Search Previous Year Questions

The correct answer is 2, 1, 4, 6, 5, 3.

Key Points

• All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC): Established in 1920, it is the oldest trade union federation in India. AITUC was formed during the pre-independence era to represent labor interests and played a significant role in organizing workers against colonial exploitation.
• Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC): Founded in 1947, INTUC emerged right after India's independence. It was aligned with the Indian National Congress and focused on improving labor welfare and industrial relations.
• United Trade Union Congress (UTUC): This federation came into being in 1949. It was established to represent workers with a more leftist ideology. UTUC has historically been associated with socialist and communist movements.
• Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS): Founded in 1955, BMS is affiliated with the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) and is known for its nationalist approach to labor issues.
• Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU): Established in 1970, CITU is a leftist trade union affiliated with the Communist Party of India (Marxist). It has been known for its strong advocacy of workers' rights and socialist principles.
• Self-Employed Women's Association (SEWA): Founded in 1972, SEWA focuses on organizing women working in the informal sector. It is a unique federation that combines trade unionism with cooperative principles.

Additional Information

• All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC):
• It was formed under the leadership of Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and others.
• AITUC is associated with leftist and socialist ideologies.
• It is affiliated with the World Federation of Trade Unions (WFTU).
• Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC):
• INTUC is the largest trade union federation in India in terms of membership.
• It works closely with industries to ensure labor welfare and harmonious industrial relations.
• Self-Employed Women's Association (SEWA):
• SEWA is based in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, and was founded by Ela Bhatt.
• The organization primarily focuses on women working in the informal economy.
• It promotes women's economic independence and empowerment through microfinance, skill development, and cooperative models.

The correct answer is 'The Freedom of Association and Protection of the Right to Organize Convention (No. 87)'

Key Points

• The Freedom of Association and Protection of the Right to Organize Convention (No. 87):
• India has not ratified the ILO Convention No. 87, which pertains to the right of workers to freely organize without interference.
• This convention is considered fundamental as it emphasizes the freedom of workers and employers to form and join organizations of their choice, without prior authorization.
• Ratifying this convention would require India to ensure complete autonomy for labor unions, which may conflict with certain domestic policies and regulations that impose restrictions on labor union activities.
• India's labor laws currently regulate union formation and activities, which is one reason why this convention has not been ratified.
• Another factor is India's federal structure, as labor is a subject under the concurrent list, making coordination between central and state governments complex.

Additional Information

• The Forced Labour Convention (No. 29):
• India ratified this convention in 1954. It prohibits all forms of forced or compulsory labor, including bonded labor.
• India has enacted legislation such as the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976, to comply with the provisions of this convention.
• This convention is aimed at eliminating forced labor practices globally.
• The Equal Remuneration Convention (No. 100):
• India ratified this convention in 1958. It mandates equal pay for men and women for work of equal value.
• The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, was enacted to align with this convention's principles.
• This convention is critical for promoting gender equality in the workplace.
• The Discrimination (Employment and Occupation) Convention (No. 111):
• India ratified this convention in 1960. It prohibits discrimination in employment and occupation based on race, color, sex, religion, political opinion, national extraction, or social origin.
• India has incorporated this principle into its Constitution under Articles 14, 15, and 16, which guarantee equality and prohibit discrimination.
• This convention is essential for ensuring inclusive and equitable workplaces globally.

Important Points

• The ILO has eight core conventions that are considered fundamental to promoting workers' rights globally.
• India has ratified six out of the eight core conventions, including those on forced labor, equal remuneration, and discrimination.
• The two conventions that India has not ratified are Convention No. 87 (Freedom of Association) and Convention No. 98 (Right to Organize and Collective Bargaining).
• Ratification of these conventions often requires significant changes in domestic policies and legal frameworks, which may pose challenges for countries like India.

The Correct answer is Unions A, B, C and D only.

Key Points

• The Trade Unions Act, 1926 governs the registration and regulation of trade unions in India.
• According to Section 4 of the Act, any trade union must have a minimum of 10% of the total workforce or at least 100 members to be eligible for registration.
• The establishment has 1100 workmen, which means that a union needs at least 100 members to qualify for registration.
• Union A has 100 members, Union B has 370 members, Union C has 110 members, and Union D has 275 members. All these unions meet the minimum requirement for registration.
• Union E, however, has only 80 members, which is below the required threshold of 100 members. Hence, it cannot be registered.
• Therefore, only unions A, B, C, and D qualify for registration under the Trade Unions Act, 1926.

Additional Information

• Union E
• Union E has only 80 members, which does not meet the minimum requirement of 100 members as per the Trade Unions Act, 1926.
• It is important to note that the act aims to ensure that trade unions represent a substantial portion of the workforce to function effectively.
• Trade Unions Act, 1926
• The act provides for the registration of trade unions and ensures their legality.
• It sets the minimum membership requirements and regulates the activities and rights of registered trade unions.
• The act also ensures that registered unions are protected from civil and criminal liabilities for legitimate trade union activities.

The correct answer is optional.

Key Points

• The Trade Unions Act, 1926 governs the registration and functioning of trade unions in India.
• Under this Act, the registration of trade unions by workers is optional, not mandatory.
• The Act provides a legal framework for registered trade unions to operate as a legitimate body and to protect their members’ rights.
• While the Act does not make registration compulsory, it offers several benefits for registered trade unions, such as legal recognition, protection from certain civil and criminal liabilities, and the ability to negotiate better terms on behalf of workers.
• The provision of optional registration ensures flexibility for workers to organize themselves formally or informally depending on their specific needs and circumstances.
• The Act applies to industrial workers across all sectors, including both public utility services and non-public utility services, without requiring mandatory registration.
• This flexibility helps balance the rights of workers to freely associate and form unions with the practicalities of their working conditions.

Additional Information

• Compulsory Registration
• Compulsory registration of trade unions is not mandated under the Trade Unions Act, 1926, as it would infringe on the right to freedom of association, which is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(c) of the Indian Constitution.
• Optional for Non-Public Utility Services
• The Act does not distinguish between public utility services and non-public utility services in terms of registration requirements.
• Compulsory for Public Utility Services
• Even for workers in public utility services, registration of trade unions is not mandatory. Workers in such services are also free to decide whether or not to register their unions.

The correct answer is Common Law Right.

Key Points

• ​The right to strike is not guaranteed as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India.
• The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 regulates the procedure for strikes but does not create the right itself.
• Workers can strike, but only by following legal procedures and restrictions imposed by law.
• The judiciary in India has upheld the right to strike as a legitimate form of protest but has also emphasized the need for it to not disrupt public order or essential services.
• The term "Common Law Right" refers to rights that are derived from judicial precedents and practices rather than being explicitly mentioned in statutory or constitutional provisions.
• In the context of strikes, this means workers have the right to protest or strike, provided it adheres to the conditions set forth by law.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Right
• Fundamental Rights are enshrined in the Indian Constitution and include rights like the right to equality, freedom, and protection against exploitation.
• The right to strike is not explicitly mentioned as a Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution.
• Statutory Right
• A Statutory Right is one that is provided by a specific statute or law.
• While the right to strike is regulated under laws like the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, it is not classified as a Statutory Right but rather as a Common Law Right.
• Equitable Right
• An Equitable Right refers to rights based on principles of fairness and justice, rather than specific laws or precedents.
• The right to strike is not categorized as an Equitable Right, as it is derived from legal and judicial frameworks.

Shortcut Trick

1. If A coincides with O, chords are diameters. Diameters divide a circle into 4 equal areas only if they are perpendicular (90°). Since they can be at any angle, Statement 1 is not always true.
2. If A ≠ O, the chords intersect off-center. There is no general geometric symmetry that forces any two of the four resulting regions to have equal areas for all chords.
3. In geometry, 'always' requires the property to hold for every possible configuration. Since both cases have counter-examples (non-perpendicular diameters or asymmetric off-center chords), both statements are incorrect.

∴ The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Alternate Method

Given: A circle with center O and two chords PQ and RS intersecting at point A.

Case 1: A and O coincide (A = O).

⇒ PQ and RS are diameters of the circle.

⇒ The intersection of two diameters creates four sectors.

⇒ Area of a sector = (θ ÷ 360) × πr².

⇒ The areas are equal if and only if θ = 90°. For any other angle, we get two pairs of equal areas (vertically opposite), but not all four are equal. Thus, Statement 1 is false.

O (A) Area 1 Area 2 Diameters (A=O)     A  O     Off-center (A≠O)

Case 2: A and O do not coincide (A ≠ O).

⇒ Chords PQ and RS intersect at point A inside the circle but away from the center.

⇒ The four regions formed are bounded by chord segments and circle arcs.

⇒ Area of a region = Area of sector formed by arc − Area of triangle formed by center and chord endpoints (or plus, depending on position).

⇒ In a general case where chords have different lengths or intersect at arbitrary angles/positions, no two areas are guaranteed to be equal. Thus, Statement 2 is false.

∴ The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Additional Information

Intersecting Chords Theorem

If two chords PQ and RS intersect at point A, then the product of the lengths of the segments of the chords is equal: PA × AQ = RA × AS.

Area of Circle Sectors

A sector is a portion of a circle enclosed by two radii and an arc. Its area is A = (1 ÷ 2) × r² × θ, where θ is the central angle in radians.

Symmetry of Chords

Equal chords are equidistant from the center. If two equal chords intersect, the segments of one chord are respectively equal to the segments of the other chord.

Given:

There are five friends P, Q, R, S and T.

Mean of weights of P, Q, R and S is 50 kg.

Total weight of P, Q, R and S = (P + Q + R + S)

Mean = (P + Q + R + S) / 4

50 = (P + Q + R + S) / 4

P + Q + R + S = 50 * 4

P + Q + R + S = 200 kg ------(i)

Mean of weights of Q, R, S and T is also 50 kg.

Total weight of Q, R, S and T = (Q + R + S + T)

Mean = (Q + R + S + T) / 4

50 = (Q + R + S + T) / 4

Q + R + S + T = 50 * 4

Q + R + S + T = 200 kg ------(ii)

Statement 1: The weight of T is 50 kg.

From equation (ii), we know that the sum of the weights of Q, R, S and T is 200 kg.

While the mean is 50 kg, we cannot conclude that T's weight is exactly 50 kg without knowing the weights of Q, R and S individually.

Therefore, Statement 1 is not correct.

Hence, Statement 1 is FALSE.

Statement 2: The weights of P and T are equal.

Let's compare equation (i) and (ii):

P + Q + R + S = 200 ------(i)

Q + R + S + T = 200 ------(ii)

Since the right-hand sides of both equations are equal, the left-hand sides must also be equal.

P + Q + R + S = Q + R + S + T

Subtracting (Q + R + S) from both sides of the equation:

P = T

This shows that the weight of P is equal to the weight of T.

Hence, Statement 2 is TRUE.

Thus, Only statement 2 is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a row facing North.

There are four people between P and V,

T is a neighbour of R and V. 

Now, we have 4 cases,

Case 1:

Case 2:

Case 3:

Case 4:

W is a neighbour of both Q and U,

P and S are neighbours

Case 1:

Now this case gets eliminated as W, Q, and U cannot sit together because if they sit after V, then the total persons will be 9.

Case 2:

Case 3:

Case 4:

Now this case gets eliminated as W, Q, and U cannot sit together because if they sit after V, then the total persons will be 9.

Now, case 2, case 3 are valid seating arrangements

Case 2:

Case 3:

Thus, from both cases total number of persons between P and R is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Height of building (h) = 10 m

Angle of elevation from top of the building = 30º

Angle of elevation from bottom of the building = 45º

Formula used:

For angle of elevation:

tan θ = Perpendicular / Base

Calculation:

Let the height of the tower above the building be x meters and the distance between the building and the tower be d meters.

From the top of the building:

tan 30º = x / d

⇒ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} = \frac{x}{d}\)

⇒ d = x × 1.73

From the bottom of the building:

tan 45º = (x + 10) / d

⇒ 1 = (x + 10) / d

⇒ d = x + 10

Equating both values of d:

x × 1.73 = x + 10

⇒ 1.73x - x = 10

⇒ 0.73x = 10

⇒ x ≈ 13.65 m

∴ The correct answer is Option (3).

Given:

Total questions = 50

Correct answer marks = 4

Wrong answer marks = -1

Candidate's pattern = A, B, C, D, ...

Correct answer in all questions = C

Calculations:

The candidate's pattern of ticking options is A, B, C, D, which repeats every 4 questions.

⇒ Number of sets of 4 questions = 50 ÷ 4 = 12 with a remainder of 2

In each set of 4 questions, the candidate answers 'C' correctly once.

⇒ Number of correct answers = 12 × 1 = 12

In each set, the candidate gives 3 wrong answers (A, B, D).

⇒ Number of wrong answers in 12 sets = 12 × 3 = 36

The remaining 2 questions follow the pattern A, B. Since the correct answer is C, both of these are wrong.

⇒ Additional wrong answers = 2

Total wrong answers = 36 + 2 = 38

Total score = (Number of correct answers × Marks per correct answer) + (Number of wrong answers × Marks per wrong answer)

⇒ Total score = (12 × 4) + (38 × -1)

⇒ Total score = 48 - 38

⇒ Total score = 10

∴ The total score of the candidate is 10.