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Question 31

UPSC EPFO 2023• Test

The principle of subrogation in insurance allows 

  1. AOption (a)

    investment of policy amount

  2. BOption (b)

    refund for insured and insured's insurance company

  3. COption (c)

    auto-renewal of policy

  4. DOption (d)

    indemnification of the insured

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

refund for insured and insured's insurance company

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Refund for insured and insured's insurance company

Key Points

  • Subrogation is a fundamental principle in insurance law where the insurer assumes the legal rights of the insured after compensating for their loss.
  • This principle allows the insurer to recover the amount paid to the insured by claiming against a third party responsible for the loss.
  • The goal of subrogation is to prevent the insured from receiving a double benefit (i.e., compensation from both the insurer and the responsible third party).
  • In case of a successful recovery, the refund is used to cover:
  • The insurer's payment to the insured.
  • Any excess amount beyond the insurer's payment is returned to the insured.
  • This ensures fairness and reinforces the principle of indemnity in insurance, which states that the insured is restored to their original financial position before the loss.

Additional Information

  • Types of Subrogation:
  • Contractual Subrogation: Arises from the terms and conditions of the insurance policy.
  • Equitable Subrogation: Arises under law when fairness demands that the insurer is entitled to the insured's rights.
  • Limitations of Subrogation:
  • The insurer cannot subrogate against its own insured.
  • Subrogation is applicable only after the insurer has fully indemnified the insured.
  • The insured's rights cannot be transferred to the insurer if the loss is not covered under the policy.
  • Importance of Subrogation:
  • Minimizes the financial burden on insurers by recovering claims from third parties.
  • Prevents the insured from profiting from the loss, maintaining the principle of indemnity.
  • Ensures that the responsible party is held accountable for their actions.

Question 32

UPSC EPFO 2023• Test

Which of the following expenditures are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India?

  1. The debt charges for which the Government of India is liable
  2. The emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his/her office
  3. The salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of the Supreme Court
  4. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    2, 3 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    3 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1, 2, 3 and 4'

Key Points

  • Consolidated Fund of India:
  • The Consolidated Fund of India is the most important fund of the Government of India. It includes all receipts (revenues and loans) and expenditures of the government.
  • Certain expenditures are "charged" on this fund, meaning they are not subject to the vote of Parliament, though Parliament may discuss them.
  • Expenditures Charged on the Consolidated Fund of India:
  • Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable: This includes interest payments and repayment of loans raised by the government. These expenditures are mandatory and cannot be altered.
  • Emoluments and allowances of the President: The salary and allowances of the President, as well as the expenses related to the functioning of his/her office, are charged to this fund.
  • Salaries, allowances, and pensions of Judges of the Supreme Court: These expenditures ensure the independence and impartiality of the judiciary. They are charged directly to the Consolidated Fund to prevent any undue influence.
  • Salaries and allowances of key parliamentary positions: This includes the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha. These expenditures are also charged to the fund to uphold the dignity of these positions.

Additional Information

  • Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
  • Option 1 (1 and 2 only): This option is incorrect because it excludes the expenditures related to the salaries, allowances, and pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court and parliamentary positions. All these expenditures are charged to the Consolidated Fund.
  • Option 3 (2, 3 and 4 only): This option is incorrect because it excludes the debt charges for which the Government of India is liable. Debt charges are a significant part of the expenditures charged to the Consolidated Fund.
  • Option 4 (3 and 4 only): This option is incorrect because it excludes the expenditures related to the President's emoluments and allowances and debt charges. Both are crucial components of the expenditures charged to the Consolidated Fund.
  • Importance of Expenditures Charged to the Consolidated Fund:
  • Expenditures charged to the Consolidated Fund are safeguarded from being voted upon in Parliament to ensure their stability and independence.
  • This helps maintain the impartiality of institutions like the judiciary and the dignity of constitutional offices such as the President.
  • It also ensures that debt obligations are met without interference or delay.

Important Points

  • The Consolidated Fund of India is established under Article 266 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Expenditures charged on this fund are non-votable but are presented before Parliament for discussion.
  • Examples of other expenditures charged on the Consolidated Fund include the salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, and the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
  • This mechanism ensures transparency while preserving the independence of key constitutional bodies.

Question 33

UPSC EPFO 2023• Test

Consider the following statements :

  1. Population change in an area is an important indicator of economic development of that region.
  2. Population change in an area is not an indicator of social upliftment of that region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1 only'

Key Points

  • Population Change as an Indicator of Economic Development:
  • Population change in an area refers to the variation in the number of people residing in that area over a given period.
  • This change is often linked to factors such as birth rates, death rates, and migration patterns, all of which are influenced by economic opportunities, healthcare, and living conditions.
  • Economic development of a region is closely tied to population dynamics. For example:
  • Regions with high economic growth often attract migrants, leading to an increase in population.
  • Improved healthcare and living standards in economically developed areas contribute to higher life expectancy and population stability.
  • Thus, population change serves as a key indicator of economic development, as it reflects the ability of a region to sustain and attract its population.

Additional Information

  • Population Change and Social Upliftment:
  • The second statement suggests that population change is not an indicator of social upliftment. This is incorrect, as population dynamics are often linked to social progress.
  • Social upliftment involves improvements in education, healthcare, gender equality, and living standards. These factors directly influence population trends:
  • For example, higher literacy rates and better healthcare often lead to reduced birth rates and improved life expectancy, indicating social progress.
  • Migration to urban areas for better educational and employment opportunities is another sign of social upliftment.
  • Thus, population change can indeed serve as an indicator of social upliftment, making the second statement incorrect.

Important Points

  • The correct answer, '1 only,' emphasizes the role of population change as an indicator of economic development.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect because social upliftment and population change are interconnected and cannot be disregarded.
  • Population trends provide valuable insights into the overall well-being and development of a region, encompassing both economic and social dimensions.

Question 34

UPSC EPFO 2023• Test

Which one among the following statements regarding human development' is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The basic concept of Income Approach to Human Development is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom an individual enjoys.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Basic Needs Approach to Human Development was initially proposed by the International Labour Organization (ILO).

  3. COption (c)

    Human Poverty Index measures the shortfall in human development.

  4. DOption (d)

    Under the Welfare Approach to Human Development, the Government protects and promotes private entrepreneurs to maximize expenditure on welfare.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Under the Welfare Approach to Human Development, the Government protects and promotes private entrepreneurs to maximize expenditure on welfare.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Under the Welfare Approach to Human Development, the Government protects and promotes private entrepreneurs to maximize expenditure on welfare.'

Key Points

  • Welfare Approach to Human Development:
  • The Welfare Approach focuses on the government’s role in ensuring the well-being of its citizens by providing basic services such as healthcare, education, and social security.
  • It is primarily concerned with reducing inequalities and improving the quality of life for disadvantaged and marginalized sections of society.
  • The statement in the question is incorrect because the Welfare Approach does not prioritize promoting private entrepreneurs for welfare expenditure. Instead, it emphasizes direct government intervention and public spending on welfare programs.
  • This approach does not rely on private entrepreneurship as a mechanism for human development, which makes the given statement inconsistent with the core principles of the Welfare Approach.

Additional Information

  • Income Approach to Human Development:
  • The Income Approach considers income as the primary indicator of human development. The underlying assumption is that higher income levels provide individuals with greater freedom and opportunities to lead fulfilling lives.
  • This approach correlates economic prosperity with human well-being, emphasizing the role of income in accessing resources and services.
  • The statement regarding the Income Approach is correct, as it aligns with the idea that income reflects the level of freedom and choices available to individuals.
  • Basic Needs Approach to Human Development:
  • The Basic Needs Approach was first introduced by the International Labour Organization (ILO). It emphasizes the provision of essential services and goods such as food, water, shelter, education, and healthcare to improve the quality of life.
  • This approach focuses on meeting the minimum requirements necessary for a dignified and sustainable life.
  • The statement about the Basic Needs Approach is correct, as the ILO played a significant role in its development and advocacy.
  • Human Poverty Index (HPI):
  • The Human Poverty Index was developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to measure the deprivation in human development. It complements the Human Development Index (HDI) by focusing on the shortfall in achieving basic human capabilities.
  • The HPI considers factors such as lack of access to knowledge, inadequate living standards, and vulnerability to early death.
  • The statement regarding the Human Poverty Index is correct, as it accurately describes its purpose and focus.

Important Points

  • Human development is a multidimensional concept that aims to enhance the quality of life by expanding people's choices and freedoms.
  • It is measured through indicators like the Human Development Index (HDI), which evaluates long and healthy life, access to knowledge, and a decent standard of living.
  • Different approaches to human development (Income, Basic Needs, Welfare, etc.) reflect diverse perspectives on how to achieve well-being and progress.
  • Understanding these approaches is crucial for policymaking and for addressing challenges in reducing inequalities and improving living conditions globally.

Question 35

UPSC EPFO 2023• Test

Which of the following statements about globalization is/are correct?

  1. It has fuelled the spread of trans- border currencies, digital cash and global credit cards.
  2. Securities markets have gained a global dimension with the development of electronic round- the-world trading.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Both 1 and 2'

Key Points

  • Globalization Overview:
  • Globalization refers to the increasing interconnectedness and interdependence of the world’s economies, cultures, and populations, brought about by advances in communication, technology, trade, and travel.
  • It has led to the integration of markets, the spread of ideas, and the movement of goods, services, and people across borders.
  • Globalization has significantly shaped modern economic and social systems, enabling advancements in various sectors like finance, technology, and commerce.
  • Statement 1: Spread of trans-border currencies, digital cash, and global credit cards:
  • Correct. Globalization has facilitated the widespread use of trans-border currencies such as the US Dollar and the Euro, which are widely accepted in international trade.
  • Digital payment systems and digital cash (e.g., cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin) have emerged as global financial tools, enabling seamless cross-border transactions.
  • Global credit cards, such as Visa and Mastercard, have become indispensable for international payments, allowing consumers to make purchases worldwide without currency conversion hassles.
  • These financial tools demonstrate how globalization has fostered the integration of economies and the ease of financial transactions across borders.
  • Statement 2: Securities markets gaining a global dimension:
  • Correct. Globalization has revolutionized securities markets by enabling electronic round-the-world trading, making it possible for investors to trade stocks, bonds, and other securities in global markets 24/7.
  • Major stock exchanges, such as the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE), London Stock Exchange, and Tokyo Stock Exchange, are interconnected through electronic trading platforms.
  • Investors can now trade securities across different time zones seamlessly, thanks to advancements in technology and the integration of financial markets.
  • This has contributed to the global flow of capital and enhanced the efficiency of resource allocation worldwide.

Additional Information

  • Why the other options are incorrect:
  • Option 1 (1 only): This option is incomplete as it ignores the validity of Statement 2. While Statement 1 is correct, the exclusion of Statement 2 makes this option invalid.
  • Option 2 (2 only): This option is also incomplete as it disregards the accuracy of Statement 1. While Statement 2 is true, the exclusion of Statement 1 makes this option incorrect.
  • Option 4 (Neither 1 nor 2): This option is completely incorrect because both statements are valid and supported by evidence of globalization's impact on financial systems and markets.
  • Importance of Globalization in Financial Systems:
  • Globalization has reduced barriers to trade and investment, allowing the free flow of goods and capital across borders.
  • It has led to the standardization of financial practices, making international transactions more efficient and accessible.
  • Technological advancements, such as blockchain and fintech innovations, have further accelerated the globalization of financial systems.
  • Challenges of Globalized Financial Markets:
  • Global financial systems are more vulnerable to economic crises and shocks, as seen during the 2008 financial crisis.
  • Cross-border financial crimes, such as money laundering and cyber fraud, are challenges stemming from increased global connectivity.
  • Regulation and governance of globalized financial systems require international cooperation, which can be difficult to achieve due to differing national interests.

Question 36

UPSC EPFO 2023• Test

As per FAOSTAT (Food and Agriculture Organization Corporate Statistical Database), which of the following is/are correct about India's milk production?

  1. India ranked second in the world in milk production in the year 2021-22.
  2. India contributed 24% of global milk production in the year 2021-22.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2) 2 only.

Key Points

  • India contributed 24% of global milk production in the year 2021-22, as per FAOSTAT data.
  • India is the largest producer of milk globally, surpassing all other nations.
  • In the year 2021-22, India produced approximately 221 million tonnes of milk.
  • The dairy sector in India is a major contributor to the agricultural GDP and plays a vital role in rural livelihoods.
  • India's milk production is largely driven by small-scale farmers and cooperative institutions like Amul.

Additional Information

  • FAOSTAT: It is the Food and Agriculture Organization Corporate Statistical Database, a comprehensive resource for agricultural statistics worldwide.
  • Dairy Sector in India: India’s dairy industry is supported by a network of cooperatives and small-scale producers, making it highly decentralized.
  • Operation Flood: Launched by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) in 1970, it transformed India into the world's largest producer of milk.
  • Milk Composition: Milk is a rich source of essential nutrients, including calcium, protein, vitamins, and fats, which contribute to health and nutrition.
  • White Revolution: Spearheaded by Dr. Verghese Kurien, this initiative significantly boosted India’s milk production, making the country self-sufficient in dairy products.

Question 37

UPSC EPFO 2023• Test

Which one of the following statements about the Group of Twenty (G20) is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It was founded in 1999.

  2. BOption (b)

    The G20 summit is held annually under the leadership of a rotating Presidency.

  3. COption (c)

    The G20 members represent around 85% of the global GDP.

  4. DOption (d)

    The G20 comprises twenty countries.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The G20 comprises twenty countries.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 'The G20 comprises twenty countries'

Key Points

  • The G20 does not consist solely of twenty countries:
  • Although the name "G20" suggests twenty members, the group includes 19 individual countries along with the European Union as a collective member.
  • The European Union is represented by the European Commission and the European Central Bank, making the total number of participants 20.
  • Therefore, the claim that the G20 comprises twenty countries is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Overview of the G20:
  • The Group of Twenty (G20) is an international forum established in 1999 to bring together the world's major economies for discussions on global economic and financial issues.
  • Its members include both advanced and emerging economies, representing a diverse range of economic systems and perspectives.
  • The G20 holds summits annually, where leaders of member nations discuss pressing global challenges, including climate change, trade, economic stability, and development.
  • Correct statements about the G20:
  • Founded in 1999: The G20 was established in response to financial crises during the late 1990s, aiming to enhance international cooperation and foster economic stability.
  • Annual summits: The G20 summit is held every year under the leadership of a rotating presidency. Each year, a different member country assumes the presidency and sets the agenda for discussions.
  • Global representation: The G20 members collectively account for approximately 85% of global GDP, reflecting their significant influence on the world economy. They also represent around two-thirds of the global population and 75% of international trade.
  • Misconception about the G20's composition:
  • The G20 comprises 19 countries and the European Union, not strictly 20 individual nations.
  • The inclusion of the EU as a member highlights the group's emphasis on regional representation alongside individual countries.

Important Points

  • The G20 includes major economies such as the United States, China, India, Germany, Japan, and Brazil, among others.
  • It addresses diverse global challenges, including financial stability, sustainable development, and climate change.
  • Key international organizations, such as the United Nations, World Bank, and International Monetary Fund, often participate in G20 meetings to provide insights and support discussions.
  • The G20 Presidency rotates annually, and the host country organizes the summit and sets the agenda. Recent host countries include Indonesia (2022) and India (2023).

Question 38

UPSC EPFO 2023• Test

The Nobel Prize in Chemistry for the year 2022 was awarded for

  1. AOption (a)

    CRISPR/Cas9 genetic scissors

  2. BOption (b)

    click chemistry and bioorthogonal chemistry

  3. COption (c)

    lithium-ion batteries

  4. DOption (d)

    palaeogenomics

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

click chemistry and bioorthogonal chemistry

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is click chemistry and bioorthogonal chemistry.

Key Points

  • The 2022 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to Carolyn R. Bertozzi, Morten Meldal, and K. Barry Sharpless for their significant contributions to click chemistry and bioorthogonal chemistry.
  • K. Barry Sharpless introduced the concept of "click chemistry" in 2001, which focuses on simple and reliable chemical reactions that join molecular building blocks efficiently.
  • Morten Meldal independently discovered one of the foundational reactions of click chemistry—the copper-catalyzed azide-alkyne cycloaddition—widely used in medicinal chemistry and materials science.
  • Carolyn R. Bertozzi developed bioorthogonal chemistry, which allows chemical reactions to occur inside living organisms without interfering with natural biological processes.
  • The award highlighted the practical applications of these chemical techniques in fields such as pharmaceuticals, diagnostics, and materials science.

Additional Information

  • Click Chemistry:
  • It involves chemical reactions that are fast, efficient, and produce minimal byproducts.
  • One of its most popular reactions, the copper-catalyzed azide-alkyne cycloaddition, is often used for drug discovery and polymer chemistry.
  • The simplicity and reliability of click chemistry make it widely applicable in various scientific disciplines.
  • Bioorthogonal Chemistry:
  • It refers to chemical reactions that can take place in living systems without disrupting native biochemical processes.
  • This innovation has paved the way for advancements in imaging, drug delivery, and the study of biomolecules within living organisms.
  • Applications in Medicine:
  • Click and bioorthogonal chemistry have been instrumental in developing targeted cancer therapies, antibody-drug conjugates, and diagnostic tools.
  • These techniques enable precise modification of biomolecules, leading to breakthroughs in personalized medicine.
  • Nobel Laureates:
  • K. Barry Sharpless is notable for being one of the few individuals to win two Nobel Prizes in Chemistry (2001 and 2022).
  • Morten Meldal's discoveries have advanced synthetic chemistry and catalysis research.
  • Carolyn Bertozzi's work has expanded the understanding of glycobiology and its implications in health and disease.

Question 39

UPSC EPFO 2023• Test

Which of the following statements about a 'unicorn' is/are correct?

  1. In the venture capital industry, the term 'unicorn' refers to any startup that reaches the valuation of $10 billion.
  2. Only a privately held startup can be a unicorn.

Select the correct answer using the code given below$.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2) 2 only.

Key Points

  • The term 'unicorn' refers to privately held startups valued at over $1 billion, not $10 billion.
  • Unicorns are exclusively privately held companies, meaning they are not publicly traded.
  • Once a startup goes public or is acquired, it is no longer considered a unicorn.
  • The concept was first popularized by venture capitalist Aileen Lee in 2013.
  • Unicorn startups are rare and considered significant achievements in the startup ecosystem.

Additional Information

  • Decacorn: A term used for startups valued at over $10 billion.
  • Hectocorn: Refers to companies that have a valuation exceeding $100 billion.
  • Valuation: The process of determining the current worth of a company, often based on market potential, assets, and investor interest.
  • Privately Held Companies: These are companies whose shares are not traded on public stock exchanges, and ownership is typically limited to founders, employees, and private investors.
  • Startup Ecosystem: Refers to the collective environment made up of entrepreneurs, investors, accelerators, incubators, and other stakeholders fostering startup growth and innovation.

Question 40

UPSC EPFO 2023• Test

Which of the following statements about Santosh Trophy Tournament, 2023 is/are correct?

  1. The final match was played in Riyadh.
  2. The final match was played between Karnataka and Meghalaya.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • Santosh Trophy 2023: The final match of the Santosh Trophy 2023, India's premier domestic football tournament, was held outside India for the first time.
  • Location: The final match was played  in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, marking a significant milestone in the tournament's history.
  • Teams: The final was contested between Karnataka and Meghalaya, with both teams having made their way through the knockout stages to reach the finals.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is- Both 1 and 2.

Additional Information

  • Option 1 (The final match was played in Riyadh):
  • This statement is correct as the final match was indeed played in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, making it the first time the Santosh Trophy was hosted outside India.
  • Option 2 (The final match was played between Karnataka and Meghalaya):
  • This statement is correct as the teams that contested the final were Karnataka and Meghalaya. The two states had been competing in a fiercely contested tournament and reached the final after strong performances.