SSC CGL 2023 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 21 Jul 2023 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'WJC' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

• 
• 

Similarly,

Hence, 'UYXC' is the correct answer.

As Q is the common face on both the dice, keeping it constant and then rotating in clockwise direction, we get the faces opposite to each other:

Clearly, R is the letter on the face opposite to the vowel O.

Hence, 'R' is the correct answer.

The Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between Woman, Humans, Lions is shown below:

All women are human.

Lion is an animal.

Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'BMJLBK' is the correct answer.

The paper when unfolded will appear as shown below:

Hence, 'option 3' is the correct answer.

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

⇒ 25 * 82 * 12 * 6 * 8 * 91

(1) -, ×, +, ÷, =

⇒ 25 * 82 * 12 * 6 * 8 * 91

After putting the signs:

⇒ 25 - 82 × 12 + 6 ÷ 8 = 91

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 25 - 82 × 12 + 0.75

⇒ 25 - 984 + 0.75

⇒ 25.75 - 984 = (-958.25)

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(2) ÷, +, -, ×, =

⇒ 25 * 82 * 12 * 6 * 8 * 91

After putting the signs:

⇒ 25 ÷ 82 + 12 - 6 × 8 = 91

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 0.304 + 12 - 6 × 8

⇒ 0.304 + 12 - 48

⇒ 12.304 - 48 = (-35.69)

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(3) +, -, ÷, ×, =

⇒ 25 * 82 * 12 * 6 * 8 * 91

After putting the signs:

⇒ 25 + 82 - 12 ÷ 6 × 8 = 91

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 25 + 82 - 2 × 8

⇒ 25 + 82 - 16

⇒ 107 - 16 = 91

⇒ '25 + 82 - 12 ÷ 6 × 8 = 91'

Here, the equation is satisfied.

(4) ×, +, ÷, -, =

⇒ 25 * 82 * 12 * 6 * 8 * 91

After putting the signs:

⇒ 25 × 82 + 12 ÷ 6 - 8 = 91

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 25 × 82 + 2 - 8

⇒ 2050 + 2 - 8

⇒ 2052 - 8 = 2044

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Given:

YO_LECT_OPL_C_YOP_ _CTYOPLE_T

Checking all the options:

1. PEYTELC

YOPLECT / EOPLYCT / YOPELCT / YOPLECT

2. PYETLEC

YOPLECT / YOPLECT / YOPLECT / YOPLECT

Here, the series is completed.

3. PYECTLE

YOPLECT / YOPLECC / YOPTLCT / YOPLEET

4. PEYTLCE

YOPLECT / EOPLYCT / YOPLCCT / YOPLEET

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given:

(34, 12, 10)

(56, 17, 22)

Logic: First no. = [(Second no. × 2) + Third no.]

(34, 12, 10) →

⇒ [(12 × 2) + 10]

⇒ (24 + 10) = 34

(56, 17, 22) →

⇒ [(17 × 2) + 22]

⇒ (34 + 22) = 56

Checking all the given options:

1. (56, 19, 8)

⇒ [(19 × 2) + 8]

⇒ (38 + 8) = 46

2. (46, 19, 8)

⇒ [(19 × 2) + 8]

⇒ (38 + 8) = 46

3. (46, 19, 18)

⇒ [(19 × 2) + 18]

⇒ (38 + 18) = 56

4. (46, 49, 8)

⇒ [(49 × 2) + 8]

⇒ (98 + 8) = 106

Here, (46, 19, 8) shows a similar relation to the given set of numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary is:

1. Deficient
2. Derived
3. Designed
4. Destination
5. Destined

Here, the correct order is '1,2,3,5,4'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

The Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between Laptops, Electronics, Microwave ovens is shown below:

Both Laptop and Microwave ovens are electronic device.

Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

Logic: Second no. = [(First no.)³ × (First no. + 1)]

Checking all the given options:

1. (2, 24)

⇒ [(2)³ × (2 + 1)]

⇒ (8 × 3) = 24

2. (4, 320)

⇒ [(4)3 × (4 + 1)]

⇒ (64 × 5) = 320

3. (5, 430)

⇒ [(5)3 × (5 + 1)]

⇒ (125 × 6) = 750

4. (3, 108)

⇒ [(3)3 × (3 + 1)]

⇒ (27 × 4) = 108

Here, in (5, 430) different logic is followed.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Given:

(36, 24, 65)

(40, 54, 19)

Logic: Third no. = [(First no. ÷ 4)² - (Second no. ÷ 6)²]

(36, 24, 65) →

⇒ [(36 ÷ 4)2 - (24 ÷ 6)2]

⇒ [(9)² - (4)²]

⇒ (81 - 16) = 65

(40, 54, 19) →

⇒ [(40 ÷ 4)2 - (54 ÷ 6)2]

⇒ [(10)2 - (9)2]

⇒ (100 - 81) = 19

Checking all the given options:

1. (10, 21, 321)

⇒ [(10 ÷ 4)2 - (21 ÷ 6)2]

⇒ [(2.5)2 - (3.5)2]

⇒ (6.25 - 12.25) = (-6)

2. (20, 18, 16)

⇒ [(20 ÷ 4)2 - (18 ÷ 6)2]

⇒ [(5)2 - (3)2]

⇒ (25 - 9) = 16

3. (13, 8, 98)

⇒ [(13 ÷ 4)2 - (8 ÷ 6)2]

⇒ [(3.25)2 - (1.33)2]

⇒ (10.56 - 1.77) = 8.78

4. (30, 14, 56)

⇒ [(30 ÷ 4)2 - (14 ÷ 6)2]

⇒ [(7.5)2 - (2.33)2]

⇒ (56.25 - 5.44) = 50.81

Here, (20, 18, 16) shows a similar relation to the given set of numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

He is my wife's father's son's only sister's is Amit's wife itself.

And father-in-law of Amit's wife is Father of Amit.

Clearly, the person in the photo is father of Amit.

Hence, 'Father' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, '362' is the correct answer.

Given:

(4, 1024, 64)

(225, 81, 135)

Logic: [ (a)², (b)², (a × b)]

(4, 1024, 64) →

⇒ [(2)², (32)², (32 × 2)]

⇒ [(4), (1024), (64)]

(225, 81, 135) →

⇒ [(15)2, (9)2, (15 × 9)]

⇒ [(225), (81), (135)]

Checking all the given options:

1. (30, 676, 78)

⇒ [(5 × 6), (26)², (26 × 3)]

2. (27, 125, 15)

⇒ [(3)³, (5)³, (3 × 5)]

⇒ [ (27), (125), (15)]

3. (49, 841, 203)

⇒ [(7)2, (29)2, (7 × 29)]

⇒ [(49), (841), (203)]

4. (64, 256, 512)

⇒ [(8)2, (16)2, (8 × 16)]

⇒ [(64), (256), (128)]

Here, (49, 841, 203) shows a similar relation to the given set of numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at AB is shown below:

Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

From Figure (1) to (2):

The symbols are moved as shown below and the symbol C changes into 7.

From Figure (2) to (3):

The symbols are moved as shown below.

From Figure (3) to (4):

The symbols are moved as shown below and the symbol (=) changes into a triangle.

From Figure (4) to Answer Figure (5):

The symbols are moved as shown below.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, 'option 3' is the correct answer.

Mistake Points: In Chinese Coding- Decoding questions the codes for the given words don't need to be placed sequentially, they may be given in jumbled form also.

So, in these types of questions check the options whether they are in jumbled form or sequence. If the options are jumbled then it is also correct.

The code for each word is shown below:

Code for words are:

• for - pa
• today - hz

Clearly, 'for today' will be coded as 'hz pa' in that language.

Hence, 'hz pa' is the correct answer.

Given:

(189, 148, 107)

(206, 165, 124)

Logic: [(First no. - Second no.) = (Second no. - Third no.)]

(189, 148, 107) →

⇒ [(189 - 148) = (148 - 107)]

⇒ [41 = 41]

(206, 165, 124) →

⇒ [(206 - 165) = (165 - 124)]

⇒ [41 = 41]

Checking all the given options:

1. (84, 67, 39)

⇒ [(84 - 67) = (67 - 39)]

⇒ [17 = 28]

2. (121, 85, 45)

⇒ [(121 - 85) = (85 - 45)]

⇒ [36 = 40]

3. (76, 46, 26)

⇒ [(76 - 46) = (46 - 26)]

⇒ [30 = 20]

4. (108, 67, 26)

⇒ [(108 - 67) = (67 - 26)]

⇒ [41 = 41]

Here, (108, 67, 26) shows a similar relation to the given set of numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

⇒ 

(1) ÷, ×, +, =, -

After Putting the signs:

⇒ 42 ÷ 7 × 5 + 5 = 40 - 5

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 6 × 5 + 5 = 40 - 5

⇒ 30 + 5 = 35

⇒ 35 = 35

Here, the equation is satisfied.

(2) ÷, ×, =, +, -

After Putting the signs:

⇒ 42 ÷ 7 × 5 = 5 + 40 - 5

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 6 × 5 = 45 - 5

⇒ 30 = 40

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(3) ÷, ×, -, =, +

After Putting the signs:

⇒ 42 ÷ 7 × 5 - 5 = 40 + 5

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 6 × 5 - 5 = 45

⇒ 30 - 5 = 45

⇒ 25 = 45

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(4) +, =, ÷, ×, +

After Putting the signs:

⇒ 42 + 7 = 5 ÷ 5 × 40 + 5

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 49 = 1 × 40 + 5

⇒ 49 = 40 + 5

⇒ 49 = 45

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

From Figure (1) to (2):

The symbols (+) and (-) interchange their positions and one shape is added to the existing shape.

From Figure (2) to (3):

The symbols (+) and (-) interchange their positions and one shape is added to the existing shape.

From Figure (3) to (4):

The symbols (+) and (-) interchange their positions and one shape is added to the existing shape.

From Figure (4) to Answer Figure (5):

The symbols (+) and (-) interchange their positions and one shape is added to the existing shape.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The logic followed here is:

• 

• 

Similarly,

• 

Hence, 'FHLRP' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, 'PXG' is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Estimated; estimated.

 Key Points

• The government budget shows estimated expenditures and estimated receipts.
• Estimated expenditure and actual receipts would mean that the government has budgeted a certain amount of spending but has actually received a different amount of revenue.
• Actual expenditure and estimated receipts would mean that the government has spent a certain amount but expects to receive a different amount of revenue.
• Actual expenditure and actual receipts would mean that the government has spent a certain amount and has received the exact amount of revenue that was expected.
• It is important for the government to accurately estimate its expenditures and receipts in order to create a realistic budget and avoid overspending or underspending.

Additional Information

• Expenditure refers to the amount of money spent by the government on various expenses such as salaries, infrastructure development, subsidies, etc.
• Receipts refer to the amount of money collected by the government through various sources such as taxes, fines, fees, etc.
• Estimated; actual would indicate that the government's revenue collection strategy may be flawed or inefficient.
• Actual; estimates would indicate that the government's expenditure planning may be flawed or inefficient.
• Actual; actual would indicate that the government's budget planning and execution is accurate.

The correct answer is Mendelevium.

Key Points

• The metallic radioactive transuranic element with atomic number 101 in the actinide series is called Mendelevium.
• It was discovered in 1955 by a team of American scientists led by Albert Ghiorso.
• Mendelevium is named after the Russian chemist Dmitri Mendeleev, who is known for creating the periodic table of elements.
• It is a synthetic element, which means that it is not found naturally on Earth and can only be produced in a laboratory.

Additional Information

• Seaborgium is a synthetic element with atomic number 106.
• It is named after the American chemist Glenn T. Seaborg.
• Nobelium is a synthetic element with atomic number 102.
• It is named after Alfred Nobel, the inventor of dynamite.
• Rutherfordium is a synthetic element with atomic number 104.
• It is named after the British physicist Ernest Rutherford.

The correct answer is lignite.

 Key Points

• Neyveli in Tamil Nadu is known for its lignite mines, which are the largest in the country.
• Lignite is a type of coal that is considered to be of lower quality than other types of coal such as bituminous or anthracite coal.
• Lignite is mainly used for power generation and is found in abundance in the Neyveli region.

Additional Information

• The world's largest metal statue of Lord Shiva, the first of its sort in Asia, is located in Neyveli. 
• The Nataraja Temple is home to this statue of the Lord, known by the name Panchaloha, which means "created with five metals."
• Bauxite is a type of rock that is the primary source of aluminum.
• India's top producer of bauxite is Odisha.
• Iron ore is a mineral used in the production of steel.
• The five biggest iron ore mines are Joda East Mine, Balda Block Iron Mine, Jajang Rungta Mine, Bailadila Iron Ore Mines (Kirandul Complex), and Bailadila Iron Ore Mines (Bacheli Complex).
• Copper is a metal that is used in various applications such as electrical wiring and plumbing.
• The Khetri copper belt in Rajasthan, the Singhbhum copper belt in Jharkhand, and the Malanjkhand copper belt in Madhya Pradesh are the three main copper mining regions.

The correct answer is Rigveda.

Key Points

• Dasarajna war (the war of ten kings) was mentioned in the Rigveda.
• This war was fought between the Puru and Bharata tribes and was one of the earliest recorded conflicts in ancient India.
• The Rigveda describes the battle in detail, including the names of the ten kings and the strategies they used.
• The outcome of the war was in favor of the Bharata tribe, and their leader Sudas emerged victorious.​

Additional Information

• The Rigveda is the oldest and most important of the four Vedas in ancient Indian literature.
• It offers a wealth of information about the beginnings of the world, the significance of the Gods, and practical tips for leading a happy and prosperous life.
• The Yajurveda contains hymns and rituals related to sacrificial ceremonies.
• ​This text offers details about the Aryan people's social and religious lives.
• The Samaveda focuses on melodies and chants used in religious ceremonies.
• The Samaveda is divided into two sections: Part I consists of songs named Gana and Part II consists of a book of three poems called Archika.
• The Atharvaveda contains spells and incantations for various purposes, including healing and protection.
• The twenty Kandas that make up the Atharva Veda are further divided into thirty-six Prapathakas.

The correct answer is 54.6%.

Key Points

• The percentage share of agricultural workers in India as per Census 2011 is 54.6%.
• This means that out of the total workforce in India, only 54.6% were engaged in agricultural activities as per the 2011 Census.
• This is a significant drop from the previous Census in 2001, which recorded 60% of the total workforce as agricultural workers.
• The decline in the percentage share of agricultural workers in India can be attributed to various factors such as industrialization, urbanization, and the shift towards the service sector.

Additional Information

• Agricultural workers form a significant portion of the workforce in India, and the sector contributes to around 17% of India's GDP.
• The decline in the percentage share of agricultural workers in India has led to concerns about the sustainability of the agricultural sector and the livelihoods of farmers.
• Agriculture accounted for 43.96 percent of India's workforce in 2021.
• The remaining half was split nearly evenly between the two other sectors, industries and services.
• Even if the percentage of Indian workers in agriculture is decreasing, it remains the primary industry for employment.

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

• The Kaushalya Matritva Yojana was launched by the Chhattisgarh government in March 2022.
• The scheme aims to provide skill training to pregnant and lactating women in order to enhance their employability and income.
• The scheme also provides financial assistance to women during their pregnancy and childbirth.
• The scheme will benefit about 50,000 women in the state.

Additional Information

• The state government of Madhya Pradesh launched the 'Mukhya Mantri Kisan Kalyan Yojana' in March 2022.
• The scheme aims to provide financial assistance to farmers for crop loss due to natural calamities.
• The Haryana government launched the 'Parivar Pehchan Patra' scheme in February 2022.
• The scheme aims to provide a unique identity to each family in the state and enable them to avail of various government schemes and services.
• The Uttar Pradesh government launched the 'Kisan Mitra Yojana' in February 2022.
• The scheme aims to provide financial assistance to farmers for the purchase of agricultural machinery and equipment.

The correct answer is Alauddin Khalji.

Key Points

• Alauddin Khalji introduced the system of Dagh and Huliyah, which was a branding system for horses and soldiers, respectively.
• This helped in maintaining a strong army.
• He also introduced the system of cash payment to soldiers, which was a departure from the earlier practice of granting land as payment.
• This helped in boosting the morale of the soldiers and ensuring their loyalty.
• Alauddin Khalji was a powerful ruler of the Delhi Sultanate who ruled from 1296 to 1316.
• He was known for his military conquests and administrative reforms.

Additional Information

• Firuz Shah Tughluq was another ruler of the Delhi Sultanate who ruled from 1351 to 1388.
• He was known for his patronage of art and architecture, and for his construction of public works such as canals and hospitals.
• Jalaluddin Khalji was the first ruler of the Khalji dynasty who ruled from 1290 to 1296.
• He was known for his military campaigns and for his attempts to establish a stable administration.
• Ghiyasuddin Tughluq was the founder of the Tughluq dynasty who ruled from 1320 to 1325.
• He was known for his administrative reforms and for his attempts to centralize power in the Delhi Sultanate.

The correct answer is Geiger and Nuttall.

Key Points

• Geiger and Nuttall found the empirical relationship between the half-life of alpha decay and the energy of the emitted alpha particles in 1911.
• This relationship is known as the Geiger-Nuttall law, which states that the logarithm of the half-life of an alpha decay is proportional to the reciprocal of the square root of the energy of the alpha particle.
• Chadwick and Lawrence discovered the neutron in 1932, which was a significant breakthrough in nuclear physics.
• Fermi and Meitner were instrumental in the discovery of nuclear fission in 1938.
• Soddy and Aston made important contributions to the development of the theory of isotopes.

Additional Information

• Chadwick and Lawrence's discovery of the neutron was crucial for understanding the structure of the atomic nucleus and paved the way for the development of nuclear weapons.
• A subatomic particle with a neutral charge and a mass somewhat larger than a proton is called a neutron.
• Fermi and Meitner's discovery of nuclear fission was a major breakthrough that led to the development of nuclear energy and nuclear weapons.
• Nuclear fission is the process by which an atom's nucleus breaks into lighter nuclei via a .nuclear reaction
• Soddy and Aston's work on isotopes helped to establish the concept of atomic number and laid the foundation for modern nuclear physics.
• Isotopes are atoms that have the same number of protons but differ in the number of neutrons.

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Nati is a folk dance from the state of Himachal Pradesh in India.
• It is a traditional dance form that is performed during various festivals and celebrations in the state.
• The dance is performed in a circle with participants holding each other's hands and moving in a synchronized manner.
• The dance form is usually accompanied by traditional Himachali music and instruments like the dhol, nagara, and shehnai.

Additional Information

• Nagaland is known for its traditional folk dances like the Naga warrior dance, Aoling festival dance, and the Zeliang dance.
• Kerala is home to several classical and folk dance forms like Kathakali, Mohiniyattam, and Thiruvathira.
• Andhra Pradesh is known for its Kuchipudi dance form which is considered one of the eight major classical dance forms of India.
• Himachal Pradesh has several other traditional dance forms like the Kullu Natti, Chhambha, and Kinnauri Natti.

The correct answer is Sutlej - Dal Lake.

 Key Points

• Sutlej River is incorrectly matched with its respective place of origin, which is mentioned as Dal Lake.
• Sutlej river actually originates from the Rakshastal in Tibet.
• Mahanadi River is correctly matched with its respective place of origin, which is mentioned as Sihawa Mountain.
• Ganga River is correctly matched with its respective place of origin, which is mentioned as Gangotri Glacier.
• Godavari River's. The Godavari River originates in the Western Ghats, near Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra.
• Godavari River actually originates from the Brahmagiri Mountain in Maharashtra.

Additional Information

• The key word mentioned in the question is "place of origin", which refers to the exact location where a river originates.
• Mahanadi River originates from the Chhattisgarh region and flows through Odisha, before draining into the Bay of Bengal.
• Sutlej river flows through India and Pakistan, before joining the Chenab river in Pakistan and eventually draining into the Arabian Sea.
• Godavari River is the second longest river in India, after the Ganga, and flows through the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha, before draining into the Bay of Bengal.

The correct answer is Cnidarian.

 Key Points

• Cnidarians are the only animal group that lacks bilateral symmetry.
• They are radially symmetrical, meaning their body parts are arranged around a central axis like the spokes of a wheel.
• The absence of bilateral symmetry in cnidarians is due to their simple body plan, which consists of a sac-like body with a single opening for both ingestion and excretion.

Additional Information

• Annelids are a phylum of segmented worms that exhibit bilateral symmetry.
• They have distinct head and tail region and repeated body segments.
• Molluscs are a diverse group of animals that include snails, clams, and octopuses.
• They also exhibit bilateral symmetry, with a head region and a foot for locomotion.
• Arthropods, which include insects, spiders, and crustaceans, are the largest phylum of animals and exhibit bilateral symmetry.
• They have a segmented body and jointed appendages.

The correct answer is 22 yards.

 Key Points

• The correct length of the pitch in cricket is 22 yards or 20.12 meters.
• This measurement is taken from the bowling crease to the batting crease.
• The length of the pitch has remained the same since the 19^th century.
• The size of the pitch is important in cricket as it affects the gameplay and scoring opportunities.

Additional Information

• The pitch is a rectangular area of the ground that is 22 yards long and 10 feet wide.
• The pitch is made up of different areas including the batting crease, bowling crease, and the popping crease.
• Two teams of eleven players compete in the bat-and-ball game of cricket on a field in the middle of the pitch.
• Either team has a wicket at either end, which is made up of two bails balanced on three stumps.
• While the bowling and fielding side tries to stop this and dismiss every batter, the batting side earns runs by hitting the ball bowled at one of the wickets with the bat and then sprinting between the wickets.

The correct answer is 13^th.

Key Points

• The 13^th National Voters' Day was celebrated on 25^th January 2023.
• National Voters' Day is celebrated to encourage more people to participate in the electoral process and create awareness about the importance of voting.
• President of India Droupadi Murmu graced the national-level event held at New Delhi to mark the occasion.
• The theme for the 13^th National Voters' Day was "Nothing Like Voting, I Vote for Sure".

Additional Information

• The 12^th National Voters' Day was celebrated on 25^th January 2022.
• The theme is "Making Elections Inclusive, Accessible and Participative".
• The 10^th National Voters' Day was celebrated on 25^th January 2020.
• The theme is "Electoral Literacy for Stronger Democracy".
• The 11^th National Voters' Day was celebrated on 25^th January 2021.
• The theme is "Making Our Voters Empowered, Vigilant, Safe, and Informed".

The correct answer is Acromegaly - Adrenaline.

 Key Points

• Acromegaly is a hormonal disorder that results in the excessive production of growth hormone, which is produced by the pituitary gland.
• Adrenaline is not associated with acromegaly.
• Instead, it is a hormone that is produced by the adrenal glands and is involved in the body's "fight or flight" response.
• Cushing's syndrome is a condition that is caused by the overproduction of cortisol, a steroid hormone that is produced by the adrenal glands.
• Diabetes is a condition that is characterized by high levels of glucose (sugar) in the blood.
• It is caused by a lack of insulin, a hormone that is produced by the pancreas.
• Thyroxin, which is associated with goitre, is involved in regulating metabolism and growth.
• It helps to regulate the body's energy production and influences the development of the brain, bones, and muscles.

Additional Information

• Cortisol, which is associated with Cushing's syndrome, is involved in regulating a variety of bodily functions, including metabolism, immune response, and stress response.
• Insulin, which is associated with diabetes, regulates the levels of glucose (sugar) in the blood.
• It allows cells to use glucose for energy and helps to store excess glucose in the liver and muscles.
• Goitre is a condition that is characterized by an enlarged thyroid gland.
• It is often caused by a deficiency of iodine, which is necessary for the production of thyroid hormones.

The correct answer is NK Singh.

Key Points

• NK Singh was appointed as the Chairman of the Fifteenth Finance Commission of India in November 2017.
• The Fifteenth Finance Commission of India was constituted in November 2017.
• Its main task was to recommend the sharing of taxes between the central government and the state governments for a five-year period starting from April 2020.​

Additional Information

• Vijay Kelkar was the Chairman of the Thirteenth Finance Commission of India.
• He is a renowned economist and policy advisor who has also served as the Finance Secretary of India.
• YV Reddy was the Chairman of the Fourteenth Finance Commission of India.
• He is a former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India and is known for his contributions to the Indian financial sector.

The correct answer is Bajirao Mastani.

Key Points

• Birju Maharaj won the Filmfare award for best Choreographer for the film "Bajirao Mastani" in 2016.
• "Bajirao Mastani" is a period drama film directed by Sanjay Leela Bhansali and features Ranveer Singh, Deepika Padukone, and Priyanka Chopra in lead roles.
• The film portrays the love story of Maratha Peshwa Baji Rao I and his second wife Mastani.
• The choreography of the film was highly appreciated and Birju Maharaj's work was lauded for adding depth and authenticity to the dance sequences.

Additional Information

• "Befikre" is a romantic comedy-drama film directed by Aditya Chopra.
• "Dangal" is a sports biopic directed by Nitesh Tiwari.
• "Mohenjo Daro" is a period action-adventure film directed by Ashutosh Gowariker.

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

• The Sirpur National Dance and Music Festival is an annual cultural event held in the town of Sirpur in Chhattisgarh.
• The festival celebrates the rich cultural heritage of India and showcases various traditional dance and music forms.
• It is organized by the Chhattisgarh Tourism Board and attracts artists and performers from all over the country.
• The festival also includes workshops, seminars, and exhibitions on various art forms.

Additional Information

• Jharkhand has a rich cultural heritage and is known for its tribal art and music. 
• Famous festivals are Sarhul, Karam, Jawa, Tusu Parab or Makar, Hal Punhya, and Bhagta Parab.
• Uttar Pradesh is known for its classical music and dance forms such as Kathak and Hindustani classical music.
• Famous festivals are Buddha Purnima, Ganga Dussehra, Makar Sankranti, Ayudha Pooja, and Janmashtami.
• Madhya Pradesh is known for its folk music and dance forms such as Gond and Bhil.
• Famous festivals are Lokrang Festival, Akhil Bhartiya Kalidas Samaroh, Khajuraho Festival, Bhagoria Haat Festival and Holi.

The correct answer is the Fifth Five-Year Plan.

 Key Points

• DP Dhar prepared and launched the Fifth Five-Year Plan.
• The Fifth Five-Year Plan was launched in 1974 and continued till 1979.
• The main objective of the Fifth Five-Year Plan was to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains, increase agricultural productivity, and promote employment opportunities.
• The Fifth Five-Year Plan also focused on the development of small-scale industries, rural electrification, and the establishment of agricultural universities.
• DP Dhar was an Indian economist and politician who served as the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission of India from 1970 to 1977.

Additional Information

• The Fourth Five-Year Plan was launched in 1969.
• The Fourth Five-Year Plan focused on the development of agriculture, industry, and infrastructure.
• It aimed to achieve a growth rate of 5.7%.
• The Sixth Five-Year Plan was launched in 1980.
• The Sixth Five-Year Plan aimed to achieve a growth rate of 5.2% and focused on the development of infrastructure, industry, and energy.
• The Seventh Five-Year Plan was launched in 1985.
• The Seventh Five-Year Plan aimed to achieve a growth rate of 5% and focused on poverty alleviation, employment generation, and human resource development.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• In February 2021, the Rajasthan government announced its plan to set up a Vedic Education and Sanskar Board to revive the knowledge of Sanskrit scriptures and Vedas.
• The board aims to promote and preserve ancient Indian knowledge and culture.
• The board will work towards providing education on ancient Indian scriptures, including Vedas, Puranas, and Upanishads.
• The board will also provide training for priests and ensure the quality of Vedic education in the state.

Additional Information

• Minister of State (MoS) for Sanskrit Education Subhash Garg stated that modules will be put before the board based on the report of a committee that was constituted to describe the goals, objectives, and operation of the board.
• The committee submitted its report to the state government.
• He said that the Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot's approval will be required for the Vedic board to begin operations.

The correct answer is Engineering Goods.

 Key Points

• According to the data provided, the sector that has the highest percentage share of goods exports in the annual GDP (at current prices) for the year 2020-21 is Engineering Goods.
• Engineering Goods include various products such as machinery, electrical equipment, vehicles, and parts thereof.
• These goods are in high demand globally and are exported to various countries.
• The percentage share of Engineering Goods in the annual GDP (at current prices) for the year 2020-21 could be higher due to the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on other sectors.

Additional Information

• Electronic Goods, Drugs and Pharmaceuticals, and Organic and Inorganic Chemicals are also major export sectors in India.
• The services sector accounted for about half of India's GDP in 2022, indicating a gradual but consistent growth over the previous ten years.
• Of India's 179.15 lakh crore Indian rupees, or 53.89% of the total, are accounted for by the services sector.
• At Rs. 46.44 lakh crore in GVA, the industry sector makes up 25.92% of the total.
• However, 20.19% goes to the agricultural and related sectors.

The correct answer is Article 19 - Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech.

 Key Points

• Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression to all citizens.
• Press freedom is a component of freedom of expression.
• It also includes websites and blogs.
• In 1987, it was established.

Additional Information

• Article 15 prohibits discrimination on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Article 17 states that the practice of untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is punishable by law.
• Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the law to all citizens.

The correct answer is Lucknow.

Key Points

• The first All-India Kisan Sabha was formed in Lucknow in 1936.
• It was formed under the leadership of N.G. Ranga and Swami Sahajanand Saraswati.
• The main objective of the Sabha was to unite farmers and agricultural workers against the oppressive policies of the British government.
• The Sabha played an important role in the Indian independence movement and continued to work for the welfare of farmers even after India gained independence.
• The All India Kisan Sabha is now known as the All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) and is one of the largest organizations representing farmers in India.

Additional Information

• Lahore was the venue for the 1940 session of the All India Muslim League, where the historic Pakistan Resolution was passed.
• Amritsar is famous for the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
• It took place on 13 April 1919, when British Indian Army soldiers under the command of Colonel Reginald Dyer fired rifles into a crowd of unarmed Indian civilians who were protesting peacefully against the British rule.
• Delhi is the capital city of India and has played a significant role in the country's history and politics.
• It was the site of many important events during the Indian independence movement, including the Quit India Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942.

The correct answer is Mandolin.

 Key Points

• U Srinivas is a famous player of Mandolin, a stringed musical instrument that belongs to the lute family.
• He is known for his unique style of playing the Mandolin, which is a blend of Indian classical music and Western music.
• U Srinivas has won several awards for his contribution to music, including the Padma Shri and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.
• He has collaborated with many renowned musicians from around the world, such as John McLaughlin, Michael Brook, and Zakir Hussain.

Additional Information

• Violin is a bowed stringed musical instrument that is widely used in classical music.
• It has a similar shape to the Mandolin, but it has four strings instead of eight.
• Sitar is a plucked stringed musical instrument that is commonly used in Indian classical music.
• It has a long neck and a gourd-shaped body.
• Guitar is a plucked stringed musical instrument that is used in various genres of music, such as rock, pop, and folk.
• It has six strings and a flat body.

The correct answer is Murshid Quli Khan.

 Key Points

• The founder of the Independent State of Bengal was Murshid Quli Khan, who served as the governor of Bengal under the Mughal Empire from 1717 to 1727.
• He managed to consolidate his power in the region and established an independent state with its capital at Murshidabad.
• Murshid Quli Khan was known for his administrative and economic reforms, which included introducing a new revenue system and promoting trade and commerce.
• His successors, including Alivardi Khan and Siraj-ud-Daulah, continued to rule the independent State of Bengal until it was annexed by the British East India Company in the mid-18^th century.

Additional Information

• Alivardi Khan was the Nawab of Bengal from 1740 to 1756.
• He was known for his military campaigns against the Marathas and the British.
• Sarafraz Khan was a governor of Bengal under the Mughal Empire in the early 18^th century.
• Sarfaraz Khan was Murshid Khan's nominee to succeed him as there was no direct successor.
• Shuja-ud-Din was a governor of Bengal under the Mughal Empire in the mid-18^th century.
• He was deposed by the British before he could establish an independent state.

.The correct answer is Attack line

• The attack line is not a designated line or marking on the kabaddi court.

Key Points

• Baulk line: The baulk line is at a distance of 3.75m from the midline.
• Attack line: The attack line is an imaginary line that is approximately 3 meters away from the baulk line, on the opponent's side of the court.
• When a raider crosses the attack line, they enter the bonus area and can earn extra points by touching or tagging opponents.
• Bonus line: The bonus line is a small semicircular area located at the end of the opponent's half of the court.
• When a raider enters the bonus area, they can earn extra points by touching or tagging opponents.
• End line: The end line is a line drawn across the width of the court, marking the end of the playing area.
• Players cannot cross the end line during the game.

Therefore, the attack line is not a physical line on the court, unlike the other options. It is a conceptual line that is used to define the bonus area and determine when a raider has entered or exited that area.

Calculation:

8 cot A = 7

CotA = 7/8

Cot A = B/P = 7/8

Base = 7 and Perpendicular = 8

Sin A = P/H 

H = √(72 + 82)

Sin A = 8 /√(7² + 8²)

⇒ 8/√113

∴ The correct option is 2

Concept used:

If four number a,b,c,d are in proportion

Then we can say that

a / b = c / d 

⇒ a × d  = b × c

Calculation:

So the value of y is 

⇒ 98 × 98 / 28 = 343

Calculation:

The efficiency ratio of A : B = 7 : 5

Total work will be 31 × 7 = 217 units

The number of days required by together will be,

⇒  217 / (7+5) = 217 /12 days

∴ The correct option is 1

Shortcut Trick

To check divisibility by 9, calculate the sum of digits of the number.

Sum = 6 + 2 + 3 + 4 + a + 6 = 21 + a.

The next multiple of 9 after 21 is 27.

Subtract the current sum from the target multiple: 27 − 21 = 6.

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Alternate Method

Given: The number is 6234a6 and it must be divisible by 9.

Rule Used: A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is completely divisible by 9.

⇒ Sum of digits = 6 + 2 + 3 + 4 + a + 6

⇒ Sum = 21 + a

⇒ For the number to be divisible by 9, (21 + a) must be a multiple of 9.

⇒ Multiples of 9 are 9, 18, 27, 36, ...

⇒ Since a is a single-digit number (0 to 9), 21 + a must be equal to 27.

⇒ 21 + a = 27

⇒ a = 27 − 21

⇒ a = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Additional Information

Divisibility Rule of 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is a multiple of 3.

Divisibility Rule of 11

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits at odd places and even places is either 0 or a multiple of 11.

Divisibility Rule of 9

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9 (9 is a factor of the sum).

Given:

(a - b) = 1

Formula used:

a3 - b3 = (a - b)(a2 + b2 + ab)

Calculation:

We know, 

a3 - b3 = (a - b)(a2 + b2 + ab)

Putting the value of (a - b) = 1 in the formula 

⇒ a3 - b3 = (1)(a2 + b2 + ab)

⇒ a3 - b3 = (a2 + b2 + ab)

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given: 

A can do a piece of work in 8 days, while B can do it in 18 days. 

Concept used:

Efficiency = (Total work / Total time taken)

Efficiency = work done in a single day 

Calculation:

Let the total work is the 72 units (LCM of 8 and 18)

The efficiency of A is 72 / 8 = 9 units

The efficiency of Bi is  72 / 18 = 4 units

In 2 days they do 9 + 4 = 13 units

They do 65 units of work in 5× 2 = 10 days

Then B does 4 units in 1 day 

Then A does 3 units in 1/3 day 

Total number of days will be 10 + 1 + 1/3 = 11$\frac{1}{3}$3434Unknown node type: span34Unknown node type: span

Calculation:

We have

$\frac{1+sint}{4-4sint}-\frac{1-sint}{4+4sint}$

By putting the value t = 30° we get,

 $(1 + 1/2)\over4-4× 1/2$ - $(1 - 1/2)\over4+4× 1/2$

3/4 - 1/12 = 2/3

⇒ $\frac{1+sint}{4-4sint}-\frac{1-sint}{4+4sint}$ = 2/3      ----(1)

Lets, check from the options,

By putting t = 30° in option 2, we get,

⇒ 1/√3 × 2/√3

tan t . sec t = 2/3             ----(2)

Hence, from equation (1) & (2), 

$\frac{1+sint}{4-4sint}-\frac{1-sint}{4+4sint}$ = tan t . sec t

Calculation:

Value of 360° = 3000

So value of 75° is (3000/360)× 75 = 625

∴ The correct option is 3

Shortcut Trick

For successive percentage changes, use the net effect formula: Net % = a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100

Here, Markup (a) = +40% and Discount (b) = −10%

Net Profit % = 40 − 10 + [40 × (−10)] ÷ 100

Net Profit % = 30 − 4 = 26%

∴ The correct answer is 26%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Markup Percentage = 40%

Discount Percentage = 10%

Formula Used:

SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100

Profit % = [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100

Calculations:

Let the Cost Price (CP) of the goods be 100.

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = 100 + (40% of 100) = 140

⇒ Discount given = 10% on MP = (10 ÷ 100) × 140 = 14

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount

⇒ SP = 140 − 14 = 126

⇒ Profit = SP − CP = 126 − 100 = 26

⇒ Net Profit Percentage = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ Net Profit Percentage = (26 ÷ 100) × 100 = 26%

∴ The correct answer is 26%.

Additional Information

Marked Price vs Cost Price

Marked Price (MP) is always calculated by applying the markup percentage on the Cost Price (CP). Formula: MP = CP × (100 + Markup%) ÷ 100.

Successive Percentage Change

When a value undergoes two successive percentage changes of a% and b%, the net effective change is given by the formula: a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100.

Discount Calculation

Discount is always applied on the Marked Price (MP), never on the Cost Price. Formula: SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100.

Direct CP to MP Ratio

The direct relationship between Cost Price and Marked Price is given by the ratio: CP ÷ MP = (100 − Discount%) ÷ (100 + Profit%).

Concept used:

The sum of the opposite angles of the cyclic quadrilateral is 180°.

∠PSQ = 90° because the angle is in a semi-circle.

Calculation:

∠SPQ = 180° - 110°  = 70° (The sum of the opposite angles of the cyclic quadrilateral is 180°)

Now, In triangle PQS.

∠PSQ = 90° (Angle in semi-circle)

∠PQS = 180° - ( ∠PSQ +∠QPS)

 

⇒ 180° - (90° + 70°) = 20°

∴ The correct option is 3

Calculation:

The decreased amount is 3465 - 1600 = 1865

The percentage will be,

⇒(1865/ 3465) × 100 = 54%

∴ The correct option is 1

Calculation:

Sum of the numbers of odd place is 9 + 5 + 3 + 1 + 2 = 20

Sum of the digits of even place is, 4 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 6 = 25

Thus, the difference becomes 25 - 20 = 5

So, we will add 6 as 6 + 5 = 11.

∴ The number 6 should be added to 9454351626 to make it divisible by 11.

Given: 

Ajeet works 4 times as fast as Sohan. If Sohan can complete a work in 20 days independently

Concept used:

Efficiency = (Total work / Total time taken)

Efficiency = work done in a single day 

Calculation:

Efficiency ratio of Ajeet : Sohan = 4 : 1

So time ratio will be 1 : 4

So Ajeet takes it 20/4 = 5days

Together does in 1 day,

⇒1/5 + 1/20 = 1/4 part

Then Ajeet and Sohan can together finish the work in 4 days

Given:

Anil and Tirath drove between two points A and B 192 km apart.

Anil started the journey from point A at 8:20 a.m.; drove at a speed of 64 km/h; reached point B and immediately returned to A at the same speed.

Tirath started the journey from point A at 9:50 a.m.; drove at a speed of 96 km/h; reached point B and immediately returned to A at the same speed.

Calculation:

Anil takes to reach B 192 / 64 = 3hr

Tirath takes to reach 192 km i.e 192 / 96 = 2 hr

They will definitely meet in between 11:20 to 11:50

At 11:20 am the distance covered by Tirath is (192/120) × 90 = 144 km

Relative distance 192 - 144 = 48 km

Now relative speed is 96 + 64 = 160 km/hr

So time taken to cover 48 km is (60/160) × 48 = 18 mnts

So they will meet 18 minutes past 11:20 

Time will be 11:20 am + 18minutes = 11: 38am

The correct option is A.

Given:

An arc on a circle, whose length is 19.25 cm, subtends an 18° angle at the centre

Concept used:

Arc Length = θ × r, Where

r = Radius, θ is in radian

Calculation:

18° = π/10 rad

So,

r = (19.25 × 10)/π

r = 192.5/π

Area of the circle is

⇒ π × (192.5 /π) × (192.5 /π) 

⇒ 11790.625 cm2

∴ The correct option is 4

Explanation:

Two triangles are congruent if the size and shape of the triangles may or may not be equal.

This option is incorrect because if two triangles are congruent the size and shape of the triangles will be equal.

Option 1 is incorrect .

Shortcut Trick

Volume of material in a hemispherical bowl = 2/3 × π × (R³ − r³)

Inner radius (r) = 5 cm, Outer radius (R) = 5 + 0.25 = 5.25 cm

Volume = 2/3 × 22/7 × (5.25³ − 5³) ≈ 2.095 × (144.703 − 125) ≈ 2.095 × 19.703

Volume ≈ 41.28 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 41.28 cm³.

Alternate Method

Given:

Inner radius (r) = 5 cm

Thickness (t) = 0.25 cm

Outer radius (R) = Inner radius + Thickness = 5 + 0.25 = 5.25 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of material = $\frac{2}{3}$ × π × (R³ − r³)

Calculations:

⇒ Volume = 2/3 × 22/7 × (5.25³ − 5³)

⇒ Volume = 44/21 × (144.703125 − 125)

⇒ Volume = 44/21 × 19.703125

⇒ Volume = 866.9375 / 21

⇒ Volume ≈ 41.2827... cm³

∴ The correct answer is 41.28 cm³.

Additional Information

Volume of Hemisphere

The volume of a solid hemisphere is given by V = 2/3 × π × r³.

Surface Area of Hemispherical Bowl

Inner Curved Surface Area = 2πr²; Outer Curved Surface Area = 2πR².

Total Surface Area of Bowl

TSA = Outer CSA + Inner CSA + Area of Ring = 2πR² + 2πr² + π(R² − r²).

Calculation:

As per the question,

 sin P + sin Q + sin R = QR/PR + 1 + PQ/PR

The sine of a 90-degree angle is always 1, because for a right angle, the opposite side and the hypotenuse are equal.

= 4/5 + 1 + 3/5

= 12/5

Formula used:

(A + B)3 = A3 + 3A2B + 3 AB2 + B3

Calculation:

64x3 + 36x2y + 24xy2 + 2y3 

⇒ 64x³ + 48 x²y + 12xy² + y³ - 12x²y + 12xy² + y³

⇒(4x + y)3 + y3 - 12xy(x - y)

⇒ (4 × 3 - 4)³ + (-4)³ - 12(3)(-4)[3 - (-4)]

⇒ 512 - 64 + 1008 = 1456

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

R wants to deposit ₹80,000 in the bank for a year. In his account, the bank gives 12% simple annual interest but charges ₹3,000 as a processing fee for the account.

Formula used:

Simple interest = P × R × T / 100 [ P = principal, R = rate of interest, T = time]

Calculation:

Simple interest is  80000 × 12 × 1/100 = Rs 9600

After charging the processing fee the profit amount

9600 - 3000 = 6600

As per the question, 

 The percentage of earning in this account is (6600 / 80000) × 100 = 8.25%

∴ The correct option is 4

Shortcut Trick

Effective discount of successive 30% and 30% = 30 + 30 − (30 × 30) / 100 = 51%.

Difference in effective discounts = 51% − 50% = 1%.

The difference in the bill amount is directly equal to the 1% difference in discount.

1% of Cost = ₹43 ⇒ 100% of Cost = ₹43 × 100 = ₹4,300.

∴ The correct answer is ₹4,300.

Alternate Method

Given:

First shop offers a flat discount = 50%

Second shop offers successive discounts = 30% and 30%

Difference in the final bill amount = ₹43

Formula Used:

Effective discount for two successive discounts a% and b% = (a + b − ab / 100)%

Cost = 100%

Flat 50% Off

Bill 1 = 50%

30% and 30% Off

Bill 2 = 49%

Diff = 1%

1% = ₹43 → 100% = ₹4300

Calculations:

⇒ Let the cost (marked price) of the shirt be ₹x.

⇒ Bill amount from the first shop (after 50% off) = x − 0.50x = 0.50x

⇒ Effective discount by the second shop = 30 + 30 − (30 × 30) / 100 = 60 − 9 = 51%

⇒ Bill amount from the second shop = x − 0.51x = 0.49x

⇒ Difference in the bills = 0.50x − 0.49x = 0.01x

⇒ We are given that the difference is ₹43.

⇒ 0.01x = 43

⇒ x = 43 / 0.01 = 4300

∴ The correct answer is ₹4,300.

Additional Information

Successive Discount Formula

When two discounts of a% and b% are given successively, the equivalent single discount is derived directly using the formula (a + b − ab/100)%.

Marked Price and Selling Price

Selling Price (Bill Amount) = Marked Price − Discount. The absolute difference between the two bill amounts equates strictly to the difference in the applied discount percentages calculated on the Marked Price.

Three Successive Discounts

For three successive discounts a%, b% and c%, apply the formula first to find the equivalent of a% and b%, say d%. Then apply the formula again for d% and c% to find the final effective percentage.

Shortcut Trick

Let the Selling Price (SP) of 1 chair be 1 unit.

Total SP of 20 chairs = 20 units; Profit = SP of 4 chairs = 4 units.

Cost Price (CP) = SP − Profit = 20 − 4 = 16 units.

Given 16 units = ₹18,000 ⇒ 1 unit = 18000 ÷ 16 = ₹1,125.

Therefore, the SP of each chair is ₹1,125.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,125.

Alternate Method

Given → Total CP = ₹18,000 | Number of chairs = 20 | Gain = 4 × SP per chair. Formulas → Profit = Total SP − Total CP | SP per chair = Total SP ÷ Quantity.

Let the Selling Price of one chair be x.

⇒ Total SP = 20x

⇒ Profit = 4x

⇒ Profit = Total SP − Total CP

⇒ 4x = 20x − 18000

⇒ 20x − 4x = 18000 ⇒ 16x = 18000

⇒ x = 18000 ÷ 16 = 1125

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,125.

Additional Information

Relationship between CP, SP, and Profit

Profit occurs when SP > CP. In cases where profit is given in terms of SP units, it is easier to assume SP as the base variable.

Profit Percentage Calculation

Profit% = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100. In this problem, Profit% = (4 ÷ 16) × 100 = 25%.

Shortcut Trick Ratio of students in College P and Q = 180 : 320 = 9 : 16. Assume base average = 72. Deviation of P from base = 88 − 72 = 16. Weighted deviation = (9 × 16) ÷ (9 + 16) = 144 ÷ 25 = 5.76. Total Average = 72 + 5.76 = 77.76. ∴ The correct answer is 77.76. Alternate Method Given: Number of students in P (n1) = 180, Average of P (A1) = 88. Number of students in Q (n2) = 320, Average of Q (A2) = 72. Formula Used: Combined Average = (n1A1 + n2A2) ÷ (n1 + n2)

College P

Avg: 88 (180 Students) College Q

Avg: 72 (320 Students)

Combined Average = 77.76

⇒ Total marks for P = 180 × 88 = 15840 ⇒ Total marks for Q = 320 × 72 = 23040 ⇒ Combined marks = 15840 + 23040 = 38880 ⇒ Total students = 180 + 320 = 500 ⇒ Combined Average = 38880 ÷ 500 = 77.76 ∴ The correct answer is 77.76. Additional Information Weighted Average Concept Weighted Average = Σ(Valuei × Weighti) ÷ ΣWeighti. In this context, students are the weights. Range of Average The combined average of two groups always lies between the minimum average and the maximum average (72 < 77.76 < 88). Alligation Method The ratio of students can be found if the averages are known: (AvgP − AvgMix) ÷ (AvgMix − AvgQ) = nQ ÷ nP.

Calculation:

x² + 1 / x² = 18

(X + 1 / X)² = 18 +2

= 20

x+1/x = 2√5

 (x3 + $\frac{1}{x^3}$) = (x+1/x)³ - 3 (x+1/x)

⇒ 40√5 - 6√5

= 34$\sqrt5$

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

Speed for the first 160 km = 64 km/h

Speed for the second 160 km = 80 km/h 

Formula used:

Average speed = total distance/total time taken

Time taken to cover a certain distance = distance/speed

Calculation:

Total distance = 160 + 160 = 320 km

Time taken to cover the 160 km distance at 64 km/h = 160/64

⇒ 10/4 hours = 2.5 hours

Time taken to cover the 160 km distance at 80 km/h = 160/80

⇒ 2 hours

Total time taken to cover the distance of 320 km = 2 + 2.5 = 4.5 hours

Average speed = 320/4.5

⇒ 640/9 = 71.11 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 71.11 km/h.

Shortcut TrickCalculation:

Now,

Average speed = (320 × 2)/(5 + 4)

⇒  640/9 = 71.11 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 71.11 km/h.

The correct answer is 'cheap'.

Key Points

• The most appropriate antonym of the given word 'expensive' is 'cheap'.
• Expensive: costing a lot of money. (ख़र्चीला, बहुत महँगा, क़ीमती)
• Example: Keeping a horse is expensive.
• Cheap: low in price, costing little money. (सस्‍ता, कम क़ीमत का)
• Example: Oranges are cheap at the moment.

​Correct Answer: cheap.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the meaning of other words:
• costly: costing a lot of money; expensive. (बड़ी लागत वाला; महँगा, क़ीमती)
• premium: an amount of money that you pay regularly to a company for insurance against accidents, damage, etc. (दुर्घटना, क्षति आदि के बीमा के लिए किसी कंपनी को दी गई नियमित रक़म; बीमे की क़िस्‍त)
• precious: of great value (usually because it is rare or difficult to find). [क़ीमती, बहुमूल्‍य (सामान्‍यतः दुर्लभ होने के कारण)]

The correct answer is 'The decision to change the hospital saved the life of the daughter of the doctor.'

Key Points

• The grammatically correct sentence among the options is: The decision to change the hospital saved the life of the daughter of the doctor.
• This sentence correctly uses the definite article "the" before "hospital," indicating a specific hospital that was changed.
• Additionally, it uses the correct word order and article ("the") before "life" and does not use the article "an" before "hospital."
• This structure creates a grammatically accurate and clear sentence conveying that a particular decision, which involves changing a specific hospital, had a significant impact on saving the doctor's daughter's life.

Correct Answer: The decision to change the hospital saved the life of the daughter of the doctor.

The correct answer 'wajes'.

Key Points

• Among the given options the incorrectly spelt word is 'wajes'. Its correct spelling is 'wages'.
• Wages: the regular amount of money that you earn for a week’s work. [वेतन, मज़दूरी (काम करने के लिए प्राप्‍त नियमित धनराशि)]
• Example: minimum wage [the lowest wage that an employer is allowed to pay by law]...

​Correct Answer: wajes.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the meaning of other words:
• Refusal: saying or showing that you will not do, give or accept something. [(किसी बात को मानने, काम को करने से) इनकार करने की क्रिया; इनकार]
• Stretch: to pull something so that it becomes longer or wider; to become longer or wider in this way. (किसी वस्‍तु को अधिक लंबा या चौड़ा करने के लिए खींचना; (किसी वस्‍तु का) खिंच कर अधिक लंबा या चौड़ा हो जाना, बढ़ जाना, तनन)
• Wearily: with extreme tiredness. (बहुत थक कर)

The correct answer is 'it will rain'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
• Here, 'it rains' should be used instead of 'it will rain'.
• The sentence is a conditional statement. In conditional sentences of this structure (first conditional), the correct order is: "If + present simple, will + base verb." The original sentence, "If it will rain, we will have a tough time," creates a redundancy by using "will" after "if."
• In English, it's incorrect to use "will" in both parts of a conditional sentence. Instead, the structure should have "if + present simple" in the conditional clause. So, the correct arrangement should be: "If it rains, we will have a tough time." 

Correct Sentence: If it rains, we will have a tough time.

The correct answer is 'Is the butter not licked by Sneha?'

Key Points

• The given sentence is written in an interrogative form as the question tag is there, and we need to convert it into the passive form.
• Active Voice describes a sentence where the subject performs the action stated by the verb. While in the Passive Voice subject is acted upon by the verb.
• We follow the following structure in case of an interrogative sentence:
• Active voice: Do/Does/Did + Doer + Verb 1 + Noun/Pronoun + Rest of the sentence
• Example - Do they beat you every day? (Active)
• Passive voice: Am/is/are/was/were + Noun/Pronoun + Verb 3 + By + Doer + Rest of the sentence
• Example - Are you beaten by them every day? (Passive)
• While converting Interrogative Active into Interrogative Passive Voice.
• The helping verb comes before the object in the passive voice, (as the passive voice starts with the object of the active voice)
• Convert the verb into past participle or 3^rd form of the verb.
• Use the preposition ‘by’.
• Complete the sentence with the subject and sign of Interrogation (?).
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Passive form: Is the butter not licked by Sneha?

The correct answer is 'He cut corners on his homework and got a bad grade.'

Key Points

• The sentence that uses the idiom "cut corners" correctly is: He cut corners on his homework and got a bad grade.
• The idiom "cut corners" refers to doing something hastily or in a way that compromises quality by neglecting necessary steps or standards. In this sentence, it implies that the person didn't put in the required effort or complete the homework properly, leading to a bad grade.
• Example sentence: "She cut corners while preparing the report, so it lacked crucial information."
• It's possible that in the context of the idiom's meaning, the first sentence illustrates the concept of "cutting corners" more accurately by implying that the poor quality or outcome (the bad grade) resulted from not properly completing the homework.

Correct Answer: He cut corners on his homework and got a bad grade.

Additional Information

• Origin:
• ​The origin of the idiom "cut corners" possibly comes from the idea of literally cutting the corners of a shape or object to save time or resources.
• In various tasks or activities, skipping corners, which represent essential steps or details, leads to an incomplete or inadequate result.
• This phrase has been figuratively extended to denote doing something hastily or with less attention to quality.

The correct answer is 'The pill would not be swallowed by Rover.'

Key Points

• The given sentence is an example of Active Voice. As per the given question, we have to change it to Passive Voice.
• The process of transformation is as follows:
• The subject of the given sentence is 'Rover'.
• The object of the given sentence is 'the pill'.
• Since a modal verb has been used in the active voice, therefore, the passive voice will follow the given structure:-
• Active Voice - Subject + modal verb(would) + V1 + Object.**
• Passive Voice - Object(Subjective form) modal verb(would) + be + V3 Subject (Objective form).**
• Here, 'would not swallow' is changed into 'would not be swallowed' because in the 'active to passive' transformation third form of the verb is used.
• Therefore, as per the above-mentioned points, we find that the correct answer is Option 3. 

​

Correct Sentence: The pill would not be swallowed by Rover.

The correct answer is 'the nearest large'.

Key Points

• The sentence aims to describe the moon in terms of its proximity to Earth and its significant size compared to other celestial bodies.
• The original phrase "nearby large" doesn't effectively convey both the sense of proximity and the notion of significant size.
• The corrected phrase "the nearest large" effectively combines two elements:
• "Nearest" indicates the proximity of the moon to Earth, portraying it as the closest celestial body.
• "Large" denotes the substantial size of the moon among other celestial bodies, indicating its importance or significant dimensions.
• Grammatically, "nearest" functions as a superlative form of "near," signifying the closest in distance. It modifies "large," emphasizing that among the celestial bodies in proximity to Earth, the moon is not only close but also substantial in size compared to others.
• So, the chosen option, "the nearest large," effectively communicates both the idea of proximity and the significance of size in a grammatically correct manner, making it the most suitable substitution. 

Correct Sentence: The moon is Earth's only natural satellite and the nearest large celestial body.