SSC CGL 2023 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 20 Jul 2023 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

Here, we use the table given below:

Logic: Addition of (6), (5) and (4) in the position value of the first, second and third letter.

1. DJOS →

2. BHMQ →

3. PTXA →

4. HNSW →

Here, in 'PTXA' different logic is followed.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Given:

(6, 14, 40)

(10, 14, 48)

Logic: [{(First no.) + (Second no.)} × 2]

(6, 14, 40) →

⇒ [(6 + 14) × 2]

⇒ (20 × 2) = 40

(10, 14, 48) →

⇒ [(10 + 14) × 2]

⇒ (24 × 2) = 48

Checking all the given options:

1. (11, 5, 87) →

⇒ [(11 + 5) × 2]

⇒ (16 × 2) = 32

2. (5, 9, 28) →

⇒ [(5 + 9) × 2]

⇒ (14 × 2) = 28

3. (5, 6, 45) →

⇒ [(5 + 6) × 2]

⇒ (11 × 2) = 22

4. (10, 5, 91) →

⇒ [(10 + 5) × 2]

⇒ (12 × 2) = 30

Here, (5, 9, 28) shows a similar relation to the given set of numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbol:

​

As per the given data:

 

 

 

 

 

Given expression: 'H & I @ J # K @ L'

H is the son of I, I is the brother of J, J is the father of K and K is the brother of L.

Here, J is the father of L.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given:

(1000, 100, 10)

(38, 19, 2)

Logic: Third number = [(First no.) ÷ (Second no.)]

(1000, 100, 10) →

⇒ (1000 ÷ 100) = 10

(38, 19, 2) →

⇒ (38 ÷ 19) = 2

Checking all the given options:

1. (125, 25, 5) →

⇒ (125 ÷ 25) = 5

2. (5, 5, 5) →

⇒ (5 ÷ 5) = 1

3. (3, 3, 9) →

⇒ (3 ÷ 3) = 1

4. (16, 8, 4) →

⇒ (16 ÷ 8) = 2

Here, (125, 25, 5) shows a similar relation to the given set of numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Given:

FRENCH : RFNEHC :: RESCUE : ERCSEU :: ANIMAL : ?

Logic: Diagonally rearranged.

FRENCH : RFNEHC →

RESCUE : ERCSEU →

Similarly, for 'ANIMAL : ?' →

Here, 'ANIMAL: NAMILA' is the correct pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

As per the given data:

Given:

⇒ 26 + 342 - 19 × 73 ÷ 14

After changing the sign as per the table:

⇒ 26 × 342 ÷ 19 - 73 + 14

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 26 × 18 - 73 + 14

⇒ 468 - 73 + 14

⇒ 482 - 73 = 409

⇒ '26 × 342 ÷ 19 - 73 + 14 = 409'

Here, the value of the equation is '409'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Here, we use the figure (1) and (3) to find opposite faces, From the common number (1) written faces number in the clockwise direction.

Here, the opposite of face showing 2 is face showing 5.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Given:

Dolphins, Sharks. Sea creatures

The Venn diagram for the given classes is:

Dolphins and sharks both are different sea creatures.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Additional Information

• Dolphins are part of the toothed whales. Generally, they are among the smaller whales. Most live in saltwater oceans, but some live in rivers – there are oceanic dolphins and river dolphins.
• Oceanic dolphins are marine animals living in the sea. They live in all of the oceans.
• Three of the four species of river dolphins live in freshwater rivers.

Given:

6 : 16 :: 10 : 28 :: 3 : ?

Logic: Second no. = [(First no. × 3) - 2]

6 : 16 →

⇒ [(6 × 3) - 2]

⇒ (18 - 2) = 16

10 : 28 →

⇒ [(10 × 3) - 2]

⇒ (30 - 2) = 28

Similarly, for '3 : ?' →

⇒ [(3 × 3) - 2]

⇒ (9 - 2) = 7

Here, '3 : 7' is the correct pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

From Figure (1) to (2):

The symbols C and K change into O and T, a line is added at the bottom and the arrow rotates 45º in the clockwise direction.

From Figure (2) to (3):

A new symbol C is added, S changes into B, a line is added at the bottom and the arrow rotates 135º in the clockwise direction.

From Figure (3) to (4):

The symbols C and T change into O and L, a line is added at the bottom and the arrow rotates 45º in the clockwise direction.

From Figure (4) to Answer Figure (5):

A new symbol C is added, S changes into B, a line is added at the bottom and the arrow rotates 135º in the clockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Given:

(300, 100, 100)

(88, 66, 11)

Logic: Third no. = [(First no. - Second no.) ÷ 2]

(300, 100, 100) →

⇒ [(300 - 100) ÷ 2]

⇒ (200 ÷ 2) = 100

(88, 66, 11) →

⇒ [(88 - 66) ÷ 2]

⇒ (22 ÷ 2) = 11

Checking all the given options:

1. (60, 40, 20) →

⇒ [(60 - 40) ÷ 2]

⇒ (20 ÷ 2) = 10

2. (44, 22, 11) →

⇒ [(44 - 22) ÷ 2]

⇒ (22 ÷ 2) = 11

3. (90, 50, 70) →

⇒ [(90 - 50) ÷ 2]

⇒ (40 ÷ 2) = 20

4. (50, 4, 25) →

⇒ [(50 - 4) ÷ 2]

⇒ (46 ÷ 2) = 23

Here, (44, 22, 11) shows a similar relation to the given set of numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Logic: First no. : (First no. × 2) : [(First no.)³ - 1]

Checking all the given options:

(1) 9 : 18 : 728 →

⇒ (9) : (9 × 2) : [(9)³ - 1)]

⇒ (9) : (18) : [(729 - 1)]

⇒ 9 : 18 : 728

(2) 6 : 12 : 215 →

⇒ (6) : (6 × 2) : [(6)3 - 1)]

⇒ (6) : (12) : [(216 - 1)]

⇒ 6 : 12 : 215

(3) 2 : 4 : 7 →

⇒ (2) : (2 × 2) : [(2)3 - 1)]

⇒ (2) : (4) : [(8 - 1)]

⇒ 2 : 4 : 7

(4) 5 : 10 : 126 →

⇒ (5) : (5 × 2) : [(5)3 + 1)]

⇒ (5) : (10) : [(125 + 1)]

⇒ 5 : 10 : 126

Here, in '5 : 10 : 126' different logic is followed.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The mirror image of the given figure is :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The embedded part of this image is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Here, we use the table given below:

Logic: Code = [(Addition of all letter's position value) × (Number of letters)]

'DXF' is written as '102' →

'URO' is written as '162' →

Similarly, 'LNZ' will be coded as:

Here, the code for 'LNZ' is '156'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Given:

_ _ D C D _ _ C D _ D _

Checking all the given options:

1. D C D C D D

D C D C / D D C C / D D D D

2. C D D C C D

C D D C / D D C C / D C D D

3. D C C D C C

D C D C / D C D C / D C D C

Here, the series is completed.

4. C D C D C C

C D D C / D C D C / D C D C

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The mirror image of the given figure is :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Here, we use the table given below:

Logic: Addition of consecutive even numbers in the position value of the letters from the first letter to the sixth letter.

'AROUND' is coded as 'CVUCXP' →

'ONLINE' is coded as 'QRRQXQ' →

Similarly, 'RUSTIC' will be coded as:

Here, 'RUSTIC' is coded as 'TYYBSO'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

⇒ 15 ÷ 3 + 15 - 3 × 3 = 47

(1) - and ×

⇒ 15 ÷ 3 + 15 - 3 × 3 = 47

After interchanging the signs:

⇒ 15 ÷ 3 + 15 × 3 - 3 = 47

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 5 + 15 × 3 - 3

⇒ 5 + 4 5 - 3

⇒ 50 - 3 = 47

⇒ '15 ÷ 3 + 15 × 3 - 3 = 47'

Here, the equation is satisfied.

(2) ÷ and +

⇒ 15 ÷ 3 + 15 - 3 × 3 = 47

After interchanging the signs:

⇒ 15 + 3 ÷ 15 - 3 × 3 = 47

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 15 + 0.2 - 3 × 3

⇒ 15 + 0.2 - 9

⇒ 15.2 - 9 = 6.2

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(3) ÷ and ×

⇒ 15 ÷ 3 + 15 - 3 × 3 = 47

After interchanging the signs:

⇒ 15 × 3 + 15 - 3 ÷ 3 = 47

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 15 × 3 + 15 - 1

⇒ 45 + 15 - 1

⇒ 60 - 1 = 59

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(4) + and -

⇒ 15 ÷ 3 + 15 - 3 × 3 = 47

After interchanging the signs:

⇒ 15 ÷ 3 - 15 + 3 × 3 = 47

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 5 - 15 + 3 × 3

⇒ 5 - 15 + 9

⇒ 14 - 15 = (-1)

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Given:

Mothers, Sisters and Females

The Venn diagram for the given classes is:

Mothers and sisters are females and some sisters can be mothers too.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given:

131, 132, 141, 166, 215, ?, 417

Logic: Addition of the square of consecutive odd numbers.

Here, the missing term is '296'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given:

Kidney : Organ → Kidney is an organ of the body.

Similarly,

Apple : Fruit → Apple is a fruit.

Here, 'Apple : Fruit' is the correct pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given word: "PURITAN"

After changing each vowel in the word "PURITAN" into the previous letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant into the following letter in the English alphabetical series.

"PURITAN" → QTSHUZO

The 1^st alphabet from the left is Q and the 6^th alphabet from the right is T.

Two alphabets R and S come between Q and T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

From Figure (1) to (2):

The symbols move as shown below.

From Figure (2) to (3):

The symbols move as shown below.

From Figure (3) to (4):

The symbols move as shown below.

From Figure (4) to Answer Figure (5):

The symbols move as shown below.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Here, we use the table given below:

Logic: (3) is added to the position value of the first and second alphabet and (2) is subtracted from the position value of the third and fourth alphabet.

Here, 'KOTP' is the missing term.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The correct answer is Gautami.

Key Points 

• The correct answer is option 3, Gautami.
• Godavari is the second longest river in India after the Ganges.
• It originates in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra and flows through the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and finally empties into the Bay of Bengal.
• The Yanam enclave of the Union territory of Puducherry is a small town located at the mouth of the Godavari river.
• Kapila is a river in Karnataka that flows through the town of Sringeri and joins the Tunga river.
• Indravati is a river in central India that flows through the states of Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, and Odisha before joining the Godavari river.
• Bhavani is a river in Tamil Nadu that originates in the Western Ghats and joins the Kaveri River.

Additional Information About River Godavari​

• The Godavari river is the largest river of Peninsular India.
• It is also called Dakshin Ganga.
• It covers the state of Maharastra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and parts of Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Union Territory of Puducherry (Yanam) having a total area of ~ 3 lakh Sq.km.
• The Godavari River rises from Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra.
• Left Bank Tributaries:
• Dharna, Penganga, Wainganga, Wardha, Pranahita, Pench, Kanhan, Sabari, Indravati etc.
• Right Bank Tributaries:
• Pravara, Mula, Manjra, Peddavagu, Maner etc.

The correct answer is  8.81%.

 

Key Points

• National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is an initiative by the Government of India to measure poverty in a comprehensive manner, taking into account various factors such as health, education, and living standards.
• The baseline report of MPI was published by NITI Aayog in 2021 and covers both rural and urban areas of the country.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 3, i.e., 8.81%, which represents the percentage of the population in urban areas who are poor according to the MPI.

Additional Information Multidimensional Poverty Index(MPI)

• It seeks to measure poverty across its multiple dimensions and in effect complements existing poverty statistics based on per capita consumption expenditure.
• It has three equally weighted dimensions –health, education, and standard of living.
• These three dimensions are represented by 12 indicators: 
• Such as nutrition, school attendance, years of schooling, drinking water, sanitation, housing and bank accounts among others.
• According to Global MPI 2021:
• India’s rank is 66 out of 109 countries.
• The National MPI is aimed at deconstructing the Global MPI and creating a globally aligned and yet customized India MPI for drawing up comprehensive Reform Action Plans with the larger goal of improving India’s position in the Global MPI rankings.
• Highest (multidimensional poverty)
• Bihar has the highest multidimensional poverty proportion of people of the state’s population followed by Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh.
• Lowest (multidimensional poverty)
• Kerala registered the lowest multidimensional poverty population poverty levels, followed by Puducherry, Lakshadweep, Goa and Sikkim.

The correct answer is Kuchipudi.

Key Points

• Yamini Krishnamurthy is renowned for Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi dance forms.
• She has been awarded Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan for her contribution to Indian classical dance.
• Kathak is a North Indian classical dance form, Manipuri is a dance form from Manipur, and Kathakali is a dance form from Kerala, which is not associated with Yamini Krishnamurthy's expertise.
• Bharatanatyam is a classical dance form originating from Tamil Nadu, and Kuchipudi is a classical dance form from Andhra Pradesh, both of which Yamini Krishnamurthy has mastered.
• Yamini Krishnamurthy has also performed in several countries across the world and has been a recipient of many prestigious awards.

Additional Information

• Bharatanatyam is a classical dance form that traces its origins to the temples of Tamil Nadu. It involves intricate footwork, hand gestures, and facial expressions to convey emotions and tell stories.
• Kathak is a classical dance form that originated in North India and is known for its fast spins and footwork. It also involves storytelling through hand gestures and facial expressions.
• Manipuri is a classical dance form from Manipur, which combines graceful movements with martial arts and is known for its fluidity and grace.
• Kuchipudi is a classical dance form from Andhra Pradesh, which involves intricate footwork, dramatic storytelling, and colorful costumes. It is known for its dynamic movements and expressions.

The correct answer is 1 April 1951.

Key Points

• The first 5-year plan started on April 1, 1951.
• This plan was launched by the government of India under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India.
• The main aim of the plan was to develop the Indian economy and reduce poverty and unemployment.
• The plan focused on agriculture, irrigation, power, transport, and communication sectors.
• The plan was successful in achieving some of its objectives, such as increasing food production and improving infrastructure.

Additional Informatio

• First Five-Year Plan
• 1^st five-year plan was for the period of 1951 to 1956.
• The target Growth was 2.1 %  and the Actual Growth was 3.6 %.
• It was based on Harrod-Domar.
• The influx of refugees, severe food shortage & mounting inflation confronted the country at the onset of the first five-year plan.
• The primary aim of the 1^st five-year plan was to improve the living standards of the people of India.
• This could be done by making judicious use of India’s natural resources.
• The Plan focussed on agriculture, price stability, power, and transport.

The correct answer is Padma Subrahmanyam.

Key Points

• Bharatanatyam is a classical Indian dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu.
• Padma Subrahmanyam is not only a Bharatanatyam dancer but also a choreographer, research scholar, and music composer.
• Birju Maharaj is a famous Kathak dancer, not a Bharatanatyam dancer.
• Naik Siddiqui is not a well-known name in the field of Indian classical dance.
• Saswati Sen is a famous Kathak dancer and a disciple of Birju Maharaj.
• Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option 2 - Padma Subrahmanyam.

Additional Information

• Padma Subrahmanyam
• Padma Subrahmanyam (born 4 February 1943, in Madras), is an Indian classical Bharatanatyam dancer.
• She is also a research scholar, choreographer, music composer, singer, teacher, Indologist, and author.
• She is famous in India as well as abroad. Several films and documentaries have been made in her honor by countries such as Japan, Australia, and Russia.

The correct answer is A and C only.

Key Points

• The correct answer is option 3 (A and C only).
• The Finance Commission of India is a Constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members appointed by the President of India.
• The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are advisory in nature and not binding on the government.
• The government may accept or reject the recommendations.
• The Commission recommends the distribution of taxes between the Centre and the States, grants-in-aid to the States, and other fiscal matters.
• The Finance Commission is constituted every five years.

Additional Information

• The President of India constitutes the Finance Commission every 5 years.
• The finance commission is a constitutional body mandated by article 280 of the constitution.
• The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are of an advisory nature only and therefore, not binding upon the government.
• It submits its report to the President of India.
• The first Finance Commission was constituted in 1951.
• The eligibility of members of the Finance Commission is determined by the Parliament of India.
• Chairman of the Finance Commission submits his report to the President of India.
• Composition: Chairman and 4 members.

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

• The correct answer is option 3, i.e., West Bengal.
• The Paray Shikshalaya scheme is a new initiative launched by the West Bengal government in February 2022.
• The scheme aims to provide free and quality education to children living in remote and backward areas of the state.
• The scheme will establish 10,000 schools in the state to provide education to around 5 lakh students.

Additional Information 

• The West Bengal government on Monday (February 7) launched ‘Paray Shikshalaya’ – an open-air classroom in the neighbourhood program – for students from classes 1 to 7.
• The aim of this initiative is to encourage students who dropped out of school during the Covid-19 pandemic to continue their education.
• On January 31, schools across the state opened for classes 8 to 12. However, students studying in lower classes continued to take online classes.
• Initially, the initiative was meant for primary school students (1 to 5). However, students in classes 6 and 7 were also included as physical classes in schools did not reopen for them.

The correct answer is Chicago.

Key Point 

• Vivekananda participated in the World's Parliament of Religions held in Chicago in 1893.
• He was invited to represent Hinduism and deliver a speech on the first day of the conference.
• His speech, which began with the famous words "Sisters and Brothers of America", was a powerful message of universal brotherhood and the importance of tolerance and acceptance of all religions.
• Vivekananda's speech was widely acclaimed and made him an instant sensation in America, leading to numerous invitations to speak at various forums.
• San Francisco, New York, and Washington are major cities in the United States, but they are not associated with the World's Parliament of Religions held in 1893.

Additional Information

• Vivekananda's participation in the World's Parliament of Religions marked the beginning of his mission to spread the message of Vedanta and Hinduism to the world.
• The Parliament was a historic event that brought together representatives of different religions from around the world to promote interfaith dialogue and understanding.
• San Francisco is a major city in California, known for its scenic beauty and cultural diversity. It hosted several important events, including the Golden Gate International Exposition in 1939.
• States and home to several important landmarks, including the White House, the Capitol Building, and the Smithsonian Museum. It has hosted several important events, including presidential inaugurations and international summits.

The correct answer is +2.

Key Points

• The valency of argentic is +2, which means it can lose two electrons to form a cation with a charge of +2.
• The name argentic is derived from the Latin word argentum, which means silver.
• Valency: It is the combined capacity of an element to form bonds by sharing electron pairs to make stable chemical compounds.
• Therefore, the correct option is 4 (+2), which represents the valency of argentic.
• Silver [I] Argentous is Ag+

Silver [II] Argentic is Ag²⁺

Additional Information

The correct answer is 1956.

Key Points

• Joe Hin Tjio was an American cytogeneticist who published a research finding in the year 1956 that defined 2n = 46 as the exact number of human chromosomes.
• Tjio's research finding was based on his extensive experiments involving the counting of chromosomes in human cells using microscopy and other techniques.
• The discovery of the exact number of human chromosomes was a landmark achievement in the field of genetics and had significant implications for the study of human diseases and genetic disorders.

Additional Information

• Cytogenetics is the branch of genetics that studies the structure and function of chromosomes and their relationship to cell behavior and inheritance.
• The discovery of the exact number of human chromosomes was a collaborative effort that involved several scientists, including Albert Levan, who worked with Tjio to confirm the finding.
• (1950) is close to the actual year of Tjio's appointment at the University of Lund in Sweden, where he began his research on human chromosomes. Option 2 (1952) is also close to the actual year when Tjio first observed and counted human chromosomes under the microscope. However, neither of these options represents the year when Tjio published his research findings. Option 4 (1960) is too late as it comes after several other significant discoveries had already been made in the field of cytogenetics.

The correct answer is Mehsana.

Key Points

• The Modhera dance festival is organized by the Government of Gujarat in the Mehsana district of Gujarat.
• The festival is held annually in the month of January at the Sun Temple in Modhera, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The festival showcases various classical dance forms of India such as Kathak, Bharatnatyam, Kuchipudi, and Odissi.
• The festival also includes a handicraft fair and a food festival, offering a glimpse of the rich cultural heritage and cuisine of Gujarat.
• The Sun Temple at Modhera is an ancient Hindu temple dedicated to the Sun God and is known for its unique architecture and intricate carvings.

Additional Information

• Amreli is a district in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat known for its wildlife sanctuary and historical monuments.
• Bharuch is a district in the southern part of Gujarat known for its industrial development and religious sites.
• Dang is a district in the eastern part of Gujarat known for its tribal culture and natural beauty. It is also home to the Saputara Hill Station.
• Mehsana is a district in the northern part of Gujarat known for its historical significance, agricultural produce, and industrial development. It is also home to the famous Modhera Sun Temple.
• Hence, the correct answer is Option 4 - Mehsana.

The correct answer is Carl Wieman.

Key Points

• Eric Cornell experimentally produced the first Bose-Einstein condensate in a rarefied gas of rubidium atoms at extremely low temperatures in 1995 with Carl Wieman.
• Bose-Einstein condensate is a state of matter that occurs at very low temperatures, close to absolute zero.
• Geoffrey Wilkinson was a Nobel Prize-winning chemist who made significant contributions to the field of organometallic chemistry.
• Kary B Mullis was a biochemist who won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for his invention of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique.
• Paul J. Flory was a chemist who won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for his work in the field of macromolecules.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is Allaudin Khan.

Key Points

• Allaudin Khan is a renowned Indian musician who is associated with the musical instrument Sarod.
• He is considered to be one of the pioneers of Indian classical music and was the teacher of several famous musicians, including Ravi Shankar and Ali Akbar Khan.
• Allaudin Khan was also a composer and created several new ragas that are still performed today.
• He founded the Maihar gharana, a school of classical music that combines elements of the Hindustani and Carnatic styles.
• Hariprasad Chaurasia, Annapurna Devi, and Vilayat Khan are all famous musicians, but they are associated with different instruments. Hariprasad Chaurasia is a renowned flutist, Annapurna Devi was a sitar player, and Vilayat Khan was a sitar and surbahar player.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 4, Allaudin Khan.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is From 28 July 2022 to 8 August 2022.

Additional Information

 

• The Commonwealth Games-2022 was conducted from 28 July 2022 to 8 August 2022 in Birmingham, England.
• The games were originally scheduled to be held in 2022 but were postponed due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• The 2022 Commonwealth Games (officially known as the XXII Commonwealth Games) will be held in Birmingham, England.
• The 2022 Commonwealth Games is the third Commonwealth Games to be hosted in England following London 1934 and Manchester 2002.
• The motto of the 2022 Commonwealth Games is "Games for Everyone".
• Birmingham was announced as the host by the Commonwealth Games Federation in 2017.
• 72 Commonwealth nations are expected to participate in the 2022 Commonwealth Games.

Additional Information

• Australia hosted the Commonwealth Games the most (5) times.
• The 2018 Commonwealth Games were held at Gold Coast, Australia.
• India won 26 Gold medals and a total of 66 medals and finished 3^rd in the tournament.
• Delhi in India hosted the Commonwealth Games in 2010.
• Edinburg in Scotland hosted the Commonwealth Games twice in 1970 and 1986.
• Perth in Australia hosted the Commonwealth Games in 1962.

The correct answer is the 42^nd Amendment Act, of 1976.

Key Points

• The correct answer is option 1, i.e., the 42^nd Amendment Act, of 1976 added four new subjects (Article 39, 39A, 43A, 48A) in the Directive Principles of State Policy.
• The Directive Principles of State Policy are the guidelines or principles given in Part IV of the Indian Constitution to the government for the welfare of the people and the development of the country.
• Article 39 deals with the principles of policy to be followed by the State in ensuring social justice and the welfare of the people, while Article 39A deals with equal justice and free legal aid.
• Article 43A ensures the participation of workers in the management of industries, and Article 48A deals with the protection and improvement of the environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife.
• The Forty-first Amendment Act of the Constitution of India,1976, changed the age of retirement of the Chairman and members of the State Public Service Commissions from 60 to 62 years, by amending article 316(2) of the Constitution, while the 40^th Amendment Act, of 1976 amended the Constitution to extend the life of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from five to six years.
• The 39^th Amendment Act, of 1975 amended the Constitution to prevent any court from questioning the election of the Prime Minister and Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is Above.

Key Points

• The lower salinity water rests above the higher salinity dense water due to the principle of density stratification.
• This occurs because saltwater is denser than freshwater, and as a result, the denser saltwater sinks below the less dense freshwater.
• This phenomenon is important in oceanography and marine biology, as it affects the distribution of nutrients and organisms in the water column.
• Option 2, below, is incorrect as it goes against the principle of density stratification.
• Option 3, it combines, is also incorrect as the two types of water do not mix but rather remain stratified.
• Option 4, which is separate, is a vague statement that does not provide much information and can be considered incorrect.

Additional Information

• Salinity is the measure of the concentration of dissolved salts in water.
• Density stratification refers to the layering of water based on differences in density, which can be caused by differences in temperature, salinity, and other factors.
• In oceanography, the layering of water based on density is called oceanic stratification, and it affects the ocean's circulation, climate, and ecology.
• Density stratification also plays a crucial role in the formation of ocean currents and the transport of heat and nutrients around the globe.

The correct answer is Calcutta.

Key Points

• Swaraj means self-rule or self-governance in Hindi.
• Dadabhai Naoroji was a prominent Indian nationalist leader and a member of the Indian National Congress (INC) who served as the President of the INC thrice.
• Dadabhai Naoroji made the declaration of Self-Government or Swaraj as the ultimate goal of the Indian National Congress in the Calcutta session of the INC in 1906.
• This session was significant as it marked the beginning of the Swadeshi movement which aimed at promoting Indian goods and boycotting foreign goods.

Additional Information

• The Bombay session of the INC in 1885 was the first session of the INC, and Self-Government was not declared as the ultimate goal in this session.
• Madras session of the INC in 1908 focused on the issue of untouchability and did not declare Swaraj as the ultimate goal.
• The Bankipur session of the INC in 1912 was significant for the adoption of the resolution for Home Rule, but it did not declare Swaraj as the ultimate goal.

The correct answer is Proteins.

Key Points

• Proteins are known as bodybuilding food as they are essential for muscle growth and repair.
• They contain amino acids that help in building and repairing muscles after a workout.
• Protein-rich foods include chicken, fish, eggs, beans, lentils, and dairy products.
• Proteins are needed for the growth and repair of our body.
• Food containing proteins is called bodybuilding food.
• Examples of food rich in protein are beans, dal, meat, soybean.

Additional Information

• Fats are important for providing energy and insulation to the body, but excessive fat consumption can lead to weight gain and health issues.
• Carbohydrates are the primary source of energy for the body and are important for athletes, but too much carbohydrate consumption can lead to weight gain and insulin resistance.
• Vitamins are essential for overall health and well-being, but they do not directly contribute to muscle growth or repair. However, certain vitamins such as vitamin D and B12 can help in the absorption of protein and aid in muscle recovery.

The correct answer is Chandra Gupta II.

Key Points

• The Vakataka dynasty ruled in central and southern India from the 3^rd to 5^th century CE.
• The Gupta dynasty was a powerful and influential dynasty that ruled in northern India from the 4^th to 6^th century CE.
• The Vakataka dynasty was directly related to Chandra Gupta II, who was a Gupta emperor.
• Chandra Gupta, I was the founder of the Gupta dynasty and ruled from 320 to 335 CE, which was before the Vakataka dynasty.
• Shree Gupta, the grandfather of Chandra Gupta I, laid the foundation of the Gupta dynasty.
• Samudra Gupta was a Gupta emperor who ruled from 335 to 375 CE, which was also before the Vakataka dynasty.
• Option 4, Chandra Gupta II, is the correct answer as he was the Gupta emperor who was directly related to the Vakataka dynasty.

Additional Information

• The Gupta Empire :
• The Gupta Empire was an ancient Indian empire that existed from the early 4^th century CE to the late 6^th century CE.
• At its zenith, from approximately 319 to 467 CE, it covered much of the Indian subcontinent.
• This period is considered the Golden Age of India by historians.
• The ruling dynasty of the empire was founded by the king Sri Gupta; the most notable rulers of the dynasty were Chandragupta I, Samudragupta, and Chandragupta II alias Vikramaditya.

The correct answer is 2015-16.

 Key Points

• India's first sovereign wealth fund named 'National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF)' was announced in the union budget of 2015-16. The following are some of the key points that explain the answer:
• The aim of the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is to attract investment from both domestic and international sources for infrastructure development in India.
• The fund is structured as a Category II Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulations.
• The initial authorized corpus of the fund was Rs. 20,000 crore, with the government contributing 49% and the rest to be raised from other investors.
• The fund has two main components: the NIIF Master Fund and the Strategic Investment Fund (SIF). The NIIF Master Fund is a fund of funds that invests in various infrastructure sectors, while the SIF makes direct equity investments in infrastructure projects.
• The NIIF has already made several investments in various sectors, including renewable energy, highways, and logistics.

Additional Information

• National Investment and Infrastructure Fund is India’s first sovereign wealth fund that was set up by the Government of India in February 2015.
• The objective behind creating this fund was to maximize economic impact mainly through infrastructure investment in commercially viable projects.

The correct answer is SHRESHTA.

Key Points

• The correct answer to the question is option 4, which is "SHRESHTA".
• "SHRESHTA" is a scheme launched by the Government of India in 2022 for the benefit of Scheduled Caste (SC) students who could not get higher quality education in high schools.
• The main objective of this scheme is to provide financial assistance to SC students to pursue higher education in reputed institutions.

Additional Information

• "SAMARTH" is a scheme launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship to provide skill training to youth for better employment opportunities.
• "SAMBHAV" is a scheme launched by the Government of India for the empowerment of women through various initiatives such as education, healthcare, and economic development.
• "SAMBAL" is a scheme launched by the Madhya Pradesh Government to provide financial assistance to poor families for the education of their children.

The correct answer is statecraft.

Key Points

• The correct answer is option 1, i.e., statecraft.
• Krishnadeva Raya was a ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire, and he was known for his administrative skills and patronage of arts and literature.
• Amuktamalyada is a Telugu composition that describes the story of the wedding of Lord Vishnu and Andal, a devotee of Vishnu. The work also includes advice on statecraft and governance.
• The work is considered a masterpiece of Telugu literature and is admired for its poetic beauty and insights into politics and ethics.

Additional Information

• Vijayanagara Empire:
• Vijayanagara or “city of victory” was the name of both a city and an empire.
• The empire was founded in the fourteenth century (1336 AD) by Harihara and Bukka of the Sangama dynasty.
• They made Hampi the capital city.
• In 1986, Hampi was declared a World Heritage site by UNESCO.

The correct answer is Chamba.

Key Points

• 'Har Ghar Jal' is a government initiative aimed at providing piped water supply to every household in India by 2024.
• Chamba, located in Himachal Pradesh, has become the 100^th district to achieve the goal of providing a piped water supply to every household in February 2022.
• Kachchh, located in Gujarat, is a district that has been severely affected by earthquakes and has faced water scarcity issues in the past. However, it is not the correct answer to the question.
• Mewat, located in Haryana, is a district that has been facing water scarcity and quality issues. However, it is not the correct answer to the question.
• Kurnool, located in Andhra Pradesh, is a district that has been facing drought and water scarcity issues. However, it is not the correct answer to the question.
• Hence, the statement "Chamba has become the 100^th 'Har Ghar Jal' district in February 2022" is correct.

Additional Information

• Jal Jeevan Mission (Har Ghar Nal se Jal)
• Launched in 2019.
• Aim: To provide every single rural household with functional household tap connections (FHTC) ‘Har Ghar Nal Se Jal’ by 2024.
• A decentralized approach is implemented at national, state, and district levels for specific needs and purposes (Targeted Area approach).
• The major role played by Paani Samitis and women in mobilizing the population.
• The Jal Jeevan Mission will be based on a community approach to water and will include extensive Information, Education, and communication as a key component of the mission

The correct answer is M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks.

Key Poin

• The correct answer to the given question is option 2, which is M1 (currency in circulation + demand deposits with commercial banks) + net time deposits of commercial banks.
• Aggregate monetary resources refer to the total amount of money available in an economy.
• Option 2, which is M1 (currency in circulation + demand deposits with commercial banks) + net time deposits of commercial banks, is known as aggregate monetary resources.
• M1 + savings deposits with Post Office savings banks (option 1) is known as narrow money.
• M3 + total deposits with Post Office savings organizations (excluding National Savings Certificates) (option 3) is known as broad money.
• Currency (notes plus coins) held by the public and demand deposits held by commercial banks (option 4) are known as the monetary base.

Additional Information

• M1 + savings deposits with Post Office savings banks is known as narrow money.
• It only includes the most liquid forms of money, i.e., the currency in circulation and demand deposits with commercial banks, along with savings deposits with Post Office savings banks.
• It doesn't include time deposits or other forms of deposits with commercial banks.
• M3 + total deposits with Post Office savings organizations (excluding National Savings Certificates) is known as broad money.
• It includes all forms of deposits with commercial banks, Post Office savings organizations (excluding National Savings Certificates), and other financial institutions.
• It is a broader measure of money supply than M1 and M2.
• Currency (notes plus coins) held by the public and demand deposits held by commercial banks is known as the monetary base.
• It is the total amount of currency in circulation and demand deposits held by commercial banks.
• It doesn't include time deposits or other forms of deposits with commercial banks.

The correct answer is white and black.

Key Points

• The colours of the squares used in a chessboard are white and black.
• This is because the chessboard is designed to have a contrasting pattern of light and dark squares to make it easier to distinguish between the pieces.
• Red and black or white and green would not provide the necessary contrast for the chess pieces to stand out.
• White and red would also not work as it would be too bright and could cause eye strain.
• Option 1 is the correct answer as it accurately describes the colours used in a standard chessboard.

Additional Information

Chessboard

• A chessboard is the type of gameboard used for the game of chess on which the chess pawns and pieces are placed.
• A chessboard is usually square in shape, with an alternating pattern of squares in two colors.
• Though usually played on a surface, a tangible board is not a requirement to play the game.
• Traditionally wooden boards are made of unstained light and dark brown woods.

Given:

Failed by = 14 marks

Marks obtained = 210 marks

Concept used:

If he failed by means we need to add that and if he passed by we will subtract it.

Calculations:

Let, the total marks is x

⇒ (35x/100) = 210 + 14

⇒ (35x/100) = 224

⇒ x = 22400/35

⇒ x = 640

The answer is 640 marks.

Calculation

360° → 100%

1° → 100/360 = 5/18

The students who appeared for the exam in section = 58°

⇒ 58° → 58 × 5/18

= 16.1%

The answer is 16.1%

Given

x - 1/x = 6

Formula Used

x + 1/x = √ ((x - 1/x)² + 4)

x² - 1/x² = (x - 1/x)(x + 1/x)

Calculation:

x - 1/x = 6

x + 1/x = √ ((x - 1/x)2 + 4)

⇒ x + 1/x = √(40)

⇒ x + 1/x = 2√10

x2 - 1/x2 = (x - 1/x)(x + 1/x)

= 2√10 × 6

= 12√10

The answer is 12√10

Given:

sec2 A - tan2 A417417

Concept Used:

sec2 A - tan2 A = 1

Calculation:

sec2 A - tan2 A = 1

The answer is 1.

Given:

The average monthly income of the father and mother is Rs. 5,000

The average monthly income of the mother and her son is Rs. 6,000

The average monthly income of the father and his son is Rs. 10,000

Formula used:

Average = Sum of numbers/numbers of units

Calculation

The monthly income of the father and mother = 2 × 5,000

= 10000

The monthly income of the mother and her son = 2 × 6,000

= 12000

The monthly income of the father and his son = 2 × 10,000

= 20000

The monthly income of the family = (10000 + 12000 + 20000)/2

= 21000

The monthly income (in Rs.) of the father = 21000 - 12000

= 9000

The answer is 9000.

Concept used

The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of the squares of the corresponding sides & medians. 

Calculation

ΔABC ∼ ΔPQR

∴ (BC/QR)² = ar(∆ABC)/ar(∆PQR)

⇒ (20/QR)² = 16/25

⇒ 20/QR = 4/5

∴ QR = 25 cm

The answer is 25 cm.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Total Wages = (Days × Daily Wage Ratio)

X : Y : Z = (5 × 4) : (7 × 5) : (10 × 3) = 20 : 35 : 30 = 4 : 7 : 6

Total units = 4 + 7 + 6 = 17 units → ₹3,400

X’s share = (4 ÷ 17) × 3400 = ₹800

∴ The correct answer is ₹800.

Alternate Method

Given: Total cost = ₹3,400, Time: X = 5 days, Y = 7 days, Z = 10 days. Ratio of daily wages = 4 : 5 : 3.

Formula Used: Total Wage = Number of days × Daily wage

⇒ Let daily wages be 4k, 5k, and 3k.

⇒ Total wage of X = 5 × 4k = 20k

⇒ Total wage of Y = 7 × 5k = 35k

⇒ Total wage of Z = 10 × 3k = 30k

⇒ 20k + 35k + 30k = 3400

⇒ 85k = 3400

⇒ k = 3400 ÷ 85 = 40

⇒ Amount received by X = 20 × 40 = ₹800

∴ The correct answer is ₹800.

Additional Information

Work and Wages Rule

Wages are distributed in the ratio of the total work done by each person. Total Work = Efficiency × Time.

Direct Proportion

If daily wages are constant, the total wage is directly proportional to the number of days worked.

Ratio Scaling

When multiple factors (Time and Wage rate) affect a value, we multiply the respective ratios to find the resultant ratio.

Formula used

Distance = Speed × time

Calculation

Time required by Ram to cover 84 km distance with a rate 36km/hr = 84/36

= 7/3 or 2(1/3) =  2 hr 20 min (140 minutes)

Also, if the vehicle stops for 5 min. at the end of every 10 km then, the vehicle has to stop a total 8

time for 5 min.

= 1/10 × 80 = 8 times (the last 4 km will be covered at one go)

Total stopping time = 8 × 5 = 40 min(s)

Total time required = 140 + 40 = 180 minutes.

The answer is 180 minutes.

Given :

A 15 cm long perpendicular is drawn from the centre of a circle to a 40 cm long chord

Concept used :

The line is drawn from the centre of a circle towards a chord always divides the chord in two equal parts and also perpendicular to the chord. 

Calculations :

Let the centre of the circle be 'O' and 'OA' = OB is the radius 

Let the chord be 'AB' where 'P' is the midpoint of the chord.

The length of chord AC is 40 cm so PA is equal to 20 cm

Now according to the question 

OA² = OP² + PB²

OA² = 15² + 20²

OA² = 225 + 400

OA² = 625

⇒ OA = √625

⇒ 25 

Now, 

Diameter of the circle = 2 × Radius 

⇒ 2 × 25 

⇒ 50 cm 

∴ The diameter of the circle is 50 cm.

Formula used

(a + b) = a² + b² + 2ab.

a⁸ - b⁸ = (a⁴ + b⁴)(a⁴ - b⁴)

(a⁴ - b⁴) = (a² + b²)(a² - b²)

Calculation

⇒ x + 1/x = 3√2

⇒ (x +1/x)² = 18

⇒ x² + 1/x² + 2 = 18

⇒ x² + 1/x² = 16

⇒ (x² + 1/x²)² = 16²

⇒ x⁴ + 1/x⁴ + 2 = 256

⇒ x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = 254

⇒ x4 + 1/x4 - 2 = 254 - 2

⇒ (x2 - 1/x2)2 = 252

⇒ x² - 1/x² = 6√7

⇒ x8 - 1/x⁸ = (x4 + 1/x4)(x4 - 1/x4)

⇒ x8 - 1/x8 = (x4 + 1/x4)(x² - 1/x²)(x² + 1/x²)

= 254 × 16 × 6√7

= 24384√7

The answer is 24384√7.

Concept used

The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of the squares of the corresponding sides & medians. 

Calculation

As DE divides the area of ΔABC into two equal parts.

i.e. ar(ΔADE) = ar(DEBC)

⇒ ar(ΔADE) = ar(ΔABC)/2

⇒ ar(ΔABC)/ar(ΔADE) = 2

Now,

ΔABC ∼ ΔADE (By AAA similarity)

So,

 ar(ΔABC)/ar(ΔADE) = (AB/AD)²

⇒ 2 = AB²/AD²

⇒ AB2/AD2 = 2

⇒ AB = √2AD 

⇒ AB = √2(AB - DB)

⇒ √2AB - AB = √2DB

⇒ AB(√2 - 1) = √2DB

∴ DB/AB = (√2 - 1)/√2

The answer is (√2 - 1):√2

Concept used:

BODMAS rule 

calculation:

[0.08 - {3.5 - 4.9 - (12.5 - 7.8 - 4.6)}]

⇒ [0.08 - {3.5 - 4.9 - (0.1)}]

⇒ [0.08 - {3.5 - 5}]

⇒ 0.08 + 1.5

⇒ 1.58

∴ The answer is 1.58.

Given

The hypotenuse is 5 cm and the base is 3 cm.

Concept used

tan θ = perpendicular/Base(P/B)

H2 = P2 + B2

Calculation

H² = P² + B²

= 52 = P2 + 32

= P² = 25 - 9 = 16

= P = 4

tan θ = 4/3

The answer is 4/3.

Shortcut Trick

Sum of Length and Width = Perimeter ÷ 2 = 68 ÷ 2 = 34 m

Difference between Length and Width = 2 m

Length = (Sum + Difference) ÷ 2

⇒ Length = (34 + 2) ÷ 2 = 36 ÷ 2 = 18 m

∴ The correct answer is 18 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Perimeter of the rectangle = 68 m

Width = Length − 2 m

Formula Used:

Perimeter of a rectangle = 2 × (Length + Width)

Length (L) Length (L) Width (L−2) Width (L−2) Perimeter = 68 m

Calculations:

⇒ Let the length of the rectangle be L m.

⇒ The width of the rectangle = (L − 2) m

⇒ 2 × [L + (L − 2)] = 68

⇒ 2L − 2 = 68 ÷ 2

⇒ 2L − 2 = 34

⇒ 2L = 34 + 2

⇒ 2L = 36

⇒ L = 18 m

∴ The correct answer is 18 m.

Additional Information

Area of a Rectangle

The area is the total space enclosed within the boundary of a rectangle. Formula: Area = Length × Width.

Diagonal of a Rectangle

The diagonal is the straight line connecting opposite corners of the rectangle. Formula: Diagonal = √(Length² + Width²).

Perimeter of a Square

A square is a special type of rectangle where both the length and width are equal. Formula: Perimeter = 4 × Side.

Shortcut Trick

Taking LCM of 12, 18, and 36 as Total Work = 36 units.

Efficiency: A = 3, B = 2, C = −1 (Emptying pipe).

Combined Efficiency = 3 + 2 − 1 = 4 units/min.

Time required = 36 ÷ 4 = 9 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 9 min.

Alternate Method

Given: Filling time of Pipe A = 12 min, Pipe B = 18 min, Emptying time of Pipe C = 36 min.

⇒ Total Efficiency of (A + B + C) = 3 + 2 + (−1)

⇒ Total Efficiency = 4 units/min

⇒ Time taken to fill the tank = Total Capacity ÷ Combined Efficiency

⇒ Time = 36 ÷ 4

⇒ Time = 9 min

∴ The correct answer is 9 min.

Additional Information

Inlet and Outlet Concept

An Inlet pipe fills the tank (positive work) while an Outlet pipe empties the tank (negative work).

Efficiency Formula

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time taken. If a tank is filled in x hours, work done in 1 hour = 1/x.

Pipes & Cisterns Logic

If multiple pipes work together, their net efficiency is the algebraic sum of their individual efficiencies.

Given:

The height of the pole is 28 m and it casts a shadow 19.2 m long.

The shadow cast by the tower is 52.5 m long.

Concepts used:

The similarity of triangles using AA(angle-angle) rule

The ratio of corresponding sides of similar triangles is equal.

Calculation:

In ΔABC and ΔEDC,

∠ABC = ∠EDC (each 90°)

∠ACB = ∠ECD (Common angle)

∴ ΔABC ∼ ΔEDC (By AA rule).

⇒ AB/ED = BC/DC

⇒ 52.5/28 = BC/19.2

⇒ BC = 52.5 × 19.2/28

⇒ BC =  36 m.

∴ The length of the shadow cast by another pole of 52.5 m height is 36 m.

Confusion Points

As the position of the sun is fixed at a particular time and both buildings are on the same sides of the sun, the angle made by the shadow with the horizon must be equal.

Concept used

sin (90° – θ) = cos θ and cos (90° – θ) = sin θ

Calculation

⇒ cos41/sin49 + sin51/cos39

sin (90° – 39) = cos 39 and cos (90° – 49) = sin49

⇒ sin49/sin49 + cos39/cos39

⇒ 1 + 1 = 2

The answer is 2.

Shortcut Trick

To maintain a 15% profit when the Cost Price (CP) and Selling Price (SP) are technically the same per unit, the total SP must be 1.15 × Total CP.

Current scenario: Machine shows 1000 gm but gives 950 gm. The effective CP for the dealer is the cost of 950 gm.

Effective CP = (950 ÷ 1000) × x = 0.95x.

Required Profit = 15%. Formula: SP = CP × (100 + P%) ÷ 100.

New SP = 0.95x × 1.15 = 1.0925x.

∴ The correct answer is 1.0925x.

Alternate Method

Given → Cost price of 1000 gm = Rs. x. Machine shows 1000 gm for an actual weight of 950 gm. Desired Profit = 15%. Formulas: Profit% = (SP − CP) ÷ CP × 100 | SP = CP × (1 + Profit/100).

⇒ Cost price of 1 gm = x ÷ 1000. ⇒ When machine shows 1000 gm, the actual quantity is 950 gm. ⇒ Actual CP for the dealer for 1000 gm shown = (x ÷ 1000) × 950 = 0.95x. ⇒ To earn 15% profit on this transaction: SP = 0.95x × (115 ÷ 100). ⇒ SP = 0.95x × 1.15 = 1.0925x.

∴ The correct answer is 1.0925x.

Additional Information

Dishonest Dealer Concept

Profit is generated either by increasing the selling price or by reducing the actual weight delivered. Gain% = [Error ÷ (True Value − Error)] × 100.

Effective Profit Percentage

If a dealer sells at k% profit but uses a weight that is w% less, Total Profit% = [(k + w) ÷ (100 − w)] × 100.

Given:

The length, breadth and height of a cuboid are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3.

Formula used:

Volume of cuboid = Length(L) × Breadth(B) × Height(H)

Calculation:

Let the Length, breadth and height of the cuboid be 100, 200, and 300 respectively.

Volume of cuboid = 100 × 200 × 300 = 6000000

Length increased by 200%, Breadth increase by 300% and height by 300%

Now, new length = 300, breadth = 800 and height = 1200 respectively

⇒ new volume of cuboid = 300 × 800 × 1200

= 288000000

Increase in volume = (new volume of the cuboid – the volume of the cuboid)/volume of the cuboid

= (288000000 – 6000000)/6000000

= 282000000/6000000

= 47 times

∴ The increase in the volume of the cuboid will be 47 times.

GIVEN:

Difference in time = 9 hours

A boat's speed in still water = 45 km/h

Stream speed = 15 km /h 

FORMULA USED:

Distance = Speed × Time 

Speed in upstream = (still water's speed - stream speed)

Speed in downstream  = (still water speed + stream speed )

CALCULATION:

Here, still water speed = 45 km/h , stream speed = 15 km/h 

Upstream speed = (45 - 15) = 30 km/h, Downstream speed = (45 + 15) = 60 km/h. 

According to the given question,

The time taken to cover the Upstream distance is 9 hours more than the Downstream

Now, let the required distance be d then,

⇒ d/30 - d/60 = 9

⇒ (2d - d)/60 = 9

⇒ d = 9 × 60 = 540

Hence, the required distance is 540 km.

Given:

Cost price = 2000

Discount is given on Marked Price = 20%

Profit earned = 20%

Formula used:

S.P. = M.P. - D% of M.P.

C.P. = (S.P. × 100)/(100 + P)

Mark up% = {(M.P. - C.P.)/C.P.} × 100

Where, M.P. = Mark price, C.P. = Cost price, S.P. = Selling price

P = Profit%

Calculation:

Let the M.P. be 100x

Then, S.P. = 100 - 20% of 100

⇒ 100 - (20/100) × 100 = 80x

Now, S.P. = (2000)(100 + 20)/100

⇒ 2400

⇒ 80x = 2400

⇒ x = 30

⇒ M.P = 100x → 30 × 100 = 3000

∴ The markup price is 3000.

Given:

Divisor = 33

Concept Used:

The divisibility rule of 3 = Sum of all number digits should be divisible by 3.

Calculation:

As 33 can be expressed as 3 × 11.

For the first option,

35508 = 3 + 5 + 5 + 0 + 8 = 21, is divisible by 3.

Difference between the sum of numbers at odd places and even places = (3 + 5 + 8) – (5 + 0) = 11.

11, is divisible by 11.

For the second option,

35580 = 3 + 5 + 5 + 8 + 0 = 21, is  divisible by 3.

Difference between the sum of numbers at odd places and even places = (3 + 5 + 0) – (5 + 8) = - 5.

• 5, is not divisible by 11.

For the third option,

36508 = 3 + 6 + 5 + 8 = 22

22 is not divisible by 3.

For the fourth option,

34936 = 3 + 4 + 9 + 3 + 6 = 25, is not divisible by 3.

Therefore, the number which is exactly divisible by 33 is 35508.

Given

Total time = 4 hr 10 min.

The ratio of the speed of a motorboat to that of the current of water is 31 ∶ 6.

Formula used

Speed = Distance/Time

Detailed solution:-

Let the common factor of speeds of a motorboat to that of the current of water be x.

Then, the speed of the motorboat = 31x km/h, 

The speed of the current = 6x km/h.

Motorboat goes along with the current in 4 h 10 m = 4 h +10/ 60 h = 25/6 h 

Speed of downstream = 31x + 6x = 37x km/h

Speed of upstream = 31x – 6x = 25x km/h

Now, the distance covered by the downstream

⇒ speed of downstream × Time taken = 37x × (25 /6) km

Similarly, the distance covered upstream is also 37x × (25 /6)km

Time is taken by upstream = Distance covered by upstream/ Speed of upstream

⇒ [37x × (25 /6) ]/25x

⇒ 37/ 6 = 6h + 1/ 6 = 6h 10 min

∴ The time the motorboat requires to return is equal to 6 hours 10 minutes.

Given:- 

Principle = 30,000  

Amount = 38,400

Rate = 8 %

Formula used:- 

Amount = Principle + SI

SI = (P × R × T)/100

Calculation:- 

SI = 38400 - 30000 = 8400

Let the time be T

SI = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ 8400 = (30000 × T × 8)/100

⇒ T = 3.5 Years 

∴ The result will be 3.5 years.

Calculation

Let the number of students in IIT Madras be x.

Then, the number of students in IIT Bombay = x × (100 - 20)/100

= 4/5x

The number of students in IIT Bombay and in IIT Madras = 2080 - (430 + 350 + 400)

= 2080 - 1180

= 900

⇒ x + 4/5x = 900

⇒ 9/5x = 900

⇒ x = 500

⇒ 4/5x → 500 × 4/5 = 400

The total number of students who study in the Applied department in these two colleges = 400 × 32% + 500 × 35%

= 128 + 175 = 303

The total number of students who study in the Civil department in these two colleges = 400 × 18% + 500 × 25%

= 72 + 125 = 197

Difference ⇒ 303 - 197

= 106

The answer is 106.

The correct answer is "Involve."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meanings of the given and the marked words:
• Immerse means to involve oneself deeply in a particular activity or interest.(तल्लीन)
• Example: I saw him fully immersed in his studies.
• Involve is a synonym of immerse.
• "Involve" means to take part into something fully.(सम्मिलित करना)
• Example: She likes to involve herself deeply in books.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Emerge means to become visible or known. (उभरना)
• Distant means far away in space or time.(दूर)
• Uncover means to remove a cover or layer from something.  (उजागर करना)

The correct answer is "docile."

Key Points

• Among the given options: 
• The options 1, 2 and 3 are incorrectly spelled.
• The word 'docile' in option 4 is spelled correctly.
• It means easily trained or obedient.
• Example: She is a black, gentle and docile dog.
• The correct spelling of the word is 'docile' with one 'o' and one 'e'.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• In options 1, 2 and 3 the correct spellings should be:
• "Labradors" which means a breed of dogs.
• "Gentle" means not so violent or extreme.

The correct answer is "go."

Key Points

• The sentence is in past perfect tense, indicating an action that happened before another past action.
• Example: I had finished the work, before I went to sleep.
• The past perfect simple, to refer to the action that happened first or earlier.
• Thus, "had gone" is used correctly.
• The past simple to refer to the action that happened second or later i.e. "went."
• While in the sentence, the action of going to Rajganj happened later.
• Thus, the simple past tense will be "went."
• Therefore, the correct sentence would be "I had gone to Siliguri before I went to Rajganj."

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is "CADB."

Key Points

• In the given question, we can understand that the subject is the film "Titanic."
• Now, the sentence C is introducing the subject of the passage.
• Further, the sentence A explains the central theme of the passage.
• Later on, the sentence D explains how most of the story is told in flashbacks.
• At the end, the sentence B ends the passage and has a concluding tone to it.
• Thus, it is clear that the correct order is "CADB."

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is "an ace up his sleeve".

Key Points

• In the given sentence, the phrase used is "an ace up his sheath."
• The correct phrase to use is "an ace up his sleeve."
• The phrase "an ace up his sleeve" means having a secret advantage or plan.
• The phrase is often used in a figurative sense, rather than a literal one.
• Example: I have an ace up my sleeve for this exam.
• Now, it is clear that among the given options, the correct option to replace the phrase is in option 1.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is "called it a day."

Key Points

• In the given sentence, the phrase "stopped working" can be replaced by option 4.
• "Called it a day" means to stop working for the day.
• Example: I'm getting a bit tired now - let's call it a day.
• This idiom is appropriate in the given context as it accurately conveys that the peasants stopped working in the evening.
• Other options are not appropriate in the given context.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• "Gave it a whirl" is an idiom used to describe trying something new or taking a risk.
• "Put ice on it" means to calm down or relax, often used when someone is overly excited, angry, or upset.
• "Ran around in circles" is an idiom used to describe being busy doing something without making progress.

The correct answer is "CBAD."

Key Points

• In the given question,
• Sentence C introduces the topic of stress among young professionals in today's fast-moving world.
• Sentence B explains the various sources of stress, including lifestyle, health, relationships, lack of support, and competitive focus on success and career advancement.
• Sentence A specifically mentions the impact of work-related stress due to tight deadlines and performance pressure.
• Sentence D provides additional context by highlighting the economic impact on companies and the resulting increase in demand for counselling support and guidance.
• Thus, from the above explanation, the correct order will be "CBAD."

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is "Will Jack deliver the sweets today?"

Key Points

• We are required to ask the required information in active voice in for of an interrogation.
• Now, among the given options, the correct option is option 3.
• The sentence is in the active voice because the subject (Jack) is performing the action (delivering the sweets).
• The sentence is a question because it starts with the auxiliary verb "will" and ends with a question mark.
• The sentence is in the present tense because it refers to an action that will happen today.
• The sentence is grammatically correct because it follows the subject-verb-object word order.
• Thus, it is clear that the given information in a question and in active voice is in option 3.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 1, "Jack will deliver the sweets today," is also in the active voice and present tense, but it is a statement rather than a question.
• Option 2, "Will Jack be delivering the sweets today?" is also a question, but it uses the future continuous tense, which implies that the action will be ongoing or in progress at a specific time in the future.
• Option 4, "Are the sweets to be delivered by Jack today?" is a question in the passive voice, which means that the subject receives the action rather than performing it. It is also worded awkwardly and unnecessarily formal.

The correct answer is "at risk."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words: 
• Vulnerable means weak and easy to hurt physically or emotionally.
• Example: Poor organization left the troops vulnerable to enemy attack.
• Among the given options, the phrase in option 1 means "at risk" means exposed to harm or danger.
• Example: 23 million people in Africa are at risk from starvation.
• Thus, it can be concluded that the phrase "at risk" is the correct synonym of the word "vulnerable."

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 2, "poor," is not a synonym of "vulnerable."
• Option 3, "arrogant," is not related to the context of the sentence.
• Option 4, "adaptable," is not a synonym of "mobilised" or "prepared for action.

The correct answer is "I have never seen a UFO in an English movie."

Key Points

• The indefinite article (a, an) is used before a noun that is general or when its identity is not known.
• We use, "a" before a singular noun beginning with a consonant sound and "an" before a singular noun beginning with a vowel sound.
• Example: I went to a movie. and I saw an eagle.
• "UFO" is pronounced with a "yoo" sound, which is a consonant sound, so it requires the indefinite article "a."
• The sentence in option 3 correctly uses "a" before "UFO" to indicate that the speaker has never seen this type of object in an English movie.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3

The correct answer is "Assassin."

Key Points

• Among the given options the word "assassin" (हत्यारा) can substitute the given phrase.
• An assassin is a person who kills somebody, especially for political reasons.(वह व्यक्ति जो किसी की हत्या करता है, विशेषकर राजनीतिक कारणों से)
• Example: He was shot dead by an assassin.
• The act of assassination is considered illegal and is a serious crime.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Monster (राक्षस): A monster is a mythical creature that is typically large, ugly, and frightening.
• Criminal (अपराधी): A criminal is a person who has committed a crime and is therefore subject to punishment.
• Hangman (जल्लाद): A hangman is a person who carries out executions by hanging.

The correct answer is "Genocide."

Key Points

• In the given sentence, the underlined phrase can be replaced by the word "genocide."
• The word "genocide" means the deliberate killing of a large group of people, especially those of a particular ethnic group or nation.
• In the given sentence, the act of killing a large number of people is mentioned, which matches the meaning of "genocide".
• Example: He may be charged with genocide.
• Thus, it becomes clear that option 4 can substitute the underlined phrase.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• "Homicide" refers to the killing of one person by another.
• "Suicide" refers to the act of taking one's own life.
• "Feticide" refers to the act of killing a fetus.

The correct answer is "many evil".

Key Points

• The use of "many" is appropriate here because it indicates a large number or variety of evil practices that Vidyasagar fought against.
• Using "all" or "most" would not be accurate as it suggests that Vidyasagar fought against every single evil practice, which is unlikely.
• "More" implies a comparison, but there is no context provided for what Vidyasagar was comparing the evil practices to.
• The correct form of the sentence would be:
• "Eshwar Chandra Vidyasagar fought hard against many evil practices that affected Indian society of his time."

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

 Option 2: "all evil" suggests that Vidyasagar fought against every single evil practice, which is unlikely.

 Option 3: "most evil" implies that Vidyasagar fought against the majority of evil practices, but it is unclear if this is accurate.

 Option 4: "more evil" implies a comparison, but there is no context provided for what Vidyasagar was comparing the evil practices to.

 Option 5: There is no option 5 provided in the question.

The correct answer is "Hidden."

Key Points

• In the given question, let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• The word 'evident' means clearly visible or noticeable.
• Example: She ate the cake with evident delight.
• The antonym of 'evident' is 'hidden', which means not easily noticed or seen.
• Example: The file was hidden under the bed.
• Therefore, the most appropriate antonym for 'evident' in the given sentence is 'hidden'.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 2 (Profuse) means abundant or excessive.
• Option 3 (Correct) means accurate or true.
• Option 4 (Visible) is a synonym of 'evident'.

The correct answer is: egalitaerian.

Key Points

• The word "egalitaerian" is incorrectly spelt and should be corrected to "egalitarian". (समानतावादी)
• ​"Egalitarian" refers to the principle that all people are equal and deserve equal rights and opportunities. (समानतावादी)
• Example: The new policies aim to create a more egalitarian society where everyone has the same opportunities.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Freedams (स्वतंत्रताएं): This is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "freedoms".
• Example: People cherish their freedoms and are willing to fight for them.
• Developement (विकास): This is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "development".
• Example: Development in rural areas is crucial for the overall growth of the nation.
• Justise (न्याय): This is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "justice".
• Example: The court's decision was a significant step towards achieving justice for the victims.