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Question 11

UPSC Civil Services Examination 2026• Paper-2 (CSAT)

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers should be based solely on the passage.

India is starting to deploy AI for critical use cases such as weather forecasting, pest detection and control, and crop yield optimisation. However, penetration is limited to a small subset of tech-savvy farmers. In the US and Europe, generative AI tools have started offering precision farming at scale, integrating large datasets to provide real-time agronomic insights. For at-scale integration and accessibility of AI tools in India, it would be helpful to develop Indian languages-based AI tools for smallholder farmers, partner with AgTechs to create affordable AI solutions, and disseminate AI-based advisory services through government programmes.

Which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

  1. Agricultural productivity has marched ahead in the West because of the economies of scale facilitated by the adoption of AI tools.

  2. Affordable AI tools rendered available in local languages can help AI-based solutions reach more and more small farmers.

  3. Though penetration is as yet low, critical application areas deploying AI tools are already in use in India.

Select the answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

Based on the passage provided, here is the step-by-step analysis of the given assumptions:

Assumption 1: Agricultural productivity has marched ahead in the West because of the economies of scale facilitated by the adoption of AI tools.

The passage mentions that in the US and Europe, generative AI tools have started offering precision farming at scale. However, it does not explicitly state that agricultural productivity has 'marched ahead' or that 'economies of scale' were the specific cause of such progress. Since the answers must be based solely on the passage, this assumption is not valid.

Assumption 2: Affordable AI tools rendered available in local languages can help AI-based solutions reach more and more small farmers.

The text suggests that for at-scale integration and accessibility of AI tools in India, it would be helpful to develop Indian languages-based AI tools for smallholder farmers and partner with AgTechs to create affordable AI solutions. This implies that language support and affordability are critical factors for reaching a larger number of farmers. Therefore, this assumption is valid.

Assumption 3: Though penetration is as yet low, critical application areas deploying AI tools are already in use in India.

The passage starts by stating that India is starting to deploy AI for critical use cases such as weather forecasting, pest detection and control, and crop yield optimisation. It immediately follows this by noting that penetration is limited to a small subset of tech-savvy farmers. This directly confirms that critical applications are in use despite low overall penetration. Therefore, this assumption is valid.

The valid assumptions are 2 and 3 only.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Question 12

UPSC Civil Services Examination 2026• Paper-2 (CSAT)

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers should be based solely on the passage.

India is starting to deploy AI for critical use cases such as weather forecasting, pest detection and control, and crop yield optimisation. However, penetration is limited to a small subset of tech-savvy farmers. In the US and Europe, generative AI tools have started offering precision farming at scale, integrating large datasets to provide real-time agronomic insights. For at-scale integration and accessibility of AI tools in India, it would be helpful to develop Indian languages-based AI tools for smallholder farmers, partner with AgTechs to create affordable AI solutions, and disseminate AI-based advisory services through government programmes.

Which of the following statements is/are not correct?

  1. Tech-savvy farmers will drive the AgTech companies of the future.

  2. The development of advisory services by the government programmes for the use of AI tools in agriculture would be helpful.

  3. In the US and Europe, AI tools have replaced traditional agricultural practices.

  4. The integration of large datasets for use in real-time agronomic analysis is already a reality.

Select the answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 3 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is not correct: The passage mentions that AI penetration is currently limited to a small subset of tech-savvy farmers in India. It does not state or imply that these farmers will drive the AgTech companies of the future.
  • Statement 3 is not correct: While the passage states that AI tools in the US and Europe offer precision farming at scale, it does not claim that these tools have replaced traditional agricultural practices entirely. Replacement is an overstatement not supported by the text.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The text explicitly suggests that for accessibility, it would be helpful to disseminate AI-based advisory services through government programmes.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The passage confirms that in the US and Europe, AI tools are already integrating large datasets to provide real-time agronomic insights.

Therefore, the incorrect statements are 1 and 3.

 

Additional Information

  • The passage highlights that India is already deploying AI for critical use cases like weather forecasting and pest detection.
  • To reach smallholder farmers, the passage emphasizes the development of Indian languages-based AI tools and affordable solutions through partnerships with AgTechs.

Question 13

UPSC Civil Services Examination 2026• Paper-2 (CSAT)

P, Q, R, S and T are ranked 1 to 5 (not necessarily in that order). The rank of P is 4, the rank of Q is not 5, the rank of R is 1, the rank of S is not 2, the rank of T is not 3. Then which of the following is/are correct?

I. If the rank of S is 3, then that of T is 2.

II. If the rank of Q is 3, then that of T is 5.

Select the answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    I only

  2. BOption (b)

    II only

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither I nor II

Why this answer is correct

Given:

P = 4

R = 1

Q ≠ 5

S ≠ 2

T ≠ 3

Remaining ranks to assign are: 2, 3, 5

Checking Statement I:

If S = 3,

Then Q and T must take 2 and 5.

Since Q ≠ 5,

Q = 2 and T = 5

But the statement says T = 2, which is false.

So, Statement I does not follow.

Checking Statement II:

If Q = 3,

Then S and T must take 2 and 5.

Since S ≠ 2,

S = 5 and T = 2

But the statement says T = 5, which is false.

So, Statement II also does not follow.

Therefore, neither I nor II is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 14

UPSC Civil Services Examination 2026• Paper-2 (CSAT)

Two identical straight rods are painted in five distinct colours so that each of them gets divided into five equal parts along the length. In one of them, the portions are marked P1, P2, P3, P4 and P5 (not necessarily in that order) whereas in the other, they are marked Q1, Q2, Q3, Q4 and Q5 (not necessarily in that order). When the rods are kept parallel to each other side by side, P1 and Q3 match, P4 matches Q1 or Q2, and Q4 matches P3 or P5. If Q3 and Q5 are adjacent, which of the following is/are possible?

I. Q3 is marked at the middle portion of the straight rod.

II. P2 is marked at one of the extreme portions of the straight rod.

Select the answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    I only

  2. BOption (b)

    II only

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  1. P1 matches Q3
  2. P4 matches Q1 or Q2
  3. Q4 matches P3 or P5
  4. Q3 and Q5 are adjacent

Possible Arrangement:

Rod 1P2P1P4P3P5
Rod 2Q5Q3Q1Q4Q2

Here:

  1. P1 matches Q3
  2. P4 matches Q1
  3. Q4 matches P3
  4. Q3 and Q5 are adjacent

 

Checking Statement I:

Q3 is placed at the second position, but it can also be placed at the middle position in another valid arrangement.

So, Statement I is possible.

Checking Statement II:

In the above arrangement, P2 is placed at an extreme end.

So, Statement II is also possible.

Therefore, both I and II are possible.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 15

UPSC Civil Services Examination 2026• Paper-2 (CSAT)

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G travel by three cars X, Y, Z. A and another two of them travel by X. Only E travels with G. C travels by Z, but B does not travel by Y. Besides, A and B do not travel by the same car. Then which of the following are correct?

I. No one travels alone.

II. Only D travels with F.

III. Only C travels with B.

Select the answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    I and II only

  2. BOption (b)

    I and III only

  3. COption (c)

    II and III only

  4. DOption (d)

    All the three

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I and III only

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  1. A and two others travel by X → X has 3 persons.
  2. Only E travels with G.
  3. C travels by Z.
  4. B does not travel by Y.
  5. A and B do not travel by the same car.

 

Arrangement:

CarPersons
XA, D, F
YE, G
ZB, C

This arrangement satisfies all the conditions.

Checking Statement I:

No one travels alone.

X has 3 persons, Y has 2 persons, Z has 2 persons.

So, Statement I is correct.

Checking Statement II:

“Only D travels with F” means only two persons are in that car.

But A also travels with D and F in car X.

So, Statement II is false.

Checking Statement III:

Only C travels with B.

Car Z contains only B and C.

So, Statement III is correct.

Therefore, Statements I and III only are correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 16

UPSC Civil Services Examination 2026• Paper-2 (CSAT)

There are four statements X, Y, Z and W. Their relations are as follows :

If X is incorrect, then so is Z; if Y is incorrect, then W is correct; if W is correct, then X is incorrect.

Which of the following is/are correct?

I. If X is correct, then so is Y.

II. If Z is correct, then it is not necessary that Y is correct.

Select the answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    I only

  2. BOption (b)

    II only

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I only

Why this answer is correct

The relations given in the statements can be represented as logical implications:

  1. X is incorrect → Z is incorrect
  2. Y is incorrect → W is correct
  3. W is correct → X is incorrect

 

Step 1: Combining the logical relations

By combining statements 2 and 3: If Y is incorrect, then W is correct, and if W is correct, then X is incorrect.

This gives the sequence: Y is incorrect → W is correct → X is incorrect.

Now, incorporating statement 1: If X is incorrect, then Z is incorrect.

This forms the complete logical chain: Y is incorrect → W is correct → X is incorrect → Z is incorrect.

 

Step 2: Evaluating Conclusion I

Conclusion I: If X is correct, then so is Y.

From our chain, we have the relation: Y is incorrect → X is incorrect.

The contrapositive of this statement is: If X is correct, then Y is correct.

Therefore, Conclusion I is correct.

 

Step 3: Evaluating Conclusion II

Conclusion II: If Z is correct, then it is not necessary that Y is correct.

From our chain, we have the relation: Y is incorrect → Z is incorrect (derived from Y is incorrect → W → X is incorrect → Z is incorrect).

The contrapositive of this statement is: If Z is correct, then Y is correct.

This means if Z is correct, Y must be correct. The statement that it is 'not necessary' contradicts this logical derivation.

Therefore, Conclusion II is incorrect.

 

Based on the analysis, only Conclusion I follows from the given statements.

Correct Answer: I only

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 17

UPSC Civil Services Examination 2026• Paper-2 (CSAT)

X and Y are two runners who run for the same duration of time on the same circular track. They started running at the same time in the same direction with uniform speeds. When X completed 7 rounds, Y did exactly 5. After completing 5 rounds, Y changed his direction and started running in the opposite direction with speed which is double of his earlier speed. On the other hand, X continued to run with the same speed. They stopped running when X completed exactly 21 rounds. How many times did X and Y meet after they had started and before they finally stopped?

  1. AOption (a)

    35

  2. BOption (b)

    34

  3. COption (c)

    31

  4. DOption (d)

    29

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

35

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Phase 1 (Same direction): X covers 7 rounds, Y covers 5 rounds. Meetings = |7 − 5| = 2.

Phase 2 (Opposite direction): X needs 21 − 7 = 14 rounds. Time is doubled, so Y speed × 2 and time × 2 ⇒ Y rounds = 5 × 4 = 20.

Meetings in Phase 2 = 14 + 20 = 34.

Total meeting points = 2 + 34 = 36. Excluding the final stopping point: 36 − 1 = 35.

∴ The correct answer is 35.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial rounds X = 7, Y = 5. Final rounds X = 21. Speed of Y doubles and direction reverses after 5 rounds.

Formula: Meetings (Same dir) = |Rounds1 − Rounds2|; Meetings (Opposite dir) = Rounds1 + Rounds2.

Phase 1: Same Direction (0 to T1)

⇒ Rounds by X = 7; Rounds by Y = 5.

⇒ Relative rounds = 7 − 5 = 2. Meetings occur at relative distance 1L and 2L.

⇒ Meeting times: t = 0.5T1 and t = T1 (at the starting point).

Phase 2: Opposite Direction (T1 to Tfinal)

⇒ Speed of X (Vx) = 7/T1; Speed of Y (Vy1) = 5/T1.

⇒ New Speed of Y (Vy2) = 2 × (5/T1) = 10/T1.

⇒ Remaining rounds for X = 21 − 7 = 14 rounds.

⇒ Time for Phase 2 (T2) = 14 / (7/T1) = 2T1.

⇒ Rounds by Y in Phase 2 = Vy2 × T2 = (10/T1) × 2T1 = 20 rounds.

⇒ Relative rounds in opposite direction = 14 + 20 = 34.

⇒ Meetings in Phase 2 occur at relative distances 1L, 2L, ..., 34L.

⇒ The 34th meeting is at the final stop (14 + 20 = 34).

Total Meetings:

⇒ After start and before stop = (Meetings in Phase 1) + (Meetings in Phase 2 excluding last one).

⇒ Total = 2 + (34 − 1) = 2 + 33 = 35.

∴ The correct answer is 35.

Additional Information

Circular Track Meetings (Same Direction)

When two objects move in the same direction, the number of times they meet is given by the difference in the number of rounds covered: |n − m|.

Circular Track Meetings (Opposite Direction)

When two objects move in opposite directions, the number of times they meet is given by the sum of the number of rounds covered: n + m.

Relative Speed on Circular Track

Relative speed in same direction is V1 − V2 and in opposite direction is V1 + V2. Time between consecutive meetings is L / Vrelative.

Question 18

UPSC Civil Services Examination 2026• Paper-2 (CSAT)

In an objective type question paper, 5 marks are awarded for a correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for a wrong answer. A student attempted all the questions and got a score of 69. Had he been awarded 4 marks for a correct answer and 1 mark deducted for a wrong answer, he would have scored 84. How many questions were there in the question paper?

  1. AOption (a)

    99

  2. BOption (b)

    81

  3. COption (c)

    84

  4. DOption (d)

    79

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

81

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the number of Correct answers be C and Wrong answers be W.

Case 1: 5C − 2W = 69

Case 2: 4C − 1W = 84 ⇒ 8C − 2W = 168 (Multiplying by 2 to equate W)

Subtracting Eq 1 from Eq 2: (8C − 5C) = 168 − 69 ⇒ 3C = 99 ⇒ C = 33

Putting C = 33 in Case 2: 4(33) − W = 84 ⇒ 132 − W = 84 ⇒ W = 48

Total questions = C + W = 33 + 48 = 81

∴ The correct answer is 81.

Alternate Method

Given:

Correct answer marks (Case 1) = +5 | Wrong answer marks (Case 1) = −2 | Score = 69

Correct answer marks (Case 2) = +4 | Wrong answer marks (Case 2) = −1 | Score = 84

Formula Used:

Total Marks = (Number of Correct × Marks per Correct) − (Number of Wrong × Negative marks per Wrong)

Total Questions = Correct + Wrong (Since all questions were attempted)

Let Correct answers be x and Wrong answers be y.

⇒ 5x − 2y = 69 --- (i)

⇒ 4x − y = 84 --- (ii)

⇒ From (ii), y = 4x − 84

⇒ Substitute y in (i): 5x − 2(4x − 84) = 69

⇒ 5x − 8x + 168 = 69

⇒ −3x = 69 − 168

⇒ −3x = −99

⇒ x = 33

⇒ y = 4(33) − 84 = 132 − 84 = 48

⇒ Total questions = x + y = 33 + 48 = 81

∴ The correct answer is 81.

Additional Information

Linear Equations in Two Variables

Equations of the form ax + by + c = 0 can be solved using Substitution, Elimination, or Cross-multiplication methods.

Negative Marking Calculation

Total marks = (Correct × Marks/Correct) − (Wrong × Penalty/Wrong). If unattempted questions exist, they are excluded from the sum of Correct and Wrong.

Consistency of Equations

A system has a unique solution if a1/a2 ≠ b1/b2. In this problem, 5/4 ≠ (−2)/(−1), ensuring a unique count of questions.

Question 19

UPSC Civil Services Examination 2026• Paper-2 (CSAT)

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers should be based solely on the passage.

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, or the JJ Act, 2015 allows for the possibility for trying adolescents above 16 as adults if they are accused of committing a heinous offence. A heinous offence is one with a minimum punishment of seven years. Offences such as culpable homicide and causing death by negligence, which are common in drunken driving cases, are not heinous offences because they do not have a prescribed minimum punishment. The JJ Act, amended in 2021, now categorises an offence that has no minimum sentence, but has a maximum sentence of seven years or more as a serious offence which nonetheless, in the opinion of activists, does not merit the transfer of a case to the adult criminal justice system.

Which of the following conclusions is/are valid?

  1. Only a serious offence as categorised by the revised JJ Act, justifies the transfer of a case to the adult judicial system.

  2. The JJ Act, 2021, categorises an offence as a serious offence based on the maximum sentence it carries, rather than on the minimum sentence.

Select the answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • Conclusion 1 is invalid. According to the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, it is the heinous offences (offences with a minimum punishment of seven years) that allow for the possibility of trying adolescents above 16 as adults. The 2021 amendment introduced serious offences, but the passage mentions that in the opinion of activists, these do not merit the transfer of a case to the adult criminal justice system.
  • Conclusion 2 is valid. The passage explicitly states that the JJ Act, amended in 2021, categorises an offence that has no minimum sentence but has a maximum sentence of seven years or more as a serious offence. This confirms that the classification of a 'serious offence' is based on the maximum sentence rather than the minimum.
  • Since only the second conclusion logically follows from the text provided, the correct code is 2 only.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2 only.

 

Additional Information

  • Heinous Offences: Defined by the JJ Act 2015 as crimes carrying a minimum punishment of seven years. Examples like culpable homicide or negligent death often fall outside this because they may lack a prescribed minimum sentence.
  • Serious Offences: A category created by the 2021 amendment to include crimes with a maximum sentence of 7+ years but no minimum sentence, addressing a legal gap highlighted by various court cases.
  • Age Threshold: The provision for trying juveniles as adults applies specifically to adolescents above 16 years of age involved in specific categories of crime.

Question 20

UPSC Civil Services Examination 2026• Paper-2 (CSAT)

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers should be based solely on the passage.

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, or the JJ Act, 2015 allows for the possibility for trying adolescents above 16 as adults if they are accused of committing a heinous offence. A heinous offence is one with a minimum punishment of seven years. Offences such as culpable homicide and causing death by negligence, which are common in drunken driving cases, are not heinous offences because they do not have a prescribed minimum punishment. The JJ Act, amended in 2021, now categorises an offence that has no minimum sentence, but has a maximum sentence of seven years or more as a serious offence which nonetheless, in the opinion of activists, does not merit the transfer of a case to the adult criminal justice system.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. If an offence has no minimum prescribed punishment, it cannot be considered heinous as per the JJ Act, 2015.

  2. As per the JJ Act, 2021, an offence for which there is a provision for a maximum sentence of seven years or more, but no minimum sentence, is to be considered a serious offence.

Select the answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • According to the JJ Act, 2015, a heinous offence is specifically defined as one that carries a minimum punishment of seven years.
  • The passage explicitly states that offences lacking a prescribed minimum punishment (like culpable homicide or death by negligence) cannot be classified as heinous offences under the 2015 Act. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
  • The JJ Act, 2021 amendment introduced a new classification called a serious offence.
  • This category includes crimes that have no minimum sentence but carry a maximum sentence of seven years or more. This aligns perfectly with the description in the passage. Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.
  • Since both statements accurately reflect the provisions mentioned in the passage, the correct code is Both 1 and 2.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

  • JJ Act, 2015: Focuses on the minimum sentence (7 years) to classify an offence as heinous, which allows for trying minors aged 16-18 as adults.
  • JJ Act, 2021: Addressed a gap in the law by categorising offences with high maximum sentences but no minimum sentences as serious offences.
  • Activist Perspective: The passage notes that activists believe serious offences should not merit the transfer of a juvenile's case to the adult criminal justice system.