SSC CGL 2023 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 25 Jul 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Logic : Square of (2nd number - 1) = 1st number

So,

• 169 : 14

$(14 - 1)^2$ = 169

$(13)^2$ = 169

169 = 169 (LHS = RHS)

And,

• 289 : 18

$(18 - 1)^2$ = 289

$(17)^2$ = 289

289 = 289 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

• ? : 16

$(16 - 1)^2$ = ?

$(15)^2$ = ?

225 = ?

Hence, "225" is the correct answer.

According to given figure:

The figure will appear when it is opened as follows:

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at AB is as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (2)".

Given Statement : Pointing to a lady, Suman (a lady) said "She is the grandmother of the son of my father-in-law's wife."

As only grandmother is given therefore there are two possibilities i. e. it can either paternal or maternal grandmother.

• Case - (1) :

• Case - (2) :

Thus, according to the final family tree the lady is husband's either maternal or paternal grandmother of Suman.

Hence, "Husband's grandmother" is the correct answer.

Logic : Opposite letter according to English alphabetic series is written.

So,

• MAP : NZK

And,

• HOZ:SLA

​Similarly,

• WQK : ?

​Hence, "DJP" is the correct answer.

According to the sequence in the dictionary:

5. Carnival
6. Carousel
7. Carriage
8. Carrier
9. Carrying
10. Cartoon

Hence, the correct option is "5, 4, 6, 2, 3, 1".

Logic : (1st number × 2nd number) = (3rd number ÷ 3)

So,

• (6, 1, 18)

6 × 1 = 18 ÷ 3

6 = 6 (LHS = RHS)

And,

• (5, 4, 60)

5 × 4 = 60 ÷ 3

20 = 20 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

• (6, 2, ?)

6 × 2 = ? ÷ 3

12 × 3 = ?

36 = ?

Hence, "36" is the correct answer.

Given statement : 18 * 3 * 12 * 9 * 3 * 111 

According to the question, after replacing the * signs :

So,

• Option - (1) :  ÷, +, ×, –, =

18 * 3 * 12 * 9 * 3 * 111 ⇒ 18 ÷ 3 + 12 × 9 - 3 = 111 

6 + 12 × 9 - 3 = 111

6 + 108 - 3 = 111

114 - 3 = 111

111 = 111 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (2) : ×, +, ÷, –, =

18 * 3 * 12 * 9 * 3 * 111 ⇒ 18 × 3 + 12 ÷ 9 - 3 = 111

18 × 3 + 1.33 - 3 = 111

54 + 1.33 - 3 = 111

55.33 - 3 = 111

52.33 ≠ 111 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : ×, –, ×, +, =

18 * 3 * 12 * 9 * 3 * 111 ⇒ 18 × 3 - 12 × 9 + 3 = 111

54 + 3 - 108 = 111

57 - 108 = 111

-51 ≠ 111 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (4) : ×, +, ×, –, =

18 * 3 * 12 * 9 * 3 * 111 ⇒ 18 × 3 + 12 × 9 - 3 = 111

54 + 108 - 3 = 111

162 - 3 = 111

159 ≠ 159 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (3)".

Logic : (1st number × 3) + 3 = 2nd number

So, 

• Option - (1) : 2 : 9

2 × 3 + 3 = 9

6 + 3 = 9

9 = 9 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (2) : 6 : 21​

6 × 3 + 3 = 21

18 + 3 = 21

21 = 21 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (3) : 10 : 33

10 × 3 + 3 = 33

30 + 3 = 33

33 = 33 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (4) : 8 : 29

8 × 3 + 3 = 29

24 + 3 = 29

27 ≠ 29 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some doctors are teachers → Follow (As, some teachers are scientists and all scientists are doctors. So, as whole scientists comes in doctors and have some part common with teachers therefore it is definitely true.)

II. Some engineers are teachers → Follow (As, some teachers are scientists, all scientists are doctors and all doctors are engineers. So, as whole scientists comes in doctors which whole comes in engineers and some part of scientists is common with teachers therefore it is definitely true.)

III. Some doctors are scientists → Follow (As, all scientists are doctors. So, as whole scientists comes in doctors therefore it is definitely true.)

So, All conclusions follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "All conclusions follow".

Logic : (6) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.

So,

​

​Hence, "YBX" is the correct answer.

Logic : Sum of the position values of opposites according to English alphabetic series is written.

So,

• ‘RPD’ is written as ‘43’

And,

• ‘FCL’ is written as ‘60'

​Similarly,

• ‘QTS’ will be written as :

​Hence, "25" is the correct answer.

Given Statement : Looking at the family picture, Smriti said, "She is my father’s father-in-law’s wife’s son’s only sister."

Thus, according to the final family tree that person in the photo is wife of Smriti's father.

Hence, "Wife" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some drawings are colours → Follow (As, some colours are rainbows and all rainbows are drawings. So, as whole rainbows comes in drawings and have some part common with colours therefore it is definitely true.)

II. All paints are drawings → Does not Follow (As, some paints are rainbows and all rainbows are drawings. So, it is possible but not definitely true)

III. Some drawings are rainbows → Follow (As, all rainbows are drawings. So, as whole rainbows comes in drawings and have some part common with colours therefore it is definitely true.)

So, Only conclusions I and Ill follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusions I and Ill follow".

Logic : (1st number + 2nd number) = (3rd number ÷ 3)

Given : 

• (2, 7, 27)

2 + 7 = 27 ÷ 3

9 = 9 (LHS = RHS)

• (6, 15, 63)

6 + 15 = 63 ÷ 3

21 = 21 (LHS = RHS)

So,

• Option - (1) : (3, 21, 24)

3 + 21 = 24 ÷ 3

24 ≠ 8 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (2) : (9, 8, 50)

9 + 8 = 50 ÷ 3

17 ≠ 16.67 (LHS ≠ RHS) 

• Option - (3) : (12, 4, 40)

12 + 4 = 40 ÷ 3

16 ≠ 13.33 (LHS ≠ RHS) 

• Option - (4) : (8, 8, 48)

8 + 8 = 48 ÷ 3

16 = 16 (LHS = RHS) 

Hence, "Option - (4)" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at AB is as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (3)".

Given : C _ R C _ R _ A R _ A _ C A _    

By checking options :

1. R A C A C A → C R R C A R C A R A A C C A A → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
2. R A C A A C → C R R C A R C A R A A R C A C → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
3. A C R A C R → C A R C C R R A R A A C C A R → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
4. A A C C R R → C A R C A R C A R C A R C A R → (It follows the pattern of : CAR - CAR - CAR - CAR - CAR)

⇒Option - (4) gives the pattern of "C A R C A R C A R C A R C A R"

Hence, "A A C C R R" is the correct answer.

Logic : Addition of consecutive prime number is followed here.

So, the series here is :-

3 + 5 = 8

8 + 7 = 15

15 + 11 = 26

26 + 13 = 39

39 + 17 = 56

Hence, "56" is the correct answer.

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1. For 'M' element → Shifting in the clockwise direction along with replacing with the consecutive next letter series according to English alphabetic series.

2. For 'N' element → → Shifting in the clockwise direction along with replacing with the consecutive next letter series according to English alphabetic series.

3. For '

' element → Decreasing in number from to increasing in number to right side.

Final series is

Hence, ‘option - (4)’ is the correct answer.

Logic : (1st number ÷ 2nd number) = (2nd number × 2)

So, 

• 98 : 7

98 ÷ 7 = 7 × 2

14 = 14 (LHS = RHS)

And,

• 162 : 9

162 ÷ 9 = 9 × 2

18 = 18 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

• 242 : ?

242 ÷ ? = ? × 2

242 ÷ 2 = $(?)^2$

${ \sqrt{121}}$ ?

11 = ?

Hence, "11" is the correct answer.

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1) Pattern is followed diagonally i.e :

• 1st box → Moving forward diagonally and no change in rest of the elements.
• 2nd box → Moving forward diagonally and no change in rest of the elements.
• 3rd box → Moving forward diagonally and no change in rest of the elements.
• 4th box → Moving forward diagonally and no change in rest of the elements.

 

Final series is

Hence, ‘option - (4)’ is the correct answer.

Given : _ _ MSDRTM _ _ R _ _ SD _ TM _ D   

By checking options :

1. RSTDTMRS → R S MSDRTM T D R T M SD R TM S D  → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
2. RTSDMTRS → R T MSDRTM S D R M T SD R TM S D → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
3. RTSDMTSR → R T MSDRTM S D R M T SD S TM R D → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
4. RTSDTMRS → R T MSDRTM S D R T M SD R TM S D → (It follows the pattern of : RTMSD - RTMSD - RTMSD - RTMSD)

⇒Option - (4) gives the pattern of "R T MSD - RTM S D - R T M SD - R TM S D"

Hence, "RTSDTMRS" is the correct answer.

Logic : 

• Vowels ⇒ (2) is added to position value according to English alphabetic series.
• Consonants ⇒ No change

So,

• ‘DISCIPLINE’ is written as ‘DKSCKPLKNG’

And,

• ‘REVOLUTION’ is written as ‘RGVQLWTKQN’

​Similarly,

• ‘UNIVERSITY’ will be written as :

​Hence, "WNKVGRSKTY" is the correct answer.

According to the question,

Given that: 183 > 39 $ 13 ! 6 < 26

After replacing the symbols with their meanings, we get :-

= 183 + 39 ÷ 13 × 6 - 26 

= 183 + 3 × 6 - 26

= 183 + 18 - 26

= 201 - 26

= 175

Hence, the correct answer is "175".

The correct answer is lok nritya.

Key Points

• Padma Shri is a civilian award in India, given to individuals who have made significant contributions in various fields such as arts, literature, science, sports, social work, etc.
• Guru Shashadhar Acharya is a renowned folk dance exponent from Odisha, known for his contribution to the promotion and preservation of traditional folk dances of the state.
• He was awarded with padma shree in 2020.

Additional Information

• Vadya Yantra Vadan refers to playing musical instruments.
• Any device designed or modified to produce melodies is considered a musical instrument.
• Shastriya Nritya refers to classical dance forms.
• Bharatnatyam, Kathak, Kathakali, Kuchipudi, Manipuri, Mohiniyattam, sattriya are among the nine classical dance styles practiced in India.
• Lok Nritya refers to traditional folk dances.
• Ghoomer, Kacchi Gori Chari, and Kalbelia are a few of the most well-liked folk dances.
• Hindustani Shastriya Gayan refers to classical music.
• Western art music, which is generally distinguished from Western folk music or popular music traditions, is referred to as classical music.

The correct answer is Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma.

Key Points

• Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma is an Indian classical musician and a renowned Santoor player.
• Under the pseudonym Shiv–Hari, he worked as a music composer with Indian flautist Hariprasad Chaurasia, creating scores for popular Indian movies like Faasle (1985), Chandni (1989), and Lamhe (1991).
• In addition to the Padma Shri and Padma Vibhushan in 1991 and 2001, Sharma received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1986.

Additional Information

• Alauddin Khan was a Hindustani classical musician who played various instruments including the Sarod.
• In 1958 and 1971, Khan received the Padma Bhushan and the Padma Vibhushan, respectively.
• Annapurna Devi was also an Indian classical musician who played the Surbahar, a stringed instrument.
• Maharaja Brijnath Singh of the erstwhile Maihar Estate gave her the name "Annapurna," and this was the name by which she was commonly recognized.
• She was Ustad Ali Akbar Khan's sister and the disciple and daughter of Allauddin Khan.
• Vilayat Khan was a sitar player and one of the most famous musicians in the Indian classical music industry.
• He is recognized as having contributed to the invention and advancement of gayaki ang on the sitar, along with Imdad Khan, Enayat Khan, and Imrat Khan.

The correct answer is Diatomic.

Key Points

• Chlorine exists as a diatomic molecule, which means it consists of two atoms of chlorine joined by a covalent bond.
• The symbol for chlorine is Cl, and its atomic number is 17, which means it has 17 protons and 17 electrons in its nucleus and shells, respectively.
• Chlorine is a halogen, and it is a highly reactive nonmetal that can form compounds with many other elements.

Additional Information

• Tetra-atomic is a rare type of molecule that consists of four atoms of the same or different elements.
• Examples include sulfur tetrafluoride (SF4) and phosphorus tetraiodide (PI4).
• Poly-atomic molecules are common in chemistry and include many organic compounds such as glucose (C6H12O6) and DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid).
• Monoatomic elements are rare and include noble gases such as helium (He) and neon (Ne), which exist as single atoms and do not form molecules with other atoms.

The correct answer is 119.

Key Points

• The Legislative Assembly of Telangana was formed in 2014 after the state of Telangana was carved out of Andhra Pradesh.
• The term of the assembly is 5 years, and the last state elections were held in December 2018.
• The assembly has a total of 119 seats.
• The current Chief Minister of Telangana is **Revanth Reddy.**​

Additional Information

• The youngest and 29th state in the Union of India is Telangana.
• From September 17, 1948, to November 1, 1956, when it was combined with Andhra state to form Andhra Pradesh state, the Telangana region was a part of the Hyderabad state.
• Telangana was established when the AP State Reorganization Bill was approved by both chambers of Parliament, capping decades of campaigning for a separate State.
• It is said that the words "Trilinga," or "Trilinga Desa," which translate to "the country of the three lingas," are the source of both the language and the name "Telangana."

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare announced the National Suicide Prevention Strategy in 2022 with the aim of reducing the suicide mortality rate by 10% by 2030.
• Suicide is a major public health concern in India, with the country accounting for 17.8% of global suicide deaths in 2019.
• The National Suicide Prevention Strategy aims to address the risk factors associated with suicide, such as mental health issues, substance abuse, and social isolation, through a multi-sectoral approach involving healthcare, education, and community-based interventions.

Additional Information

• Suicide prevention is a priority area for the government of India, and several initiatives have been launched in recent years to address this issue.
• These include the establishment of a national helpline, training of healthcare professionals in suicide prevention, and community-based interventions.
• The World Health Organization (WHO) states that although suicide is a major public health concern in India, it can be avoided with prompt, evidence-based interventions.
• One of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG3.4.2) of the UN asks member nations to strive toward a one-third reduction in suicide rates worldwide by the year 2030.
• Suicide prevention is one of these goals.
• The Mental HealthCare Act of 2017's decriminalization of suicide and the establishment of India's first mental health toll-free helpline, KIRAN, are notable actions taken by the Indian government.​

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

• Chhattisgarh is where Raut Nacha is a famous folk dance performed by the Yadav community during Holi and other festive occasions.
• Yadavas see it as a sign of their devotion to Krishna.
• On the occasion of "dev udhni ekadashi," they dance.
• Hindu panchang holds that after a brief nap, the gods are now believed to be awakening.

Additional Information

• Punjab is known for its Bhangra dance, which is performed during harvest festivals and weddings.
• ​Other dances includes Giddha, Jhoomer, Malawi, Julli, Sammi, Jaago and Dankara.
• Gujarat is known for its Garba and Dandiya Raas dances, which are performed during Navratri.
• ​​Garbi and Raas is the most popular Dance celebrations in Gujarat.
• Assam is known for its Bihu dance, which is performed during the harvest season and other festive occasions.
• Other dances includes Bagurumba, the Bhortal, the Ojapali dance.

The correct answer is President of India.

Key Points

• President of India takes the salute during the march-past of various regiments of the armed forces on the occasion of Republic Day.
• The President of India is the Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Armed Forces, and hence, it is a tradition for him to take the salute during the Republic Day parade.

Additional Information

• The President of India is elected by an Electoral College consisting of elected members of both houses of the Parliament of India and of the Legislative Assemblies of the States of India.
• The Defence Minister of India is a member of the Cabinet and is responsible for the Defence Ministry, which is the ministry in charge of the armed forces of India.
• The Prime Minister of India is the leader of the ruling party or coalition of parties in the Lok Sabha, which is the lower house of the Parliament of India.
• The Home Minister of India is a member of the Cabinet and is responsible for the Ministry of Home Affairs, which is the ministry in charge of internal security, law and order, and disaster management in India.

The correct answer is Mahendrapal.

Key Points

• Rajasekhara was an eminent Sanskrit poet, dramatist and critic of 10th century and was court poet of the Gurjara Pratihara Kings.
• His most important works are Kavyamimamsa and Karpurmanjari.
• He had written Karpurmanjari to please his wife Avantisundari. Karpurmanjari is written in Sauraseni Prakrit.
• In his plays, Rajshekhara has described himself as teacher / guru of Gurjara Pratihara King Mahendrapala I.

The correct answer is 1825.

Key Points

• Michael Faraday discovered benzene in illuminating gas in the year 1825.
• He collected compressed illuminating gas cylinders from the pyrolysis of whale oil and used them to extract benzene.
• This newly found liquid hydrogen was dubbed a bicarburet of hydrogen by Faraday.
• German chemist Eilhardt Mitscherlich created benzene in 1834 by heating benzoic acid and lime.
• A.W. von Hofmann, a German chemist, separated benzene from coal tar in 1845.

Additional Information

• Benzene is a colorless, highly flammable liquid with a sweet odor.
• It is an important industrial chemical used in the production of various chemicals, including plastics, synthetic fibers, rubbers, dyes, detergents, and pharmaceuticals.

The correct answer is Vaishya.

Key Points

• Vaishyas were the merchant class in ancient India and were mainly involved in agriculture, trade, and commerce.
• They were considered the backbone of the economy as they were responsible for producing and distributing goods.
• They were employed in trade, agriculture, and pastoral work, as well as in productive labor.
• Their way of life required learning, selflessness, and almsgiving.

Additional Information

• Kshatriyas were the warrior class.
• They were responsible for protecting the kingdom and maintaining law and order.
• Brahmins were the priestly class.
• They were responsible for performing religious rituals and imparting knowledge.
• Shudras were the labor class.
• They were responsible for manual labor.

The correct answer is Very hot during summers and very cold during winters.

Key Points

• Continentality refers to the degree of temperature variation within a landmass.
• Continentality is influenced by factors such as latitude, altitude, ocean currents, and prevailing winds.
• Continental climates are often found in the interior regions of large landmasses, such as North America and Eurasia.

Additional Information

• Polar climates are found in regions near the Earth's poles, while tropical wet climates are found in regions near the equator.
• Monsoon climates are found in regions that experience seasonal winds, such as southern Asia and parts of Africa.

The correct answer is Odisha, 2020.

Key Points

• The first Khelo India University Games were held in Odisha in 2020.
• The event was organized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and the Government of Odisha.
• The games were aimed at promoting sports culture and excellence among university students in India.
• Over 3,000 athletes from more than 150 universities participated in the event.
• The games included 17 disciplines, including athletics, badminton, basketball, football, and swimming.

Additional Information

• Maharashtra did host the Khelo India Youth Games in 2019, which is a separate event aimed at promoting sports among school students.
• On January 20, 2019, the Khelo India Youth Games came to an end in Pune.
• With 228 medals, Maharashtra led the field, followed by Delhi and Haryana in second and third place.
• With 85 gold medals, Maharashtra won the "General Championship of Khelo India 2019".
• Punjab has not yet hosted any Khelo India games.
• Kerala hosted the Khelo India Youth Games in 2020, but not the University Games.
• With 78 gold, 77 silver, and 101 bronze medals, Maharashtra successfully defended its title.

The correct answer is 28.

Key Points

• The 'Bharatmala Pariyojana' is a centrally sponsored and funded road and highways project aimed at improving the connectivity of various regions and promoting economic growth.
• The project has identified 28 cities for the development of ring roads under phase I.
• The development of ring roads in these cities is expected to reduce traffic congestion, increase the efficiency of transportation, and promote regional connectivity, which will have a positive impact on the economy.

Additional Information

• In India, the largest expressway project is the Golden Quadrilateral (GQ).
• It creates a kind of quadrilateral by joining India's four biggest cities**: Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, and Chennai.**
• This network also provides services to Surat, Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, and Pune.

The correct answer is Sundari.

Key Points

• Sundari is scientifically known as Heritiera fomes.
• Sundari is a mangrove species found in the Sundarbans of India and Bangladesh.
• It is an important species for the ecosystem as it provides habitat to a variety of fauna and helps in protecting the coast from natural disasters such as cyclones and tsunamis.

Additional Information

• Kachnar is a flowering tree found in India and Southeast Asia.
• Because of its anti-inflammatory and antioxidant characteristics, kachnar promotes the growth of new skin cells, which aids in the healing of wounds.​
• Kusum is a deciduous tree found in India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.
• ​The tree is known as Schleichera oleosa.
• Arjun is a medicinal tree species found in India and Sri Lanka.
• ​One tree in the Terminalia genus is Terminalia arjuna.

The correct answer is Lord Cornwallis.

Key Points

• Lord Cornwallis introduced the Zamindari Settlement in 1793 as a measure of land revenue administration in British India.
• The Zamindari Settlement was a system of land revenue collection where the East India Company granted the zamindars (landlords) the right to collect revenue from the peasants in exchange for a fixed amount of revenue paid to the Company.
• The system was criticized for its exploitation of peasants by the zamindars and for perpetuating the feudal system in India.

Additional Information

• Lord Lytton introduced the infamous Vernacular Press Act in 1878, which curbed the freedom of the press in India and led to widespread protests.
• Lord Curzon was known for his administrative reforms in India, including the partition of Bengal in 1905, which sparked nationalist movements.
• Lord Wellesley was the Governor-General of India from 1798 to 1805 and is known for his expansionist policies and the Subsidiary Alliance system, which made Indian states dependent on the British.
• Lord Cornwallis was also responsible for introducing the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, which fixed the revenue to be paid by landowners to the Company, but led to the impoverishment of the peasants.

The correct answer is Dibyendu Barua.

Key Points

• Viswanathan Anand is a famous Indian chess player who has won several international championships and tournaments.
• After Viswanathan Anand, the second Indian chess player to become a Grandmaster is Dibyendu Barua.
• Dibyendu Barua achieved the Grandmaster title in 1991 and has won several national and international tournaments.

Additional Information

• P. Harikrishna is a five-time Indian chess champion.
• In 2001, he won the Commonwealth, in 2004 the World Junior Championship, and in 2011 the Asian Individual Championship.
• Abhijeet Kunte is a four-time Indian chess champion.
• ​He is an Indian grandmaster in the FIDE chess organization.
• Shashikaran Krishnan is a two-time Indian chess champion.
• ​In the 2013 World Chess Championship, he finished in second place behind Viswanathan Anand.

The correct option is Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Srijan Yojana (PMEGP) scheme was initiated by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).
• The PMEGP is a credit-linked subsidy scheme launched by the Indian government in 2008 to provide financial assistance to entrepreneurs setting up micro-enterprises in the manufacturing and service sectors.

Additional Information

• The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) is a branch of the Government of India that is responsible for the promotion and development of micro, small and medium enterprises in the country.
• The MSME ministry was established in 2007 and is headed by a Cabinet Minister.
• The ministry provides various schemes and programs to promote entrepreneurship and support the growth of small businesses in India.
• Some of the other schemes initiated by the MSME ministry include the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE), National Manufacturing Competitiveness Programme (NMCP), and the **Entrepreneurship Development Programme (**EDP).

The correct answer is 395.

Key Points

• The Indian Constitution originally consisted of 395 articles.
• This number has since been amended several times, and currently the Indian Constitution has 448 articles.
• Important sections of the Indian Constitution, legislatures, executive branches, schedules, constitutional bodies, statutory bodies, fundamental rights, and more are covered in each set of articles.

Additional Information

• The Indian Constitution is the longest written constitution of any sovereign country in the world.
• It was adopted on November 26, 1949, and came into effect on January 26, 1950.
• The Constitution originally had 22 parts, but this number has since been revised to 25 parts.
• The Constitution also includes 12 schedules, which contain various lists and tables related to important topics such as languages, territories, and elections.

The correct answer is Schwann cells.

Key Points

• Schwann cells are the main glial cells in the PNS.
• They provide myelin sheath around the axons of neurons, which helps in faster conduction of nerve impulses.
• Schwann cells also play a crucial role in the regeneration of damaged axons.
• They are also involved in the maintenance of the ionic environment around the neurons.

Additional Information

• Bipolar cells are specialized neurons found in the retina of the eye, which help in transmitting signals from photoreceptor cells to ganglion cells
• Ganglion cells are the output neurons of the retina, which transmit visual information to the brain via the optic nerve.
• Photoreceptor cells are specialized cells found in the retina of the eye, which help in detecting light and converting it into neural signals.

The correct answer is 300.

Key Points

• The recommended daily intake of cholesterol for adults and children over four years of age, according to the guidelines provided by healthcare professionals, is RDA 300mg/day.
• Cholesterol is an essential component of cell membranes and is also involved in the production of hormones, vitamin D, and bile acids.
• High levels of cholesterol in the blood can increase the risk of heart disease and stroke.

Additional Information

• Cholesterol is a type of fat that is produced by the liver and is also found in certain foods such as meat, dairy products, and eggs.
• HDL (high-density lipoprotein) cholesterol is often referred to as "good" cholesterol as it helps to remove excess cholesterol from the blood and carry it back to the liver for processing.
• LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol is often referred to as "bad" cholesterol as it can build up in the arteries and increase the risk of heart disease and stroke.
• Eating a healthy diet, exercising regularly, and maintaining a healthy weight can all help to reduce cholesterol levels and lower the risk of heart disease and stroke.

The correct answer is Arun Goel.

Key Points

• Arun Goel assumed charge as the new Election Commissioner (EC) of India on 21 November 2022.
• He succeeded Sushil Chandra who retired from the post on 20 November 2022.
• Arun Goel is a 1984-batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of Punjab cadre.
• He has served in various positions in the state and central governments, including as Secretary in the Ministry of Culture.
• Arun Goel's appointment as the new EC was made by the President of India on the recommendation of the Prime Minister-led selection committee.

 Important Points

• Current as of April 2024: Chief Election Commissioner Shri Rajiv Kumar

<br>

Additional Information

• Manoj Kumar is a common name and there is no information available about an IAS officer with this name being appointed as the new EC.
• Rajiv Kumar is a former Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog and has not been appointed as the new EC.
• Anup Chandra Pandey is a retired IAS officer who served as the ChiefSecretary of Uttar Pradesh** and is currently the Election Commissioner of India.**

The correct answer is Use of organic manures.

Key Points

• The use of organic manures is not one of the characteristics of the new agricultural strategy.
• The following are the characteristics of the new agricultural strategy:
• Use of chemical fertilisers:
• The new agricultural strategy promotes the use of chemical fertilisers to increase crop yield and improve soil fertility.
• Chemical fertilisers provide essential nutrients to plants and help in their growth and development.
• Use of hybrid seeds:
• The new agricultural strategy emphasizes the use of hybrid seeds that are genetically engineered to resist pests and diseases, tolerate adverse weather conditions, and enhance crop yield.
• Extensive irrigation:
• The new agricultural strategy encourages the adoption of extensive irrigation techniques to ensure the availability of water for crops throughout the year.
• Irrigation helps in reducing the dependence on rainfall and mitigating the impact of droughts.
• Mechanization:
• The new agricultural strategy promotes the use of modern farm machinery and equipment that can perform various farm operations efficiently and effectively.
• Mechanization helps in reducing the labor requirement and increasing productivity.
• Use of organic manures:
• Organic manures are natural fertilizers that are derived from plant and animal sources.
• They are rich in nutrients and help in improving soil health and fertility.
• However, the new agricultural strategy does not emphasize the use of organic manures as they are not as effective as chemical fertilisers in increasing crop yield and productivity.
• Use of chemical pesticides:
• ​ The new agricultural strategy also promotes the use of chemical pesticides to control pests and diseases that can damage crops and reduce yield.
• However, excessive use of chemical pesticides can lead to environmental pollution and health hazards.
• Therefore, the new agricultural strategy emphasizes the judicious use of chemical pesticides and encourages the adoption of integrated pest management practices.

The correct answer is Muhammad Yunus.

Key Points

• Muhammad Yunus is a Nobel Prize winner and also known as the father of microfinance.
• Microfinance refers to providing small loans to people who are unable to access traditional banking services, especially in developing countries.
• Muhammad Yunus pioneered this concept and founded Grameen Bank in Bangladesh in 1983.

Additional Information

• Amartya Sen is an Indian economist and philosopher who won the Nobel Prize in Economics in 1998 for his work on welfare economics.
• He is known for his contributions to the study of social choice theory and development economics.
• Raghuram Rajan is an Indian economist who served as the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India from 2013 to 2016.
• He is known for his work on financial regulation and macroeconomics.
• Sandra Rothenberg is an American professor and researcher who is known for her work on corporate social responsibility and sustainability.
• ​She has written several books and articles on these topics.

The correct answer is 1905.

Key Points

• Lord Curzon was the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905 and he announced the partition of Bengal in 1905.
• The partition of Bengal was a British colonial policy that aimed to weaken the nationalist movement in India by dividing Bengal into two provinces, one Hindu-majority and the other Muslim-majority.
• The partition was widely opposed by Indian nationalists, who saw it as a deliberate attempt to divide and rule the country.
• The partition was eventually revoked in 1911, due to sustained protests and political pressure from Indian nationalists.

Additional Information

• In order to deny Indians the right to self-governance, the Lord Curzon's Calcutta Corporation Act of 1899 increased the number of nominated officials while decreasing the number of elected legislatures.
• After 28 Corporation members quit in protest, the Corporation was reorganized as a government department, with the majority of its employees being English and Anglo-Indian.

The correct answer is R Venkataramani.

Key Points

• R Venkataramani is appointed as the new Attorney General for India in September 2022.
• R Venkataramani is a senior advocate in the Madras High Court and has served as the Additional Solicitor General of India in the past.
• He has also been the Advocate General of Tamil Nadu and has handled several high-profile cases in his career.
• As the Attorney General for India, he will be the chief legal advisor to the government and will represent the government in all legal matters in the Supreme Court and other courts.
• The Attorney General is an important constitutional post in India and is appointed by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Additional Information

• R. Venkataramani is the current Attorney General for India and was appointed in 2022.
• He is a senior advocate in the Supreme Court and has been practicing law for over 50 years.
• Fali Sam Nariman is a renowned lawyer and jurist who has served as the Attorney General of India from 1991 to 1993.
• ​He is known for his expertise in constitutional law and has argued several landmark cases in the Supreme Court.
• Harish Salve is a senior advocate in the Supreme Court who has also served as the Solicitor General of India.
• He has represented several high-profile clients in his career, including the government of India in the Kulbhushan Jadhav case.
• It is important to note that the Attorney General for India is not a permanent post and can change with a change in government or on the retirement of the incumbent.

Formula used:

Tan (- θ) = - tan θ 

Tan (360 + θ) = tan θ 

Calculation:

Tan (−1125°) = - tan 1125°

⇒ - tan 1125° = - tan {(360 × 3) + 45)

⇒ - tan {1080 + 45} = - tan 45° = - 1

∴ The correct answer is -1.

Calculation:

Total number of appeared students = 1800 student

⇒ 360° = 1800

⇒ 1° = 1800/360 = 5 students

Appeared students of section A = 42° = 42 × 5 = 210 students

Appeared students of section B = 50° = 50 × 5 = 250 students

Required difference = (250 - 210) = 40 students

∴ The correct answer is 40 students.

Formula used:

1 - sin² θ = cos² θ

Sec θ × cos θ = 1

Calculation:

Sec θ × √{1 - sin2 θ}

⇒ Sec θ × √{cos² θ} 

⇒ Sec θ × cos θ = 1

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Given:

The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 7

Concept used:

The sum of all angle in triangle = 180°

Calculation:

Let the first angle = 2x

The second angle = 3x

The third angle = 7x

Now,

⇒ 2x + 3x + 7x = 180° 

⇒ 12x = 180°

⇒ x = 15°

The largest angle = 7x = 7 × 15 = 105°

∴ The correct answer is 105°.

Given:

(P + Q) complete a job = 4$2\over5$ = 22/5

(R + S) complete a job = 4$8\over9$ = 44/9

Formula used:

Total work = efficiency × time

Calculation:

Now,

Total time taken by P, Q, R, and S together to complete the work:

⇒ 44/19 = 2$6\over19$ days

∴ The correct answer is 2$6\over19$ days.

Given:

A can finish a work = 60 days

Formula used:

Total work = efficiency × time

Calculation:

According to the question:

⇒ (A × 60) = (A × 15) + (B × 48)

⇒ (A × 45) = (B × 48)

⇒ A/B = 48/45 = 16/15

Total work = (A × 60) = 16 × 60 = 960 units

Total time taken by A and B working together = 960/(16 + 15)

⇒ 960/31

∴ The correct answer is 960/31.

Calculation:

Sin 90° = cos 0° = tan 45° = 1

But sec 60° = 2

∴ The correct option is 2.

Given:

A can complete a work = 7 × 3 = 21 days

B can complete a work = 10 × (7/2) = 35 days

Formula used:

Total work = efficiency × time

Calculation:

Now,

Time taken by A and B together to complete the work = 105/8

⇒ 13$1\over8$ days

∴ The correct answer is 13$1\over8$ days.

Given:

Speed of Ramesh for 1st 250 km = 75 km/h

Speed of Ramesh for 2nd 250 km = 85 km/h

Formula used:

Average speed = Total distance/total time taken

Calculation:

Total distance = 250 + 250 = 500 km

Total time taken = (250/75) + (250/85)

⇒ 250 × (1/75 + 1/85)

⇒ 250 × {(17 + 15)/1275}

⇒ 320/51

Average speed = Total distance/total time taken

⇒ 500/(320/51) = (500 × 51)/320

⇒ (25 × 51)/16 = 79.68 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 79.68 km/h.

Alternate MethodCalculation:

Now,

Average speed = (1275 × 2)/(17 + 15)

⇒ 2550/32 = 1275/16 = 79.68 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 79.68 km/h.

Given:

A can do a piece of work = 96 days

B can do a piece of work = (24 × 200)/75 = 64 days

C can do a piece of work = (48 × 100)/60 = 80 days

Formula used:

Total work = efficiency × time

Calculation:

According to the question:

⇒ (B + C) × x + (A + C) × (x + 8) = 960

⇒ 27 × x + 22 × (x + 8) = 960

⇒ 27x + 22x + 176 = 960

⇒ 49x = 784

⇒ x = 784/49 =  16 days

Total work done by C in 3.5x days = 3.5 × 16 × 12 = 672

Required fraction = 672/960 = 7/10

∴ The correct answer is 7/10.

Shortcut Trick

A number is divisible by 8 if its last three digits are divisible by 8.

Check the last three digits for each option:

(1) 718 ÷ 8 → Remainder 6

(2) 716 ÷ 8 → Remainder 4

(3) 712 ÷ 8 → 89 (Remainder 0)

∴ The correct answer is 18712.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers 18718, 18716, 18712, 18714.

Divisibility Rule of 8: The last three digits must be a multiple of 8 or 000.

⇒ For 18718: Last 3 digits = 718; 718 = 8 × 89 + 6 (Not divisible)

⇒ For 18716: Last 3 digits = 716; 716 = 8 × 89 + 4 (Not divisible)

⇒ For 18712: Last 3 digits = 712; 712 = 8 × 89 (Divisible)

⇒ For 18714: Last 3 digits = 714; 714 = 8 × 89 + 2 (Not divisible)

∴ The correct answer is 18712.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 2ⁿ

A number is divisible by 2ⁿ if its last n digits are divisible by 2ⁿ. For 2 (2¹) check last 1 digit; for 4 (2²) check last 2 digits.

Divisibility by 3 and 9

A number is divisible by 3 or 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3 or 9 respectively.

Divisibility by 11

Difference between the sum of digits at odd places and even places must be 0 or a multiple of 11.

Given:

Two triangles with sides 4 cm, 5 cm, 6 cm each

Formula used:

SSS Congruence Rule: If all three sides of one triangle are equal to all three sides of another triangle, the triangles are congruent

Calculations:

Triangle 1 sides = 4, 5, 6 cm

Triangle 2 sides = 4, 5, 6 cm

⇒ All corresponding sides are equal

⇒ By SSS rule, the two triangles are congruent

Since the triangles are congruent, their areas will be equal, not different

⇒ Statement "The area of the two triangles will be different" is INCORRECT

Checking other statements:

Greater side (6 cm) has greater opposite angle — TRUE for any triangle

Triangles are congruent — TRUE (proved above)

All sides different (4, 5, 6) so scalene — TRUE

∴ The correct answer is option: "The area of the two triangles will be different."

Given:

RP and RQ are the two tangents of a circle.

∠POQ = 120°

Concept used:

The tangent makes a right angle with the radius of a circle at the point of contact.

The sum of all angles of a quadrilateral = 360°

Calculation:

   

In the figure:

OP ⊥ PR and OQ ⊥ RQ

∠OPR = ∠OQR = 90°

In quadrilateral POQR

⇒ ∠OPR + ∠OQR + ∠POQ + ∠PRQ = 360

⇒​ 90 + 90 + 120 + ∠PRQ = 360

⇒ ∠PRQ = (360 - 300) = 60°

∴ The correct answer is 60°.

Given:

Length of the hall = 10 m

Breadth of the hall = 20 m

Height of the hall = 15 m

Rate of whitewashing of walls = Rs.10.20/m²

Formula used:

Area of rectangle = L × B

Area of four walls = 2 × H × (L + B)

Where, L = length; B = breadth; H = height

Calculation:

The total area of the hall = Area of four walls + area of the ceiling

⇒ 2 × H × (L + B) + (L × B)

⇒ 2 × 15 × (10 + 20) + (10 × 20)

⇒ 2 × 15 × 30 + 200

⇒ 900 + 200 = 1100 m²

Total cost = 1100 × 10.20 = Rs.11220

∴ The correct answer is Rs.11220.

Shortcut Trick

If p + q + r = 1, pqr = 1, and pq + qr + rp = 1, then p, q, and r are the roots of the cubic equation t³ − t² + t − 1 = 0.

Factorizing the equation: (t − 1)(t² + 1) = 0, which gives the roots 1, i, and −i.

Sum of cubes = p³ + q³ + r³ = (1)³ + (i)³ + (−i)³.

Simplifying: 1 − i + i = 1.

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Alternate Method

Given:

p + q + r = 1

pqr = 1

1/p + 1/q + 1/r = 1

Formula Used:

p³ + q³ + r³ − 3pqr = (p + q + r)(p² + q² + r² − (pq + qr + rp))

p² + q² + r² = (p + q + r)² − 2(pq + qr + rp)

Calculations:

⇒ From 1/p + 1/q + 1/r = 1, we get (pq + qr + rp) / pqr = 1

⇒ Since pqr = 1, it follows that pq + qr + rp = 1

⇒ Now, substitute these into the cubic identity:

⇒ p³ + q³ + r³ − 3pqr = (p + q + r)[(p + q + r)² − 3(pq + qr + rp)]

⇒ p³ + q³ + r³ − 3(1) = 1 × [1² − 3(1)]

⇒ p³ + q³ + r³ − 3 = 1 − 3

⇒ p³ + q³ + r³ − 3 = −2

⇒ p³ + q³ + r³ = 3 − 2 = 1

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Additional Information

Standard Cubic Identity

The expression a³ + b³ + c³ − 3abc is always equal to (a + b + c)(a² + b² + c² − ab − bc − ca).

Special Case: Sum is Zero

If a + b + c = 0, then the identity simplifies to a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc.

Vieta's Formulas for Cubic Equations

For a cubic equation ax³ + bx² + cx + d = 0, the sum of roots is −b/a, the sum of roots taken two at a time is c/a, and the product of roots is −d/a.

Given:

Marked price (M.P) = Rs.50000

Formula used:

Effective discount = D₁ + D₂ - (D1 × D2)/100

Calculation:

First case:

D1 = 25% and D2 = 15%

Effective discount = 25 + 15 - (25 × 15)/100

⇒ 40 - 3.75 = 36.25%

Second case:

D1 = 20% and D2 = 20%

Effective discount = 20 + 20 - (20 × 20)/100

⇒ 40 - 4 = 36%

Third case:

D1 = 30% and D2 = 10%

Effective discount = 30 + 10 - (30 × 10)/100

⇒ 40 - 3 = 37%

∴ The correct option is 3.

Alternate MethodCalculation:- 

First Shopkeeper:

Marked price of the article: Rs. 50,000

First discount: 25%

Calculation: Rs. 50,000 - (25% of Rs. 50,000) = Rs. 50,000 - Rs. 12,500 = Rs. 37,500

Second discount: 15%

Calculation: Rs. 37,500 - (15% of Rs. 37,500) = Rs. 37,500 - Rs. 5,625 = Rs. 31,875

Final price offered by the first shopkeeper: Rs. 31,875

Second Shopkeeper:

Marked price of the article: Rs. 50,000

First discount: 20%

Calculation: Rs. 50,000 - (20% of Rs. 50,000) = Rs. 50,000 - Rs. 10,000 = Rs. 40,000

Second discount: 20%

Calculation: Rs. 40,000 - (20% of Rs. 40,000) = Rs. 40,000 - Rs. 8,000 = Rs. 32,000

Final price offered by the second shopkeeper: Rs. 32,000

Third Shopkeeper:

Marked price of the article: Rs. 50,000

First discount: 30%

Calculation: Rs. 50,000 - (30% of Rs. 50,000) = Rs. 50,000 - Rs. 15,000 = Rs. 35,000

Second discount: 10%

Calculation: Rs. 35,000 - (10% of Rs. 35,000) = Rs. 35,000 - Rs. 3,500 = Rs. 31,500

Final price offered by the third shopkeeper: Rs. 31,500

First shopkeeper: Rs. 31875

Second shopkeeper: Rs. 32000

Third shopkeeper: Rs. 31500

From the above calculations, the customer gets the most profit from the third shopkeeper, where the final price is Rs. 31,500. Therefore, the correct answer is 3) Third.

Shortcut Trick

When Cost Price (CP) is same for both items:

Net Gain/Loss = Total Profit Value − Total Loss Value

⇒ Net Gain/Loss = (8% of 4000) − (6% of 4000)

⇒ Net Gain/Loss = 2% of 4000 = 80

⇒ Since the result is positive, it is a gain of Rs. 80.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 80 gain.

Alternate Method

Given:

CP of each jewellery set = Rs. 4000

Profit% on 1st set = 8%

Loss% on 2nd set = 6%

Formula Used:

Profit or Loss = CP × (Profit or Loss % / 100)

Transaction Breakdown

Set 1: CP = 4000

+8% Gain

Set 2: CP = 4000

−6% Loss

Total Result = Gain (320) − Loss (240) = Rs. 80

Calculations:

⇒ Total CP = 4000 + 4000 = Rs. 8000

⇒ Profit on the first jewellery set = 4000 × (8 / 100) = Rs. 320

⇒ Loss on the second jewellery set = 4000 × (6 / 100) = Rs. 240

⇒ Total Gain/Loss = 320 − 240 = +80

⇒ Since the net value is positive, it is a gain of Rs. 80.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 80 gain.

Additional Information

Case of Same Cost Price (CP)

If two items are bought at the same CP, the net profit or loss percent is simply the arithmetic average of individual profit/loss percentages: Net % = (P1% ± L2%) / 2.

Case of Same Selling Price (SP)

If two items are sold at the same SP, one at x% profit and another at x% loss, there is always a net loss of (x² / 100)%.

Profit and Loss Percentage

Profit % = (Profit / CP) × 100 | Loss % = (Loss / CP) × 100. Profit and loss are always calculated on the Cost Price unless specified otherwise.

Given:

Total distance = 12 km

Time taken to cover the upstream distance = 1 hour

Time taken to cover the downstream distance = 45 minutes

Concept used:

Upstream speed = U - V

Downstream speed = U + V

Where, U = speed of boat in still water

and V = speed of stream

Calculation:

Upstream speed = 12/1 = 12km/h

Downstream speed = (12 × 60)/45 = 16 km/h

Speed of boat in still water (U) = (12 + 16)/2 = 28/2 = 14km/h

Speed of stream (V) = (16 - 12)/2 = 4/2 = 2 km/h

∴ The correct option is 3.

Concept used:

If a number is divisible by 9 and 11 then the number is divisible by 99.

Divisibility rule of 9:

If the sum of the digits is divisible by 9, then the number is divisible by 9.

Divisibility rule of 11:

If the difference between the sum of odd place and even place digits is either 0 or a multiple of 11,

then the number is divisible by 11. 

Calculation:

We need to check it by options:

Option 1:

Number = 31548

The sum of digits = 3 + 1 + 5 + 4 + 8 = 21

21 is not divisible by 9. So the number is not divisible by 9

and the number is also not divisible by 99.

Option 2:

Number = 60687

The sum of digits = 6 + 0 + 6 + 8 + 7 = 27

27 is divisible by 9. So the number is divisible by 9.

The sum of odd place digits = 6 + 6 + 7 = 19

The sum of even place digits = 0 + 8 = 8

Difference between sum of odd and even place digits = 19 - 8 = 11 

11 is divisible by 11. So the number is divisible by 11.

and the number is also divisible by 99.

∴ The correct option is 2.

Shortcut Trick 

Formula used :

[(a + b)(a -b) = a2 - b2]

Calculation:

 $\rm {256x^4 - 16y^4} \over {(80x^2 - 20y^2)}{(16x^2 + 4y^2)}$

$\rm {256x^4 - 16y^4} \over {5(16x^2 - 4y^2)}{(16x^2 + 4y^2)}$                    

⇒ (256x4 - 16y4)/5 × (256x4 - 16y4)

⇒ 1/5

∴ The correct answer is 1/5.

Alternate Method

Calculation:

$\rm {256x^4 - 16y^4} \over {(80x^2 - 20y^2)}{(16x^2 + 4y^2)}$

⇒ (256x⁴ - 16y⁴)/(1280x⁴ + 320x²y² - 320x2y2 - 80y⁴)

⇒ (256x4 - 16y4)/(1280x4 - 80y4)

⇒ (256x4 - 16y4)/5 × (256x4 - 16y4)

⇒ 1/5

∴ The correct answer is 1/5.

Calculation:

The number of families having income range 0f Rs.(19000 - 22000) = 50 - 33 = 17

∴ The correct answer is 17.

Given:

The monthly income of the family = Rs.35000

Saving after expenditure = 35000 × 8% = 2800

Expenditure = (35000 - 2800) = Rs.32200

Expenditure on food : expenditure on health = 100 : 150 = 2 : 3

Expenditure on food : expenditure on entertainment = 3 : 1

Expenditure on health : expenditure on education = 1 : 2

Expenditure on rent : combined expenditure of (food + health + education) = 1 : 3

Concept used:

A : B = P : Q; B : C = R : S

A : B : C = PR : QR : QS

Calculation:

Exp. on food : exp. on health : exp. on entertainment : exp. on education = 6 : 9 : 2 : 18

Exp. on rent : combined exp. of (food + health + education) = (1 : 3) × 11 = 11 : 33

Exp. on food : exp. on health : exp. on entertainment : exp. on education : exp. on rent = 6 : 9 : 2 : 18 : 11

Now, (6 + 9 + 2 + 18 + 11) units = 46 units = 32200

⇒ 1 unit = 32200/46 = Rs.700

Exp. on education = 18 units = 700 × 18 = Rs.12600

∴ The correct answer is Rs.12600.

Calculation:

We need to convert the ratio into decimal

⇒ 8/19 = 0.42

⇒ 15/38 = 0.39

⇒ 17/38 = 0.44

⇒ 13/19 = 0.68

∴ The correct option is 2.

Given:

7a - (7/a) = - 4

Formula used:

If a + (1/a) = P

⇒ a³ - (1/a³) = P³ + 3P 

Calculation:

7a - (7/a) = - 4

⇒ a - (1/a) = (- 4/7)

⇒ a3 - (1/a3) = (- 4/7)3 + 3 × (- 4/7)

⇒ (- 64/343) - 12/7

⇒ (- 64 - 588)/343

⇒ a3 - (1/a3) = (- 652/343)

a3 - (1/a3) - 1

⇒ - 652/343 - 1

⇒ (- 652 - 343)/343

⇒ - 995/343

∴ The correct answer is (- 995/343).

Given:

Principal = Rs.8500

Time = 6 years

Amount = Rs.11050

Formula used:

Amount = S.I + P

S.I = (P × R × T)/100

Where, P = principal; T = time; R = rate

Calculation: 

S.I for 6 years = 11050 - 8500 = Rs.2550

Rate = (S.I × 100)/(P × T)

⇒ (2550 × 100)/(8500 × 6)

⇒ 425/85 = 5%

New rate % = 5 × 1.8 = 9%

S.I = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ (8500 × 9 × 5)/100

⇒ 85 × 9 × 5 = Rs.3825

Amount = 8500 + 3825 = Rs.12325

∴ The correct answer is Rs.12325.

The correct answer is: Sympathetic

<br>

Key Points

 

• Gentle means kind, mild, or tender. (दयालु, सौम्य या कोमल)
• Example: She spoke to the scared child in a gentle voice, trying to calm him down.
• Marked option Sympathetic means showing understanding or compassion. (समझ या करुणा दिखाना)
• Example: She was always sympathetic towards others' struggles.
• So, it is clear that 'Sympathetic' is the appropriate synonym for 'Gentle'.

Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Fierce means aggressive or violent. (आक्रामक या हिंसक)
• Ferocious means savagely fierce or cruel. (अत्यधिक भयंकर या क्रूर)
• Cruel means causing pain or suffering intentionally. (जानबूझकर दर्द या पीड़ा पहुंचाना)

The correct answer is: "are visiting".

<br>

Key Points

 

• The subject of the sentence is "My friend Meera and her mother", which is plural.
• Therefore, the verb must also be plural to agree with the subject.
• "Are visiting" is the correct verb form for a plural subject.
• Using "is visiting" with a plural subject is grammatically incorrect.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Corrected sentence: My friend Meera and her mother are visiting me this weekend.

The correct answer is: DACB

Key Points

• Sentence D sets the initial tone by contrasting the serene beauty of the countryside with the harsh reality of the crowded city.
• Sentence A follows, providing a personal reflection on the speaker's visits to the impoverished areas, expressing indignation at the stark contrast in living conditions.
• Sentence C elaborates on the plight of the poor, specifically focusing on the children in grimy alleys, highlighting their physical and emotional struggles.
• Sentence B concludes the paragraph, by expressing the emotional impact of witnessing the suffering of the impoverished children, emphasizing a constant sense of pain.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is: Cleaned.

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Key Points

 

• In the sentence, the action 'Dusted' refers to sprinkling a fine layer of sugar onto the muffin.
• It implies adding or applying a light coating. (हल्का लेप लगाना) 
• Example: The chef dusted the freshly baked pastries with a light layer of powdered sugar.
• The opposite action would involve removing or cleaning off such a layer.
• Therefore, "cleaned" is the opposite word, as it suggests removing particles or substances, in contrast to the action of adding a layer, as implied by "dusted" in this context. (कणों या पदार्थों को हटाना)
• Example: He cleaned the kitchen thoroughly, leaving it spotless.
• Hence it is clear that the opposite of 'dusted' is 'cleaned'.

Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Scattered means to throw or drop things randomly in different directions. (चीज़ों को अलग-अलग दिशाओं में बेतरतीब ढंग से फेंकना या गिराना)
• Sprinkled means to scatter small drops or particles over something. (किसी चीज़ पर छोटी बूंदें या कण बिखेरना)
• Powdered means to cover or coat something with powder. (किसी चीज़ को पाउडर से ढकना या लेप करना)

The correct answer is: "With an opposition."

Key Points

• The part of the sentence that contains the error is "with an opposition."
• It should be replaced with "with the opposition."
• The use of the definite article "the" is appropriate before a singular noun like "opposition" when referring to a specific group or entity.
• In this case, it is not just any opposition but a particular one, and therefore, "the" should precede "opposition" to indicate that it is a specific group with which the relations have improved.
• Corrected sentence: Anti-party activities improved my relations with the opposition.
• The correction ensures grammatical accuracy by using the definite article "the" before the singular noun "opposition" in the context of a specific political group or entity.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is: Voluntary.

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Key Points

• Compulsory means required or mandatory. (आवश्यक या अनिवार्य)
• Example: Wearing a seatbelt is compulsory for all passengers.
• Marked option Voluntary means optional or done by choice. (वैकल्पिक या पसंद से किया गया)
• Example: Joining the after-school club is voluntary; students can choose whether to participate.
• Therefore, the antonym of compulsory is voluntary.

Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Obligatory: Required, usually due to a rule or law. (आवश्यक, आमतौर पर किसी नियम या कानून के कारण)
• Mandatory: Required by authority or rules. (प्राधिकारी या नियमों द्वारा आवश्यक)
• Subsidiary: Secondary or supplemental; serving to assist or support. (माध्यमिक या पूरक; सहायता प्रदान करना)