Search Previous Year Questions

The correct answer is Alexander Cunningham, the first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India, was of the view that the history of India began with the origins of the Indus Valley Civilization..

Key Points

• Alexander Cunningham, the first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), primarily focused on mapping and identifying ancient Indian sites based on references in historical texts, rather than linking them to the Indus Valley Civilization.
• Cunningham's work heavily relied on the Buddhist texts and his belief that the history of India was rooted in early historical periods, specifically during the Mauryan and post-Mauryan eras, rather than the prehistoric Indus Valley Civilization.
• The Indus Valley Civilization was formally discovered much later, in the 1920s, by archaeologists like John Marshall, and Cunningham was not involved in its identification or study.
• John Marshall's excavation methods were criticized for ignoring stratigraphy, while R.E.M. Wheeler emphasized the importance of stratigraphy in archaeological excavations.
• Amalananda Ghosh contributed significantly to Indian archaeology and was the first to identify similarities between pre-Harappan and mature Harappan cultures.

Additional Information

• Archaeological Survey of India (ASI): Established in 1861 by Alexander Cunningham, it is the premier organization for archaeological research and preservation of cultural heritage in India.
• Indus Valley Civilization: A Bronze Age civilization (2600–1900 BCE), discovered in the 1920s, known for its advanced urban planning, drainage systems, and standardized weights and measures.
• Stratigraphy in Archaeology: The study of soil layers (strata) to understand the chronological sequence of human activity at a site. Introduced and emphasized in India by R.E.M. Wheeler in the mid-20^th century.
• John Marshall: Served as the Director-General of the ASI (1902–1928) and is credited with the discovery of Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro, key sites of the Indus Valley Civilization.
• Amalananda Ghosh: Renowned for his contributions to Indian archaeology, particularly in identifying the transition from pre-Harappan to Harappan cultures and his work on archaeological surveys and publications.

The correct answer is An agriculturally productive region.

Key Points

• Magadha's location in the Gangetic plains made it one of the most agriculturally productive regions of ancient India, ensuring a steady surplus of food to support a growing population and army.
• The fertile alluvial soil of the Ganga and Son rivers significantly boosted agricultural output, enabling economic prosperity and political dominance.
• This agricultural surplus allowed Magadha to maintain a strong military and administrative system, which played a vital role in its expansion.
• Geographical factors, such as access to rivers for irrigation and trade, further enhanced the region's agricultural productivity and connectivity.
• The prosperity arising from agriculture provided the resources needed for urbanization and the development of a centralized state.

Additional Information

• Magadha's Rise: Magadha emerged as a dominant Mahajanapada due to its strategic location, rich natural resources, and efficient governance under rulers like Bimbisara and Ajatashatru.
• Natural Resources: The region was rich in iron ore, which was essential for the production of weapons and tools, contributing to its military strength and economic growth.
• Geographical Advantage: Rivers such as the Ganga, Son, and Punpun provided irrigation, trade routes, and natural defense, strengthening Magadha's economy and security.
• Military Innovations: Magadha's rulers developed advanced war strategies and technologies, such as fortified cities and the use of war elephants, which were crucial in their conquests.
• Urbanization and Trade: The agricultural surplus supported the growth of cities like Rajagriha and Pataliputra, which became centers of trade, culture, and administration.

The correct answer is The superstructure of the temple corresponds to the Nagara style..

Key Points

• The Kailashanatha temple at Ellora was constructed in the eighth century CE during the reign of Rashtrakuta king Krishna I.
• It is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is a fine example of Dravidian architecture.
• The superstructure of the temple does not correspond to the Nagara style; instead, it reflects the Dravidian style of architecture typically found in South India.
• The temple features extensive Shaiva and Vaishnava sculptures, showcasing Hindu mythology and iconography.
• The entire temple is carved out of a single rock and is considered one of the largest monolithic structures globally.

Additional Information

• Ellora Caves: A UNESCO World Heritage Site, Ellora features 34 caves comprising Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain monuments, demonstrating religious harmony.
• Dravidian Style: Characterized by pyramid-shaped towers (vimana), intricate carvings, and large temple complexes, prevalent in South Indian architecture.
• Nagara Style: A distinct North Indian temple architecture style with curvilinear towers (shikhara) and usually smaller temple premises.
• Rashtrakuta Dynasty: The rulers who patronized the construction of the Kailashanatha temple, showcasing their architectural innovation and cultural contributions.
• Monolithic Architecture: Structures carved from a single rock, such as the Kailashanatha temple, are unique examples of advanced craftsmanship and engineering in ancient India.

The correct answer is Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) refers to a type of pottery found from archaeological sites in India dating back to 600 BCE.

Key Points

• Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) is a type of fine, glossy pottery associated with the later Vedic period, approximately 600 BCE to 200 BCE.
• NBPW is considered a hallmark of the second urbanization in India, particularly during the Mauryan period.
• The pottery is characterized by its black polished surface, often with a metallic sheen, and was primarily used by the elite sections of society.
• NBPW has been discovered in archaeological sites such as Pataliputra (modern-day Patna), Kausambi, and Taxila, highlighting its widespread usage in northern India.
• The emergence of NBPW is often associated with advancements in iron technology, urbanization, and state formation in ancient India.

Additional Information

• Painted Grey Ware (PGW):
• PGW is a type of pottery associated with the early Iron Age (circa 1200–600 BCE), primarily found in the Gangetic plains and western Uttar Pradesh.
• It is linked to the later Vedic period and the Mahabharata tradition.
• PGW pottery is characterized by fine grey fabric with painted geometric designs.
• Ochre-Coloured Pottery (OCP):
• OCP represents the late Harappan phase and is primarily found in northern India, including Haryana, Rajasthan, and western Uttar Pradesh.
• It is associated with the Chalcolithic period and marks the transitional phase between the Harappan civilization and the Iron Age.
• Black-and-Red Ware (BRW):
• BRW is a type of pottery found across various periods, including the Neolithic and Chalcolithic ages.
• It is characterized by a black interior and red exterior, often associated with burial practices.
• BRW has been discovered at sites such as Inamgaon, Navdatoli, and Hallur.
• Neolithic Pottery in India:
• Neolithic pottery in India includes handmade wares such as burnished red ware, grey ware, and black-and-red ware.
• Pottery during this period was primarily utilitarian, used for cooking, storage, and ceremonial purposes.

The correct answer is b. Harmika.

Key Points

• The term Harmika does not refer to a style of temple architecture under the Chola Kings. It is instead associated with Buddhist stupas.
• Harmika is the square railing or enclosure found at the top of a stupa, symbolizing the sacred space of the gods.
• It is an important architectural feature in Buddhist structures and represents the gateway to enlightenment.
• The Chola style of temple architecture is characterized by features like the vimana (tower above the sanctum) and intricate carvings, not harmika.

Additional Information

• Samarangana-Sutradhara
• An ancient Indian text attributed to the Paramara King Bhoja, dealing with architecture, sculpture, and town planning.
• It provides detailed guidelines for building temples, palaces, and other structures.
• Vimana
• A prominent feature in Dravidian temple architecture, referring to the tower over the sanctum sanctorum.
• It is often elaborately decorated and serves as an iconic element of South Indian temples.
• Kutagarashala
• A term in Buddhist architecture referring to a hut with a pointed roof, commonly used by wandering ascetics or mendicants for shelter.
• These structures were often used as resting places or gathering halls for monks during their travels.
• Buddhist Stupa Architecture
• Includes elements like the harmika, torana (gateway), anda (dome), and chatra (umbrella).
• The stupa is a hemispherical structure symbolizing the cosmic mound and the Buddha's nirvana.

The correct answer is 'Three months'

Key Points

• Employees' Compensation Act, 1923:
• This Act was enacted to provide compensation to employees for injuries, diseases, or death arising out of and in the course of employment.
• The Act ensures that employers are held liable for compensating employees who suffer from workplace accidents or occupational diseases.
• Under Section 25A of the Act, a specific timeline is prescribed for the disposal of cases related to compensation.
• Time Limit for Disposal:
• The Commissioner is required to dispose of matters relating to compensation and intimate the decision to the employee within a period of three months from the date of reference.
• This provision ensures timely resolution of disputes and facilitates the prompt payment of compensation to affected employees.
• Such a timeline is crucial to prevent unnecessary delays that may adversely affect the financial and emotional well-being of the employee or their dependents.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options:
• Six months:
• This timeline is incorrect as it exceeds the prescribed period under the Act.
• A six-month timeframe could delay the resolution process, which contradicts the Act’s intent to ensure prompt redressal of employee grievances.
• One year:
• One year is an excessively long period and not aligned with the provisions of the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923.
• Such a delay would be detrimental to the employee’s financial stability and recovery process.
• Two months:
• Although two months is a shorter timeframe, the Act explicitly prescribes three months as the mandatory period for disposal of cases.
• This option is therefore incorrect despite being closer to the actual timeframe.
• Importance of Timely Disposal:
• Ensuring timely compensation is critical in maintaining trust between employers and employees.
• It helps the affected employee or their dependents to cope with financial hardships resulting from workplace injuries or fatalities.
• A specific timeline also reduces the chances of prolonged litigation and ensures efficient functioning of the compensation system.

Important Points

• The Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 is one of the earliest social welfare legislations in India and has been instrumental in safeguarding workers’ rights.
• The Act applies to all employees working in industries, factories, construction sites, and other sectors where occupational hazards are prevalent.
• It covers compensation for injuries, total or partial disabilities, and death arising out of employment.
• The Commissioner’s role is vital in ensuring fair and just resolution of cases within the prescribed timeframe.
• Employers are required to comply with the provisions of the Act and provide necessary compensation as determined by the Commissioner.

The correct answer is 'Fifty'

Key Points

• Minimum employee threshold under the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952:
• The Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 (EPF Act) aims to provide social security benefits such as provident funds, pension, and insurance to employees in both organized and unorganized sectors.
• For establishments functioning without the aid of power and registered under the Cooperative Societies Act, 1912, the minimum number of employees required for the application of the EPF Act is fifty (50).
• This threshold is lower than for some other categories of establishments, reflecting the intent to extend social security benefits to a larger number of workers in cooperative societies.

Additional Information

• Incorrect options explained:
• One hundred:
• The threshold of 100 employees applies to certain establishments under the EPF Act but not to cooperative societies functioning without the aid of power. Such a threshold is typically applied to establishments in other industries using power.
• For cooperative societies without power, the threshold remains fifty employees, making this option incorrect.
• One hundred twenty:
• The EPF Act does not specify a threshold of 120 employees for any category of establishments.
• This option is invalid and does not align with any provision under the Act.
• One hundred fifty:
• Similar to the previous option, the threshold of 150 employees is not mentioned in the EPF Act for any category of establishments.
• This makes the option incorrect and unrelated to the specific provisions under the Act.
• Significance of Cooperative Societies Act, 1912:
• Cooperative societies are established to promote the economic interests of their members. They often function to provide employment and other benefits to their members.
• The inclusion of cooperative societies under the EPF Act ensures that their employees are also entitled to social security benefits, which is particularly important for establishments with limited resources.

Important Points

• The Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, applies differently to establishments based on their use of power and the type of organization.
• For establishments using power, the employee threshold is typically 20 employees; for those without power, the threshold is 50 employees, except for cooperative societies, where it is still 50.
• By requiring cooperative societies with 50 or more employees to comply, the EPF Act ensures social security coverage for workers who might otherwise lack such protections.
• This provision reflects the government's commitment to extending social security benefits to various types of employment, particularly in the cooperative sector.

The Correct answer is The Medical Board.

Key Points

• Under the Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948, any question relating to disablement is determined by the Medical Board.
• The Medical Board is constituted to assess the nature and extent of disablement, ensuring fair and expert judgment.
• This board consists of medical professionals who are qualified to evaluate the impact of the disablement on the employee's ability to work.
• The determination of disablement is crucial for deciding the compensation or benefits an employee is entitled to under the ESI Act, 1948.
• The role of the Medical Board is to provide an unbiased, professional opinion based on medical evidence and examinations.
• This ensures that the process is both transparent and aligned with the guidelines set forth under the ESI Act, 1948.

Additional Information

• The Insurance Medical Practitioner
• The Insurance Medical Practitioner (IMP) is a medical professional appointed under the ESI Scheme to provide medical care to insured persons.
• While IMPs play a vital role in the treatment and management of employee health, they are not authorized to determine questions relating to disablement.
• The Social Security Officer
• The Social Security Officer (SSO) is responsible for enforcing compliance with the provisions of the ESI Act and ensuring employees receive their entitled benefits.
• While SSOs oversee the administrative aspects of the ESI Scheme, they do not have the medical expertise required to determine disablement.
• The Medical Appeal Tribunal
• The Medical Appeal Tribunal is constituted to hear appeals against decisions made by the Medical Board.
• Its role is to provide a secondary level of review if an insured person disputes the findings of the Medical Board.
• It does not directly determine disablement but acts as a mechanism for dispute resolution.

The correct answer is Rs. 14,38,200.

Key Points

• The compensation under the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 is calculated using a formula that considers the monthly wages and the relevant factor.
• The formula for compensation in case of total and permanent disability is:

Compensation = 60% of monthly wages × relevant factor.

• Here, the monthly wages drawn by the employee are Rs. 22,500, and the relevant factor is 159.80.
• 60% of Rs. 22,500 = Rs. 13,500.
• Now, multiplying Rs. 13,500 by the relevant factor (159.80):

Compensation = Rs. 13,500 × 159.80 = Rs. 21,57,300.

• However, as per the Employees' Compensation Act, 1923, the maximum monthly wage for calculation purposes is capped at Rs. 15,000. Therefore, we recalculate:
• 60% of Rs. 15,000 = Rs. 9,000.
• Now, multiplying Rs. 9,000 by the relevant factor (159.80):

Compensation = Rs. 9,000 × 159.80 = Rs. 14,38,200.

• Hence, the total compensation payable is Rs. 14,38,200.

Additional Information

• Employees' Compensation Act, 1923:
• The Act provides financial protection to employees and their dependents in cases of work-related injuries, including death and disability.
• It applies to employees working in industries specified in the Act.
• The Act also sets a maximum wage limit for calculation purposes, which is currently Rs. 15,000.
• Relevant Factor:
• The relevant factor is determined based on the age of the employee at the time of injury.
• It is specified in Schedule IV of the Act and helps in calculating the compensation amount.
• Compensation Formula:
• The formula for total and permanent disability is:

60% of monthly wages × relevant factor.

• For death cases, the formula is:

50% of monthly wages × relevant factor.

The correct answer is 'One hundred.'

Key Points

• Overview of the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952:
• The Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, is a social security legislation aimed at providing financial security to employees after retirement or in the event of unforeseen contingencies.
• Under this Act, employers are required to contribute to the Employees' Provident Fund (EPF) on behalf of their employees, and employees also make a matching contribution.
• The Act allows for the creation of a separate Provident Fund Account for employees of an establishment under certain conditions.
• Minimum Number of Employees Required:
• An employer can apply to the Central Government to authorize the creation of a separate Provident Fund Account for the employees of an establishment if the establishment has at least 100 employees.
• This application must be made with the authorization of the majority of the employees in the establishment.
• The provision ensures that the decision to create a separate Provident Fund Account is made in consultation with employees and reflects their collective will.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options Explained:
• Three hundred:
• The figure of 300 employees is not relevant under this particular provision of the Act.
• This number may sometimes be associated with other thresholds in labor laws or industrial regulations, but it does not apply here.
• Five hundred:
• While some labor-related laws or schemes might require establishments with 500 or more employees to comply with specific obligations, this number is irrelevant for the creation of a separate Provident Fund Account.
• One thousand:
• One thousand employees is an excessively high threshold for this provision and does not apply under the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
• The Act sets the minimum number as 100, making this option incorrect.
• Important Points:
• The purpose of the provision is to allow establishments with significant employee strength to manage their Provident Fund separately, ensuring better administration and compliance.
• This provision is particularly useful for large organizations that may want more control over the management of their Provident Fund contributions.
• By requiring the authorization of the majority of employees, the Act ensures transparency and employee participation in the decision-making process.