SSC CGL 2023 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 21 Jul 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The mirror image of the given figure is :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbol:

​

As per the given data:

 

 

 

 

 

Given expression: 'A % D $ F # B % E × S'

A is the brother of D, D is the son of F, F is the sister of B, B is the brother of E and E is the husband of S.

Here, A is the nephew of E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The embedded part of this image is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Logic: Second no. = [(First no. × 13) - 2]

Checking all the given options:

1. (7, 89)

⇒ [(7 × 13) - 2]

⇒ (91 - 2) = 89

2. (8, 102)

⇒ [(8 × 13) - 2]

⇒ (104 - 2) = 102

3. (5, 60)

⇒ [(5 × 13) - 5]

⇒ (65 - 5) = 60

4. (6, 76)

⇒ [(6 × 13) - 2]

⇒ (78 - 2) = 76

Here, in (5, 60) different logic is followed.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Here, we use the table given below:

Given:

MOTHER : SGKXTS :: SIMPLE : FNSQNY :: DELIGHT : ?

The logic followed in the given pairs:

MOTHER : SGKXTS →

SIMPLE : FNSQNY →

Similarly, for 'DELIGHT : ?' →

Here, 'DELIGHT : UJJMQKK' is the correct pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The correct order of words as they would appear in the English dictionary is:

1. Phantom
2. Pharynx
3. Philosophy
4. Photograph
5. Physical
6. Physics

The correct order is '1, 5, 3, 2, 4, 6'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Here, we unfold the paper step by step:

Step 1:

Step 2:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Statements:

Some trees are leaves.

Some leaves are flowers.

Some flowers are branches.

The Venn diagram as per the given statements:

Conclusions:

I. Some trees are flowers. → not follow (Because there is no definite relation given between trees and flowers, so it can be possible only but not definitely true)

Il. Some leaves are branches. → not follow (Because there is no definite relation given between leaves and branches, so it can be possible only but not definitely true)

III. Some branches are flowers. → Follow (Some flowers are branches, which means some branches are flowers is definitely true)

IV. Some branches are leaves. → not follow (Because there is no definite relation given between branches and leaves, so it can be possible only but not definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion III follows".

The codes for the given alphabet as per the given information:

The letters A, E and K are common in the given words.

Here, the code for 'B' is '2'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given:

(5, 14, 3)

(3, 24, 7)

(9, 30, ?)

Logic: 'Row wise'

First row → Second no. = [First no. + ( Third no. × 3)]

First row (5, 14, 3) →

⇒ [ 5 + (3 × 3)]

⇒ (5 + 9) = 14

Second row (3, 24, 7) →

⇒ [ 3 + (7 × 3)]

⇒ (3 + 21) = 24

Similarly, for the third row (9, 30, ?) →

⇒ [9 + (3 × Y)] = 30

⇒ (3 × Y) = 21

⇒ Y = 7

⇒ (9, 30, 7) is the correct pair.

Here, the question mark is replaced by '7'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Statements:

Some mirrors are glass.

All glass are taps.

Some taps are pens.

The Venn diagram as per the given statements:

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Conclusions:

I. Some glass are mirrors. → Follow (Some mirrors are glass, which means some glass are mirrors is definitely true)

Il. All taps are glass. → not follow (All glass are taps, so All taps are glass can be possible but not definitely true)

III. Some pens are taps. → Follow (Some taps are pens, which means some pens are taps is definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusions (I) and (Ill) follow".

Here, we unfold the paper step by step:

Step 1:

Step 2:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Given:

T_OJEW_TRO_EWF_ROJ _WFTR_JE_F

Checking all the given options:

1. RFJTEOW

TROJEWF / TROJEWF / TROJEWF / TROJEWF

Here, the series is completed.

2. RJFOTWE

TROJEWJ / TROFEWF / OROJTWF / TRWJEEF

3. RJFTWOE

TROJEWJ / TROFEWF / TROJWWF / TROJEEF

4. RFJOTEW

TROJEWF / TROJEWF / OROJTWF / TREJEWF

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

⇒ 7 × 14 ÷ 6 + 12 + 6 = 30

(1) 7 and 6 × and ÷

⇒ 7 × 14 ÷ 6 + 12 + 6 = 30

After interchanging the sign and number:

⇒ 6 ÷ 14 × 7 + 12 + 7 = 30

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 0.428 × 7 + 12 + 7

⇒ 3 + 12 + 7

⇒ 15 + 7 = 22

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(2) 7 and 14, × and ÷

⇒ 7 × 14 ÷ 6 + 12 + 6 = 30

After interchanging the sign and number:

⇒ 14 ÷ 7 × 6 + 12 + 6 = 30

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 2 × 6 + 12 + 6

⇒ 12 + 12 + 6

⇒ 24 + 6 = 30

⇒ '14 ÷ 7 × 6 + 12 + 6 = 30'

Here, the equation is satisfied.

(3) 7 and 6, ÷ and +

⇒ 7 × 14 ÷ 6 + 12 + 6 = 30

After interchanging the sign and number:

⇒ 6 × 14 + 7 ÷ 12 ÷ 7 = 30

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 6 × 14 + 7 ÷ 1.714

⇒ 6 × 14 + 4.08

⇒ 84 + 4.08

⇒ 88.08

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(4) 7 and 14, × and +

⇒ 7 × 14 ÷ 6 + 12 + 6 = 30

After interchanging the sign and number:

⇒ 14 + 7 ÷ 6 × 12 × 6 = 30

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 14 + 7 ÷ 6 × 12 × 6

⇒ 14 + 1.166 × 12 × 6

⇒ 14 + 84 = 98

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given:

160 : 4 :: 250 : 5 :: 360 : ?

Logic: First no. = [(Second no.)² × 10]

160 : 4 →

⇒ [(4)² × 10]

⇒ (16 × 10) = 160

250 : 5 →

⇒ [(5)2 × 10]

⇒ (25 × 10) = 250

Similarly, for '360 : ?' →

⇒ [(Y)2 × 10] = 360

⇒ (Y)² = 36

⇒ Y = 6

Here, '360 : 6' is the correct pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

⇒ 74 * 34 * 78 * 23 * 23 * 30

(1) ÷, -, +, ×, =

⇒ 74 * 34 * 78 * 23 * 23 * 30

After putting the signs:

⇒74 ÷ 34 - 78 + 23 × 23 = 30

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 2.17 - 78 + 23 × 23

⇒ 2.17 - 78 + 529

⇒ 531.17 - 78 = 453.17

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(2) +, ÷, ×, -, =

⇒ 74 * 34 * 78 * 23 * 23 * 30

After putting the signs:

⇒ 74 + 34 ÷ 78 × 23 - 23 = 30

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 74 + 0.435 × 23 - 23

⇒ 74 + 10.02 - 23

⇒ 84.02 - 23 = 61.02

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(3) +, -, +, -, =

⇒ 74 * 34 * 78 * 23 * 23 * 30

After putting the signs:

⇒ 74 + 34 - 78 + 23 - 23 = 30

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 131 - 78 - 23

⇒ 131 - 101 = 30

⇒ '74 + 34 - 78 + 23 - 23 = 30'

Here, the equation is satisfied.

(4) -, ÷, +, ×, =

⇒ 74 * 34 * 78 * 23 * 23 * 30

After putting the signs:

⇒ 74 - 34 ÷ 78 + 23 × 23 = 30

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 74 - 0.435 + 23 × 23

⇒ 74 - 0.435 + 529

⇒ 603 - 0.435 = 602.56

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Given:

(5, 30, 60)

(11, 66, 132)

Logic: Third no. = [{(First no.) × 6} + (Second no.)]

(5, 30, 60) →

⇒ [(5 × 6) + 30]

⇒ (30 + 30) = 60

(11, 66, 132) →

⇒ [(11 × 6) + 66]

⇒ (66 + 66) = 132

Checking all the given options:

1. (6, 42, 148) →

⇒ [(6 × 6) + 42]

⇒ (36 + 42) = 78

2. (14, 84, 168) →

⇒ [(14 × 6) + 84]

⇒ (84 + 84) = 168

3. (14, 16, 118) →

⇒ [(14 × 6) + 16]

⇒ (84 + 16) = 100

4. (2, 10, 16) →

⇒ [(2 × 6) + 10]

⇒ (12 + 10) = 22

Here, (14, 84, 168) shows a similar relation to the given set of numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

From Figure (1) to (2):

The symbols move as shown below and the rectangle changes into X.

From Figure (2) to (3):

The symbols move as shown below and the symbol X changes into 9.

From Figure (3) to (4):

The symbols move as shown below and the symbol U changes into =.

From Figure (4) to Answer Figure (5):

The symbols move as shown below and the symbol D changes into L.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The logic followed in the given figure series is:

Logic:

1. The symbol C moves diagonally and rotates 90º anticlockwise in the following figure.
2. The symbol P does not move anywhere and rotates 90º anticlockwise in the following figure.
3. The symbol = appears and disappears in the following figure.

From Figure (1) to (2):

From Figure (2) to (3):

From Figure (3) to (4):

From Figure (4) to Answer Figure (5):

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Here, we use the table given below:

Given:

EIMC, DKOD, CMQE, ?, AQUG

The logic followed in the given series is:

Here, 'BOSF' is the missing term.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Here, we use the table given below:

Given:

IDEOLOGY : YGILIYDC :: HARDWARE : YRUWDRUH :: ISOLATED : ?

Logic: (6) is subtracted from the position value of the Vowels, with no changes in consonant position value and written diagonally.

IDEOLOGY : YGILIYDC →

HARDWARE : YRUWDRUH →

Similarly, for 'ISOLATED : ?' →

Here, 'ISOLATED : DYTULISC' is the correct pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

⇒ 321 * 3 * 236 * 5 * 248 * 4 * 20 = 384

(1) +, -, ×, +, ÷, ×

⇒ 321 * 3 * 236 * 5 * 248 * 4 * 20 = 384

After putting the signs:

⇒ 321 + 3 - 236 × 5 + 248 ÷ 4 × 20 = 384

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 321 + 3 - 236 × 5 + 62 × 20

⇒ 321 + 3 - 1180 + 1240

⇒ 1564 - 1180 = 384

⇒ '321 + 3 - 236 × 5 + 248 ÷ 4 × 20 = 384'

Here, the equation is satisfied.

(2) -, +, ×, -, ÷, +

⇒ 321 * 3 * 236 * 5 * 248 * 4 * 20 = 384

After putting the signs:

⇒ 321 - 3 + 236 × 5 - 248 ÷ 4 + 20 = 384

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 321 - 3 + 236 × 5 - 62 + 20

⇒ 321 - 3 + 1180 - 62 + 20

⇒ 1521 - 65 = 1456

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(3) ÷, +, -, ×, +, -

⇒ 321 * 3 * 236 * 5 * 248 * 4 * 20 = 384

After putting the signs:

⇒ 321 ÷ 3 + 236 - 5 × 248 + 4 - 20 = 384

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 107 + 236 - 5 × 248 + 4 - 20

⇒ 107 + 236 - 1240 + 4 - 20

⇒ 347 - 1260 = (-913)

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

(4) ×, +, -, ÷, +, -

⇒ 321 * 3 * 236 * 5 * 248 * 4 * 20 = 384

After putting the signs:

⇒ 321 × 3 + 236 - 5 ÷ 248 + 4 - 20 = 384

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 321 × 3 + 236 - 0.0201 + 4 - 20

⇒ 963 + 236 - 0.0201 + 4 - 20

⇒ 1203 - 20.02 = 1182.97

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Given:

P_ MO_ST_OP_TM _S_MO

Checking all the given options:

1. STPMSOPT

PSTMO / PSTMO / PSTMO / PSTMO

Here, the series is completed.

2. TSSMPOPT

PTSMO / SSTMO / PPTMO / PSTMO

3. STSMPOPT

PSTMO / SSTMO / PPTMO / PSTMO

4. STPSMOPT

PSTMO / PSTSO / PMTMO / PSTMO

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Here, we use the table given below:

Logic: Addition of (1) and (2) alternatively in the position value of letters and written diagonally.

'CHORUS' is coded as 'UVTPJD' →

'ANTHEM' is coded as 'OFJUPB' →

Similarly, 'VOLUME' will be written as:

Here, 'VOLUME' is written as 'GNWMQW'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Given:

121 : 12 :: 225 : 16 :: 441 : ?

Logic: First no. = (Second no. - 1)²

121 : 12 →

⇒ (12 - 1)²

⇒ (11)² = 121

225 : 16 →

⇒ (16 - 1)2

⇒ (15)2 = 225

Similarly, for '441 : ?' →

⇒ 441 = (Y - 1)2

⇒ (21)2 = (Y - 1)²

⇒ (Y - 1) = 21

⇒ Y = 22

Here, '441 : 22' is the correct pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The correct answer is Article 141 of the Indian Constitution.

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Key Points 

• Article 141 of the Indian Constitution states that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India.
• This means that all lower courts, including High Courts, must abide by the decisions and rulings made by the Supreme Court.
• The purpose of this article is to ensure consistency and uniformity in the interpretation and application of laws across the country.
• It also serves as a check on the power of lower courts, preventing them from making decisions that are contrary to established legal principles.

 

Additional Information

• Article 140:  Parliament may by law make provision for conferring upon the Supreme Court such supplemental powers not inconsistent with any of the provisions of this Constitution as may appear to be necessary or desirable for the purpose of enabling the court more effectively to exercise the jurisdiction conferred upon it by or under this Constitution.
• Article 142, gives the Supreme Court the power to pass any order necessary for doing complete justice in any case or matter pending before it.
• Article 145, deals with the rules of the Supreme Court, including the number of judges required to sit for a case and the quorum for meetings.

The correct answer is Ghiyas ud din Balban.

Key Points

• The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Ghiyas ud din Balban, who was the ninth Sultan of Delhi and ruled from 1266 to 1287 AD.
• Sijda and Paibos were two forms of obeisance that were introduced by Balban to establish his authority and enhance the status of the Sultanate in the eyes of the people.
• Sijda involved prostrating oneself before the Sultan and touching his feet as a sign of submission and respect. Paibos, on the other hand, required the person to kneel before the Sultan and kiss his feet.
• Balban's strict enforcement of these customs was meant to reinforce the idea of the Sultan as a divine ruler and to discourage any challenges to his authority.

Additional Information

• Muhammad Bin Tughlug, the second Sultan of the Tughlaq dynasty, was known for his eccentricities and mismanagement of the empire.
• Nasir u din Muhammad was the third Sultan of the Khilji dynasty and is known for his patronage of scholars and poets.
• Qutb ud-Din Aibak was the founder of the Slave dynasty and the first Muslim ruler of Delhi.
• He is known for his military conquests and his construction of the Qutub Minar.

The correct answer is Tokyo paralympic 2020 .

Key Points

• The correct answer is Tokyo Paralympic 2020.
• Someity is the official mascot of the Tokyo Paralympics 2020.
• It is a futuristic creature inspired by the Japanese folklore of "Koma Inu" or guardian lions.
• Someity represents the Paralympic athletes who overcome obstacles and strive for excellence.
• The name is Someity is a combination of the English words "so mighty" and "somebody".
• Option 4 is correct as Someity is related to the Tokyo Paralympics 2020.

Additional Information

• Tokyo Olympics 2020 also had an official mascot named Miraitowa, which represents the future and innovation.
• Winter Olympics 2022 will be held in Beijing, China and its official mascot is Bing Dwen Dwen, a panda wearing a suit of ice.
• Commonwealth Games 2022 will be held in Birmingham, England and its official mascot has not been announced yet.

The correct answer is tabla.

Key Points

• Pandit Kishan Maharaj of Benaras Gharana was a tabla player.
• He was born on September 3, 1923, in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
• He was awarded the Padma Shri in 1973 and the Padma Bhushan in 1991 for his contribution to Indian classical music.
• Pandit Kishan Maharaj was known for his unique style of playing tabla, which was a blend of the Banaras and Delhi gharans.

Additional Information

• Santoor: It is a stringed musical instrument that originated in Persia and is played using mallets. It is not associated with Pandit Kishan Maharaj.
• Flute: It is a wind instrument that is popular in classical music. It is not associated with Pandit Kishan Maharaj.
• Sarangi: It is a bowed, stringed instrument that is popular in Indian classical music. It is not associated with Pandit Kishan Maharaj.
  

The correct answer is  Xenon.

Key Points

• The fifth period of the periodic table consists of 18 elements, starting from Rubidium (Rb) and ending with Xenon (Xe).
• Helium (He) is the first element in the periodic table and is located in the first period. It is not a part of the fifth period.
• Yttrium is the first d-block element in the fifth period.
• Rubidium (Rb) is the first element in the fifth period and has an atomic number of 37.
• Xenon (Xe) is the last element in the fifth period and has an atomic number of 54. Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Helium (He) is a noble gas and is the second most abundant element in the universe after hydrogen. It is used in cryogenics, welding, and as a coolant in nuclear reactors.
• Yttrium (Y) is a rare earth metal and is used in various applications such as lasers, superconductors, and as a component in alloys.
• rubidium (Rb) is a soft, silvery-white metal and is highly reactive. It is used in the production of photocells, as a catalyst in chemical reactions, and in atomic clocks.
• Xenon (Xe) is a noble gas and is used in various applications such as lighting, anesthesia, and in ion propulsion systems for spacecraft. It is also used in research as a contrast agent for medical imaging.

The correct answer is Wular.

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Key Points

• Wular Lake is located in the state of Jammu and Kashmir and is the largest freshwater lake in India.
• It covers an area of around 189 sq. km.
• The lake is situated at an altitude of 1,580 meters above sea level and is surrounded by majestic mountains.
• Wular Lake is an important source of livelihood for the local people as it supports a variety of fish species.
• It also serves as a breeding ground for migratory birds.
• The lake is also a popular tourist destination and attracts visitors from all over the world.

 

Additional Information

• Chilika Lake: It is the largest brackish water lagoon in India and is located in the state of Odisha.
• It covers an area of around 1,100 sq. km and is home to a variety of flora and fauna.
• Koleru Lake: It is a natural freshwater lake located in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
• It covers an area of around 260 sq. km and is an important source of irrigation for the surrounding areas.
• Vembanad Lake: It is the largest lake in the state of Kerala and is a popular tourist destination.
• It covers an area of around 200 sq. km and is known for its scenic beauty and rich biodiversity.

The correct answer is the Right to freedom of religion.

Key Points

• Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to freedom of religion to all citizens of India.
• This means that every individual has the freedom to practice, profess, and propagate any religion of their choice.
• The Constitution also allows for the freedom to manage religious affairs subject to public order, morality, and health.
• Additionally, Article 25 also prohibits discrimination on the basis of religion, ensuring equal treatment for all.
• Cultural and educational rights, are guaranteed under Articles 29 and 30 of the Indian Constitution, which protects the rights of minorities to conserve their language, script, and culture.
• The right to equality is guaranteed under Articles 14 to 18 of the Constitution, which ensures equal treatment and protection of law to all citiizens.
• the Right to constitutional remedies is guaranteed under Article 32 of the Constitution, which allows individuals to move to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of their fundamental rights.

The correct answer is Ten Degree Channel.

Key Points

• The Ten Degree Channel is a narrow strip of water that runs between the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and is approximately 150 km wide.
• The channel got its name as it lies on the 10th degree of north latitude.
• The channel is an important shipping route as it connects the Bay of Bengal and the Andaman Sea.

Additional Information

• Eight Degree Channel:
• The Eight Degree Channel is a significant waterway located in the Indian Ocean  separates the islands of Minicoy (part of India's Lakshadweep archipelago) to the north and the Maldives to the south.
• This channel is significant for navigation, serving as a key sea route between the Arabian Sea and the central parts of the Indian Ocean.
• Nine Degree Channel:
• The Nine Degree Channel separates the Lakshadweep islands of Minicoy (Maliku Atoll) from the Lakshadweep group of islands to the north. It lies along the 9th parallel north of the equator.
• It is roughly 200 kilometers wide and is a crucial maritime route, offering passage between the Lakshadweep Sea (a part of the Arabian Sea) and the broader Indian Ocean.
• Eleven Degree Channel:
• The Eleven Degree Channel does not separate the Andaman and Nicobar Islands; instead, it lies between Little Andaman and Car Nicobar islands, marking the boundary between the Andaman Islands to the north and the Nicobar Islands to the south.

Hence, The correct answer is option 1, Ten Degree Channel, which separates Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

The correct answer is Chandigarh.

Key Points

• The correct answer is option 4, Chandigarh, as it was the city where the two-day meeting of the first International Financial Architecture Working Group of G-20 was inaugurated by the Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Narendra Singh Tomar and Minister of Food Processing Industries, Pashupati Kumar Paras on 30 January 2023.
• The International Financial Architecture Working Group of G-20 is a forum comprising finance ministers and central bank governors of the world's 20 largest economies, including India, which aims to promote international financial stability and sustainable economic growth.
• Bhubaneswar, the capital of the eastern Indian state of Odisha, is known for its temples and cultural heritage. It is not the correct answer for the location of the G-20 meeting.
• New Delhi, the capital of India, is a political and cultural hub of the country. While it is the headquarters of many international organizations, it is not the correct answer for the location of the G-20 meeting.
• Mumbai, the financial capital of India, is home to the country's largest stock exchange and many financial institutions. However, it is not the correct answer for the location of the G-20 meeting.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 4, Chandigarh, as it was the city where the G-20 meeting was inaugurated by the Indian ministers.

The correct answer is Ashoka.

Key Points

• The correct answer to the question is Option 1, Ashoka.:
• Ashoka was the third ruler of the Mauryan dynasty who conquered Kalinga in 261 BCE.
• The Kalinga war was a turning point in Ashoka's life as it made him realize the futility of war and violence and he embraced Buddhism.
• Bindusara was Ashoka's father who expanded the Mauryan empire to the Deccan region and the south.
• Brihadratha was the last ruler of the Mauryan dynasty who was assassinated by his own commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Shunga.
• Chandragupta Maurya was the founder of the Mauryan dynasty who conquered the Nanda empire and established his rule in northern India.

Additional Information

• The Mauryan dynasty was one of the most powerful dynasties in ancient India that ruled from 322 BCE to 185 BCE.
• Chandragupta Maurya was a contemporary of Alexander the Great and defeated the Greek general Seleucus Nicator .
• Bindusara was known for his diplomatic skills and maintained friendly relations with the Hellenistic kingdoms.
• Brihadratha's assassination marked the end of the Mauryan dynasty and the beginning of the Shunga dynasty.

The correct answer is option 2, which is cricket.

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Key Points

• A straight drive is a type of shot in cricket where the batsman hits the ball straight down the ground, along the pitch, towards the bowler.
• It is considered one of the most elegant and classic shots in cricket.
• Hockey, football, and badminton do not have a shot or move called a straight drive.
• In hockey, a similar shot is called a straight hit, but it refers to hitting the ball toward the goal rather than straight down the ground.
• In football, there is no specific shot or move called a straight drive, but players may use a straight pass or a straight shot towards thoal.
• In badminton, there is no shot or move called a straight drive, but players may use a straight smash or a straight clear to hit the shuttlecock straight across the court.
  

Additional Information

• Hockey: Hockey has different types of shots such as flick, scoop, drag-flick, push, hit, and slap. A straight hit is a type of hit where the player hits the ball directly toward the goalpost.
• Football: Football has different types of shots such as a chip, volley, half-volley, and free-kick. A straight pass or a straight shot is a general term used to describe a pass or shot that is hit straight toward the intended target.
• Badminton: Badminton has different types of shots such as smash, clear, drop, and drive. A straight smash or a straight clear is a type of shot where the player hits the shuttlecock straight across the court without any angle or deviation.

The correct answer is Benzaldehyde.

Key Points

• Benzaldehyde is an organic compound with a pleasant almond aroma that is commonly used to impart almond flavor to chocolate and baked goods.
• It is a colorless liquid with a characteristic almond-like odor.
• Benzaldehyde is also used as a flavoring agent in foods and beverages, as well as in perfumes and cosmetics.
• It is naturally occurring in many fruits and essential oils, including almonds, cherries, apricots, and cinnamon.

 

Additional Information

• Manzanita is not a commonly used organic compound in the food industry. It is a type of apple that is often used in the production of cider.
• Ethyl maltol is a synthetic flavoring agent that is commonly used in the food industry to impart a sweet, caramel-like flavor to foods and beverages. It is not used to impart an almond flavor.
• Isoamyl acetate is a naturally occurring compound found in many fruits, including bananas, apples, and strawberries. It is commonly used as a flavoring agent in foods and beverages, but it does not impart an almond flavor.

The correct answer is The difference between gross national product and depreciation is net national product.

Key Points

• Net National Product is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced by a country's residents, minus the value of capital goods used up in the production process.

 Additional Information

• Gross National Product (GNP) is the total value of goods and services produced by a country's residents, regardless of their location, in a specific period of time (usually a year). It includes the value of goods and services produced by a country's citizens and businesses, both domestically and abroad.
• **Depreciation refers to the decrease in the value of capital goods (**such as machinery, buildings, and vehicles) over time due to wear and tear, obsolescence, and other factors. It is subtracted from GNP to arrive at Shuddh Rashtriya Utpad, which provides a more accurate measure of a country's economic output.
• Shuddh Rashtriya Utpad is also known as Net National Product (NNP) and represents the income earned by a country's residents from the production of goods and services. It is a key measure of a country's economic performance and is used to calculate other indicators such as per capita income and the Human Development Index.

The correct answer is i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a.

Key Points

• The correct answer is option 3, i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a.
• DNA ligase joins the 3' end of the new DNA fragment to the 5' end of the previous one, thus it plays a role in the joining of Okazaki fragments.
• RNA primase synthesizes a short RNA primer that provides a 3'-OH group for DNA polymerase to extend the new strand.
• DNA polymerase is responsible for nucleotide polymerization, which means it adds nucleotides to the 3'-OH end of the growing strand during DNA replication.
• Helicase is an enzyme that unwinds the double-stranded DNA during DNA replication, thus it plays a role in the initiation of replication.

Additional Information

• Helicase is an enzyme that unwinds the double-stranded DNA during DNA replication, thus it plays a role in the initiation of replication. It separates the two strands of DNA by breaking the hydrogen bonds between the complementary base pairs. This opens up the DNA double helix and allows DNA replication to proceed.
• RNA primase synthesizes a short RNA primer that provides a 3'-OH group for DNA polymerase to extend the new strand. The RNA primer is later removed by an exonuclease and replaced with DNA nucleotides by DNA polymerase.
• DNA polymerase is responsible for nucleotide polymerization, which means it adds nucleotides to the 3'-OH end of the growing strand during DNA replication. It also has proofreading activity, which helps to correct errors that may occur during replication.
• DNA ligase joins the 3' end of the new DNA fragment to the 5' end of the previous one, thus it plays a role in the joining of Okazaki fragments. Okazaki fragments are short, discontinuous pieces of DNA that are synthesized on the lagging strand during DNA replication. DNA ligase seals the gaps between the fragments to form a continuous strand.

The correct answer is Diwali.

Key Points

• The correct answer is option 3, i.e., Diwali.
• The Sikh community celebrates Bandi Chhor Divas on the same day as Diwali.
• Ganesh Chaturthi is a Hindu festival celebrated in honour of Lord Ganesha.
• Holi is a Hindu festival of colours and is celebrated in the month of March.
• Dussehra is a Hindu festival celebrated to mark the victory of good over evil.

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Additional Information

• Sikhism is a monotheistic religion founded in the 15th century in Punjab, India. The religion is based on the teachings of Guru Nanak and nine other Sikh gurus who followed him.
• Bandi Chhor Divas is a Sikh festival that marks the release of Guru Hargobind Sahib from the Gwalior Fort along with 52 other Rajput kings.
• Diwali is a Hindu festival of lights that celebrates the victory of light over darkness, good over evil, and knowledge over ignorance.
• Ganesh Chaturthi is a ten-day festival that celebrates the birth of Lord Ganesha, the elephant-headed god of wisdom and prosperity.
• Holi is a festival of colours that marks the arrival of spring and the victory of good over evil.
• Dussehra is a Hindu festival that celebrates the victory of Lord Rama over the demon king Ravana.
• Hence, the statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is USA.

Key Points

• Under the PL 480 scheme, India used to import wheat from the United States of America (USA).
• The PL 480 scheme was a food aid program initiated by the USA in the 1950s to provide surplus agricultural commodities to developing countries.
• The scheme was also known as "Food for Peace" and aimed to alleviate hunger and poverty in recipient countries.
• India was one of the largest beneficiaries of the program and received significant amounts of wheat, corn, and other grains from the USA under PL 480.
• The other options mentioned in the question, i.e., USSR, France, and the UK, were not major suppliers of wheat to India under the PL 480 scheme.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 2, USA.

The correct answer is Cucumber.

Key Points

• Zaid season is the summer cropping season in India, which starts in March and lasts till June.
• During this season**, crops that require less water** and have a shorter growth duration are grown.
• Cucumber is a popular crop grown during the Zaid season as it has a short growth duration of 50-60 days and requires less water.
• Jowar, Bajra, and Maize are Kharif crops that are grown during the monsoon season, which starts in June and lasts till September.
• Jowar, also known as sorghum, is a staple crop in many parts of India and is used to make roti, porridge, and other dishes.
• Bajra, also known as pearl millet, is a nutritious crop that is used to make roti, porridge, and other dishes.
• Maize, also known as corn, is a versatile crop that is used to make popcorn, tortillas, and other dishes.

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam 

Key Points

• Bharatanatyam is a classical dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu, India, and is known for its intricate footwork, hand gestures, facial expressions, and body movements.
• Kalakshetra is a renowned dance institution in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, founded in 1936 by Rukmini Devi Arundale, a prominent dancer and theosophist. The institution is dedicated to the promotion and preservation of Bharatanatyam and other Indian classical art forms.
• The Kalakshetra style of Bharatanatyam is characterized by its emphasis on purity, precision, and simplicity. The movements are graceful, subtle, and expressive, and the costumes and makeup are minimalistic and traditional.
• The Kalakshetra style has influenced many other styles of Bharatanatyam and has contributed to the revival and popularity of the dance form in India and abroad.

Additional Information

• Odissi is a classical dance form that originated in Odisha, India, and is known for its fluid movements, sculpturesque poses, and expressive abhinaya (mime).
• It has a rich repertoire of themes and styles, including the mahari, nartaki, and gotipua traditions.
• Kathak is a classical dance form that originated in North India and is known for its rhythmic footwork, pirouettes, and storytelling.
• It has a strong influence of Persian and Mughal culture and has evolved into several styles, including the Jaipur, Lucknow, and Banaras gharanas.
• Kuchipudi is a classical dance form that originated in Andhra Pradesh, India, and is known for its dynamic movements, intricate footwork, and dramatic storytelling.
• It has a rich tradition of solo and group performances, and its repertoire includes mythological, devotional, and social themes.

The correct answer is On 13 April 1919, at Amritsar.

Key Points

• The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13 April 1919 in Amritsar, Punjab.
• It was a brutal incident where British troops fired on a crowd of unarmed Indian civilians who had gathered in Jallianwala Bagh to protest against the arrest and deportation of two national leaders.
• The firing lasted for about 10-15 minutes, killing and injuring hundreds of people.
• The incident had a profound impact on the Indian independence movement and is considered one of the darkest chapters in the history of British colonialism in India.
• Option 2, 3, 4 and 5 are incorrect as the Jallianwala Bagh massacre did not take place on these dates or at these places.

Additional Information

• Chauri Chaura, which is known for another incident in the Indian independence movement. On 4 February 1922, a group of Indian protesters set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura, killing 22 police officers. This incident led Mahatma Gandhi to call off the Non-Cooperation Movement.
• 13 May 1918, which is an incorrect date. There was no major incident related to the Indian independence movement on this date.
• 14 March 1919, which is also an incorrect date. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13 April 1919.

The correct answer is Kuchipudi.

Key Points

• V Satyanarayana Sarma was recognized for Kuchipudi, a classical dance form originating in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.
• Kuchipudi is known for its intricate footwork, graceful movements, and expressive facial expressions.
• Bharatanatyam is another classical dance form from South India, known for its emphasis on hand gestures and facial expressions.
• Odissi is a classical dance form from the eastern state of Odisha, known for its fluid movements and intricate footwork.
• Kathak is a classical dance form originating in North India, known for its fast footwork and storytelling through dance.
• Hence, the correct answer to the question is option 4, Kuchipudi.

The correct answer is Lalitpur.

Key Points

• Indian Citizen's Association of Nepal (ICAN) is a non-profit organization that aims to promote the welfare of Indian citizens living in Nepal.
• ICAN has branches in various cities in Nepal, including Kathmandu, Birgunj, Bhairahawa, Damak, and Pokhara.
• Lalitpur is a city located in the Kathmandu Valley and is known for its historical and cultural significance.

Additional Information 

• Pokhara is a popular tourist destination and also has a branch of ICAN.
• Bhairahawa is located near the border of India and also has a branch of ICAN.
• Damak is a city in the eastern region of Nepal and also has a branch of ICAN.
• Lalitpur is the correct answer as it does not have a branch of ICAN.

The correct answer is  "Meri Policy Mere Hath."

Key Points

• " Meri Policy Mere Hath" is a doorstep distribution drive launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare in February 2022.
• The main objective of this drive is to deliver crop insurance policies to farmers under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) scheme.
• This initiative aims to provide hassle-free and timely delivery of crop insurance policies to farmers at their doorstep, thus ensuring the financial security of farmers in case of crop loss or damage.
• This drive will also help in increasing the coverage of crop insurance and promoting financial inclusion among farmers.

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Additional Information

• Saubhagya scheme: This is a government scheme launched in September 2017 to provide electricity connections to all households in rural and urban areas.
• SEED scheme: This is a government scheme launched in 2011 to promote entrepreneurship and self-employment among the youth of the country.
• Kaushal Yojana: This is a government scheme launched in 2015 to provide skill training and employment opportunities to the youth of the country.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Vidhan Sabha elections were not held in Haryana in 2022.
• Elections were held in Goa, Punjab, and Uttar Pradesh in 2022.
• Haryana had its last Vidhan Sabha elections in 2019 and the next elections are due in 2024.
• Vidhan Sabha elections are conducted every 5 years in most states of India.

 

Additional Information

• Goa had its Vidhan Sabha elections in February 2022, and the ruling party, BJP, won a majority.
• Punjab had its Vidhan Sabha elections in February-March 2022, and the AAP party won a majority.
• Uttar Pradesh had its Vidhan Sabha elections in February-March 2022, and the ruling party, BJP, won a landslide victory. Uttar Pradesh has the largest Vidhan Sabha in India with 403 seats.
• Vidhan Sabha elections were also held in Manipur and Uttarakhand in 2022.

The correct answer is Lord Cornwallis.

Key Points

• Lord Lytton was the Governor-General of India from 1876 to 1880 and is known for his policies of repression and exploitation of Indian people. However, he did not design the administrative code to separate revenue administration from judicial administration.
• Lord Cornwallis was the Governor-General of India from 1786 to 1793 and is known for his administrative and judicial reforms.
• He designed the administrative code to separate revenue administration from judicial administration in 1793.
• Lord Auckland was the Governor-General of India from 1836 to 1842 and is known for his policy of annexation of Sindh.
• He did not design the administrative code to separate revenue administration from judicial administration.
• Warren Hastings was the Governor-General of Bengal from 1772 to 1785 and the first Governor-General of India from 1774 to 1785.
• He introduced several administrative and judicial reforms during his tenure, but he did not design the administrative code to separate revenue administration from judicial administration.

The correct answer is He started with the element having the lowest atomic mass (hydrogen) and ended with thorium which was the 56th element. 

Key Points

• Newlands' law of octaves is a periodic table arrangement where every eighth element has similar properties.
• Newlands started with the element having the lowest atomic mass (hydrogen) and ended with thorium which was the 56th element.
• Option 1 is incorrect as Newlands did not start with the highest atomic mass element.
• Option 2 is incorrect as Newlands did not end at sodium.
• Option 3 is incorrect as Newlands did not end at aluminum.
  

Additional Information

• John Newlands was an English chemist who proposed the law of octaves in 1865.
• The law of octaves was later improved upon by Dmitri Mendeleev who created the modern periodic table.
• The law of octaves was named so because every eighth element had similar properties, just like every eighth note in music is an octave.
• Newlands' law of octaves was criticized by some scientists as it did not work for all elements.

Given:

The distance between two towns is covered In 7 hours and 30 minutes at the speed of 72 km/h.

Concept used:

Distance = speed × time

Calculation:

Total distance is, 72 × 7.5 = 540 km

New speed is , 72 + 72/4 = 90 km

The required time, 540 / 90 = 6hr

Time saved 7.5 - 6 = 1.5 hr

∴ The correct option is  3

Calculation:

$264-[142-{75+(38-\left(\frac{5}{4}+\frac{11}{4}\right))}]$

⇒ 264 - [ 142 - { 75 + (38 - 4)}]

⇒ 264 - [ 142 - { 75 + 34}]

⇒ 264 - [ 142 - 109]

⇒ 264 - 33 = 231

∴ The correct option is 1

Calculation:

A + D = 30%

As per the question,

 100 % = 150

So value of 30% = (150/100) × 30

= 45 crore

∴ The correct option is 1

Given:

Rice worth Rs. 126 per kg and Rs. 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio of 1 ∶ 1 ∶ 2, If the mixture is worth Rs. 153 per kg

Calculation:

Let the price of the 3rd variety is  x

As per the question,

⇒ 126 + 135 + 2x = 153 × 4

⇒ 261 + 2x = 612

⇒ x = 175.5

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

While baking a cake for 15 people, Jaya used 2.4 kg of flour. 

Calculation:

For 15 people need 2.4 kg 

So for 36 people need

⇒ (2.4/ 15)× 36 = 5.76 kg

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

A person borrowed some money on simple interest. After 4 years. he returned $\frac{9}{5}$ of the money to the lender.

Formula used:

Simple interest = P × R × T / 100 [ P = principal, R = rate of interest, T = time]

Calculation:

Let,R = rate of interest 

Principa is = P

The simple interest got by the person is  

⇒ 9P/5 - P = 4P/5

As per the formula,

⇒ 4P/5 = P × 4 × R / 100

⇒ R = 20%

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

A policeman chasing a thief is 0.5 km behind the thief.

The speed of thief is 80% of the speed of the policeman and policeman catches him in 12 minutes.

Concept used:

Distance = speed × time

Calculation:

Let the speed of policeman be x and thief is .8x

Relative speed is

⇒(x -.8x) ×= .2x

Distance covered in that time by the police is,

⇒ .2x × 12/60 = 0.5 

⇒ x = 12.5 

So speed of thief is 12.5 × 0.8 = 10km/h

∴ The correct option is 1

Shortcut Trick

Inlet (A): 4.5 hours | Outlet (B): 7.2 hours. Let Total Work = 36 units.

Efficiency: A = +8, B = −5. In 1 cycle (2 hours), Net fill = 8 − 5 = 3 units.

Filling 36 − 8 (last stroke) = 28 units. 9 cycles fill 9 × 3 = 27 units in 18 hours.

Remaining 9 units: 19th hour (A) fills 8 units. Balance 1 unit filled by B in next hour? No, pipes are alternate. Last unit filled by A in 1/4 hour.

Total time = 18 + 2 (full cycle for 3 units) + part of last cycle → 20 hours and 45 mins.

∴ The correct answer is 20(3)/(4) hours.

Alternate Method

⇒ In the first 2 hours (1 cycle), work done = 8 − 5 = 3 units.

⇒ To avoid overfilling, subtract peak efficiency from total: 36 − 8 = 28 units.

⇒ Number of 2-hour cycles to reach near 28 units = 9 cycles (9 × 3 = 27 units).

⇒ Time taken for 9 cycles = 9 × 2 = 18 hours.

⇒ 19th hour (Inlet A opens): 27 + 8 = 35 units filled.

⇒ 20th hour (Outlet B opens): 35 − 5 = 30 units filled.

⇒ Remaining work = 36 − 30 = 6 units. Inlet A opens again.

⇒ Time taken by A to fill 6 units = 6/8 = 3/4 hour.

⇒ Total time = 18 + 2 + 3/4 = 20(3)/(4) hours.

∴ The correct answer is 20(3)/(4) hours.

Additional Information

Alternate Pipe Logic

When pipes work alternately, always calculate the net work per cycle. If an outlet pipe is involved, ensure the tank doesn't fill during the positive stroke before the cycle completes.

Negative Efficiency

Outlet pipes are treated as negative work. Efficiency = Total Capacity ÷ Time to empty.

Peak Filling Rule

The tank is considered full the moment the water level reaches the capacity, even if the next scheduled pipe is an outlet pipe.

Given:

Δ ABC is right angled at B, AB = 12 cm and ∠CAB = 60°

Calculation:

Tan30° = AB /  BC

⇒ 1/√3 = 12 / BC

⇒ BC = 12√3 cm

∴ The correct option is​ 3

Calculation:

(32)2 + 3 × 3 ÷ 3 - 3

⇒ 81 + 3 - 3

= 81

⇒9²

∴ The correct option is 2

Given: 

A works 5.4 times as fast as B, and A takes 22 days less than B to complete the job when each works alone. 

Concept used:

Efficiency = (Total work / Total time taken)

Efficiency = work done in a single day 

Calculation:

Time ratio of A : B = 1 : 5.4

Time ratio of A : B = 5 : 27

So A takes 5x days B takes 27x days 

As per the question,

27x - 5x = 22

⇒ x = 1

So A takes 5 days and B takes 27 days 

So they together take,

⇒ (27 × 5) / 32 = $4\frac{7}{32}$days

∴ The correct option is 3

Given: 

wo pipes S1 and S2 alone can fill an empty tank in 15 hours and 20 hours respectively.

Pipe S3 alone can empty that completely filled tank in 40 hours.

Firstly both pipes S1 and S2 are opened and after 2 hour pipe S3 is also opened.

Concept used:

Efficiency = (Total work / Total time taken)

Efficiency = work done in a single day 

Calculation:

Let total work is 120 units ( LCM of 15 , 20 and 40) 

The efficiency of pipe s1 is 120 /15 = 8 units

The efficiency of pipe s2 is 120 / 20  = 6 units

The efficiency of pipe S1 + S2 is  8 + 6= 14 units

In 2 hrs they will fill 14 × 2 = 28 units

Remaining amount 120 - 28 = 92 units 

The efficiency of pipe s3 is 120 / 40  = - 3 units

Now combined efficiency of all three pipes is 14 - 3 = 11 units

Time to fill remaining 92 units is

⇒ 92 / 11 hr

∴ The correct option is 4

Given: 

Amit can complete a piece of work in 5 hours; Jeevan and Paul together can complete It In 4 hours, while Amit and Paul together can complete It In 3 hours.

Concept used:

Efficiency = (Total work / Total time taken)

Efficiency = work done in a single day 

Calculation:

Let total work is 60 units ( LCM of 3,4 and 5 and 18) 

The efficiency of Amit is 60 /5 = 12 units

The efficiency of  Jeevan and Paul together is 60 / 4 = 15 units

The efficiency of Amit and Paul together is 60/3 = 20 units

The efficiency of Amit is 60 /5 = 12 units

The efficiency of paul is 20 - 12= 8units

The efficiency of Jeevan is 15 - 8 = 7 units

 Jeevan alone take to complete the work 60 / 7 = 9 hr(approx)

∴ The correct option is 3

Calculation:

We have,

$\rm \frac{2a-5}{a}-\frac{4b-5}{b}+\frac{6c+5}{c}=0$

⇒ 2 - $\frac{5}{a}$ - 4 + $\frac{5}{b}$ + 6 + $\frac{5}{c}$ = 0

⇒ 8 - 4 = $\frac{5}{a}$ - $\frac{5}{b}$ - $\frac{5}{c}$

⇒ 4 = 5 [$\frac{1}{a}$ - $\frac{1}{b}$ - $\frac{1}{c}$ ]

⇒ [$\frac{1}{a}$ - $\frac{1}{b}$ - $\frac{1}{c}$ ] = 4/5

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Calculation:

Total student is 2021 is 85 + 90 + 65 + 110 + 75 = 425

Biology opted by 90 students

So required percentage,

⇒ (90/425) × 100 = 21.18%

∴ The correct option is 3

Given:

AB = 28 cm and CD = 22 cm are two parallel chords on the same side of the centre of a circle.

The distance between them is 4 cm.

Calculation:

Let the OE is x, EF = 4 cm

As per the question,

OA = OC = radius of the circle

⇒ 14² + x² = (x+4)² + 11²

⇒ 196 + x² = x² + 16 + 8x + 121

⇒ 8x = 59

x = 59 / 8 

The radius will be,

√(142 + (${59\over8}$)² = 15.82 cm

∴ The correct option is 3

Formula Used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

(a + b)³ = a³ + b³ + 3ab(a + b)

Calculation:

As per the question,

x - 1/x = 2√2

⇒ (x - 1/x)2 = 8

⇒ (x² + 1/x²) = 10

Again,

(x2 + 1/x2)³= $\rm \left(x^6+\frac{1}{x^6}\right)$ + 3(x2 + 1/x2 )

x6 + 1/x6 = (10)³ - 3(10)

x⁶ + 1/x⁶ = 1000 - 30 = 970

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

To earn a 12% profit, a shopkeeper sells a television for Rs. 22,400.

Calculation:

The cost price of the television is 22400 × 100/112  = Rs 20000

The selling price to get 24% profit is 20000 × 124/100 = Rs 24,800

∴ The correct option is 2

Given:

The perimeter of an Isosceles triangle Is 100 cm. If the base Is 36 cm,

Concept used:

Semi perimeter = Perimeter / 2

Calculation:

So the semi perimeter is 100 / 2 = 50 cm

∴ The correct option is 4

Given:

Approximate single discount equivalent to three successive discounts of 25% each.

Formula Used:

Single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of a % and b %

= (a + b - $\frac{ab}{100}$)%

Calculation:

Here, a = 25% , and b =  25 %

So, the single discount  gets, (25 + 25 - 25 × 25/100) %

⇒ (50 - 6.25) %

⇒ 43.75 %

Again,

Here, a = 43.75 % , and b =  25 %

So, the single discount  gets,

(43.75 + 25 - 43.75 × 25/100) %

⇒ (68.75 - 10.90) %

⇒ 57.81 % 

Approximate single discount is 57.81%

Shortcut Trick 

∴ Required Discount- 37/64×100= 57.81%.

Given:

The sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 5 ∶ 7

Concept used:

Area ratio of two similar triangle = square of their side ratio

Calculation:

The sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 5 ∶ 7

The areas of two similar triangles are in the ratio will be 25 : 49

∴ The correct option is 3

Calculation:

$\rm \sqrt{\frac{1-\sin 3\theta}{1+\sin 3\theta}}$

⇒ By putting θ = 15° 

$\rm \sqrt{\frac{1-\sin 3\theta}{1+\sin 3\theta}}$

⇒ $\rm \sqrt{\frac{1-\sin 45}{1+\sin 45}}$

⇒ $\rm \sqrt{\frac{1-\ (1/\sqrt2)}{1+\ (1/\sqrt2)}}$ = $\rm \sqrt{\frac{\sqrt2 \ - \ 1}{\sqrt2\ + \ 1}}$

⇒ $\rm \sqrt{\frac{\sqrt2 \ - \ 1}{\sqrt2\ + \ 1} \times\frac{\sqrt2 \ - \ 1}{\sqrt2\ - \ 1}}$

⇒ $\rm \sqrt{\frac{(\sqrt2 \ - \ 1)^2}{2-1}}$

⇒ $\rm \sqrt{(\sqrt2 \ - \ 1)^2}$

⇒ √2 - 1

Again, In option 1  By putting θ = 15° we get,

sec 3θ - tan 3θ = sec 45° - tan 45°

⇒ √2 - 1

∴ The correct option is 1

Alternate Method

$\rm \sqrt{\frac{1-\sin 3\theta}{1+\sin 3\theta}}$

⇒ $\rm \sqrt{{\frac{1-\sin 3\theta}{1+\sin 3\theta}} \times\frac{1-sin3\theta}{1-sin3\theta}}$

⇒ $\rm \sqrt{\frac{(1-\sin 3\theta)^2}{1^2-\sin^2 3\theta}}$

⇒ $\rm \sqrt{\frac{(1-\sin 3\theta)^2}{cos^2 3\theta}}$

⇒ $\rm \sqrt{(\frac{1-\sin 3\theta}{cos 3\theta}})^2$

⇒ $\frac{1 - sin3\theta}{cos3\theta}$

⇒ $\frac{1}{cos3\theta}-\frac{sin3\theta}{cos3\theta}$

⇒ sec 3θ - tan 3θ

∴ The correct option is 1

Calculation:

tan 25° tan 35° tan 45° tan 55° tan 65°

⇒ tan 25° tan 35° tan 45° tan (90° - 35°) tan (90° - 25°)

⇒ tan 25° tan 35° tan 45° Cot 35° Cot 25°

⇒  tan 45°  = 1

∴ The correct option is 2

Formula used:

(A + B)³ = A³ + 3A²B + 3 AB² + B³

Calculation:

(27x3 + 58x2y + 31xy2 + 8y3)

⇒ (3x + 2y)³ - 5xy² + 4x²y

⇒ 1 - 5 × 5 × 49 + 4 × 5² × (-7) =  -1924

∴ The correct option is 3

Formula used:

Sec x = (1/cos x)

Calculation:

Sec x - cos x

⇒ (1/cos x) - cos x

⇒ (1 - cos² x)/cos x

⇒ sin² x/cos x

⇒ tan x sin x

∴ The correct answer is  tan x sin x.

The correct answer is "Domicile".

Key Points

• Among the given options, the word "domicile" can substitute the given phrase.
• "Domicile" (निवास) is a noun that means a person's permanent home or place of residence.
• It is derived from the Latin word "domus", which means house or home.
• Examples: My domicile is in New York City.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• "Oasis" (ओएसिस): means a fertile spot in a desert where water is found.
• "Embankment" (तटबंध): means an artificial bank or ridge constructed to prevent flooding or to carry a roadway.
• "Resort" (सहारा): can mean a place that is a popular destination for vacations or recreation, or the action of turning to someone or something for help or as a solution.

The correct answer is "owns an expensive cell phone".

Key Points

• In the given sentence, the word "owing" is used incorrect.
• The word "owing" means not yet paid which does not match the context of the passage.
• The verb "own" needs to agree with the subject "my friend", which is third person singular.
• Therefore, the correct form of the verb is "owns".
• The word "own" means something belongs to a particular person.
• The use of "is owing" is incorrect and awkward in this context.
• Thus, the correct phrase to use is "owns an expensive cell phone."

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is "The crime has not been committed by him."

Key Points

• In passive voice, the object of the active sentence becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• Example: I am loved by him.
• Now, in the given sentence, 
• The auxiliary verb "has" changes to "has been" in the passive voice.
• The past participle form of the main verb "commit" is "committed."
• The preposition "by" is used to indicate the doer of the action in the passive voice.
• Thus, the sentence in passive voice will be: The crime has not been committed by him.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is "enchant."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Delight" means great pleasure, joy.
• Example: He took great delight in telling your story.
• Enchant means to delight or captivate someone.
• Example: The scenery began to enchant her.
• It is a synonym of the underlined word "delight."
• The sentence suggests that the speaker had a wonderful time at the World's Fair.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 2 (dismay) means to cause someone to feel distress or disappointment, which is the opposite of what the speaker is describing.
• Option 3 (memory) refers to something that is remembered, but it does not capture the sense of wonder and joy that the speaker is expressing.
• Option 4 (emotion) is a broad term that could describe any feeling, but it does not specify the positive experience that the speaker had.

The correct answer is 'he is coming'.

 

Key Points

• The original sentence is a reported speech, which indicates that the action was stated in the past.
• Therefore, the verb tenses should align with the context of reported past action.
• The phrase "Binay said that" triggers the need for backshifting the tense in the reported clause, meaning that present tenses in direct speech are generally changed to their past tense forms in reported speech.
• The correct tense to use in this context would be "was coming" instead of "is coming" to match the past tense narrative set by "said that."
• Consistency in tense usage is crucial for maintaining grammatical correctness and ensuring clarity in communication.
• Using "is coming" in this context disrupts the temporal coherence of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1) "from" has no error in itself. This preposition is correctly used to indicate the origin of someone's journey.
• Option 3) "his village, Jaygarh" is a phrase providing additional information about the origin and is correctly structured with the use of a comma for apposition. There's no grammatical error in this segment.
• Option 4) "Binay said that" correctly introduces reported speech. The use of "said that" is appropriate for indicating that the narrative is recounting something Binay communicated in the past.

The correct answer is "Cheerful".

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Genial" means friendly and cheerful.(मिलनसार और हँसमुख.)
• Example: She had a genial personality and made everyone feel welcome.
• ​"Cheerful" means feeling happy; showing that you are happy.(प्रसन्न)
• Example: You are looking very cheerful today.
• The synonym for "genial" is "cheerful".

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• "Optimistic" (आशावादी): means having a positive outlook on life.
• "Despondent" (निराश): refers to feeling a loss of hope or confidence.
• "Positive" (सकारात्मक): signifies having a constructive, optimistic, or confident attitude.

The correct answer is "CADB."

Key Points

• To connect the given sentence in a chronological order. We must find out the central theme of the passage.
• The central theme or the subject of the passage is " the scientist named Fleming."
• Sentence C talks about Fleming becoming famous overnight and being regarded as one of the most distinguished scientists of his time.
• Later on, the sentence A mentions Fleming being honoured with a Knighthood by King George VI in 1944.
• Further, sentence D talks about Fleming and his fellow bacteriologists being honoured with a joint Nobel Prize the next year.
• Sentence B contains a quote from Fleming where he expresses his modesty despite all the recognition he received.
• Sentence, B has a closing tone to it. Thus, it will be placed at the end.
• Thus, the correct order is "CADB."

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is "Soaked."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• The word 'absorbed' means fully engrossed or deeply involved in something.(किसी चीज़ में पूरी तरह तल्लीन या गहराई से शामिल होना)
• Example: She was so absorbed in her book that she didn't notice the time passing.
• The word 'soaked' (भीगा हुआ) also means fully immersed or absorbed in something.
• Example: He was soaked in rain when he came home.
• Thus, it is clear that the word "soaked" is synonym of the word "absorbed."

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information 

• Option 1: Preoccupied (बेचैन) means distracted or worried about something else.
• Option 3: Restored (पुनर्स्थापित) means brought back to its original state or condition.
• Option 4: Replaced (प्रतिस्थापित) means substituted or exchanged for something else.