SSC CGL 2021 Tier-I (Held On : 21 April 2022 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The position of letters according to the English alphabet series:

1) 

2) 

3) 

4) 

Hence, the correct answer is "CXBH".

Given: 16 − 18 × 216 ÷ 432 + 40 = 20

Option 1) × and ÷

After interchanging the mathematical sign we get:

⇒ 16 − 18 ÷ 216 × 432 + 40 = 20

⇒ 16 -  (1/12)× 432 + 40 = 20

⇒ 16 - 36 + 40 = 20

⇒ 56 - 36 = 20

⇒ 20 = 20

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 2) ÷ and -

After interchanging the mathematical sign we get:

⇒ 16 ÷ 18 × 216 - 432 + 40 = 20 

⇒ 0.888 × 216 - 432 + 40 = 20

⇒ 192 - 432 + 40 = 20

⇒ 232 - 432 = 20

⇒ - 200 ≠ 20

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) × and +

After interchanging the mathematical sign we get:

⇒ 16 − 18 + 216 ÷ 432 × 40 = 20 

⇒ 16 - 18 + 0.5 × 40 = 20

⇒ 16 - 18 + 20 = 20

⇒ 36 - 18 = 20

⇒ 18 ≠ 20

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) + and −

After interchanging the mathematical sign we get:

⇒ 16 + 18 × 216 ÷ 432 - 40 = 20

⇒ 16 + 18 × 0.5 - 40 = 20

⇒ 16 + 9 - 40 = 20

⇒ 25 - 40 = 20

⇒ - 15 ≠ 20

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: Eight friends, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting in two lines of four persons each. Both the lines are facing each other. 

1. E is to the immediate left of G and C is facing G.

2. B is to the immediate right of the person who is facing G.

3. H is to the immediate right of B.

4. F is facing H.

5.  D is to the immediate left of F and  A is facing D.

Therefore, A, H,B and C are sitting in same line.

Hence, the correct answer is "A, B, C, H'.

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: (First number - 2)³ =  Second number

1. 13 : 1331

⇒ (13 - 2) = (11)³ = 1331

Similarly,

2. 17 : /

⇒ (17 - 2) = (15)³ = 3375

Hence, the correct answer is "3375".

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "D".

The least possible Venn diagram is given below:

Conclusions:

I. Some peelers are not funnels → Does not follow → (As all peelers are funnels. So some peelers are not funnels is not true)

II. Some spatulas are peelers → Follow → (As all peelers are funnels and some peelers are spatulas. So some spatulas are peelers is definite true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows".

The paper will unfold in following step.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

According to the sequence in dictionary.

1. Serenity 4. Sericulture 5. Serotonin 2. Serpent 3. Serviceable

Hence, the correct answer is "1, 4, 5, 2, 3".

In the first and second dice 1 and 2 are common in both dice.

So, here 3 is opposite to 5.

In the second and third dice 5 and 2 are common in both dice.

So, here 1 is opposite to 6.

Opposite face pairs are.

3 → 5

1 → 6

2 → 4

Hence, the correct answer is "6 is opposite to 1".

The logic here followed is

Hence, the correct answer is "568".

The pattern followed here is:

1. The given figure series is rotate 135º anticlockwise in every next figure.

2. In the second figure star shift towards the first position then in third figure triangle shift toward the first position and at last figure square shift toward the first position.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is :

10³ + 10 = 1010

Hence, the correct answer is "1010".

The position of letters according to the English alphabet series:

1. JST : HPX

Similarly, 

2. PWJ : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "NTN".

Family Chart:

Given:

‘A # B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’;

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.

Given: ‘J is the father of R’

Let us check each option one by one.

Option 1) C @ J % K $ M # R

Here, we can see J is maternal uncle of R → So it is False.

Option 2) C @ J $ K % M # R

Here, we can see that J is the father of R → So it is True.

Option 3) J @ C $ K % M # R

Here, we can see that J is father of R→ So it is False.

Option 4) C @ R $ K % M # J

Here, we can see that the gender of J is unknown so we can't decide that what is relation between J and R → So it is False.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

BODMAS Rule:

Let us Decode the given sign:

Given: (45 D 9) B 5 A 8 B (7 A 3 C 6) C (28 D (4 D 4))

⇒ (45 ÷ 9) × 5 + 8 × (7 + 3 - 6) - (28 ÷ (4 ÷ 4))

⇒ 5 × 5 + 8 × 4 - 28

⇒ 25 + 32 - 28

⇒ 57 - 28

⇒ 29

Hence, the correct answer is "29".

The position of letters according to the English alphabet series:

'TULIPS' is written as ‘GFORKH’

Similarly, 

'GARDEN' be written as '?'

Hence, the correct answer "TZIWVM".

Let, the two numbers be 'a' and 'b' respectively.

According to the question (a + b) : (a - b) = 6 : 5

i.e., (a + b)/ (a - b) = 6/5

⇒ 5(a + b) = 6(a - b)

⇒ 5a + 5b = 6a - 6b

⇒ 11b - 1a

⇒ a/b = 11/1

i.e., a : b = 11 : 1

Hence, the correct answer is "11 : 1".

The logic followed here is:

From the given two different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As is common on both the dice. It is clear that &, @, # and \% are adjacent to it remaining number i.e., is will be opposite to G.

Opposite pairs: 

@ → %

& → #

$ → G

Let check each option one by one.

Option 1) 

Here,$ is opposite to # so it is False.

Option 2) 

Here, & is opposite to $ so it is False.

Option 3)

Here, & is opposite to @ so it is False.

Option 4)

Here, all the sign are correctly opposite according to the given dice so it is True.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".$

The position of letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern followed here is:

Here, Option 3 is not the correct answer because they does not follow the complete logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "QQRE".

The correct water image of the given combination is as shown below :-

 

Detailed Explanation:-

• The word is "

" the second number is "9". So, the correct water image is "

" → Option 1 is eliminated.

• The fourth number is "1". So, the correct water image is "

" → Option 2 is eliminated.

• The second last letter is "g". So, the correct water image is "

" → Option 3 is eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The position of letters according to the English alphabet series:

Logic: Every alphabet is multiply with × 3 = Code

'GANGA' is coded as 21-3-42-21-3

And,

'KOSHI' is coded as 33-45-57-24-27

Similarly,

'GOMTI' be coded '?'

Hence, the correct answer is "21-45-39-60-27".

Given: India, Delhi, Assam, Guwahati

• India is the country.
• Delhi and Assam in the two state of India.
• Guwahati is the city of Assam.

According to the given information least possible Venn diagram is given below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is 

Row wise : (second number ÷ 4) × First number = Third number

Row 1: (16 ÷ 4) × 13 = 4 × 13 = 52 

Row 2:  (24 ÷ 4) × 15 = 6 × 15 = 90

Row 3:  (36 ÷ 4) × 23 = 9 × 23 = 207

Hence, the correct answer "207".

Explanation:

The data can be represented as follow:

'you' will be coded as '5'.

Hence, the correct answer is "5".

The correct answer is Rupnath.

Key Points

• Rupnath inscription is near Kaimur hills, Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh.
• Maski inscription is in the Raichur district, Karnataka.
• Gavimath is in Koppal district, Karnataka.
• Brahmagiri inscription is in Chitradurga district, Karnataka.
• Minor Rock Edicts of Ashoka:
• These rock inscriptions are from the earliest part of the Edicts of Ashoka.
• They predate Ashoka's Major Rock Edicts.
• These are the first edicts in the Indian language of Emperor Ashoka, written in the Brahmi script.
• The Kandahar Bilingual Rock Inscription, in Greek and in Aramaic, is the **first known inscription of Ashoka.**​

Important Points

• The Rock Edicts were the first tangible evidence of, how Buddhism spread.
• These edicts were deciphered by the British archaeologist and historian James Prinsep.
• They were kept in public places and along trade routes so that the maximum number of people would read them.
• There are 33 inscriptions classified into the following categories:
• Major rock edicts
• Minor rock edicts
• Separate rock edicts
• Major pillar edicts
• Minor pillar edicts

Additional Information

• Ashoka
• Son of Bindusara and a Mauryan ruler.
• ​He was one of the greatest rulers known in the history of India.
• He has his inscriptions were carved on pillars, as well as on rock surfaces to connect with people.
• The Kalinga War in 261 B.C changed his heart and he started following Buddhism.
• Dhamma is a set of edicts that formed a policy of the Mauryan emperor Ashoka.

The correct answer is Lord Ripon.

Key Points

• Lord Rippon repealed the Vernacular Press Act of 1878.
• The viceroy feared that the act may produce resentment among Indians.
• **The act can become one of the catalysts giving rise to India's growing independence movement.**​

Important Points

• Vernacular Press Act:
• Passed in 1878, to restrict the freedom of the press of Indian languages.
• Lord Lytton was highly criticized for the Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–80).
• Aim to prevent the vernacular press to express criticism of British policies under him.
• It was nicknamed the ‘Gagging Act’.
• The act empowered the Government:
• to issue search warrants.
• enter newspaper premises even without court orders.
• The law was **repealed by Lytton’s successor, Lord Ripon.**​

Additional Information

• Lord Rippon (1880-1884):
• ​Repeal of the Vernacular Press Act (1882) took place.
• The first Factory Act, 1881.
• The appointment of the education commission under the chairmanship of Sir William Hunter (1882).
• Resolution on Local Self Government (1882) passed.
• The IIbert bill controversy (1883-1884).​
• Lord Dufferin
• Governor General of India and Viceroy from 1884 to 1888.
• During his tenure, the Third Burmese war occurs.
• Lord Dufferin favour the formation of the Indian National Congress in 1885.
• ​Lord Lansdowne
• Governor General and Viceroy of India from 1888 to 1893.
• During his tenure, the Indo-Afghan border (Durand Line) was demarcated.
• The Indian Council Act, of 1892 was enacted.
• A system of indirect elections started in India.
• Lord Northbrook
• India’s Viceroy from 1872 to1876.
• The important events during his reign:
• Deposition of Gaikwad of Baroda in 1875.
• Visit of Prince of Wales,
• Famine in Bihar.
• Kuka Movement in Punjab.

The correct answer is Golden Temple.

Key Points

• The Akal Takht is one of five takhts ( which means "seats of power" ) of the Sikhs.
• It is located in the Golden Temple complex in Amritsar, Punjab, India.
• The three Takhts are in Punjab: - 
• Akal Takht in Amritsar.
• Sri Keshgarh Sahib in Anandpur.
• Sri Damdama Sahib at Talwandi Sabo Bhatinda district.
• The other two of the five Takhts are:
• Takht Sri Patna Sahib, Patna in Bihar.
• **Takht Sri Hazoor Sahib at Nanded in Maharashtra.**​

Additional Information

• ​​Patna Sahib​
• Takht Sri Patna Sahib also known as Harmandir Sahib, is a Gurdwara in Patna, Bihar, India.
• It was to commemorate the birthplace of Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth Guru of the Sikhs on December 1666.
• It was built by Maharaja Ranjit Singh (1780-1839), the first Maharaja of the Sikh Empire.
• Golden Temple
• The Harmandir Sahib, or Golden Temple, in Amritsar, Punjab, India.
• The first Harmandir Sahib was built in 1604 by Guru Arjan, the fifth Sikh Guru.
• A central religious place of the Sikhs.
• It is a symbol of human brotherhood and equality.
• Gurudwara Bangla Sahib​
• ​Gurudwara Bangla Sahib is situated in Delhi City.
• Built in the sacred visit of Sri Guru Harikrishna Ji to Delhi.
• Paonta Sahib
• Gurudwara in Paonta Sahib is in the district of Sirmour, Himachal Pradesh.
• This Gurdwara was built in memory of Guru Gobind Singh Ji, the tenth guru of Sikhs.
• The Dasam Granth was written here by Guru Gobind Singh Ji.

The correct answer is sludge.

Key Points

• Floatable materials like fats, grease, and oil that float on top of liquid wastewater are called sludge.
• The process of skimming is used to remove these materials and make water fit for use.
• Skimming tank:
• A chamber used for sludge removal where matter like oil, fat, grease, etc. floats on the surface.
• They then remain on the surface of the wastewater (Sewage) until removed.
• While the liquid flows out continuously under partitions or baffles.​

Important Points

• Sewage treatment:
• Process of removing contaminants from municipal wastewater.
• Wastewater contains mainly household sewage plus some industrial wastewater.
• Sewage treatment units are **normally designed for 15-20 years.**​

Additional Information

• Compost
• ​Compost is decomposed organic material.
• Made with materials such as leaves, shredded twigs, and kitchen scraps from plants.
• It is a great material for garden soil.
• Peat​
• ​Peat is the surface organic layer of soil.
• It consists of partially decomposed organic matter, derived mostly from plant material.
• It forms due to accumulation under conditions of waterlogging, oxygen deficiency, high acidity, and nutrient deficiency.
• Urea​
• ​Urea is a source of Nitrogen, an essential nutrient crucial for crop growth and development.
• Urea is the most important nitrogenous fertilizer in the country.
• It also has industrial applications such as the production of plastics and as a nutritional supplement for cattle.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• Haryana has India's lowest sex ratio, a number of 879 females to 1000 males.
• Puducherry and Kerala where there are more women than men.
• Kerala has India's highest sex ratio and the figure shows a number of 1084 females to 1000 males.

Important Points

• Census 2011 highlights: 
• India’s population growth rate is 17.64 percent in the decade 2001-11,
• The slowest rate of growth this past century, as per data put out by the registrar-general of the census.
• India’s population in 2011 is estimated to be 1.21 billion, comprising 624 million males and 587 million females.
• While the gender imbalance in the population remains.
• India’s female population grew by 18.12% over the past decade against 17.19% for males.
• India’s literacy rate has gone up from 64.83% in 2001 to 74.04% in 2011.
• Literates constitute 74 percent of the total population aged seven and above.
• The sex ratio, that is the number of females per 1,000 males, has improved to 940 from 933 a decade ago.
• The child sex ratio is 914, the lowest since independence.​

Additional Information

• The first synchronous census was taken under British rule on February 17, 1881, by W.C. Plowden (Census Commissioner of India).
• It has been conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
• Shri Vivek Joshi is the present Registrar General and Census Commissioner, Ministry of Home Affairs.

The correct answer is sundial.

Key Points

• The gnomon is the part of a sundial that casts the shadow.
• It is probably also the world's oldest astronomical instrument.
• It is like a pole stuck in the sand.
• It has been used to measure the passage of time by nomadic cultures of the Sahara for centuries.
• The gnomon may be a rod, wire, or elaborately decorated metal casting.
• It has to be parallel to the axis of the Earth's rotation for the sundial to be accurate throughout the year.

Additional Information

• Telescope
• ​Used to form magnified images of distant objects.
• Most important investigative instrument in astronomy.
• Galileo applied the telescope to the study of extraterrestrial bodies.
• Transformer 
• An electrical device designed to convert alternating current from one voltage to another.
• It can be designed to "step up" or "step down" voltages.
• Works on the magnetic induction principle.
• Bolometer
• ​The bolometer is a device used for detecting and measuring the heat and radiation of Microwave energy or RF.
• It uses the temperature-sensitive resistive element whose resistance changes with the temperature.
• The Thermistor and Barretter are examples of the commonly used resistive element.

The correct answer is CD Deshmukh.

Key Points

• Chintaman Dwarkanath Deshmukh, a member of the Indian Civil Service, was the first Indian Governor RBI.
• His association with the Bank commenced in 1939 when he was appointed Government's liason officer.
• He later served as Secretary and thereafter in 1941 as Deputy Governor of the Bank.
• The first governor of RBI was the **British banker Osborne Smith.**​
• Shaktikant Das is currently serving as the 25^th governor of the Reserve Bank of India.

Important Points

• ​RBI
• ​The Reserve Bank of India was set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
• The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 provides the statutory basis for the functioning of the Bank.
• RBI commenced operations on April 1, 1935.
• The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized with effect on 1^st January 1949.
• Nationalized on the basis of the Reserve Bank of India (Transfer to Public Ownership) Act, 1948.
• Central Bank of India.

Additional Information

• HVR Lengar
• "H. V. R." Lengar was the sixth Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
• Served from 1 March 1957 to 28 February 1962.
• Member of the Indian Civil Service.
• Also served as the Chairman of the State Bank of India, before his appointment as the Governor of the Reserve Bank.
• PC Bhattacharya
• He was a member of the Indian Audit and Account Service.
• Served as Secretary in the Finance Ministry.
• Later as Chairman of the State Bank of India prior to his appointment as Governor, RBI.
• The introduction of the Credit Authorisation Scheme as an instrument of Credit Regulation,
• The **devaluation of the Rupee in 1966.**f
• Key measures taken under him include import liberalization and elimination of export subsidies.
• LK Jha​
• A member of the Indian Civil Service.
• Also served as Secretary to the Prime Minister, prior to his appointment as Governor.
• During his tenure, social controls over commercial banks were introduced as an experiment in 1968.
• A National Credit Council was established.
• 14 major commercial banks were nationalized in 1969.

The correct answer is minerals.

Key Points

• The goal of disinfection of public water supplies is:
• elimination of the pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites that are responsible for waterborne diseases.
• Chlorine and chloramine are the major disinfectants used in public water systems.
• Chlorine kills pathogens such as bacteria and viruses by breaking the chemical bonds in their molecules.
• **Boiling water is the most effective way to disinfect water.**​

Important Points

• Need for disinfection of drinking water.
• Water from lakes, rivers, streams and many groundwater sources may contain disease-causing “germs.”
• The germs, called pathogens, can lead to water-borne infections.
• Water-borne illnesses can lead to serious complications, including death.
• Water-borne infections can spread when an animal or human feces containing these pathogens get into drinking water.
• These pathogens may include bacteria, viruses, or parasites (e.g., Campylobacter, Salmonella, Giardia, and Cryptosporidium).
• Disinfection kills or removes pathogens from drinking water, reducing health risks.
• One can disinfect water by adding chemicals, using heat, using ultraviolet (UV) radiation, and filtration.

The correct answer is Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

Key Points

• Section 7 in The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 says:-
• A Hindu marriage may be solemnized in accordance with the customary rites and ceremonies of either party.
• Rites and ceremonies include the saptapadi.
• It is a ritual of taking seven steps by the bridegroom and the bride jointly before the sacred fire.
• The **marriage becomes complete and binding when the seventh step is taken.**​

Important Points

• The Saptapadi ceremony:
• Establishes the commitment the couple makes to each other during the Hindu wedding ceremony.
• Saptapadi quite literally translates from Sanskrit to ‘seven steps’.
• The couple takes seven full circles, walking clockwise around the ceremonial fire.
• **Circles represent the seven principles and promises they make to each other.**​
• ​Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
• India is mainly a Hindu-dominated country.
• Therefore, Hindu marriages are mainly governed by “The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.”
• ​The Act came into force on May 18, 1955
• It is applicable to the whole of India except the state of Jammu & Kashmir.

Additional Information

• ​​Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1862:
• Act consolidates the law related to the solemnizing of Indian Christian Marriage.
• Enacted on 18^th July 1872.
• Applicable to the whole of India except Cochin, Manipur, and  Jammu & Kashmir.
• The act contains 88 Sections in 8 Parts and 4 Schedules. ​
• Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936:
• ​Parsis are governed in the matters of marriage and divorce by the Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936.
• The Act is divided into six chapters.
• It deals with marriage between Parsis, matrimonial courts, matrimonial suits, children of the parties, and miscellaneous provisions.
• Section 2(7) of the Act says a ‘Parsi’ means a Parsi Zoroastrian.
• Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937​
• ​The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act was passed in 1937.
• The aim was to formulate an Islamic law code for Indian Muslims.
• For the Muslims on the other hand, the writings in the Quran would be of foremost importance.
• Shariat Application Act, 1937 mandates aspects of Muslim social life such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, and family relations.
• The Act lays out that in matters of a personal dispute the State shall not interfere.

The correct answer is Deepti Sharma.

Key Points

• India woman cricketer Deepti Sharma recorded the highest individual score for India in women's One-day Internationals.
• The 19-year-old achieved the milestone with a magnificent 188 off 160 balls.
• It happened during a Women's Quadrangular Series ODI match against Ireland at Senwes Park in Potchefstroom, South Africa.
• Her 160-ball entertaining knock was studded with 27 boundaries and 2 sixes.
• Overall, she is just behind Australia's Belinda Clark.
• Belinda Clark had scored an unbeaten 229 against Denmark during a Women's World Cup match in 1997 in Mumbai.
• **In 2016, Sharma recorded her best ODI bowling figures as she picked up six wickets against Sri Lanka in Ranchi.**​

Additional Information

• Indian Women Cricket Team
• Women’s Cricket Association of India was formed in 1973.
• Indian women’s cricket team played their first Test match against West Indies in 1976 at M.Chinnaswamy Stadium, Bangalore.
• Their first Test victory came two years later against West Indies at the Moin-ul-Haq Stadium in Patna.
• Indian team played their first ODI against England in 1978 at Eden Gardens, Kolkata.
• Their first T20I match was also against England in 2006 at the County Cricket Ground, Derby.
• The Indian team is one of the top teams today in Asia and the world.
• Also known as "Women in Blue".

The correct answer is Rs. 2.5.

Key Points

• According to the Budget for 2021-22, a Rs 2.5 per liter Agriculture and Infrastructure Development Cess has been imposed on petrol and Rs 4 on diesel.
• Other items on which cess has been imposed as per Budget 2021-22:
• 30 percent agriculture infra cess on Kabuli chana.
• 50 percent on Bengal gram/chickpeas.
• 10 percent on peas.
• 20 percent on lentils (masoor).
• 5 percent on cotton.
• 2.5 percent imposed on gold, silver, and dore bars.
• 35 percent imposed on apples.
• 5 percent on specified fertilizer.
• 1.5 percent on coal, lignite, and peat.
• 100 percent agriculture infra cess on alcoholic beverages.
• 17.5 percent has been imposed on crude palm oil.
• 20 percent have also been imposed on **crude soyabean.**​

Important Points 

• Key highlights of Budget 2021-22:
• ‘Operation Green Scheme’ to be extended to 22 perishable products, to boost value addition in agriculture and allied products.
• To double the Micro Irrigation Fund to Rs. 10,000 crores.
• Rural Infrastructure Development Fund to be enhanced to Rs. 40,000 crores from Rs. 30,000 crores.
• Agricultural credit target enhanced to Rs. 16.5 lakh crore in FY22 - animal husbandry, dairy, and fisheries to be the focus areas.
• To increase the permissible FDI limit from 49% to 74% and allow foreign ownership and control with safeguards.
• Under the Rs. 5.35 lakh crore Bharatmala Pariyojana, more than 13,000 km length of roads worth Rs. 3.3 lakh crore was awarded for construction.
• Rs. 2,87,000 crore over 5 years for Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban) - to be launched with an aim to provide:
• 2.86 crore household tap connections.
• Universal water supply in all 4,378 Urban Local Bodies.
• Liquid waste management in 500 AMRUT cities.
• Mega Investment Textiles Parks (MITRA) scheme, in addition to PLI.
• 7 Textile Parks to be established over 3 years.
• Rs. 64,180 crore outlay over 6 years for PM AtmaNirbhar Swasth Bharat Yojana.
• Rs. 35,000 crores for COVID-19 vaccine in 2021-22.
• ​Rs. 2,23,846 crore outlay for Health and Wellbeing in 2021-22 as against Rs. 94,452 crores in 2020-21 an increase of 137%

Additional Information

• Highlights of Budget 2022-23.
• India’s economic growth is estimated at 9.2% to be the highest among all large economies.
• 60 lakh new jobs are to be created under the productivity-linked incentive scheme in 14 sectors.
• PLI Schemes have the potential to create an additional production of Rs 30 lakh crore.
• Entering Amrit Kaal, the 25-year-long lead-up to India @100, the budget provides the impetus for growth along with four priorities:
• PM Gati Shakti
• Inclusive Development
• Productivity Enhancement & Investment, Sunrise opportunities, Energy Transition, and Climate Action.
• Financing of investments
• National Highways Network to be expanded by 25000 Km in 2022-23.
• Rs. 2.37 lakh crore direct payment to 1.63 crore farmers for procurement of wheat and paddy.
• Rs. 48,000 crores allocated for completion of 80 lakh houses in 2022-23 under PM Awas Yojana.
• Introduction of Digital Rupee by the Reserve Bank of India starting 2022-23.
• ​Total expenditure in 2022-23 is estimated at Rs. 39.45 lakh crore.
• Total receipts other than borrowings in 2022-23 are estimated at Rs. 22.84 lakh crore.
• The fiscal deficit in 2022-23 is estimated at 6.4% of GDP.

The correct answer is 74^th Constitutional Amendment Act (CAA), 1992.

Key Points

• 74^th Constitutional Amendment Act (CAA), 1992, added Part IXA to the Constitution.
• It was enacted in 1993 to constitutionally recognize municipal governments.
• It made municipal governments a formal part of the three-tier governing system, along with the Union Government and the State Governments.
• While this Act mandated the setting up of municipal governments in urban areas.
• State governments have been assigned the role to detail the constitution of municipal corporations through their respective Municipal Acts.
• According to the 74^th CAA, urban areas would be governed by one of the three mentioned types of urban local governments namely:
• the Nagar Panchayat,
• Municipal Council,
• Municipal Corporation based on the size of the area.
• Nagar Panchayats were to administer areas in transition from rural to urban areas.
• Municipal councils administer small urban areas.
• Municipal corporations for larger urban areas.
• The Act mentioned that the areas to be defined as ‘transitional’, ‘smaller urban areas, and **‘larger urban areas were to be specified by the State Governors.**​

Additional Information

• ​71^st Constitutional Amendment Act (CAA), 1992
• ​The amendment enables the inclusion of Nepali, Manipuri, and Konkani into the Constitution's Eighth Schedule.
• The number of languages in the Eighth Schedule ascends to 18 with the inclusion of these three languages.
• 72^nd Constitutional Amendment Act (CAA), 1992
• ​To make temporary provision for the determination of the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the State assembly of Tripura.
• The re-adjustment of seats is made on the basis of the first census after the year 2000 under article 170 of the Constitution.
• 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act (CAA), 1992
• ​The Constitution (73^rd Amendment) Act, 1992 has added a new part IX consisting of 16 Articles and the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution.
• The 73^rd Amendment envisages the Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayat Raj System to perform functions and powers entrusted to it by the State Legislatures.

The correct answer is The First Embrace.

Key Points

• The independent jury of the 2021 Photo Contest selected Mads Nissen’s photograph The First Embrace as the World Press Photo of the Year.

• In the winning image, Rosa Luzia Lunardi (85) is embraced by nurse Adriana Silva da Costa Souza, at Viva Bem care home, Sao Paulo, Brazil, on 5 August 2020.

• The winners were announced at an online Awards Show on 15 April 2021.

Additional Information

• The World Press Photo Foundation presents the awards in the following categories:
• World Press Photo of the Year.
• World Press Photo Story of the Year.
• World Press Photo Interactive of the Year.
• World Press Photo Online Video of the Year.
• ​It all began in 1955 when a group of Dutch photographers organized an international contest (“World Press Photo”) to expose their work to a global audience.
• The World Press Photo Contest recognizes the best photojournalism and documentary photography.
• ​​Amber Bracken's picture, entitled Kamloops Residential School, has been named World Press Photo of the Year, 2022.

The correct answer is Naomi Osaka.

Key Points

• Naomi Osaka won her fourth Grand Slam title, adding a second Australian Open to her twin US Open triumphs.
• She won the title after beating USA's Jennifer Brady 6-4, 6-3 in the 2021 Australian Open women's singles final in Melbourne.
• Osaka became the first woman since Monica Seles, and the first player since Roger Federer to win her first four Grand Slam finals.
• Novak Djokovic defended the men's singles title as he claimed his 18^th Grand Slam title, defeating Daniil Medvedev.

Important Points 

• Grand Slams of Tennis:
• ​The Grand Slam itinerary consists of:
• the Australian Open in mid-January,
• the French Open (also known as Roland Garros) from around late May to early June,
• Wimbledon in June–July, and
• the US Open in August–September.
• Each tournament is played over a two-week period.
• Rafael Nadal is the winner of **most Grand Slams titles with 22 titles to his name.**​

Additional Information

• Rafael Nadal defeated Daniil Medvedev, to win the men's singles tennis title at the 2022 Australian Open.
• Ashleigh Barty defeated Danielle Collins to win the women's singles tennis title at the 2022 Australian Open.

The correct answer is Nalini Malani.

Key Points

• Indian contemporary artist Nalini Malani has won the Joan Miro Prize for 2019.
• The award is named after Spanish painter and sculptor Joan Miro, one of the most influential artists of the 20^th century.
• The award is given by Fundacio Joan Miro, the Spanish art museum along with the bank La Caixa.
• La Caixa will provide Malani with **a €70,000 (Rs. 54.5 lakh) award.**​

Additional Information

• Joan Miro Prize
• ​The Joan Miro Prize is awarded every two years by the Fundacio Joan Miro and Obra Social "la Caixa".
• Recognizes present-day work by artists who show the same spirit of exploration, innovation, commitment, and freedom that characterized Joan Miro's life and work.
• First awarded in 2007, the prize is conferred by an international panel of judges made up of acclaimed professionals in the field of contemporary creation.
• "la Caixa" Foundation provides a cash prize of €70,000.
• Foundation also covers the cost of producing a monographic exhibition of the work by the winning artist, to be held at Fundació Joan Miro.
• Winners of the Awards so far:
• 2019: Nalini Malani
• 2017: Kader Attia
• 2015: Ignasi Aballí
• 2013: Roni Horn
• 2011: Mona Hatoum
• 2009: Pipilotti Rist
• 2007: Olafur Eliasson

The correct answer is Red laterite soil.

Key Points

• Red laterite soil is most suitable for growing cashew nuts.
• Red laterite soils are formed due to the weathering of laterite rocks.
• Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminium content.
• Usually rusty-red in color due to the high iron oxide content.
• It is suitable for building purposes.
• Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tea plantations.

Additional Information

• Black soil
• It is well suited for the cultivation of cotton so it is also called cotton soil.
• It is also called ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’.
• It is formed by the disintegration of basalt.
• Alluvial soils
• ​These are the most extensive soil type in India.
• Alluvial soils are formed from the sediments deposited by the rivers.
• It is rich in potash and poor in nitrogen and organic matter.
• Alluvial soils are most suitable for growing wheat, rice, maize, sugarcane, pulses, etc.
• Red and yellow soils
• These are derived from granites, gneisses, and other metamorphic rocks.
• The soil looks reddish in color due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline.
• These are metamorphic rocks and it looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.
• Red and yellow soils are most suitable for growing wheat, cotton, pulses, tobacco, millets, oilseeds, potato, etc.
• Arid Soils 
• ​Arid soil is unsuitable for cultivation.
• Arid soil is generally sandy in texture and saline in nature.
• It restricts the filtration of water.

The correct answer is Give me blood and I will give you freedom.

Key Points

• ‘Give me blood, and I shall give you freedom’ is a slogan given by Subhash Chandra Bose in Burma in 1944 to members of the Indian National Army.
• Mahatma Gandhi said, “Live as if you were to die tomorrow. Learn as if you were to live forever.”
• Mahatma Gandhi observed, “that the best way to find yourself is to lose yourself in the service of others.”
• In other words, placing the needs of others before your own is an important step on the journey of self-discovery.
• Mahatma Gandhi has said, "First, they ignore you, then they laugh at you, then they fight you and then you win".

Additional InformationFamous Slogans by Indian Freedom Fighters:

The correct answer is Chari dance.

Key Points

• Chari dance is one of the popular folk dances in Rajasthan India.
• In chari dance, women hold chari or pots on their heads, and a lighted lamp is then placed in the pot.
• The famous Chari dance belongs to Gujjar community of Kishangarh and only women perform in this dance.
• These ladies carry brass pots on their heads balancing them to perfection.
• These pots are kept ignited with the cotton seeds dipped in oil.
• These lit pots display beautiful effects in the dark night.
• This dance does not have any particular movements except balancing the pots on their heads.
• This dance is also known as a welcome dance and is a sign of goodness.
• It can also be **considered the traditional fire dance of Rajasthan.**​

Additional Information

• ​​Dhangari Gaja dance​
• It is a folk dance of Maharashtra.
• Dhangari Gaja dance is performed in traditional Marathi dresses - dhoti, angarakha, and pheta with colorful handkerchiefs.
• The Dhangars of the Sholapur district of Maharashtra herd in green pastures for grazing their cattle.
• They become acquainted with nature.
• They honor God Biruba once every year when they return home.
• They spend their time with their families and beloved ones.
• And this is the time when the Dhangari Gaja dance is performed to please their God for His blessings.
• Koli dance​
• ​Koli is the dance form of the Koli fisher folk of Maharashtra.
• The community has its own distinct identity and lively dances.
• The dance incorporates elements that this community is most familiar with - sea and fishing.
• The dance is performed by both men and women divided into two groups
• Fishermen stand in two rows holding oars in their hands.
• The dancers move in unison, portraying the movement of the rowing of a boat.
• Tamasha dance​
• Kolhati and Mahar communities are associated with Tamasha.
• Tamasha is generally started with a devotional song and is followed by the dramatic sequence known as 'Gaulan'.
• Love songs like lavanis are the spirit of Tamasha and are very much popular.
• Musical instruments like:
• dholki drum, tuntuni (a single string instrument), manjeera cymbals, daf are used to increase the aestheticism of the dance.

The correct answer is Titania.

Key Points

• Bromate, Chlorite, and Chlorate are examples of disinfection by-products formed at traditional drinking water treatment plants.
• Hence Titania is  NOT an example of disinfection by-products formed at traditional drinking water treatment plants.
• Water treatment plants add chlorine to drinking water to kill or inactivate harmful organisms in a process called “disinfection.”
• During this process, chlorine also reacts with naturally occurring organic matter that may be present in drinking water.
• Disinfection by-products (DBPs) are intermediate compounds formed after the chemical treatment of water for the removal of geogenic and microbial contaminants.
• Chemicals such as chlorine, ozone, ultraviolet radiation, and hydrogen peroxide are commonly used for the purpose of disinfection of water.​​

Important Points

• Pure titanium dioxide OR Titania is a fine, white powder that provides a bright, white pigment.
• It is used as a water treatment agent and is not a disinfection agent.
• Used in paints, coatings, adhesives, paper, plastics and rubber, printing inks, coated fabrics, and textiles, as well as ceramics, toothpaste, soap, water treatment agents, and pharmaceuticals.

Additional InformationDisinfection byproducts of various disinfectants:

The correct answer is black.

Key Points

• Under the National Urban Sanitation Policy, a city that scores points between 34 and 66 and needs considerable improvement is color-coded as black.
• The comparative rating of cities is based on 19 sanitation indicators.
• It is currently being carried out in 441 cities and towns with a population of more than 100,000.
• The indicators are based on output/process/outcome levels.
• Cities will be rated on parameters such as:
• complete elimination of open defecation.
• elimination of open scavenging.
• safe collection and disposal of total human excreta.
• On the basis of the rating, cities will be classified as Red, Black, Blue, or Green to denote increasing achievement of good environmental and health outcomes (red being the lowest and green the highest).

• Each year if the city improves its ratings, it will be recognized and awarded “Nirmal Shahar Puraskar”.
• The cities are divided into north, south, east and northeast, west and central, and south-central.

Additional Information

• National Urban Sanitation Policy
• ​The National Urban Sanitation Policy was launched in 2008 by the Ministry of Urban Development of India.
• It emphasizes the need of:
• defining integrated city-wide sanitation plans including institutional strengthening.
• awareness generation, behavioural changes.
• pro-poor approaches.
• cost-effective technologies aiming at developing state sanitation strategies
• city sanitation plans should lead to open defecation-free cities.
• sanitary and safe disposal of all human and liquid wastes.

The correct answer is Ammu Swaminathan.

Key Points

• Ammu Swaminathan was elected to the Constituent Assembly from the Madras Constituency in 1946.
• She spoke on fundamental rights and directive principles.
• Ammu Swaminathan was born in 1894 in Palakkad, Kerala.
• In 1917, she worked with Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay, Annie Besant, Muthulakshmi Reddy, and others to set up the Women’s India Association (WIA) at Adyar, Madras.
• Swaminathan was involved in the Quit India Movement in 1942 which led to her imprisonment a year later.
• Post-independence **she was elected to the first Lok Sabha in 1952 and subsequently to the Rajya Sabha in 1954.**​

Important Points

• Kamla Chaudhry
• Kamla Chaudhry was one of those 15 women who were a part of the Constituent Assembly.
• She was also a talented short story writer and freedom fighter.
• Kamla actively took part in the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930.
• She was jailed several times for her participation in the movement for independence.
• During the movement, she joined Indian National Congress.
• She was the senior Vice-Chairperson during the fifty-fourth session of the All India Congress Committee.
• Hansa Jivraj Mehta​
• ​Mehta was one of the 15 women framers of the Indian Constitution.
• She was elected to the Constituent Assembly from Bombay under a Congress Party ticket.
• In the Assembly, she strongly argued in favor of women’s rights and intervened in debates on uniform civil code and reservations.
• Mehta participated in the non-cooperation and swadeshi movements.
• Her involvement with India’s freedom struggle got her arrested in 1932.
• Begum Aizaz Rasul
• ​Rasul stepped into electoral politics in 1937 when she was elected as a member of the U.P. Legislative Assembly.
• She continued to be a member of the U.P. Assembly until 1951.
• Rasul was among the very few women, legislators to be elected from a non-reserved province in British India- a remarkable achievement.
• She was a strong opponent of **reservation for minorities in legislative assemblies, the partition of India, and feudal practices like the zamindari system. **​

Additional Information

• Formation of the constituent assembly
• ​Under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, elections were held for the Constituent Assembly.
• The members were elected by the members of the provincial assemblies by the method of a single transferable vote of proportional representation.
• In the beginning, there were 389 members. But after the partition of the country into India and Pakistan, the number came down to 299
• 229 were from the British Indian provinces while the remaining 70 were from the princely states.
• The seats to the British Indian provinces and princely states were allotted in the proportion of their respective population and were to be divided among Muslims, Sikhs and the rest of the communities.

The correct answer is Nepal.

Key Points

• Mount Annapurna is the tenth highest mountain in the world at 8,091 meters (26,545 ft).
• It is in the Annapurna massif of Nepal Himalayas.
• It includes many peaks over 7,000 meters.
• The massif is bounded by the Kali Gandaki Gorge to the west, the Marshyangdi River in the north and east, and Pokhara Valley in the south.
• At the western end, the massif encloses a high basin called the Annapurna Sanctuary.
• In 1950, Maurice Herzogled a French expedition to its summit, making it the first of the eight thousand to be successfully climbed.
• The Annapurna peaks are among the world's most dangerous mountains to climb.
• The mountain is named after Annapurna, the Hindu goddess of food and nourishment, who is said to reside there.
• The name Annapurna is derived from the Sanskrit language—"purna" means filled and "anna" means food.
• Annapurna is located on the border of Myagdi and Kaski districts in Gandaki province of Nepal.

Important Points 

• The Himalayas is divided longitudinally into 4 divisions from west to east:
• The Kashmir /Punjab/ Himachal Himalayas
• The Kumaun Himalayas
• The Central/ Nepal Himalayas
• The Assam/ Eastern Himalayas

Additional Information

• The Kashmir /Punjab/ Himachal Himalayas
• It lies between the Indus River and Sutlej.
• A significant portion of the Himalayas lies in Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.
• This is also known as Punjab Himalayas.
• It is characterized by high snow-covered peaks, deep valleys, and High Mountain passes.
• The range stretches for 700km in length and 500 km in width.
• It has a height of 3000 m with a large number of glaciers.
• The Kashmir valley which belongs to this division is surrounded by the Greater Himalayas and the Lesser Himalayas.
• Important passes of the Kashmir Himalayas:
• Pir panjal, Banihal, Zoji La, Burzil, Khardungla, Pensi- La, Umasi-La and Qara-Tagh-La.
• The important snow-capped peaks are Nanda Devi, Trisul, Nunkun, Kamath, and Nanga-Parbat.
• The Kangra valley, Kullu- Manali lies Himachal Division.
• The important passes are the Rohtang pass, Bara-Lacha, and Shipki La.
• The Kumaun Himalayas
• This division lies between the Satluj and Kali Rivers.
• The highest peak in this division is Nanda Devi.
• Important peaks are Nanda Devi, Trisul, Kedarnath, Kamet, Badrinath, and Gangotri.
• Pindari, Gangotri, and Milam are important glaciers in this division.
• The major hill stations are Mussorie, Nainital, Ranikhet, Almora, and Bageshwar.
• The important passes are Thaga La, Muling La, Mana, Mangsha Dhura, and Lipu Lekh.
• The Central/ Nepal Himalayas
• ​This division stretches from the Kali River to the Tista River.
• The major part of it lies in Nepal except for the extreme eastern part- Sikkim Himalayas.
• The important peaks are the Mt. Everest, Kanchenjunga, Makalu, Dhaula Giri, Annapurna.
• Nathu La and Jelep La are the important passes in this region.
• The Assam/ Eastern Himalayas
• This division lies between Tista and the Brahmaputra River (Dihang).
• It occupies the state of Arunachal Pradesh in India and Bhutan.
• On the southern border of Arunachal Pradesh, it takes a southerly turn.
• Ranges in the North-South direction pass through Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, and Tripura called Purvanchal.
• The Himalayas rise very rapidly in the plains of Assam and narrow at the foothills of Shiwaliks.
• It comprises many hills called Aka hills, Dafla hills, Miri hills, Abor hills, Mishmi hills, and Namcha Barwa.
• The important passes in this region are Bomdi La, Yonggyap, Diphu, Pangsau, Tse La, Dihang, Debang, Tunga, and Bom La.

The correct answer is Srikant Datar.

Key Points

• Indian-origin academician Srikant Datar has been named as Dean of Harvard Business School.
• He succeeded Nitin Nohria.
• He became the second consecutive dean hailing from India to lead the prestigious 112-year-old institution.
• In 2021, he was awarded the Padma Shri, the fourth-highest civilian award in India.
• **He has served as Senior Associate Dean for University Affairs for Research, Executive Education, and administration.**​

Additional Information

• Sanjit Roy
• Sanjit Roy is a social activist and teacher.
• He is the founder and director of Barefoot College in Rajasthan, India.
• It is a non-governmental organization offering practical training to poor and rural communities.
• In 2010, Roy was selected as one of TIME Magazine's 100 most influential figures for his work within rural communities.
• Skills taught in college such as solar engineering have been adopted in over 50 of the world’s least developed countries.
• Nitin Nohria​
• ​Nitin Nohria served as the tenth dean of Harvard Business School from 2010-2020.
• He previously served as co-chair of the Leadership Initiative, Senior Associate Dean of Faculty Development, and Head of the Organizational Behavior unit.
• Achyuta Samanta​
• ​Prof. Achyuta Samanta is an educationist, humanitarian, and statesman.
• He founded a University in 2004, KIIT, Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology.
• He also founded the Kalinga Institute of Social Sciences (KISS) for providing education to indigenous boys and girls, free of cost.

The correct answer is 2015.

Key Points

• Adar Poonawalla launched the Clean city initiative in January 2015.
• The sole purpose of improving the environment and waste management in the city of Pune his home base.
• The initiative is an environmentally sustainable initiative, undertaken by the Serum Institute of India.
• Mr. Adar Poonawalla started this initiative as a contribution toward social responsibility.
• His vision for a clean city began in 2014 when he found garbage piling up and being dumped across the city.
• He realized that if India’s image had to be improved a drastic change would be required with good management, local government support, and substantial funding.
• He has pledged to fund in his capacity Rs. 100 Crore. for this initiative.

Additional Information

• Adar Poonawalla
• Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Serum Institute of India (SII)
• A private family-owned business founded in 1966 by his father Dr. Cyrus Poonawalla.
• SII is the world’s largest vaccine manufacturer by the number of doses produced and sold a year (1.5bn).
• In 2017, he was appointed by the Indian Prime Minister as Brand Ambassador for Swachh Bharat, a country-wide campaign initiated by the Government of India to improve waste management.

The correct answer is 3%.

Key Points

• Targets and fiscal indicators under FRBM Act 2003:-
• The government is required to limit the fiscal deficit to 3% of the GDP by March 31, 2021.
• The government is required to limit the debt of the central government to 40% of the GDP by the year 2024-25.
• ​The FRBM rules mandate four fiscal indicators to be projected in the medium-term fiscal policy statement.
• These are:
• Revenue deficit as a percentage of GDP.
• The revenue deficit should be completely eliminated by March 31, 2009.
• The minimum annual reduction target was 0.5% of GDP.
• Fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP.
• The fiscal deficit should be reduced to 3% of GDP by March 31, 2009.
• The minimum annual reduction target was 0.3% of GDP.
• Tax revenue as a percentage of GDP.
• Total outstanding liabilities as a percentage of GDP.
• The **FRBM Act set targets for fiscal deficit and revenue deficit.**​

Additional Information

• The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM Act), 2003,
• Establishes financial discipline to reduce the fiscal deficit.
• The FRBM Bill was introduced by the then finance minister, Yashwant Sinha, in 2000.
• The Bill, approved by the Union Cabinet in 2003, became effective on July 5, 2004.
• The FRBM Act aims to introduce transparency in India's fiscal management systems.
• The FRBM Act aimed to introduce a more equitable distribution of India's debt over the years.
• It is an Act to provide:
• the responsibility of the Central Government to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management.
• long-term macroeconomic stability by removing fiscal impediments in the effective conduct of monetary policy.
• prudential debt management is consistent with fiscal sustainability.
• limits on the Central Government borrowings and debt.
• greater transparency in fiscal operations of the Central Government.​

Given:

Formula used:

Percentage = (Given value/Total value)× 100

Calculation:

According to the question,

A student has to score a minimum of 10 marks to pass the test.

Number of student scored minimum 10 marks to pass the test 7, 8. 10 and 5

⇒ 7 + 8 + 10 + 5 = 30

Percentage = (Number of student scored 10 marks minimum/Total number of student)× 100

⇒ Percentage = (30/40)× 100 

⇒ 75%

∴ The percentage of students who passed the test is 75%.

Givan:

( 7.03 )³ - 0.027 / ( 7.03 )² +2.109 + ( 0.3 )²

Formula used:

( a³ - b³ ) = (a - b ) ( a² + ab + b²) 

Calculation:

According to the question

⇒ ( 7.03 )³ - ( 0.3 )³ /( 7.03 )² + 2.109 + ( 0.3 )²

According to the formula 

⇒ ( 7.03 - 0.3 ) { ( 7.03 )² + 7.03 × 0.3 + ( 0.3 )² } / ( 7.03 )² + 2.109 +( 0.3 )²

⇒ (7.03 - 0.3 ) = 6.73

∴ ( 7.03)³ - 0.027 / ( 7.03 )² + 2.109 + ( 0.3 )²  is 6.73.

Given:

Person salary was decreased by 50% and subsequently increased by 50%

Formula used:

Decreased by x% = ( x - x / 100 ) × 100 

Increased by x% = ( X + x / 100 ) × 100

Calculation:

Let the original salary be Rs.100

According to the question 

The salary was increased by 50%.

⇒  New salary  = 100 + 50% of 100 

⇒ New salary = Rs.150 

NOW,

The salary was decreased by 50%

⇒ Final salary = 150 × 50 /100  = 75 

Decreased in salary = Original salary - Final salary 

⇒ Decreased in salary = 100 - 75 = 25

∴ Required percentage = ( 25 /100 ) × 100 = 25%

Shortcut TrickLet the salary be 1000 

Salry decrease by 50% = 1000 × 50/100

= 500

Then increase 500 × (150/100) = 750

Net loss salary decrease = 1000 - 750 = 250

Net% loss = (250/1000) × 100 = 25%

Given:

In a ΔABC, D, E, and F are the mid-points of side BC, CA, and AB respectively.

BC = 25.6 cm, CA = 18.8 cm and AB = 20.4 cm

Concept used:

Midpoint theorem - The line segment in a triangle joining the midpoint of two sides of the triangle is said to be parallel to its third side and is also half of the length of the third side.

Calculation:

E and F are the mid point of the side AC and AB 

⇒ AE = EC and AF = FB

⇒ AE/EC = AF/FB

By mid point theorem 

⇒ EF = BC/2

⇒ EF = 25.6/2

⇒ EF = 12.8 cm

Similerly,

DE = AB/2

⇒ DE = 20.4/2 

⇒ DE = 10.2 cm

FD = AC/2 

⇒ FD = 18.8/2

⇒ FD = 9.4 cm

The perimeter (in cm) of the ΔDEF

⇒ DE + EF + FD 

⇒ 10.2 + 12.8 + 9.4

⇒ 32.4 cm

∴ The perimeter (in cm) of the ΔDEF is 32.4 cm.

Given:

Height = 180 m

The angle of depression = 60^o

Formula used:

Tan 60^o = √3

Tan θ = Perpendicular/Base

Calculation: 

According to the question,

Tan 60^o = AB/BC 

⇒ √3 = 180 m/BC 

⇒ BC = 180/√3

⇒ BC = 180 × √3/(√3 × √3)

⇒ BC = 60√3 m

∴ The distance (in m) of the boat from the ship is 60 √3.

Given:

In triangle ABC, the bisector of angle BAC meets BC at point D in such a way that AB = 10 cm, AC = 15 cm and BD = 6 cm.

Formula used:

If bisector of ∠ A is Δ ABC meets BC in D

Then, DC/BD = AC/AB

Calculation:

According to the question,

If bisector of ∠ A is Δ ABC meets BC in D

Then, DC/BD = AC/AB

⇒ DC/BD = AC/AB 

⇒ DC/BD = 15x/10x

⇒ DC/6 = 15/10

⇒ DC = 9 cm

BC = BD + DC 

⇒ BC = 6 + 9 = 15 cm

∴ The length of BC (in cm) is 15.

Given:

5x - 1/4x= 6, x > 0,

Formula used:

( a - b )² = a² + b² - 2ab 

( a + b )² = a² + b² + 2ab 

( a² - b² ) = ( a - b ) ( a + b )

Calculation:

5x - 1/4x  = 6 

Squaring  both sides 

⇒ ( 5x - 1/4x )² = 6² 

⇒ 25x²+ 1/16x² - 2 × 5x × 1/4x = 36

⇒ 25x²+ 1/16x² = 36 + 5/2

⇒ 25x² + 1/16x² = 77/2

According to the question

⇒ ( 5x + 1/4x )² = 25x² + 1/16x² + 2 × 5x × 1/4x 

⇒ ( 5x + 1/4x )² = 77/2 + 5/2 

⇒ ( 5x + 1/4x )²  = 82/2 = 41 

⇒ ( 5x  + 1/4x ) = √41 

(a - b )(a + b ) = a² - b² 

⇒ ( 5x -1/4x )( 5x + 1/4x ) = 25x² - 1/16x² 

⇒ 6 × √41 = 6√41

∴ ( 5x² - 1/16x²) = 6√41.

Given:

Successive discounts of 20% and 35%.

Cost price = Rs. 4580 

Calculation:

Successive discount = 20 + 35 - (20 × 35)/100

⇒ Total discount = 55 - 7 = 48%

According to the question,

Sale price = 4580 × (100 - 48)/100

⇒ Sale price = 4580 × 52/100

⇒ Sale price = 2381.6

⇒ Sale price = Rs. 2382

∴ The final sale price (in Rs, to the nearest rupee) is 2382.

Given:

The sum of the greatest and the samallest number may replace k in

The number 3281k6  to make the number divisible by 6 

Formula used:

Divisible = sum of the digits 

Calculation:

If the number is divisible by 6 then it is also divisible by 2 and 3 

Last number is even so the number id divisible by 2

Divisible by 3 = 3 + 2 + 8 + 1 + K + 6 

⇒ 20 + K 

Put  K = 1 (minimum)

⇒  20 + 1 = 21 divisible by 3 

Put K = 7 ( maximum)

⇒ 20 + 7 = 27 divisible by 3

 Sum = minimum + maximum 

⇒ Sum = 1 + 7 = 8 

∴ The sum of the greatest and the smallest number is 8.

Given:

The sides of a triangular field are 360 m, 480 m and 600 m.

Its area is equal to the area of a square field.

Formula used:

Area of triangle = 1/2(Base × Height)

Area of square = Side²

Calcuation:

The sides of a triangular field are 360 m, 480 m and 600 m.

Triplet of triangle = (360 m, 480 m, and 600 m)

⇒ (600)² = (360) + (480)²

⇒ 360000 = 129600 + 230400

⇒ 360000 = 360000

It means height = 480 and base = 360, and 600 = Hypotenuse

Area of triangle = 1/2(360 × 480)

⇒ 86400 cm²

According to the question,

Its area is equal to the area of a square field.

⇒ side² = 86400

⇒ side = 120√6 cm

∴ The side (in m) of the square field is 120√6.

Calculation:

According to the question,

The company gain the minimum amount = 82 - 80 = 2 

2019 year the company gain the minimum amount.

Given:

The number of students getting grade B is 27%

The number of students getting grade A is 30%

Formula used:

Percentage = (given value/comparession value)× 100

Calculation:

According to the question,

Percentage = (given value/comparession value)× 100

⇒ Percentage = (grade B is 27%/grade A is 30%)× 100

⇒ Percentage = (27/30)× 100

⇒ Percentage = 90%

∴ The required answer is 90%.

Given:

Anil lent a sum of Rs. 5,000 on simple interest for 10 years

Rate = 6% for first 2 years, 8% for next 2 years, and 10% per annum by 4 years

Formula used:

Simple interest(S.I) = Principal(P) × rate(R) × Time(T)

Calculation:

Interest earn ( 10 years ) = 6% for 2 years + 8% for next 2 year + 10% for further 6 years

⇒ Interest earn = 6 × 2 + 8 × 2 + 10 × 6

⇒ Interest earn =12% + 16% + 60% 

⇒ Interest earn = 88%

⇒ 88% of 5000 = 88 × 5000 /100 = 4400.

∴ He earn at the end of 10 years is Rs. 4400.

Given: 

The distance between two stations A and B is 200 km.

A train runs from A to B at a speed of 75 km/h, another train runs from

B to A at a speed of 85 km/h

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × time 

Relative speed = speed of train A + speed of train B

Calculation:

⇒ Speed of train A = 75 km/hr

⇒ Speed of train B = 85 km/hr

⇒ Relative speed = 75 + 85  = 160 km/hr

⇒ Distance = speed × time

⇒ 200 = 160 × t 

⇒ T = 5/4 hr

⇒ T = 5/4 × 60 

⇒ Total time = 75 min 

⇒ Distance traveled in 72 min 

⇒ Distance traveled = 160 × (72/60) = 192

∴ Distance between trains = 200 - 192 is 8km.

Shortcut Trick Relative speed = 75 + 85 = 160 km/hr.

Distance travelled in 3 min = 3/60 × 160 = 8KM

Distance between trains 3 min before they meet will be equal to the total distance traveled by both the trains in 3 min

∴ Distance between trains = 8km.

Given:

$\frac{4 \frac{1}{3}+3 \frac{1}{3} \times 1 \frac{4}{5} \div 3 \frac{3}{4} \times\left(6 \frac{1}{4} \text { of } 1 \frac{1}{15}\right)}{\frac{2}{3} \div \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{2}{3}}$

Concept used:

Calculation:

$\frac{4 \frac{1}{3}+3 \frac{1}{3} \times 1 \frac{4}{5} \div 3 \frac{3}{4} \times\left(6 \frac{1}{4} \text { of } 1 \frac{1}{15}\right)}{\frac{2}{3} \div \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{2}{3}}$

⇒ $\frac{\frac{13}{3}+\frac{10}{3} \times \frac{9}{5} \div \frac{15}{4} \times\left(\frac{25}{4} \text { of } \frac{16}{15}\right)}{\frac{2}{3} \div \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{2}{3}}$

⇒ $\frac{\frac{13}{3}+\frac{10}{3} \times \frac{9}{5} \div \frac{15}{4} \times\frac{20}{3} }{\frac{2}{3} \div \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{2}{3}}$

⇒ $\frac{\frac{13}{3}+\frac{10}{3} \times \frac{9}{5} \times \frac{4}{15} \times\frac{20}{3} }{\frac{2}{3} \times \frac{6}{5} \times \frac{2}{3}}$

⇒ $\frac{\frac{13}{3}+\frac{32}{3}}{\frac{8}{15}}$

⇒ ${\frac{225}{8}}$

⇒ ${28\frac{1}{8}}$

∴ The required answer is ${28\frac{1}{8}}$.

Given:

A = 30° 

$\frac{\left[8 \sin \mathrm{A}+11 \operatorname{cosec} \mathrm{A}-\cot ^{2} \mathrm{A}\right]}{10 \cos 2 \mathrm{A}}$

Formula used:

sin 30 = 1/2 , cosece30° = 2 , cot30° = √3 , cos60° = $1\over2$

Calculation:

 $\frac{\left[8 \sin \mathrm{A}+11 \operatorname{cosec} \mathrm{A}-\cot ^{2} \mathrm{A}\right]}{10 \cos 2 \mathrm{A}}$ 

⇒ ${8sin30 + 11cosec30-cot^230}\over10cos2\times30$

⇒ ${8\times{1\over2}+11\times2-(\sqrt3)^2}\over{10\times{1\over2}}$ = ${4+22-3}\over{5}$ = $23\over5$ 

∴ The value of $\frac{\left[8 \sin \mathrm{A}+11 \operatorname{cosec} \mathrm{A}-\cot ^{2} \mathrm{A}\right]}{10 \cos 2 \mathrm{A}}$ is ${4}{3\over5}$.

Given:

A shopkeeper bought toffees at a rate of 10 for Rs. 15

And sold them at a rate of 16 for Rs. 40 

Formula used:

Profit% = (SP - CP)/CP × 100

SP = Selling Price, CP = Cost Price

Calculation:

According to the question, 

                        quantity          rate 

CP                       10                15      ----(1)

SP                        16                40      ----(2)

Quantity same 

Multiply by 8 in equation 1, and multiply by 5 in equation 2

⇒ CP                   80                  120

⇒ SP                    80                  200

80 toffees CP is 120, and SP is 200

⇒ Profit% = (200 - 120)/120 × 100

⇒ Profit% = 66.67%

∴ The profit percentage is 66.67%       

 Shortcut Trick

We know, $\frac{CP × Quantity}{price} = \frac{SP × Quantity}{price}$ 

⇒ $\frac{CP × 10}{15} = \frac{SP × 16}{40}$ ⇒ $\frac{CP}{SP} = \frac{6}{10}$ 

⇒ Profit% = $\frac{(10 - 6)}{6}$ × 100 = 66.67%

Given: 

Three positive numbers are in the ratio 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 4.

The sum of their squares is 2349.

The average of the first two numbers 

Calculation:

Let the numbers be 2x, 3x, 4x 

⇒ 4x² + 9x² + 16x² = 2349

⇒ 29x² = 2349 

⇒ x = √2349/29

⇒ √81 = 9

⇒  x = 9

⇒ Two numbers = 2x, 3x = 18 and 27

⇒ The average of the first two numbers = (18 + 27)/2 = 22.5

∴ The average of the first two numbers is 22.5.

Given:

(2 cos A + 1 ) (2 cos A - 1 ) = 0 

Calculation: 

(2 cos A + 1 ) (2 cos A - 1 ) = 0 

⇒ (2 cos A + 1 ) = 0 or (2 cos A - 1 ) = 0 

Case:1  2 cos A + 1 = 0

⇒ 2 cos A = - 1 

⇒ cos A = - 1/2 = A = 240o

This is not possible because 0° < A ≤ 90°,

Case:2  2 cos A - 1 = 0 

⇒ 2 cos A = 1 

⇒ cos A =1/2

⇒ A = 60^o

∴ The value of A is 60^o.

Additional Information Formula Used:

(a + b)(a - b) = a² - b²

Calculation:

(2 cos A + 1 ) (2 cos A - 1 ) = 0 

⇒ (2 cosA)² - (1)² = 0

⇒ 4cos²A - 1 = 0

⇒ 4cos²A = 1

⇒ cos²A = 1/4

⇒ cos A = 1/2

⇒ A = 60° 

∴ The value of A is 60o.

Given:

The radii of two concentric circles with center O are 26 cm and 16 cm.

Chord AB of the larger circle is tangent to the smaller circle at C and AD is a diameter. 

Formula used:

Hypotnuese² = Perpendicular² + Base² 

If a line divides any two sides in the same ratio (AO/OB = AC/CB) then the line is parallel to the third line.

DB parallel to OC

BD = 2 OC

Calculation:

According to the question, 

OA = OD = 26 cm

OC = 16 cm

If a line divides any two sides in the same ratio (AO/OD = AC/CB) then the line is parallel to the third line.

DB parallel to OC

BD = 2 OC

BD = 2 × OC 

⇒ BD = 2 × 16 = 32 cm.

In Δ AOC 

⇒ OA² = OC² + AC² 

⇒ 26² = 16² + AC²

⇒ AC = √420 cm

⇒ AC = BC = √420 cm.  

In Δ BCD 

⇒ CD² = BD² + BC² 

⇒ CD² = 32² + √420²

⇒ CD² = 1024 + 420

⇒ CD = √1444

⇒ CD = 38 cm

∴ The length of the CD is 38 cm.

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(8, 12) = 24 units.

Efficiency: A = 3, B = 2.

When someone leaves before completion, add their potential work: 24 + (A × 2) = 24 + 6 = 30 units.

Total days = Adjusted Work ÷ Total Efficiency = 30 ÷ (3 + 2) = 6 days.

∴ The correct answer is 6 days.

Alternate Method

Given: A = 8 days, B = 12 days. A left 2 days before the end.

Let the total time to complete the work be x days.

⇒ A worked for (x − 2) days and B worked for x days.

⇒ 3 × (x − 2) + 2 × x = 24

⇒ 3x − 6 + 2x = 24

⇒ 5x = 30

⇒ x = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6 days.

Additional Information

Leaving Before Completion Rule

If a person leaves n days before completion, add (Efficiency × n) to the total work and divide by the combined efficiency of all persons involved initially.

Work and Efficiency

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the Time Taken. Total Work = Efficiency × Time.

Alternate Day Work

For alternate work, calculate the cycle efficiency (sum of efficiencies in one round) and divide the total work by this sum.