SSC CGL 2023 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 25 Jul 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1. For 'F' element → Shifting in a cross pattern.

2. For 'X' element → Shifting in a cross pattern and after reaching the center position it replaced by '2' element.

3. For '

' element → Shifting in a cross pattern.

4. For '

' element → Shifting in a cross pattern.

5. For '

' element → Shifting in a cross pattern.

6. For 'U' element → Moving forward and backward subsequently.

7. For 'T' element → Replaced with 'B' element and Shifting in a cross pattern.

Final series is

Hence, ‘option - (1)’ is the correct answer.

Given statement : 784 ÷ 6 × 9 - 30 + 14 = 528

According to the question, after replacing the signs and numbers :

So,

• Option - (1) : 14 and 6, + and -

784 ÷ 6 × 9 - 30 + 14 = 528 ⇒ 784 ÷ 14 × 9 + 30 - 6 = 528

56 × 9 + 30 - 6 = 528

504 + 30 - 6 = 528

534 - 6 = 528

528 = 528 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (2) : 784 and 30, + and x

784 ÷ 6 × 9 - 30 + 14 = 528 ⇒ 30 ÷ 6 + 9 - 784 x 14 = 528

5 + 9 - 784 x 14 = 528

5 + 9 - 10976 = 528

14 - 10976 = 528

-10962 ≠ 528 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : 784 and 6, × and -

784 ÷ 6 × 9 - 30 + 14 = 528 ⇒ 6 ÷ 784 - 9 x 30 + 14 = 528

0.007 - 9 x 30 + 14 = 528

0.007 +14 - 270 = 528

14.007 - 270 = 528

-255.993 ≠ 528 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (4) : 9 and 6, ÷ and +

784 ÷ 6 × 9 - 30 + 14 = 528 ⇒ 784 + 9 × 6 - 30 ÷ 14 = 528

784 + 9 × 6 - 2.14 = 528

784 + 54 - 2.14 = 528

838 - 2.14 = 528

835.86 ≠ 528 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1. For '

' element → Rotating 90º in the clockwise direction.

Final series is

Hence, ‘option - (2)’ is the correct answer.

The correct Venn diagram representation is :

⇒As all graduates are educated and some graduates are unemployed. Therefore all graduates should come in educated and some part of graduates should be common with unemployed.

⇒Some educated are also unemployed, therefore some educated can be unemployed.

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer

According to the sequence in the dictionary:

5. Monitor
6. Monopoly
7. Monorail
8. Monsoon
9. Monster
10. Monument

Hence, the correct option is "5, 3, 1, 6, 4, 2".

Logic : 

• First three letters → Written diagonally
• Last three letters → Written diagonally

So,

• DISMAY : SIDYAM

And,

• DRIVER : IRDREV

​Similarly,

• SAFARI : ?

​Hence, "FASIRA" is the correct answer.

Given Statement : Looking at the family picture, Rajan said, "She is my wife's son's father's mother's husband's daughter.'

Thus, according to the final family tree the girl is the sister of Rajan.

Hence, "Sister" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given combination when mirror is placed at PQ is as shown below: 

Detailed Explanation:

• The line PQ is the mirror
• The word "ZVBCWP" the mirror image should be flipped horizontally instead of vertically ⇒ Option 1 is eliminated.
• The word "ZVBCWP" the third letter is "B". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 2 is eliminated..

• The word "ZVBCWP" the sixth letter is "P". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 3 is eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (4)".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some books are pens → Does not Follow (As, all pens are newspapers, some newspapers are novels and no novel is a book. So, it is possible but not definitely true.)

II. Some novels are pens → Does not Follow (As, all pens are newspapers and some newspapers are novels. So, it is possible but not definitely true.)

III. No book is a pen → Does not Follow (As, all pens are newspapers, some newspapers are novels and no novel is a book . So, as no direct negative or cross relation given between book and pen therefore it is definitely false)

∴ Here,

1. Elements i.e books and pens are same in both the conclusions.
2. Both the conclusions are individually does not follow(possible but not definitely true).
3. Conclusion I and II are complementary pair i.e Some and No

Hence, the correct answer is "Either conclusion I or III follows".

Additional Information

Conditions of either or case

1. The elements should be same in both the conclusions
2. Both conclusions should possible but not definitely true.
3. One of the conclusion should be negative and one of the conclusion should be positive i.e complimentary pair.
4. Complimentary pairs :

• ​some + no and all + some not
• Some + Some not and All + no are not Complimentary pair.

Logic : (2^nd number × 2) = (3^rd number + 1^st number)

Given :

• (9, 20, 31)

20 × 2 = 31 + 9

40 = 40 (LHS = RHS)

• (38, 49, 60)

49 × 2 = 60 + 38

98 = 98 (LHS = RHS)

So,

• Option - (1) : (63, 60, 65)

60 × 2 = 65 + 63

120 ≠ 128 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (2) : (15, 20, 31)

20 × 2 = 31 + 15

40 ≠ 46 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : (25, 69, 45)

69 × 2 = 45 + 25

138 ≠ 70 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (4) : (14, 24, 34)

24 × 2 = 34 + 14

48 = 48 (LHS = RHS) 

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Logic : (1^st number + 3^rd number) = (2^nd number ÷ 5)

Given :

• (7, 150, 23)

7 + 23 = 150 ÷ 5

30 = 30 (LHS = RHS)

• (11, 75, 4)

11 + 4 = 75 ÷ 5

15 = 15 (LHS = RHS)

So,

• Option - (1) : (4, 108, 16)

4 + 16 = 108 ÷ 5

20 ≠ 21.6 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (2) : (8, 90, 11)

8 + 11 = 90 ÷ 5

19 ≠ 18 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : (9, 80, 11)

9 + 11 = 80 ÷ 5

20 ≠ 16 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (4) : (15, 140, 13)

15 + 13 = 140 ÷ 5

28 = 28 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

Logic : Sum of the position values according to English alphabetic series are written.

So,

• 'RAT' is coded as '39'

And,

• 'MICE' is coded as '30'

​Similarly,

• 'ZEBRA' will be coded as :

​Hence, "52" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :- 

• First and second letter - Difference between the position value according to English alphabetic series is (1).
• Second and third letter - Difference between the position value according to English alphabetic series is (2).

​So,

• Option - (1) : ONL

​

• Option - (2) : RQO

​

• Option - (3) : HGE

​

• Option - (4) : DCB

​

Thus, out of all the options 'DCB' is the odd one out as the difference between first and the second letter and second and third letter are (1) and (1) respectively.

​Hence, "DCB" is the correct answer.

Logic : 

• First and third letter → (2) and (1) are added to the position value of first and third letter according to English alphabetic series respectively.
• Second and fourth letter → (2) and (1) are subtracted the position value of second and fourth letter according to English alphabetic series respectively.

So,

​Hence, "FVXP" is the correct answer.

Given : Z Y R _ Z _ R R Z Y _ R _ Y R _ 

By checking options :

1. R Y R Z R → Z Y R R Z Y R R Z Y R R Z Y R R → (It follows the pattern of : ZYRR - ZYRR - ZYRR - ZYRR)
2. Z R Y Z R → Z Y R Z Z R R R Z Y Y R Z Y R R → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
3. R Z R Y Z → Z Y R R Z Z R R Z Y R R Y Y R Z → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
4. Z R R Y Z → Z Y R Z Z R R R Z Y R R Y Y R Z → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)

⇒Option - (1) gives the pattern of "Z Y R R - Z Y R R - Z Y R R - Z Y R R"

Hence, "R Y R Z R" is the correct answer.

Given:

• The image must not to be rotated

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (4)".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (2^nd number)² × 2 = 1^st number.

Now,

Option - (1) : 128 : 8

→ (8)² × 2

→ 64 × 2 = 128.

Option - (2) : 288 : 12

→ (12)2 × 2

→ 144 × 2 = 288.

Option - (3) : 350 : 15

→ (15)2 × 2

→ 225 × 2 = 450 ≠ 350.

Option - (4) : 18 : 3

→ (3)2 × 2

→ 9 × 2 = 18.

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Logic : (1^st number × 1.25) = (3^rd number - 2^nd number)

So,

• First row: 16, 15, 35

16 × 1.25 = 35 - 15

20 = 20 (LHS = RHS) 

And,

• Second row: 12, 18, 33

12 × 1.25 = 33 - 18

15 = 15 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

• Third row: 8, 17, ?

8 × 1.25 = ? - 17

10 + 17 = ?

27 = ?

Hence, "27" is the correct answer.

Alternate MethodLogic: (1^st number ÷ 4) + (1^st number + 2^nd number) = 3^rd number.

First row: 16, 15, 35

→ (16 ÷ 4) + (16 + 15)

→ 4 + 31 = 35.

Second row: 12, 18, 33

→ (12 ÷ 4) + (12 + 18)

→ 3 + 30 = 33.

Similarly, Third row: 8, 17, ?

→ (8 ÷ 4) + (8 + 17)

→ 2 + 25 = 27.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (1)".

Logic : (1^st number ÷ 3) = Cube of 2^nd number

So,

• 1029 : 7

1029 ÷ 3 = $(7)^3$

343 = 343 (LHS = RHS)

And,

• 2187 : 9

2187 ÷ 3 = $(9)^3$

729 = 729 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

• 24 : ?

24 ÷ 3 = $(?)^3$

${ \sqrt{8}}$ = ?

2 = ?

Hence, "2" is the correct answer.

Given word : FOREFOOT

According to the question :

1. Each vowel is changed to the following letter in the English alphabetical series

⇒ Vowels is the word 'FOREFOOT' :- 

Here, the transformation will be "FPRFFPPT"

2. Each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series

⇒ Consonants is the word 'FOREFOOT' :- 

Here, the transformation will be "EPQFEPPS"

Thus, according to the final arrangement, "EPQFEPPS" there are two alphabets i.e Q and R between the alphabet which is 2^nd from the left  i.e 'P' and 1^st from the right 'S' according to English alphabetical series.

Hence, "Two" is the correct answer.

Logic : Consecutive prime number series is added to each number subsequently.

Hence, "51" is the correct answer.

Logic :

• Position value of opposite letter according to English alphabetic series is written.
• Double digit position values are added within the number to make a single digit number.

So,

• 'CAKE' is written as '6874'

And,

• 'EASY' is written as '4882'

​Similarly,

• 'MAKE' will be written as:

​Hence, "5874" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given combination when mirror is placed at PQ is as shown below:

Detailed Explanation:

• The line MN is the mirror
• The word "Wj32kp" the first letter is "W". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 1 is eliminated.

• The word "Wj32kp" the first letter is "W". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 2 is eliminated..

• The word "Wj32kp" the third digit is "3". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 4 is eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (3)".

Given statement : 3 × 12 - 6 ÷ 2 + 12 = 16

According to the question, after interchanging the signs :

So,

• Option - (1) : ÷ and +

3 × 12 - 6 ÷ 2 + 12 = 16 ⇒ 3 × 12 - 6 + 2 ÷ 12 = 16

3 × 12 - 6 + 0.16 = 16

36 + 0.16 - 6 = 16

36.16 - 6 = 16

30.16 ≠ 16 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (2) : × and ÷

3 × 12 - 6 ÷ 2 + 12 = 16 ⇒ 3 ÷ 12 - 6 × 2 + 12 = 16

0.25 - 6 × 2 + 12 = 16

0.25 +12 - 12 = 16

12.25 - 12 = 16

0.25 ≠ 16 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : - and ÷

3 × 12 - 6 ÷ 2 + 12 = 16 ⇒ 3 × 12 ÷ 6 - 2 + 12 = 16

3 × 2 - 2 + 12 = 16

6 + 12 - 2 = 16

18 - 2 = 16

16 = 16 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (4) : - and +

3 × 12 - 6 ÷ 2 + 12 = 16 ⇒ 3 × 12 + 6 ÷ 2 - 12 = 16

3 × 12 + 3 - 12 = 16

36 + 3 - 12 = 16

39 - 12 = 16

27 ≠ 16 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 382 persons/sq km.

Key Points

• The density of population in India is calculated by dividing the total population of India by the total area of the country.
• As per the 2011 Census, the total population of India was 1.21 billion and the total area was 3.17 million sq km.
• Therefore, the density of population in India in 2011 was 382 persons/sq km.
• This density is relatively high, considering the fact that India is the second-most populous country in the world after China.

Additional Information

• The definition of a census is the process of gathering and recording data regarding the population.
• The first comprehensive census was done in 1881, but it had been conducted every ten years since Viceroy Lord Mayo took office in 1872.
• Since 1949, it has been managed by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, through the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.

The correct answer is Maharana Kumbha.

Key Points

• The Maharana of Mewar who composed a book on music called 'Sangeet Raj' was Maharana Kumbha.
• Maharana Kumbha was a great patron of art and culture and contributed significantly to the development of music, dance, and literature in Mewar.
• 'Sangeet Raj' is a treatise on music that covers various aspects of Indian classical music, including the theory of ragas, musical instruments, and the art of singing.
• Maharana Kumbha was also a prolific writer and composed several works on history, religion, and philosophy.

Additional Information

• Maharana Sanga was the ruler of Mewar who fought against the Mughal emperor Babur in the Battle of Khanwa in 1527.
• Maharana Pratap was another famous ruler of Mewar who fought against the Mughals in the Battle of Haldighati in 1576.
• Maharana Udai Singh was the founder of Udaipur and the father of Maharana Pratap.

The correct answer is 8.

Key Points

• India won a total of 19 medals in the Tokyo Paralympic 2020, out of which 5 were gold, 8 were silver, and 6 were bronze.
• India's performance in the Tokyo Paralympic 2020 was historic as it was their best-ever performance in the Paralympic games.
• They finished 24^th in the overall medal tally, which is a significant improvement from their 43^rd rank in Rio Paralympic 2016.

Additional Information

• The Tokyo 2020 Paralympic Games were an international multi-sport parasports competition that took place in Tokyo, Japan, from 24 August to 5 September 2021.
• The International Paralympic Committee organized them as the 16^th Summer Paralympic Games.
• India's medal winners in the Tokyo Paralympic 2020 were Avani Lekhara, Sumit Antil, Manish Narwal, Pramod Bhagat, Krishna Nagar, Suhas Lalinakere Yathiraj, Nishad Kumar, Sharad Kumar, Yogesh Kathuniya, Devendra Jhajharia, Sundar Singh Gurjar, Singhraj Adhana, and Mariyappan Thangavelu.

The correct answer is i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a.

Key Points

• The common names mentioned in column A are the names of the groups in the Modern Periodic Table.
• Alkali metals are highly reactive metals that belong to Group 1 of the Modern Periodic Table.
• Alkaline earth metals are also highly reactive metals that belong to Group 2 of the Modern Periodic Table.
• Halogens are non-metals that are highly reactive and belong to Group 17 of the Modern Periodic Table.
• Noble gases are non-reactive gases that belong to Group 18 of the Modern Periodic Table.

Additional Information

• The chemical elements are arranged into rows and columns on the periodic table, also known as the periodic table of the elements.
• When the chemical elements are arranged in this way, a recurring pattern in their properties known as the "periodic law" occurs, where elements in the same column (group) have similar properties.

The correct answer is Galacturonic acid.

Key Points

• Pectin is a complex carbohydrate that is found in the cell walls of plants and is responsible for the firmness and softness of fruits.
• The main acid unit that makes up pectin is galacturonic acid, which is a sugar acid that is derived from glucose.
• Pectin is made up of complex polysaccharides, which are widely distributed in the green parts of terrestrial plants and found in the primary cell walls of plants.
• The main element of the middle lamella, where pectin binds cells, is pectin.

Additional Information

• Aspartic acid is an amino acid that is not found in pectin**,** but is found in proteins.
• Lentils, soybeans, garbanzo beans, and other legumes are plant sources of aspartic acid.
• Lactic acid is a simple organic acid that is produced by bacteria during fermentation and is not found in pectin.
• Our body creates lactic acid when our cells digest carbohydrates for energy.
• Glutamic acid is an amino acid that is not found in pectin, but is found in proteins.
• It transforms into glutamate inside the body.
• This substance aids in the transmission and reception of information between **brain nerve cells.**​

The correct answer is Vascular plants.

Key Points

• The sporophyte stage is the dominant phase in vascular plants, which includes all plants except bryophytes (mosses, liverworts, and hornworts).
• In bryophytes, the gametophyte stage is the dominant phase, while the sporophyte is dependent on the gametophyte for survival.
• Algae do not have a well-defined alternation of generations, and their life cycles can vary greatly depending on the type of algae.
• Pteridophytes, which include ferns and horsetails, have a dominant sporophyte stage that is independent of the gametophyte.
• The dominance of the sporophyte stage is characterized by the fact that it is the stage that produces the spores, which give rise to the next generation of plants.

Additional Information

• Bryophytes are small, non-vascular plants that grow in damp habitats.
• They do not have true roots, stems, or leaves and rely on diffusion to transport water and nutrients.
• Algae are a diverse group of aquatic organisms that can range from single-celled organisms to large seaweeds.
• They are not considered to be true plants because they lack specialized tissues and organs.
• Pteridophytes are vascular plants that reproduce by spores instead of seeds.
• They have true roots, stems, and leaves, and can range from small herbaceous plants to large tree ferns.
• The alternation of generations is a life cycle that includes both a haploid (n) gametophyte and a diploid (2n) sporophyte stage.
• In plants, the gametophyte produces gametes (eggs and sperm), which fuse to form a diploid zygote that develops into the sporophyte.
• The sporophyte produces spores, which give rise to the next generation of gametophytes.

The correct answer is greater than unity.

Key Points

• Devaluation is the reduction in the value of a country's currency relative to other currencies.
• The elasticity of demand refers to the responsiveness of demand for a good or service to a change in its price.
• When the sum of elasticity of demand for exports and imports is greater than unity, a devaluation can improve the balance of payments.
• This is because a devaluation makes exports cheaper and imports more expensive, which can increase the demand for exports and reduce the demand for imports, thereby improving the balance of payments.
• When the sum of elasticity of demand for exports and imports is less than unity or equal to unity, devaluation may not be effective in improving the balance of payments.

Additional Information

• If the sum of elasticity of demand for exports and imports is less than unity, devaluation may not lead to a significant increase in demand for exports or decrease in demand for imports.
• If the sum of elasticity of demand for exports and imports is equal to unity, devaluation may lead to a proportionate increase in demand for exports and decrease in demand for imports, but may not necessarily improve the balance of payments.
• If the sum of elasticity of demand for exports and imports is zero, devaluation will not have any effect on the demand for exports or imports, and hence will not improve the balance of payments.

The correct answer is Chennai Super Kings.

Key Points

• Chennai Super Kings (CSK) is a cricket franchise that participates in the Indian Premier League (IPL).
• As of 30 January 2022, CSK became India's first sports unicorn with a market capitalization of Rs. 7,600 crores.
• A unicorn is a term used for a startup or a company that has a valuation of over $1 billion.
• CSK has been one of the most successful teams in the IPL, having won the tournament five times and reaching the finals eight times.
• The team is owned by India Cements, a company that is headed by former BCCI president N. Srinivasan.

Additional Information

• Delhi Capitals:
• Delhi Capitals (formerly Delhi Daredevils) is also a cricket franchise that participates in the IPL.
• The team is co-owned by the GMR Group and the JSW Group.
• Kolkata Knight Riders:
• Kolkata Knight Riders is another cricket franchise that participates in the IPL.
• The team is owned by Bollywood actor Shah Rukh Khan, actress Juhi Chawla, and her spouse Jay Mehta.
• Mumbai Indians:
• Mumbai Indians is a cricket franchise that participates in the IPL.
• The team is owned by India's biggest conglomerate**, Reliance Industries,** and is captained by Hardik Pandya$.

The correct answer is Malegam Committee.

Key Points

• The Micro Finance Institution (MFI) sector in India faced a crisis in 2010 due to high interest rates and coercive recovery practices leading to borrower suicides.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted the Malegam Committee in 2010 to study the issues and concerns in the MFI sector and suggest regulatory measures.
• The Malegam Committee recommended a cap on the interest rates charged by MFIs, a code of conduct for recovery practices, and the creation of a separate category of NBFC-MFIs.
• The recommendations of the Malegam Committee were incorporated in the Micro Finance Institutions (Development and Regulation) Bill, 2012, which became an Act in 2016.

Additional Information

• Ghosh Committee (2013): Constituted to review the governance of bank boards in India.
• The Ghosh Committee had suggested that concurrent auditing be implemented at large and exceptionally large bank branches in order to support the branches administratively, aid in following established policies and procedures, and prevent and promptly identify any irregularities or lapses.
• The Sivaraman Committee (30 March 1979):
• ​This committee was established under the chairmanship of Shri B. Sivaraman, a former member of the Planning Commission of the Government of India.
• Its recommendations led to the formation of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
• On July12,1982, Act 61, 1981 of Parliament was passed, implementing the B. Sivaramman Committee's recommendations and creating NABARD to carry out the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act of 1981.
• Khan Committee (2011): Constituted to review the working of the monetary policy framework in India.
• India developed the idea of universal banking after the RH Khan Committee suggested it as an alternative idea.
• The Khan Working Group believed that banks ought to be able to acquire DFIs (Development Finance Institutions) as soon as possible.

The correct answer is Irish.

Key Points

• DPSP stands for Directive Principles of State Policy, which are guidelines for the government to ensure social and economic justice in India.
• The Indian Constitution borrowed the concept of DPSP from the Irish Constitution, which had similar provisions.
• The Irish Constitution's DPSP was influenced by the Catholic social teachings and the ideas of social justice.

Additional Information

• The Australian Constitution has no DPSP, but it has provisions related to the division of powers between the federal and state governments.
• The Australian Constitution is the country's highest law.
• The six autonomous British colonies in Australia—New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria, and Western Australia—conducted a series of conventions between 1891 and 1898 to draft the Constitution.
• The German Constitution has a similar concept called Grundgesetz, which includes fundamental rights and principles for the state's welfare.
• Approved in Bonn on May 8, 1949, the West German Constitution went into force on May 23, following its approval on May 12 by the occupying western Allies of World War II.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Tamladu is a festival celebrated by the Buddhist community of Arunachal Pradesh.
• The festival is celebrated to appease the local deities and seek their blessings for a bountiful harvest.
• Tamladu is celebrated on the 15^th day of the Tibetan calendar, which usually falls in the month of February or March.
• During the festival, people offer prayers and perform traditional dances and rituals to honor their ancestors and seek their blessings.
• The festival is an important cultural event for the Buddhist community of Arunachal Pradesh and is celebrated with great enthusiasm and fervor.

Additional Information

• Karnataka is known for its rich cultural heritage and has several festivals celebrated throughout the year.
• Some of the popular festivals celebrated in Karnataka are Ugadi, Dasara, and Makara Sankranti.
• Madhya Pradesh is known for its vibrant culture and rich history.
• Some of the popular festivals celebrated in Madhya Pradesh are Diwali, Holi, and Dussehra.
• Himachal Pradesh is known for its natural beauty and scenic landscapes.
• Some of the popular festivals celebrated in Himachal Pradesh are Dussehra, Diwali, and Baisakhi.

The correct answer is Magadha.

Key Points

• The rise of Magadha kingdom was attributed to the iron mines in Jharkhand.
• The iron ore available in Jharkhand region was of high quality and was extensively used for making weapons and tools.
• Magadha kingdom used this to its advantage and became a powerful kingdom in ancient India.
• The iron industry also led to the growth of other industries like agriculture, trading, and metallurgy in the region.

Additional Information

• Kuru kingdom was located in the northern part of India and was known for its military prowess.
• Kuru was a Vedic Indo-Aryan tribal union that emerged in the Middle Vedic period in northern Iron Age India.
• It included parts of the present-day states of Haryana, Delhi, and some parts of western Uttar Pradesh.
• Kashi kingdom was situated in the present-day Varanasi region of Uttar Pradesh and was known for its rich cultural heritage.
• The Kasi kingdom occupied a 300 league radius.
• The Sarpika or Syandika river served as Kasi's northern boundary, dividing it from Kosala.​
• Kushan kingdom was a Central Asian empire that ruled over parts of modern-day India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan.
• It was known for its trade and commerce.

The correct answer is It is the most common sedimentary rock.

Key Points

• Granite is indeed the most abundant rock in the continental crust.
• Granite is not a sedimentary rock, but an igneous rock.
• Granite forms from hot, molten rock that solidifies over time.
• Granite is composed mainly of quartz and feldspar with minor amounts of mica.

Additional Information

• Granite is an intrusive igneous rock, which means it forms from magma that cools and solidifies beneath the Earth's surface.
• It is commonly used as a building material, particularly for countertops and flooring.
• The minerals that make up granite can vary depending on the location and conditions of its formation.
• Other minerals that may be present in granite include amphibole, biotite, and pyroxene.

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• Luddi is a popular folk dance of Punjab, especially among the youth and is performed at weddings and other celebrations.
• It involves energetic and lively movements with rhythmic clapping and singing.
• The dance form originated in the Sandal Bar region of Punjab and is believed to have been performed by the Lohars, a community of blacksmiths, to celebrate their victories and achievements.

Additional Information

• Manipur is known for its traditional dance forms such as Manipuri and Nata Sankirtana.
• Madhya Pradesh is known for its folk dances such as Gond, Bhagoria, and Matki dance.
• Kerala is known for its classical dance forms such as Kathakali and Mohiniyattam, as well as folk dances such as Theyyam and Thiruvathira.

The correct answer is Birmingham.

Key Points

• The Commonwealth Games 2022 was held in Birmingham, England, from 28 July to 8 August 2022.
• This was the third time that the United Kingdom hosted the Commonwealth Games, following London in 1934 and Manchester in 2002.
• The event featured 19 sports, including the debut of women's T20 cricket, mixed synchronized diving, and wheelchair basketball 3x3.
• Over 4,500 athletes from 72 Commonwealth nations and territories participated in the Games.
• The next Commonwealth Games will be held in state of Victoria, Australia , in 2026.

Additional Information

• Beijing is the capital city of China and has hosted the Summer Olympics in 2008.
• They were an international multisport competition that took place in Beijing, China, from August 8–24, 2008.
• Tokyo is the capital city of Japan and hosted the Summer Olympics in 1964 and 2021.
• They were an international multisport competition that took place in Tokyo, Japan, from July 23 to August 8, 2021, and from October 10 to 24, 1964.
• New Delhi is the capital city of India and hosted the Commonwealth Games in 2010.
• Held in Delhi, India, from October 3–14, 2010, it was an international multisport event for Commonwealth members.

The correct answer is Arya Samaj.

Key Points

• The slogan "Back to Vedas" was raised by the Arya Samaj, a Hindu reform movement founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
• The Arya Samaj aimed to purify Hinduism by returning to the original teachings of the Vedas and rejecting later additions and corruptions.
• The movement emphasized the importance of education, particularly for women, and promoted social reforms such as the abolition of child marriage and the caste system.
• The Arya Samaj also played a role in India's independence movement and supported the Swadeshi movement to boycott British goods.

Additional Information

• Dev Samaj was a reform movement founded by Pandit Shiv Narayan Agnihotri in the late 19^th century**.**
• Brahmo Samaj was a reform movement founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in the early 19^th century that aimed to promote monotheism and social reforms such as the abolition of sati and the promotion of women's education.
• Prarthana Samaj was a reform movement founded by Atmaram Pandurang in the late 19^th century that sought to promote monotheism and social reforms such as the abolition of caste and the promotion of women's education.

The correct answer is A and C only.

Key Points

• Statement A is correct because it defines the concept of judicial review and its scope in India.
• Statement B is incorrect because there is no provision in the Indian Constitution that describes the compulsion of judicial review in the Fundamental Rights in Part III.
• Statement C is correct because the power of judicial review is significantly vested upon the High Courts and the Supreme Court of India.

Additional Information

• Judicial review is an important feature of the Indian Constitution that ensures the supremacy of the Constitution and the rule of law.
• The power of judicial review enables the judiciary to check the abuse of power by the legislature and the executive and to protect the rights and liberties of the citizens.
• The Indian Constitution's Article 13 outlines the procedures for judicial review.
• It requires the Indian State to uphold and execute the fundamental right.
• Additionally, it gives the courts the authority to declare a law or action unconstitutional if it violates a fundamental right.

The correct answer is New India Literacy Programme.

Key Points

• New India Literacy Programme aligns with the National Education Policy and covers all aspects of adult education for the next five years.
• The New India Literacy Programme aims to achieve 100% literacy rate in India by providing functional literacy and basic education to all adults who lack these skills.
• Financially, it will cost Rs. 10,379.90 crore and be implemented between FYs 2022–2023 and 2026–2027, following the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 recommendations.

 All nonliterates who are at least 15 years old are the target audience for the program.

Additional Information

• Open Education Programme is a distance learning program that offers open access to education for anyone, anywhere, at any time, but it may not cover all aspects of adult education as required by the NEP.
• ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) is a community health worker program that aims to improve health outcomes in rural areas, and it is not related to adult education.

The correct answer is 21.67%.

Key Points

• The total forest cover in India 0.2167.
• The nation is covered in forests covering 7,13,789 square kilometers.
• This represents the total forest cover in India as per the India State of Forest Report 2019.

Additional Information

• The India State of Forest Report is a biennial publication by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) that provides information on the forest cover of India.
• The forest cover includes all lands more than 1 hectare in area, with a tree canopy density of more than 10%.
• The report also provides information on other aspects of the forest cover, such as the type of forests, their distribution, and changes over time.
• The 2019 report indicated an increase of 5,188 sq km in the forest cover of India as compared to the previous report of 2017.

The correct answer is Manipur.

Key Points

• Ras-Lila is a traditional dance form of Manipur.
• Ras-Lila is a form of classical dance that depicts the love story of Lord Krishna and Radha.
• The dance form is performed by both male and female dancers wearing traditional Manipuri attire.
• The dance is accompanied by traditional Manipuri music and instruments like pung, pena, and harmonium.

Additional Information

• Manipur is also known for other traditional dance forms like Nata Sankirtana, Thang-Ta, and Pung Cholom.
• Assam's Bihu dance is a celebration of the harvest season and is performed by both men and women.
• Meghalaya's Nongkrem dance is a part of the annual Nongkrem festival and is performed by the Khasi tribe.
• Tripura's Hozagiri dance is performed by the Reang tribe and is a part of their harvest festival.

The correct answer is Lord Curzon.

Key Points

• Lord Curzon served as the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905 and was known for his interest in preserving historical monuments.
• Lord Curzon established the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act (1904), which was responsible for the conservation and restoration of ancient monuments and archaeological sites.
• Under his leadership, several important monuments including the Taj Mahal, Qutub Minar, and Fatehpur Sikri were restored and preserved for future generations.
• Lord Curzon also initiated the construction of the Victoria Memorial in Kolkata, which is now a major tourist attraction and museum.

Additional Information

• Lord Ellenborough served as the Governor-General of India from 1842 to 1844.
• He is known for his controversial policies and decisions, including the annexation of Sindh and the First Anglo-Afghan War.
• Lord Auckland served as the Governor-General of India from 1836 to 1842.
• He is known for his role in the First Anglo-Afghan War and the establishment of the British residency in Kabul.
• Lord Lytton served as the Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880.
• ​​​ He is known for his controversial policies, including the Vernacular Press Act and the Second Anglo-Afghan War.
• He also initiated the construction of the famous Delhi Durbar of 1877.

The correct answer is military commanders.

Key Points

• The Amara-Nayakas were military commanders in the Vijayanagara Empire.
• They were appointed to govern and protect various regions of the empire.
• The term "Amara-Nayaka" literally means "commander of an army".
• They were responsible for maintaining law and order in their respective regions and also for collecting taxes.

Additional Information

• Forced labourers were usually prisoners of war or people who were forced to work on public projects.
• Finance officers were responsible for managing the finances of the empire.
• Ordinary peasants were farmers who worked on the land and paid taxes to the Amara-Nayakas.

The correct answer is yellow.

Key Points

• When unsaturated hydrocarbons burn, they produce a yellow flame due to the presence of carbon particles in the flame.
• Unsaturated hydrocarbons are hydrocarbons that contain at least one double or triple bond between carbon atoms in their molecular structure.
• Some examples of unsaturated hydrocarbons include alkenes and alkynes.

Additional Information

• Blue is the color of the flame when alkanes, which are saturated hydrocarbons, burn.
• This is because alkanes do not contain double or triple bonds and produce a complete combustion reaction.
• Red and green flames are typically produced by burning metals or metal salts.
• It is important to note that the color of the flame produced by burning hydrocarbons can also be affected by other factors, such as the presence of impurities or the amount of oxygen available for combustion.

The correct answer is Government of India .

Key Points

• The Jal Kranti Abhiyan is a campaign launched by the Government of India to create awareness about the importance of water conservation and management in the country.
• The campaign aimed to promote the conservation of water resources and to ensure the optimal utilization of water through various measures like rainwater harvesting, watershed development, and water resource management.
• The campaign was launched with the objective of making water conservation a people's movement and to encourage the participation of all stakeholders in the process.
• The campaign also focused on the revival of traditional water conservation methods and the adoption of modern technologies to manage and conserve water resources.

Additional Information

• The Government of Punjab has launched several initiatives for water conservation and management, such as the 'Paani Bachao, Punjab Bachao' campaign and the 'Pani Ki Chetna' program.
• The Government of Haryana has also launched various programs for water conservation, such as the 'Jal Hi Jeevan Hai' campaign and the 'Mera Pani, Meri Virasat' program.
• The Government of Uttar Pradesh has launched several initiatives for water conservation and management, such as the 'Jal Sanrakshan Abhiyan' and the 'Har Ghar Jal' program.

The correct answer is Justice SK Kaul.

Key Points

• Justice SK Kaul was in news in 2022 for recusing himself from hearing a plea against the ED chief's tenure extension.
• The plea was filed by a lawyer who alleged that the extension granted to the ED chief was illegal and arbitrary.
• Justice Kaul recused himself from the case citing personal reasons.
• The ED chief is the head of the Enforcement Directorate, which is responsible for investigating economic offenses in India.

Additional Information

• Justice KM Joseph was appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court in 2018.
• He has previously served as a Chief Justice of the Uttarakhand High Court.
• Justice Ajay Rastogi was appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court in 2018.
• He has previously served as a Chief Justice of the Tripura High Court and the Rajasthan High Court.
• Justice SK Kaul was appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court in 2018.
• ​He has previously served as a Chief Justice of the Madras High Court and the Punjab and Haryana High Court.
• Justice Mukesh Shah was appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court in 2021.
• ​He has previously served as a Chief Justice of the Patna High Court.

Shortcut Trick

Rate of 12.5% in fraction is 1/8.

Total interest for 6 years in ratio = (1/8) × 6 = 3/4.

Here, Principal = 4 units and Simple Interest = 3 units.

Difference (P − SI) = 4 − 3 = 1 unit → ₹13,500.

Simple Interest = 3 units = 3 × 13,500 = ₹40,500.

∴ The correct answer is ₹40,500.

Alternate Method

Given:

Rate (R) = 12.5% per annum

Time (T) = 6 years

Principal − Simple Interest = ₹13,500

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Principal be P.

⇒ SI = (P × 12.5 × 6) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (P × 75) ÷ 100 = 0.75P

⇒ According to the question: P − SI = 13,500

⇒ P − 0.75P = 13,500

⇒ 0.25P = 13,500

⇒ P = 13,500 ÷ 0.25 = 13,500 × 4 = ₹54,000

⇒ Simple Interest = 0.75 × 54,000 = ₹40,500

∴ The correct answer is ₹40,500.

Additional Information

Relationship between SI and Amount

The total amount (A) after T years is the sum of Principal and Simple Interest: A = P + SI = P × (1 + RT/100).

Fractional Conversions for Rates

Common rate fractions: 12.5% = 1/8, 16.66% = 1/6, 20% = 1/5, 25% = 1/4. Using these simplifies unitary method calculations.

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

For the first year, Simple Interest and Compound Interest are the same if the interest is compounded annually.

Concept used:

Cosec 45° = √2 ; sec 45° = √2

Cosec 30° = 2 ; sec 30° = (2/√3)   

Calculation:

Cosec 75° = cosec (45 + 30)

cosec (45 + 30) = (sec 45 × sec 30 × cosec 45 × cosec 30)/{(sec 45 × cosec 30) + (cosec 45 × sec 30)}

⇒ (√2 × (2/√3) × √2 × 2)/{(√2 × 2) + (√2 × (2/√3))}

⇒ (8/√3)/{2√2 + (2√2/√3)}

⇒ (8/√3)/{(2√6 + 2√2)/√3}

⇒ 8/(2√6 + 2√2)

By rationalizing the term

⇒ 8 × (2√6 - 2√2)/{(2√6 + 2√2) × (2√6 - 2√2)}

⇒ (16√6 - 16√2)/{(2√6)² - (2√2)²}

⇒ 16 × (√6 - √2)/{24 - 8}

⇒ 16 × (√6 - √2)/16 = (√6 - √2)

∴ The correct answer is (√6 - √2).

Shortcut Trick

Increase in average score = 67 − 65 = 2 runs.

Runs required in 20^th inning = New Average + (Previous Innings × Increase in Average)

Runs required = 67 + (19 × 2)

Runs required = 67 + 38 = 105.

∴ The correct answer is 105 runs.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average score of Ram in 19 innings = 65 runs.

Desired average score after 20 innings = 67 runs.

Formula Used:

Total Score = Average × Number of Innings

Calculations:

⇒ Total runs in 19 innings = 19 × 65 = 1235 runs.

⇒ Total runs in 20 innings = 20 × 67 = 1340 runs.

⇒ Runs to be scored in 20^th innings = Total runs (20 innings) − Total runs (19 innings)

⇒ Runs to be scored = 1340 − 1235

⇒ Runs to be scored = 105.

∴ The correct answer is 105 runs.

Additional Information

Concept of New Inclusion

When a new value is added to a group, New Value = Old Average + (Total Number of Items × Increase in Average).

Average of Natural Numbers

The average of the first 'n' natural numbers is given by the formula (n + 1) ÷ 2.

Weighted Average

If two groups with averages A₁ and A₂ and number of items n₁ and n₂ are combined, the new average is (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Given:

Side of a large cube = 12 cm

Size of 1^st small cube = 6 cm

Size of 2^nd small cube = 8 cm

Concept used:

Volume of large cube = total volume of small cubes

Formula used:

Volume of cube = (side)³

Calculation:

Let the side of 3^rd cube = x

Volume of large cube = total volume of three cubes

⇒ (12)³ = (6)³ + (8)³ + (x)³

⇒ 1728 = 216 + 512 + x³

⇒ x³ = 1728 - 728

⇒ x = ³√1000 = 10 cm

∴ The correct answer is 10 cm.

Given:

Distance between policeman and thief = 600 m

Speed of policeman = 9 km/h

Speed of thief = 8 km/h

Formula used:

Distance = relative speed × time

Calculation:

Distance = relative speed × time

⇒ 600 = (9 - 8) × (5/18) × time

⇒ Time = (600 × 18)/5 = 120 × 18

⇒ Time = 2160 sec = (2160/3600) hours

Distance covered by policeman = 9 × (2160/3600)

⇒ (9 × 3)/5 = 5.4 km

∴ The correct answer is 5.4 km.

Given:

Cost price (C.P) = Rs.3600

Overall profit on apples = 27%

Concept used:

If profit P% occurred then

Selling price (S.P) = C.P × (100 + P)%

Where, P = profit%

Calculation:

Let the price of one apple = Rs.1

Quantity of apples = 3600

According to the question:

⇒ 3600 × (1/5) × (- 10%) + 2880 × (1/4) × (- 5%) + 2160 × (2/3) × 15% + 720 × (x%) = 3600 × 27%

⇒ - 7200 - 3600 + 21600 + 720x = 3600 × 27

⇒ - 720 - 360 + 2160 + 72x = 360 × 27

⇒ 72 × (- 10 - 5 + 30 + x) = 360 × 27

⇒ 15 + x = 5 × 27

⇒ x = 135 - 15 = 120%

Selling price of rest apple = 720 × (100 + 120)%

⇒ 720 × 220% = Rs.1584

∴ The correct answer is Rs.1584.

Given:

(4 men + 6 women) can complete a work = 8 days

(3 men + 7 women) can complete a work = 10 days

Formula used:

Total work = efficiency × time

Calculation:

⇒ (4 men + 6 women) × 8 = (3 men + 7 women) × 10

⇒​ 2 men = 22 women

⇒ Men/women = 11/1

Total work = (3 men + 7 women) × 10

⇒ {(3 × 11) + (7 × 1)} × 10 

⇒ (33 + 7) × 10 = 400

Time taken by 25 women to complete the work = 400/25 = 16 days

∴ The correct answer is 16 days.

Calculation:

Total sales of 6^th branch for both year = 70 + 80 = 150

Total sales of 3^rd branch for both year = 95 + 110 = 205

Required percentage = (150/205) × 100 = (30 × 100)/41 = 73.17%

∴ The correct answer is 73.17%.

Given:

Dividend = 88 + 6

Divisor = 7

Concept used:

(Dividend)ⁿ/Divisor = (remainder)ⁿ

Calculation:

⇒ ${8^8 + 6}\over7$

⇒ {(1)⁸ + 6}/7 = 7/7

Remainder = 0

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Given:

$\frac{3y}{1 + \frac{1}{1 + \frac{y}{1-y}}} = 2$

Calculation:

⇒ $\frac{3y}{1 + \frac{1}{1 + \frac{y}{1-y}}} = 2$

⇒ $\frac{3y}{1 + \frac{1}{\frac{1 - y + y}{1-y}}} = 2$

⇒ $\frac{3y}{1 + 1 - y} = 2$

⇒ 3y/(2 - y) = 2

⇒ 3y = 4 - 2y

⇒ 5y = 4

⇒ y = 4/5

∴ The correct answer is 4/5.

Shortcut Trick

Given Remainder = 39.

Divisor = 6 × 39 = 234.

Quotient = 234 ÷ 13 = 18.

Dividend = (234 × 18) + 39 = 4212 + 39 = 4251.

∴ The correct answer is 4251.

Alternate Method

Given:

Remainder (R) = 39

Divisor (D) = 6 × R

Divisor (D) = 13 × Quotient (Q)

Formula Used:

Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder

Calculations:

⇒ Divisor (D) = 6 × 39 = 234

⇒ 13 × Quotient (Q) = 234

⇒ Quotient (Q) = 234 ÷ 13 = 18

⇒ Dividend = (234 × 18) + 39

⇒ Dividend = 4212 + 39

⇒ Dividend = 4251

∴ The correct answer is 4251.

Additional Information

Division Algorithm

For any whole numbers a and b (b ≠ 0), there exist unique integers q and r such that a = bq + r, where 0 ≤ r < b.

Relationship of Terms

In the expression Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder, the Remainder must always be less than the Divisor.

Perfect Division

If a number is perfectly divisible by another, the Remainder is 0, making Dividend = Divisor × Quotient.

Given:

Tan α = 6

Concept used:

Tan θ = P/B

Sec θ = H/B

Where, P = perpendicular; B = base; H = hypotenuse

Formula used:

Pythagorean theorem:

H² = P² + B²

Where, P = perpendicular; B = base; H = hypotenuse

Calculation:

Tan α = 6/1 = P/B

Using Pythagorean theorem:

⇒ H2 = P2 + B2

⇒ H² = (6)² + (1)²

⇒ H = √37

Sec α = H/B = √37

∴ The correct answer is √37.

Calculation:

Import in the year 1977 = 3600 thousand tonnes

Import in the year 1976 = 2700 thousand tonnes

According to the question:

Import in the year 1976 × X = Import in the year 1977

⇒ 2700 × X = 3600

⇒ X = 3600/2700 = 1.33

∴ The correct answer is 1.33.

Given:

Radius of large circle = 25 cm

Radius of small circle = 4 cm

Formula used:

Direct common tangent = 2 × √(R × r)

Calculation:

Direct common tangent (AB) = 2 × √(R × r)

⇒ 2 × √(25 × 4)

⇒ 2 × 10 = 20 cm

∴ The correct answer is 20 cm.

Given:

y - (1/y) = 4

Formula used:

If y - (1/y) = P then,

y + (1/y) = √(P2 + 4)

If y + (1/y) = P then,

y³ + (1/y³) = P³ - 3P

Calculation:

y - (1/y) = 4

⇒ y + (1/y) = √(42 + 4) = √20

⇒ y + (1/y) = 2√5

Now,

y3 + (1/y3) = (2√5)3 - 3 × 2√5

⇒ 40√5 - 6√5 = 34√5

y3 + (1/y3) = 34√5

Squaring both sides

⇒ {y3 + (1/y3)}² = (34√5)²

⇒ y⁶ + (1/y⁶) + 2 = 1156 × 5

⇒ y6 + (1/y6) = (5780 - 2) = 5778

∴ The correct answer is 5778.

Formula used:

Length of an arc = (2 × π × r × θ)/360

Calculation:

Let the angle subtends at centre = θ 

$\rm \frac{Angle, of, arc, at, centre}{360^{\circ}} × π × diameter$

⇒ (θ/360) × π × 2 × r = (2 × π × r × θ)/360

Length of an arc = (2 × π × r × θ)/360

∴ The correct option is 4.

Given:

Distance between policeman and thief = 400 m

Speed of policeman = 18 km/h

Speed of thief = 16 km/h

Formula used:

Distance = relative speed × time

Calculation:

Distance = relative speed × time

⇒ 400 = (18 - 16) × (5/18) × time

⇒ Time = (400 × 18)/(2 × 5)

⇒ Time = 720 sec

Distance covered by thief before being caught = 16 × (5/18) × 720

⇒ 16 × 200 = 3200 m

∴ The correct answer is 3200 m.

Given:

A group of men decided to do a job in 13 days.

Formula used:

Total work = efficiency × time

Sum of n terms = n/2 × [a + l]

Where, n = number of terms;

a = first term; l = last term 

Calculation:

Let the number of person in group initially = x

9 men left work after each day.

So it becomes an A.P series.

⇒ x + (x -9) + (x - 18)............ (x - 135) = x × 13

⇒ (16/2) × [x + x - 135] = 13x

⇒ 8 × [2x - 135] = 13x

⇒ 16x - (135 × 8) = 13x

⇒ 16x - 13x = 135 × 8

⇒ x = (135 × 8)/3 = 45 × 8 = 360 persons.

∴ The correct answer is 360 persons.

Given:

Marked price (M.P) = Rs.50000

Discount (D)% = 40%

Two successive discounts:

Discount (D₁) = 36% ; Discount (D₂) = 4%

Formula used:

Effective discount (D_s) = D1 + D2 - (D1 × D2)/100

Calculation:

Effective discount (Ds) = D1 + D2 - (D1 × D2)/100

⇒ 36 + 4 - (36 × 4)/100

⇒ 40 - 1.44 = 38.56%

Difference in the bill after discount = 50000 × (40 - 38.56)%

⇒ 50000 × 1.44% = Rs.720

∴ The correct answer is Rs.720.

Given:

(Raju + Rajat) together complete the work = 5 days

Raju alone can complete the work = 7 days.

Formula used:

Total work = efficiency × time

Calculation:

Now,

Efficiency of Rajat = (7 - 5) = 2 unit/day

Time taken to complete the work by Rajat = 35/2 = 17.5 days

∴ The correct answer is 17.5 days.

Given:

Total wasted toffees = (1/10) × Total toffees

Toffees got by S = 35% of remaining toffees

Toffees got by N = (1/8) of total toffees

Calculation:

Let the total toffees = 200 units

Total wasted toffees = 200 × (1/10) = 20 units

Remaining toffees = (200 - 20) = 180 units

Total toffees S had = 180 × 35% =  63 units

Total toffees N had = (1/8) × 200 = 25 units

According to the question:

⇒ (25 - 20) units = 5 units = 10 toffees

⇒ 1 units = 2 toffees

Total toffees S had = 63 units = 63 × 2 = 126 toffees

∴ The correct answer is 126 toffees.

Given:

Length of field = 150 m

Breadth of field = 80 m

Formula used:

Perimeter of rectangle = 2 × (L + B)

Diagonal of rectangle = √(L² + B²)

Where, L = length; B = breadth

Calculation:

Diagonal of rectangle × (X) = perimeter of rectangle

⇒ √{(150)2 + (80)2} × (X) =   2 × (150 + 80)

⇒ √{(22500 + 6400} × (X) =  2 × 230

⇒ √28900 X =  460

⇒ X = 460/170 = 2.7

∴ The correct answer is 2.7.

Given:

Radius of 1^st circle = r₁

Radius of 2^nd circle = r₂

Distance between the centre of circle = d

Calculation:

Length of common transverse tangent = $\sqrt{d^2 - (r_1 + r_2)^2}$

∴ The correct option is 4.

Given:

cot A = 1; sin B = 1/√2

Formula used:

Cot 45° = 1; cot 90° = 0

Sin 45° = 1/√2; sin 90° = 1 

Calculation:

Cot A = 1

⇒ Cot A = cot 45°

⇒ A = 45°

sin B = 1/√2

⇒ Sin B = sin 45°

⇒ B = 45°

Now,

sin(A + B) - cot(A + B) 

⇒ sin(45 + 45) - cot(45 + 45)

⇒ sin 90° - cot 90°

⇒ 1 - 0 = 1

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Given:

x2 - 15x + 1 = 0

Concept used:

if x + 1/x = P

then x² + 1/x² = P² - 2

Calculation:

x2 - 15x + 1 = 0

Divide by x on both sides

⇒ x - 15 + 1/x = 0

⇒ x + 1/x = 15

Now,

⇒ x² + 1/x² = 15² - 2

⇒ x2 + 1/x2 = 223

Now putting the value in the given expression

⇒ x4 - 223x2 + 6

⇒ x4 - (x2 + 1/x2) × x2 + 6 

⇒ x4 - x⁴ - 1 + 6 

⇒ 5

∴ The correct answer is 5.

The correct answer is: Epilogue.

Key Points

• An Epilogue is a speech given by an actor at the end of a play. (किसी नाटक के अंत में किसी अभिनेता द्वारा दिया गया भाषण)
• Example: The novel's epilogue provided closure to the story, revealing the characters' futures beyond the main narrative.
• It is the concluding part of a literary work.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Prologue: An introductory part of a literary work, especially a play. (किसी साहित्यिक कृति, विशेषकर नाटक का परिचयात्मक भाग)
• Monologue: A long speech given by one person in a play or a movie. (किसी नाटक या फ़िल्म में एक व्यक्ति द्वारा दिया गया लंबा भाषण)
• Duologue: A conversation between two people in a play or a movie. (किसी नाटक या फ़िल्म में दो लोगों के बीच की बातचीत)

The correct answer is: Dexterous.

Key Points

• Incompetent means lacking the necessary skills or ability to do something. (कुछ करने के लिए आवश्यक कौशल या क्षमता का अभाव)
• Example: The employee's incompetent performance led to multiple errors and delays in the project.
• Marked option Dexterous means having or showing skill, especially with the hands. (कौशल रखना या दिखाना, विशेषकर हाथों से)
• Example: The dexterous musician effortlessly played a complex piece on the piano, impressing the audience with precision and skill.
• Therefore, the opposite of incompetent is dexterous.
• Grammatically, the two words are antonyms.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Forlorn means sad and lonely. (दुखी और अकेला)
• Desperate means feeling or showing a sense of hopelessness. (निराशा की भावना महसूस करना या दिखाना)
• Hopeless means feeling or causing despair about something. (किसी बात को लेकर निराशा महसूस करना या पैदा करना)

The correct answer is: Recluse.

Key Points

• A recluse is someone who lives in solitude or seclusion. (कोई व्यक्ति जो एकांत या एकांत में रहता हो)
• Example: The writer lived as a recluse in a secluded cabin, finding solace in the quietude of nature.
• The word 'solitude' means the state of being alone or isolated.
• The grammatical point here is the use of the noun 'recluse' to describe someone who prefers to live alone.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Metropolitan refers to a person who lives in a big city. (एक व्यक्ति जो एक बड़े शहर में रहता है)
• Cosmopolitan refers to a person who is well-traveled and has a broad knowledge of different cultures. (एक व्यक्ति जो अच्छी तरह से यात्रा करता है और विभिन्न संस्कृतियों का व्यापक ज्ञान रखता है)
• Refugee refers to a person who has been forced to leave their home country due to persecution or war. (वह व्यक्ति जिसे उत्पीड़न या युद्ध के कारण अपना देश छोड़ने के लिए मजबूर किया गया हो)

The correct answer is: BADC

Key Points

• The paragraph talks about the worship of Lord Ganesha and Goddess Lakshmi on Diwali.
• Sentence B mentions that in many households, Diwali is celebrated by worshipping goddess Lakshmi and Lord Ganesha. This worship is a way of seeking blessings for prosperity and success in the coming year.
• Sentence A talks about Lord Ganesha being revered as the deity who removes obstacles and brings intelligence. Worshipping him on Diwali is seen as a way to overcome challenges and invite wisdom into one's life.
• Sentence D mentions Goddess Lakshmi is the Hindu goddess of wealth and prosperity. Worshipping her on Diwali is a tradition aimed at seeking blessings for financial success and abundance.
• Sentence C provides additional information Diwali is considered the beginning of the financial year in many traditional Indian communities. Merchants and business owners start new account books on this day, symbolizing the start of a new financial year with the blessings of Goddess Lakshmi.
• In this order, the paragraph flows logically.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is: 'Apple pie order'.

Key Points

• 'Apple pie order' means everything is in perfect order or arranged neatly. (सब कुछ सही क्रम में है या बड़े करीने से व्यवस्थित है)
• Example: After cleaning and organizing, the kitchen was in apple pie order.
• This idiom is used to describe a situation where everything is well organized and in order.

Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• 'Apple of discord' means a cause of quarrel or disagreement. (झगड़े या असहमति का कारण)
• 'Alley apple' is a slang term for horse manure. (घोड़े की खाद के लिए एक कठबोली शब्द)
• 'Apple of one's eye' means someone or something that is cherished or loved above all else. (कोई व्यक्ति या वस्तु जिसे सबसे अधिक महत्व दिया जाता है या प्यार किया जाता है)