician who developed the Lucknow gharana of Kathak.
• He was born in Lucknow in 1856 and learned Kathak from his father, Thakur Prasad.
• He blended the traditional Kathak style with elements of Persian and Urdu culture to create the Lucknow gharana.
• Some of the distinctive features of this gharana include the use of chakkars (spins), thumris (classical songs), and abhinaya (expressive storytelling).

Additional Information

• Sitara Devi was a famous Kathak dancer.
• Devi met Rabindranath Tagore when she was quite young.
• Out of fondness, he called her the "empress of dance," or Nritya Samragni.
• Birju Maharaj is a renowned Kathak dancer and choreographer.
• India's second-highest civilian award, the Padma Vibhushan, was given to Birju Maharaj in 1986.
• Rukmini Devi was a famous Bharatanatyam dancer and founder of Kalakshetra Foundation.
• She was the first female nominee for the Rajya Sabha in Indian history.

Famous Gharana's of India:

• | Gharana | Founder | | --- | --- | | Gwalior Gharana | Ustad Hassu Khan, Ustad Haddu Khan, Ustad Nathu Khan | | Kirana Gharana | Abdul Karim Khan and Abdul Wahid Khan | | Jaipur Gharana | Ustad Alladiya Khan | | Patiala Gharana | Ustad Fateh Ali Khan and Ustad Ali Baksh | | Mewati Gharana | Ghagge Nazir Khan |

The correct answer is Vijayanagar.

Key Points

• The battle of Talikota was fought between the Vijayanagara Empire and the Deccan Sultanates in 1565.
• The victorious armies of the Deccan Sultanates, comprising Bijapur, Ahmadnagar, Bidar, and Golconda, sacked the city of Vijayanagar after winning the battle.
• Vijayanagar was the capital city of the Vijayanagara Empire, situated in present-day Hampi, Karnataka.
• The city was known for its grandeur and opulence, with magnificent temples, palaces, and markets.
• The defeat and sacking of Vijayanagar marked the decline of the Vijayanagara Empire and the rise of the Deccan Sultanates.

Additional Information

• Ahmadnagar was a city in Maharashtra.
• It was ruled by the Nizam Shahi dynasty during the 16^th century.
• Bijapur was one of the Deccan Sultanates that participated in the battle of Talikota and sacked Vijayanagar after the victory.
• The city of Bijapur is renowned for its historically significant and architecturally significant monuments that were constructed under the Adil Shahi reign.
• Golconda was another Deccan Sultanate that was part of the victorious army in the battle of Talikota and contributed to the sacking of Vijayanagar.
• It was known for its diamond mines and was later annexed by the Mughal Empire.

The correct answer is the Seventh Five-Year Plan.

 Key Points

• The seventh Five-Year Plan was implemented from 1985 to 1990.
• The main objective of this plan was to achieve rapid growth in food grain production and increase self-sufficiency in food.
• The plan aimed to increase the food grains production from 155 million tonnes in 1984-85 to 200 million tonnes by the end of the plan period.
• The Seventh Five-Year Plan also focused on increasing employment opportunities, improving infrastructure, and promoting social justice.

Additional Information

• The sixth Five Year Plan was implemented from 1980 to 1985.
• It focused on poverty alleviation and rural development.
• The Fifth Five-Year Plan was implemented from 1974 to 1979.
• It aimed to achieve self-reliance in agriculture and industry.
• The Eighth Five-Year Plan was implemented from 1992 to 1997.
• It focused on human development, employment generation, and infrastructure development.

The correct answer is  April.

Key Points

• The All India Survey on Migrant Workers was conducted under the overall guidance of an Expert Group constituted by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
• It came into effect in April.
• The survey aimed to collect data on the socio-economic profile of migrant workers, their skill sets, employment status, and their access to social security benefits.
• The survey was conducted in 4,200 sample villages/wards and covered 1.14 lakh migrant workers across all states and union territories of India.
• The survey was conducted through a combination of telephonic interviews and face-to-face interviews, following all COVID-19 safety protocols.

Additional Information

• In August 2020, the Ministry of Labour and Employment announced that it would conduct a survey on migrant workers to assess their employment status and skill sets.
• In June 2021, the Supreme Court directed the Centre and state governments to conduct a fresh survey to identify and provide relief to migrant workers stranded during the second wave of COVID-19.
• In February 2021, the Ministry of Labour and Employment had launched a portal for migrant workers to register themselves and avail welfare schemes.

The correct answer is 382 persons/km2.

Key Points

• As per the 2011 Census, the density of the population of India is 382 persons/km².
• This means that on average, there are 382 people living in every square kilometer of India's land area.
• India is the second most populous country in the world after China, and its population density is much higher than the global average of 56 persons/km².

Additional Information

• Population density is a measure of the number of people living in a given area.
• It is calculated by dividing the total population of an area by its land area.
• India's population density has been steadily increasing over the years, and it is projected to reach 464 persons/km² by 2021.
• The high population density in India has led to a number of challenges such as overcrowding, urbanization, and environmental degradation.

The correct answer is Satyendra Nath Tagore.

Key Points

• Satyendra Nath Tagore was the first Indian to qualify for Covenanted service.
• He cleared the Indian Civil Service (ICS) examination in 1863 and joined the Bengal Presidency Civil Service.
• He was a member of Bramho Samaj.
• Tagore was a prominent member of the Tagore family and was the elder brother of Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore.

Additional Information

• Covenanted service was a term used to describe the higher ranks of the Indian Civil Service, which was the administrative arm of the British Raj in India.
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a member of the Indian National Congress and advocated for constitutional reforms and self-rule for India.
• He was also a mentor to Mahatma Gandhi.
• Subhash Chandra Bose was a radical nationalist leader.
• He formed the Indian National Army to fight against the British during World War II.
• Surendra Nath Banerjee was a prominent Indian nationalist leader who founded the Indian National Association.
• It later became the Indian National Congress.

When was the first Women's ODI World Cup played?  The correct answer is England.

Key Points

• The first Women's Cricket World Cup was hosted by England in 1973. While the first men's World Cup was in 1975.
• The tournament was played in a round-robin format with four teams - England, Australia, New Zealand, and Jamaica.
• England emerged as the champions by winning all three of their matches, while Australia finished as runners-up with two wins.
• The Women's Cricket World Cup is held once every four years and the current champions are England, who won the 2017 edition held in England and Wales.

Additional Information

• Australia has hosted the Women's Cricket World Cup twice, in 1988 and 2009.
• West Indies has never hosted the Women's Cricket World Cup, but they did co-host the men's event in 2007 along with three other countries.
• New Zealand has hosted the Women's Cricket World Cup thrice, in 1982, 2000, and 2022).
• The eighth iteration of the ICC Women's T20 World Cup competition took place in 2023.
• It took place in South Africa from February 10–26, 2023.
• The tournament concluded in Cape Town.
• After defeating the home team, South Africa, by 19 runs in the championship match, Australia claimed their sixth and third consecutive title.
• It featured a total of 7 teams, including two unique teams – Young England and International XI, which usually do not feature in regular World Cups.
• Each match was of 60 overs, which was different from today's 50-over format.
• This tournament proved to be a milestone for women's cricket – it showed that women can also compete at the international level.
• Many young girls were inspired to play cricket from this tournament, making the future of women's cricket bright.
• Behind this event was the hard work of some dedicated cricket lovers, who made it a success despite the lack of resources.

The correct answer is Moist tropical forest.

 Key Points

• The plant varieties mentioned in the question, such as bamboo, epiphytes, aini, semul, gutel, and mundane are found in moist tropical forests in India.
• Moist tropical forests are characterized by high rainfall and high humidity, with temperatures ranging from 20-28^oC.
• These forests are also known as evergreen forests because the trees here do not shed their leaves all at once, unlike deciduous forests.

Additional Information

• Bamboo is a fast-growing plant that is widely used in construction, paper-making, and as a source of food for animals.
• Epiphytes are plants that grow on other plants, such as trees but do not harm them.
• They obtain their nutrients from the air and rain.
• Aini, semul, gutel, and mundane are all tree species found in moist tropical forests in India.
• Aini is also known as Indian gooseberry and is used in Ayurvedic medicine.
• Semul, also known as silk cotton tree, is used to make pillows and mattresses.
• Gutel is a type of hardwood tree, and mundane is a type of fig tree.
• Alpine forests are found at high altitudes, typically above 3,500 meters, and are characterized by low temperatures and short growing seasons.
• Montane temperate forests are found in areas with cooler temperatures and higher elevations than tropical forests but lower than alpine forests.
• Dry tropical forests are found in regions with less rainfall and are characterized by a different set of plant species compared to moist tropical forests.

The correct answer is Gwalior.

Key Points

• Ustad Hassu Khan was one of the founders of the Gwalior Gharana of music.
• The Gwalior Gharana is one of the oldest and most prominent Gharanas of Indian classical music.
• The Gwalior Gharana is known for its emphasis on voice culture, clarity of notes, and intricate rhythmic patterns.
• Ustad Hassu Khan was succeeded by his son Ustad Haddu Khan, who also became a renowned musician of the Gwalior Gharana.

Additional Information

• Rampur Gharana is known for its unique style of playing sitar and was founded by Ustad Enayat Khan.
• With its medium-slow tempos, full-throated voice, and complex rhythmic play, the Gwalior Gharana and the Rampur-Sahaswan gayaki (form of singing) are closely related.
• Agra Gharana is known for its elaborate compositions and was founded by Miyan Tansen, one of the most celebrated musicians in Indian history.
• Nayak Gopal is the earliest known musician in this style.
• Patiala Gharana is known for its powerful and energetic style of singing and was founded by Ustad Ali Baksh and Ustad Fateh Ali Khan.

The correct answer is Sublimable substances.

 Key Points

• Sublimation is the process in which a solid substance directly converts into its gaseous form without going through the liquid phase.
• Dry ice, ammonium chloride, naphthalene balls, and camphor exhibit sublimation on heating.
• Dry ice is solid carbon dioxide, which sublimates at -78.5 degrees Celsius and is commonly used as a cooling agent because it undergoes sublimation, transitioning directly from solid to gas without becoming liquid. This property makes it useful for keeping things cold without leaving behind liquid residue. So while it's not a traditional "cooling agent " like ice packs, it functions effectively in cooling applications due to its sublimation process.
• Ammonium chloride, naphthalene balls, and camphor are also sublimable substances that are used for various purposes such as in moth repellents, decongestants, and medicinal ointments.

Additional Information

• Cooling agents are substances that are used to lower the temperature of a system, and all the given compounds can act as cooling agents due to their sublimation properties.
• Inflammable substances are those that can easily catch fire and burn, while solidifying agents are substances that can convert liquids into solids.
• None of the given compounds fall under these categories.
• Dry ice is commonly used in the transportation of perishable goods as it can maintain a low temperature for an extended period.
• Ammonium chloride is used as a flux in the soldering of metals and in the production of dry batteries.
• Naphthalene balls are used as a moth repellent and to prevent musty odors in closets and storage spaces.
• Camphor is used in medicinal ointments and as a flavoring agent in food and beverages.

The correct answer is 26 January 1950.

Key Points

• 26 January 1950 date marks the inauguration of the Supreme Court of India.
• It replaced the Federal Court of India and was established under the Constitution of India.
• The Supreme Court is the highest judicial body in the country, and its decisions are binding on all other courts in India.
• The first Chief Justice of India was Hiralal J. Kania, who served from 1950 to 1951.

Additional Information

• The Chief Justice of India and up to 33 other judges make up the Supreme Court, which has broad authority in the form of original, appellate, and advisory jurisdictions.
• According to Article 142 of the Constitution, the court has the inherent authority to issue any order that is thought to be required for the sake of full justice, and the President is obligated to carry it out.
• The Reserve Bank of India was founded on 1 April 1935 to respond to economic troubles after the First World War.
• 15 August 1947 is the date when India gained independence from British rule.
• 2 October 1952 is the date when the first postage stamp was issued in India.

The correct answer is Bareilly.

Key Points

• Khan Bahadur led the revolt of 1857 from Bareilly.
• Bareilly was an important centre of the revolt of 1857 and was the site of several battles between the rebels and the British.
• In 1857, during the Indian uprising against British colonial control, Khan Bahadur established his own government at Bareilly as a show of protest.
• During the Rebellion of 1857, the British took Bareilly prisoner.
• At seventy, Khan Bahadur rose up in rebellion against the British.
• He took a number of actions to guarantee unity between Muslims and Hindus.
• He battled the colonial government in order to free the Motherland.
• In Bareilly, the capital of Rohilkhand, Khan Bahadur Khan Rohilla proclaimed the state's independence on May 31, 1857.

Additional Information

• Delhi was the site of the first major uprising of the revolt of 1857 and was the centre of power for the rebels during the early stages of the rebellion.
• Kanpur was another important centre of the revolt of 1857 and was the site of the infamous massacre of British women and children by the rebels under the leadership of Nana Sahib.
• Lucknow was the site of a prolonged siege by the rebels and was the site of several battles between the rebels and the British.
• The siege of Lucknow was one of the most significant events of the revolt of 1857.

The correct answer is the USSR.

Key Points

• USSR (Union of Soviet Socialist Republics) was the first country to incorporate Fundamental Duties in its Constitution in 1936.
• The concept of Fundamental Duties was introduced in the Indian Constitution in 1976 through the 42^nd Amendment, but India was not the first country to incorporate it in its Constitution.
• Fundamental Duties were recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee in 1976, and their importance became apparent during the internal emergency of 1975–1977.

Additional Information

• The moral duties that all Indian citizens have to support the country's unity and foster a sense of patriotism are known as the Fundamental Duties.
• Both people and the country are subject to the obligations outlined in Part IV–A of the Constitution.
• Similar to the Directive Principles, they cannot be enforced in court unless legislative legislation specifically provides for their enforcement.
• Albania is known for its isolationist policies and had a communist government until the 1990s.
• Poland is a country in Europe that had a socialist government until the 1980s.

Given

Total students in the class = 60

Girls = 20

The average weight of the boys  = 40 kg

The average weight of the girls = 35 kg

Formula used:

Average = sum of values/total values

Calculation

Let the average weight (in kg) of the entire class be x.

Sum of weight of all boys = 40 × 40 = 1600

Sum of weight of all girls = 20 × 35 = 700

The sum of weight of all classes = 60x

⇒ 60x = 1600 + 700

⇒ 60x = 2300

⇒ x = 38.33 kg

The average weight (in kg) of the entire class is 38.33 kg

Identity used:

cosec²θ – cot²θ = 1

Calculation:

⇒ cosec θ + cot θ = m      ---- (1)

⇒ (cosec θ - cot θ)(cosec θ + cot θ) = 1

⇒ (cosec θ - cot θ) =1/m

⇒ cosec θ - cot θ = 1/m      ---- (2)

By adding (1) and (2), we'll get

2cosecθ = m + 1/m

cosecθ = (m² + 1)/2m  ...(3)

By subtracting (1) and (2), we'll get

2cotθ = m - 1/m   ...(4)

cotθ = (m2 - 1)/2m

⇒ $\rm\frac{m^{2}−1}{m^{2}+1}$

Putting eq. (3) annd (4) in above expression:

⇒ 2mcotθ/2mcosecθ 

⇒ cotθ/cosecθ

⇒ cosθ

The value is cosθ.

Given

Three numbers are in the ratio $\frac{4}{5}:\frac{5}{6}:\frac{9}{10}$.

Calculation

⇒ 4/5 × 12 = 9.6

⇒ 5/6 × 12 = 10

⇒ 9/10 × 12 = 10.8

The three numbers are in the ratio = 9.6:10:10.8

Let the numbers be 9.6x, 10x, and 10.8x.

⇒ 10.8x - 9.6x = 12

⇒ 1.2x = 12

⇒ x = 10

The numbers are 96, 100 and 108

The number which is NEITHER the smallest NOR the greatest is 100.

Alternate Method

Calculation:

LCM of 5, 6 and 10 is 30.

4/5 ×  30 = 24

5/6 ×  30 = 25

9/10 ×  30 = 27

⇒ A ∶ B ∶ C = 24x ∶ 25x ∶ 27x

According to the question 

⇒ 27x - 24x = 12

⇒ 3x = 12

⇒ x = 4

First number = 24x = 24 × 4 = 96

Second number = 25x = 25 × 4 = 100

Third number = 27x = 27 × 4 = 108

The correct option is 3 i.e. 100

Given:

Radii of circles are 13 cm and 15 cm 

Distance between centres = 14 cm 

Concept Used:

The line joining the centers of two circles is the perpendicular bisector of the common chord of the two circles.

⇒ AB = 2AM

Calculation:

From the figure, P and Q are the centers of two circles of radius 15 cm and 13cm respectively and AB is the common chord

In ΔAMP, PA = 15 cm

By Pythagoras theorem,

AM² = PA² - PM²

⇒ AM2 = 152 - PM2

⇒ AM2 = 225 - PM2     -----(1)

In ΔAMQ, QA = 13 cm

By Pythagoras theorem,

AM2 = QA2 - MQ2

⇒ AM2 = 132 - MQ2

⇒ AM2 = 169 - MQ2     -----(2)

From (1) and (2)

225 - PM2 = 169 - MQ2 

⇒ PM2  - MQ2 = 56

⇒ (PM + MQ) (PM - MQ) = 56

According to the question,

(PM + MQ) = PQ = Distance between centres = 14 cm ----(3)

⇒ 14 (PM - MQ) = 56

⇒ (PM - MQ) = 56/14 = 4                                               ----(4)

From (3) and (4)

PM = 9 cm

Putting value of PM in (1)

AM2 = 225 - 92

⇒ AM2  = 225 - 81

⇒ AM2  = 144

⇒ AM = 12 cm

Thus, length of common chord = AB = 2AM = 24 cm

∴ The length of the common chord is 24 cm.

Concept used

Cumulative frequency: the total of frequencies, that are distributed over different class intervals

Calculation

The students who scored less than 20 marks are 5.

Calculation

⇒ x2 + y2

⇒ 1² + 2²

⇒ 1 + 4 = 5

The value is 5.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Selling Price (SP) based on price: 16 : 20 = 4 : 5.

Ratio based on Weight (Inversely proportional to price): 800 : 1000 = 4 : 5.

Net ratio (CP : SP) = (4 × 4) : (5 × 5) = 16 : 25.

Profit = 25 − 16 = 9 units.

Actual Profit % = (9 ÷ 16) × 100 = 56.25%.

∴ The correct answer is 56.25%.

Alternate Method

Given: CP of 1000 gm = Rs. 16, SP of 800 gm = Rs. 20.

Formulas: Profit = SP − CP | Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100.

⇒ Cost Price of 1 gm = 16 ÷ 1000 = Rs. 0.016.

⇒ Cost Price of 800 gm = 0.016 × 800 = Rs. 12.80.

⇒ Selling Price of 800 gm = Rs. 20.

⇒ Profit = 20 − 12.80 = Rs. 7.20.

⇒ Profit % = (7.20 ÷ 12.80) × 100 = 56.25%.

∴ The correct answer is 56.25%.

Additional Information

Dishonest Dealer Concept

A dealer can earn profit by increasing the price and by using faulty weights. Total gain is the result of both factors.

Weight Error Formula

Profit % due to weight error = [Error ÷ (True Value − Error)] × 100.

Given:-

A can do a certain piece of work in 1.5 times the number of days in which B and C together can do it.

 A and B together can do the same piece of work in 30 days

C alone can do it in 120 days

Concept:-

The ratio of efficiency is reciprocal of time.

Number of days required to complete a certain work = (Work to be completed/Work efficiency)

Calculation:-

A = 1.5 (B + C)

A/(B + C) = 3/2

A/(B + C)(efficiency) = 2/3

Total work be 120(LCM of 30 and 120)

Efficiency of A + B = 120/30 = 4 unit/day

Efficiency of C = 120/120 = 1 unit/day

Efficiency of B = 4 - 2 = 2 unit/day

Time taken by B to do this piece of work alone = 120/2

= 60 days.

The time taken by B to do this piece of work alone is 60 days.

Shortcut Trick 

The time taken by B to do this piece of work alone is 60 days.

Given:

Aarti can type 85 pages in 10 hours

Aarti and Bina together can type 500 pages in 40 hours

Formula Used:

Efficiency = Work done/Time Taken

Calculation:

By using the above formula

The efficiency of Aarti is = 85/10 = 8.5 pages/hr

The efficiency of Aarti and Bina  = 500/40= 12.5 pages/hr

The efficiency of Bina = 12.5 - 8.5 = 4 pages/hr

The time taken by Bina to type 40 pages will be

⇒ 40/4= 10 hr

∴ The Time taken by Bina is 10 hours.

Given 

A person invests on simple interest = Rs. 800

A person invests on simple interest = Rs. 600

Rate of Interest = 5.5%

Rate of Interest = 4%

Time = 6 year

Time = t year

Formula used.

Simple interest = Principal × Time × Rate/100

Amount = Principal(1 - Rate/100)2

Calculation 

The Rate of Interest for the first and second sum is 4% and 5% p.a. respectively.

(800 × 5.5 × 6) / 100 = ((600) × 4 × t) / 100

⇒ 24t = 264

⇒ t = 264/24

⇒ t = 11

The value of t (in percentage) is 11 years.

Calculation

Students studying in class IX of schools Q and R together = 157 + 143

= 300

Students studying in class VI of schools S and T together = 142 + 144

= 286

The ratio of  the two = 300 : 286

= 150 : 143

The respective ratio of students studying in class IX of schools Q and R together to those studying in class VI of schools S and T together is 150:143.

Given

tan x = -12/5

Concept

tan x = Perpendicular/base

Sin x = Perpendicular/hypotenuse

Calculation

tan x = -12/5 = Perpendicular/base

P = 12 and B = - 5

H² = P² + B²

H2 = 144 + 25

H2 = 169

H = 13

⇒ sin x − cot x

⇒ P/H + B/P   ...(since cot is also negative in second quadrant)

⇒ (P² + BH)PH

⇒ (144 + 65)/156

⇒ 209/156

The value is 209/156.

Concept used

To find the least perfect square number which is divisible by 2, 3, 5, 6, 9 and 18

first, find the LCM of the given numbers

Calculation

LCM (2, 3, 5, 6, 9 and 18) = 90

90 = 2 x 3 x 3 x 5.

As 2 and 5 are not in pair in LCM’s factor so we need to multiply 90 by 5 and 2 to make it a perfect square.

90 x 2 x 5  = 900.

∴ 900 is the least perfect square divisible by 2, 3, 5, 6, 9 and 18

Formula used

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Calculation

(4x + 1)2 − (4x + 3) (4x − 1)

⇒ 16x² + 1 + 2 × 4x × 1 - (16x² - 4x + 12x - 3)

⇒ 1 + 8x × 1 - 8x + 3

⇒ 4

The value is 4.

GIVEN:

GD = 10 cm

CONCEPT:

Centroid divides the median AD in the ratio 2 : 1

CALCULATION:

Since G is the centroid of the triangle:

AD = 3 × 10 = 30 cm

The length of AD is 30 cm.

Given:

x + 1/x = 2√2

Formula used:

If x + 1/x = n

then, x2 + 1/x2 = n2 - 2

And (a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab (a + b)

Calculation:

x + 1/x = 2√2

⇒ x2 + 1/x2 = (2√2)2 - 2

⇒ x2 + 1/x2 = 6

Cubing both side we get

⇒ (x2 + 1/x2)3 = 63

⇒ x6 + 1/x6 + 3 (x2 × 1/x2) (x2 + 1/x2)  = 63 

⇒ x6 + 1/x6 + 3 × 1 × 6 = 63 

⇒ x6 + 1/x6 = 63 - 3 × 6

⇒ x6 + 1/x6 = 216 - 18

⇒ x6 + 1/x6 = 198

∴ The value of x6 + 1/x6 is 198.

Shortcut Trick

Using the product-over-difference formula for two opposing rates.

Time taken by leakage = (Filling time × Filling time with leakage) ÷ (Filling time with leakage − Filling time)

Time = (30 × 50) ÷ (50 − 30) = 1500 ÷ 20 = 75 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 75 hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Pipe A to fill = 30 hours

Time taken by Pipe A + Leakage L = 50 hours

Calculations:

⇒ Let total tank capacity (LCM of 30 and 50) = 150 units.

⇒ Efficiency of Pipe A = 150 ÷ 30 = 5 units/hr.

⇒ Combined efficiency of Pipe A and Leakage L = 150 ÷ 50 = 3 units/hr.

⇒ Efficiency of Leakage L = Combined efficiency − Efficiency of A

⇒ Efficiency of Leakage L = 3 − 5 = −2 units/hr (negative denotes emptying).

⇒ Time taken by Leakage to empty tank = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of L

⇒ Time = 150 ÷ 2 = 75 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 75 hr.

Additional Information

Pipes and Cisterns Efficiency

If a pipe fills a tank in 'x' hours and another empties it in 'y' hours (where y > x), the net part filled in 1 hour is (1/x − 1/y).

Combined Time Formula

When two pipes operate together, the total time T taken is given by 1/T = 1/T₁ + 1/T₂, where emptying pipes have negative values.

Leakage Impact

A leak always reduces the net efficiency of the filling pipe, thereby increasing the total time required to fill the tank.

Given

Two men walk from a place at speeds of 9 km/h and 12 km/h, respectively.

Formula used

Time = distance/speed

Calculation

20 min = 1/3 

Let the total distance be x km.

According to the question

x/9 - x/12 = 1/3

⇒ (4x - 3x)36 = 1/3

⇒ x/36 = 1/3

⇒ x = 12

The distance of the journey is 12 km.

Shortcut TrickThe distance is = [(9 × 12)/(12 - 9)] × 1/3 = 12 km

Given:

X and Y start from the same point and at the same time at speeds of 54 km/h and 63 km/h.

Distance = 4225 m

Formula used:

Distance = relative speed × time

Calculations:

The relative speed of both in the opposite direction = S2 + S1

= 54 + 63 =117 km/h = 117 * (5/18) = 65/2 m/s.

So,

Time is taken by them to meet for the first time on the track while running in opposite direction = Length of track / relative speed in opposite direction

= 4225/(65/2) = 130 seconds 

Hence, The Required time is 130 seconds.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Marked Price to Selling Price = 15000 : 13500 = 10 : 9

Discount = 10 − 9 = 1 unit

Discount Percentage = (Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100 = (1 ÷ 10) × 100 = 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) of the phone = ₹15,000

Selling Price (SP) of the phone = ₹13,500

Formula Used:

Discount = Marked Price − Selling Price

Discount Rate (%) = (Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Discount = 15,000 − 13,500 = ₹1,500

⇒ Discount Rate = (1,500 ÷ 15,000) × 100

⇒ Discount Rate = (1 ÷ 10) × 100

⇒ Discount Rate = 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Additional Information

Marked Price (MP)

It is the price printed on an item, also known as the List Price or Tag Price.

Discount Basis

Discount is always calculated as a percentage of the Marked Price unless a different base is specified.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts a% and b% are given, the Effective Discount is [a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100]%.

Given

P and Q together can complete a piece of work in 6 days.

P can alone complete the work in 18 days.

Formula used:

Total work = man × efficiency

Calculation

P’s 1-day work = 1/18

(P + Q)’s 1 day work = 1/6

Q’s 1 day work = 1/6 – 1/18 = 1/9

Hence, Q can alone do the work in 9 days

Shortcut Trick Q’s = [(P + Q) × P] /(P + Q - P)

Q’s = (18 × 6)/(18 - 6)

Q’s = 9 days.

Given

tan 5° tan 25° tan 45° tan 65° tan 85° 

Concept used

Tan (90 - θ) = cotθ 

Calculation

⇒ tan (90 - 85) × tan (90 - 65) × tan 45° × tan 65° × tan 85° 

⇒ cot 85° × cot 65° × 1 × tan 65° × tan 85° = 1

The value is 1.

Given:

10% of the voters did not cast their vote and 10% of the polled vote were found invalid.

The winning candidate got 56% of the valid votes and won the election by a margin of 1,458 votes.

Concept Used:

The percentage is calculated based on 100 i.e. 100 is the base

40% means 40 out of 100

Calculation:

Let, the total enrolled voters be x

10% did not cast a vote means cast or polled vote = 9x/10

10% vote is invalid

That means valid vote = (90/100) × (9x/10)

⇒ 81x/100

The winning candidate got 56% of the polled vote means the looser got (100 – 56) = 44% vote

Winer candidate got total {(56/100) × (81x/100)} vote

And the looser candidate got {(44/100) × (81x/100)} vote

Accordingly,

{(56/100) × (81x/100)} - {(44/100) × (81x/100)} = 1458

⇒ (81x/100) × {(56 – 44)/100} = 1458

⇒ (81 × 12)x/10000 = 1458

⇒ x = (1458× 10000)/(81 × 12)

⇒ x = 15000

∴ Total 15000 voters enrolled in the voter list.

Shortcut Trick

Total voters = 1458 × (100/90) × (100/90) × 100\(56 - 44) = 15000

Given:

Length of room = 10 m

Breadth of room = 8 m

Height of room = 6 m

Rate of whitewashing = Rs 7.50 per m²

Concept Used:

Area of four walls of room = 2h (l + b)

Area of ceiling = l × b

Calculation:

Area of four walls of room = 2h (l + b)

Area of four walls of room = 2 × 6 (10 + 8)

⇒ 12 × 18= 216 m²

Area of ceiling = l × b

Area of ceiling = 10 × 8 = 80 m²

Total area of four walls and ceiling = 216 + 80 = 296 m²

Now, the cost of whitewashing the walls and ceiling = 296 × 7.50 = Rs.2,220

∴ The price for whitewashing the walls of the room and the ceiling is Rs.2,220

The question is based on the direct formula,

The formula is as follow,

⇒ Sin (A + B) = sin A cos B + cos A sin B

∴ The correct option is 2.

The correct answer is "Tidy."

 

Key Points

• The word "Disheveled" means (used about a person’s appearance) very untidy. (किसी व्यक्ति की शक्ल-सूरत के बारे में इस्तेमाल किया जाता है) Example: He ran in looking hot and disheveled.
• The antonym of "Disheveled" is "Tidy."
• The word "Tidy" means arranged with everything in good order. (हर चीज़ को अच्छे क्रम में व्यवस्थित किया गया।)
• Example: If you keep your room tidy it is easier to find things.
• Therefore, the​ correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information    

• Clumsy: (used about a person) careless and likely to knock into, drop or break things. ((व्‍यक्ति) लापरवाह और बेढंगे तरीक़े से काम करने वाला; फूहड़, भद्दा)
• Infuriated: to make somebody very angry. (किसी को बहुत क्रोधित करना।)
• Excited: feeling or showing happiness and enthusiasm; not calm.(खुशी और उत्साह महसूस करना या दिखाना; शांत नहीं है)

The correct answer is "Fatalist."

Key Points

• The word "Fatalist" means someone who believes that people cannot change the way events will happen and that events, especially bad ones, cannot be avoided. (कोई ऐसा व्यक्ति जो मानता है कि लोग घटनाओं के घटित होने के तरीके को नहीं बदल सकते हैं और घटनाओं, विशेषकर बुरी घटनाओं को टाला नहीं जा सकता है)
• Example: He said he was not a fatalist.
• One who believes in fate is a "Fatalist."
• Therefore, the​ correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Realist: a person who accepts the facts of a situation, and does not try to pretend that it is different. (स्थिति की वास्‍तविकता को ईमानदारी से स्‍वीकार करने वाला व्‍यक्ति; यथार्थवादी व्‍यक्ति)
• Agnostic: a person who is not sure if God exists or not. (ईश्‍वर की सत्ता के विषय में संशय रखने वाला; संशयवादी, अज्ञेयवादी)
• Omniscient: knowing everything. (सर्वज्ञ)

The correct answer is "A."

Key Points

• The error in the sentence is with the article "A" before "honourable."
• The correct form is to use "An" before "honourable" because "honourable" begins with a vowel sound.
• Example: He is an honourable man.
• Therefore, the​ correct answer is Option 4.

​

Correct sentence: An honourable person deserves respect from everybody.

The correct answer is "neighbouring."

 

Key Points

• "Neighbouring" means near or next to. (समीपस्‍थ, निकटवर्ती, पड़ोस का)
• Example: She married a man from the neighbouring village.
• The reason for using "neighbouring" in the blank is to convey the geographical relationship between Tibet and the country being referred to.
• "Neighbouring" indicates that Tibet is adjacent to or located nearby the country in question.
• Therefore, the​ correct answer is Option 2.

​

Correct sentence: Tibet is our neighbouring country. Its people are called 'Tibetans'.

Additional Information 

• Neighbour (पड़ोसी) - a person living near or next door to the speaker or person referred to.
• Example: My neighbour helped me fix my bike.
• Neighbour's (पड़ोसी का) - belonging to or associated with the neighbour.
• Example: I borrowed a ladder from my neighbour's garage.
• Neighbourhood (पड़ोस) - a district or community within a town or city.
• Example: We love our new neighbourhood; it's very friendly.

The correct answer is "DABC."

 

Key Points

• The sequence of the sentences is organized to provide a coherent and logical flow of information about the topic of spam on the internet:
• Introduction to Spam (Sentence D): The paragraph begins with a definition and explanation of what spam is, setting the stage for the topic.
• Acknowledging the Problem (Sentence A): The last sentence broadens the perspective by stating that the seemingly harmless activities of a small number of people are becoming a serious problem for the internet, tying back to the initial explanation of spam.
• Personal Experience with Spam (Sentence B): The second sentence engages the reader by asking a question about their personal experience with spam, specifically mentioning 'junk mail' in email boxes.
• Detailed Explanation of Spam (Sentence C): Following the introduction and personal connection, the paragraph provides more details about what spam entails, describing it as electronic junk mail or junk newsgroup postings.
• Therefore, the​ correct answer is Option 4.

​

• Correct sequence:

D. Spam is the flooding of the internet with many copies of the same message, in an attempt to force the message on people who would not otherwise choose to receive it.

A. The so-called harmless activities of a small number of people are increasingly becoming a serious problem for the internet.

B. You would have seen an increasing amount of 'junk mail' showing up in your email box.

C. It is basically electronic junk mail or junk newsgroup postings.

The correct answer is "her arms."

 

Key Points

• The error in the sentence is a pronoun mismatch.
• In the original sentence, it says, "waved my arms," which suggests that the narrator (the person speaking or writing) is waving their own arms.
• However, considering the context, it is more likely that the girl in the water is the one waving her arms.
• Therefore, the pronoun "her" should be used to correctly refer to the girl in the water.
• Therefore, the​ correct answer is Option 1.

​

Correct sentence: The girl in the water whistled with full might and waved her arms to draw attention to her plight.

The correct answer is "Guage."

Key Points

• The word "Guage" is incorrectly spelt.
• The correct spelling is "Gauge."
• It means an instrument for measuring the amount of something. (किसी वस्‍तु की मात्रा मापने का उपकरण; पैमाना)
• Example: Do you have a tyre gauge in your car?
• Therefore, the​ correct answer is Option 3.​

​

Additional Information

• Terrifying: to frighten somebody very much. ((किसी को) बहुत डरा देना, भयभीत कर देना)
• Frosty: very cold, with frost. (बहुत ठंडा, पाले वाला)
• Effervescent: (used about people and their behaviour) excited, enthusiastic and full of energy. ((जन समूह और उनका आचरण) उत्तेजनापूर्ण, उत्‍साहपूर्ण और ऊर्जान्वित)

The correct answer is "reduction."

Key Points

• The word "mitigation" means the action of reducing the severity, seriousness, or painfulness of something. (किसी चीज़ की गंभीरता या पीड़ा को कम करने की क्रिया)
• Example: There has been no significant increase in funding for flood mitigation works.
• The synonym of "Mitigation" is "Reduction."
• The word "Reduction" means the action of becoming or making something less or smaller. (पहले से कम या छोटा होने या करने की क्रिया; कमी, घटाव, कटौती)
• Example: Reduction of the fracture corrects and maintains alignment.
• Therefore, the​ correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

• Rise: an increase in an amount, a number or a level. (वृद्धि (मात्रा, संख्‍या या स्‍तर में))
• Cure: a medicine or treatment that can cure an illness, etc. (रोग का उपचार करने वाली औषधि या चिकित्‍सा)
• Balance: a situation in which different or opposite things are of equal importance, size, etc. (ऐसी स्थिति जिसमें विभिन्न प्रकार की या विपरीत वस्तुओं का आकार, महत्व आदि समान होता है; संतुलन, संतुलन की स्थिति)

The correct answer is "The children were plucking the flowers in the garden."

Key Points

• The given sentence is in Past Continuous Tense and in Passive Voice.
• The rule for changing a Past Continuous Tense from Active voice to Passive voice or Passive to Active Voice:
• Interchange the object and subject with each other, i.e. object of the active sentence become the subject of the passive sentence.
• Structure: 
• Subject + was/were + v1 + ing + object (Active Voice)
• Object + was/were + being + V3 + by Subject (Passive Voice)
• Example: 
• Esha was singing a song. (Active Voice)
• A song was being sung by Esha. (Passive Voice)​​
• The subject of the given sentence is 'Flowers**'.​​**
• The object of the given sentence is 'children.'
• The subject will be put in place of the object and the object will be put in place of the subject.
• 'Were being plucked' will be changed into 'were plucking'.
• "Children" is a plural subject so we must "were" with it.
• The correct option 1 follows all the above rules and correctly expresses the given sentence in active voice.

The correct answer is "Bitter."

Key Points

• The word "Sweet" means containing, or tasting as if it contains, a lot of sugar. (मधुर, मीठा (चीनी भरा), मीठा या मधुर लगने वाला)
• Example: The pineapple was sweet and juicy.
• The antonym of "Sweet" is "Bitter."
• The word "Bitter" means with an unpleasantly sharp taste. (एक अप्रिय तीखे स्वाद के साथ)
• Example: That food has a bitter flavour.
• Therefore, the​ correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Delicious: having a very pleasant taste or smell. (स्‍वादिष्‍ट या सुगंधित)
• Pleasant: nice, enjoyable or friendly. (सुहाना, आनंददायक या अनुकूल)
• Special: not usual or ordinary; important for some particular reason. (प्रायः होने वाला या साधारण नहीं, विशेष; किसी ख़ास कारण से महत्वपूर्ण)

The correct answer is "waive."

Key Points

• The word "Wave" means to move your hand from side to side in the air, usually to attract somebody’s attention or as you meet or leave somebody. (हाथ हिलाना (प्रायः किसी का ध्यान आकृष्‍ट करने के लिए या किसी से मुलाक़ात करते या विदा लेते समय))
• Example: I leant out of the window and waved goodbye to my friends.
• The error in the sentence is the use of "wave" instead of "waive."
• The word "Waive" means to say officially that a rule, etc. need not be obeyed; to say officially that you no longer have a right to something. (किसी नियम आदि के पालन पर आग्रह न करना; किसी बात पर दावा या अधिकार छोड़ देना)
• Example: The bank manager waived the charge, as we were old and valued customers.
• Therefore, the​ correct answer is Option 1.

Correct sentence: The government has finally agreed to waive the entertainment tax on the movie.

Additional Information

• Wager: risk (a sum of money or valued item) against someone else's on the basis of the outcome of an unpredictable event; bet. (किसी अप्रत्याशित घटना के परिणाम के आधार पर किसी और के विरुद्ध जोखिम (धन या मूल्यवान वस्तु); शर्त.)
• Waiver: the act of intentionally relinquishing or abandoning a known right, claim, or privilege. (किसी ज्ञात अधिकार, दावे या विशेषाधिकार को जानबूझकर त्यागने का कार्य)
• Web: a type of fine net that a spider makes in order to catch small insects. (मकड़ी का जाला)

The correct answer is "Take risk."

 

Key Points

 

• The phrase "throw caution to the wind" means to take a risk or act recklessly, disregarding potential consequences or dangers. (संभावित परिणामों या खतरों की परवाह किए बिना जोखिम उठाना या लापरवाही से कार्य करना)
• It implies a willingness to be daring, adventurous, or bold without being overly cautious or careful.
• Example: Despite the uncertainty surrounding the new business venture, Sarah decided to throw caution to the wind.
• When someone throws caution to the wind, they are often willing to embrace uncertainty and go ahead with a decision or action, despite the potential risks involved.
• Therefore, the​ correct answer is Option 4.

The correct answer is "saved the Union during."

 

Key Points 

 

• The error lies in the use of the word "save."
• The error in the sentence is the use of "save" instead of "saved."
• The use of "saved" in the corrected sentence is appropriate because it reflects the past action of Abraham Lincoln during the American Civil War.
• Abraham Lincoln played a crucial role in preserving the Union during that conflict, and "saved" is the past tense form of the verb "save."
• The word "during" is used to indicate the time frame in which an action occurred.
• In this case, "during" is appropriate because it specifies the period when Abraham Lincoln saved the Union—namely, the time of the American Civil War.
• Therefore, the​ correct answer is Option 3.

Correct sentence: Abraham Lincoln has been the sixteenth president of the United States and saved the Union during the American Civil War.

The correct answer is "worsen."

Key Points

• The word "Rectify" means to correct something that is wrong. (अशुद्घ को शुद्घ करना)
• Example: I am determined to take whatever action is necessary to rectify the situation.
• The antonym of "Rectify" is "Worsen."
• The word "Worsen" means to become worse or to make something worse. (बदतर हो जाना या (किसी को) बदतर कर देना)
• Example: As the company's financial problems worsened, several directors resigned.
• Therefore, the​ correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Alter: to make something different in some way, but without changing it completely; to become different. (आंशिक परिवर्तन करना; बदलना; परिवर्तित होना)
• Reason: a cause or an explanation for something that has happened or for something that somebody has done. (कारण, व्‍याख्‍या या औचित्‍य-वर्णन (किसी घटना या कार्य का))
• Modify: to change something slightly. (किसी वस्‍तु में अंशतः परिवर्तन करना)

Here, the erroneous part is "will take a seat and."

Key Points

• The error in the sentence is a mismatch of verb tenses.
• The error in the sentence is the use of "will" after "if."
• When reporting or asking about future events in indirect speech, the correct tense is "would."
• In the corrected version, "will" will be changed to "would" to maintain consistency with the past tense of "asked."
• Therefore, the​ correct answer is Option 3.

Correct sentence: The receptionist asked if Diya would take a seat and wait for the boss to call her in.