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Question 21

UPPSC BEO 2020• General Studies

With reference to the urbanization in India, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

  1. According to the 2011 census more than 60% of total population of the country resides in category 1 cities.
  2. There were 53 urban agglomerations with million plus population each in 2011 in the country.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is 2 only.

  • As per Census 2011 264.9 Million people, constituting 70% of the total urban population lives in Category 1 Cities( The UAs/Town which has at least 1,00,000 persons as a population is categorized as Class 1 City.)
  • Out of 468 UAs/Towns belonging to Class 1 Category, 53 Cities each has a population of one million or above each known has Million Plus UAs/Cities.
  • 160.7 million persons or 42.6% of the urban population lives in these Million plus UAs/Cities.

Question 22

UPPSC BEO 2020• General Studies

Which of the following States of India has the highest number of male child (0-6 years) per 100 girl child as per 2011 census?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arunachal Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Punjab

  3. COption (c)

    Haryana

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Haryana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Haryana

  • The Sex Ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the age group 0-6 years.
  • In the census 2001, the child sex ratio of India was 927 which decreases to 919 in the census 2011.
  • As per the Census 2011, Arunachal Pradesh has the highest child sex retio among the India Staes i.e 972 per thousand male children.
  • Haryana Has the lowest child sex ratio i.e 834 per thousand male children.
  • Among the Union Territories of India Andaman and Nicobar Island has the highest child sex ratio i.e 968 per thousand male.
  • The child Sex Ratio (0-6) of Indian states is given below:-

 

 

 

States/ UTsChild sex ratio (0-6) as per Census 2011
1. Jammu & Kasmir862
2. Himachal Pradesh909
3. Punjab846
4. Chandigarh880
5. Uttarakhand890
6. Haryana834
7. NCT of Delhi871
8. Rajasthan888
9. Uttarpradesh902
10. Bihar935
11. Sikkim957
12. Arunachal Pradesh972
13. Nagaland943
14. Manipur936
15. Mizoram970
16. Tripura957
17. Meghalaya970
18. Assam962
19. West Bengal956
20. Jharkhand948
21. Odisha941
22. Chhattisgarh969
23. Madhya Pradesh918
24. Gujrat890
25. Daman $ Diu904
26. Dadara & Nagar Haveli926
27. Maharashtra894
28. Andhra Pradesh936
29. Karnataka948
30. Goa942
31. Lakshadweep911
32. Kerela964
33. Tamil Nadu943
34. Puducherry967
35. A.& N.Islands968

Question 23

UPPSC BEO 2020• General Studies

Loss of water from the body through perspiration depends on

  1. AOption (a)

    Atmospheric temperature only

  2. BOption (b)

    Atmospheric humidity only

  3. COption (c)

    Both (1) and (2)

  4. DOption (d)

    None of (1) and (2)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both (1) and (2)

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Both (1) and (2).

  • Perspiration is the primary mechanism by which Our body Regulates its temperature. when the outside temperature of the human body increased the body undergoes a series of changes to help maintain a cool temperature.
  • When the atmospheric temperature is high or humidity is high in the atmosphere in both conditions our body temperature goes high and our body starts sweating through the excretion of water and the body loses water.
  • When the atmospheric temperature is high and humidity is low, the water excreted in sweating instantly evaporates in the atmosphere and we feel relief from temperature.
  • When Humidity is high, the air holds more moisture, it is harder for the air to absorb the sweat from our skin. Resulting we continue to sweat, and instead, of feeling any relief, we simply feel hot, sticky, and uncomfortable.

Question 24

UPPSC BEO 2020• General Studies

Which of the following elements is NOT a micronutrient in plants?

  1. AOption (a)

    Iron

  2. BOption (b)

    Manganese

  3. COption (c)

    Copper

  4. DOption (d)

    Magnesium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Magnesium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Magnesium.

  • Plants required about seventeen essential nutrients  to plant growth and health which can be grouped into two classes based on the amount required:
  1. Macronutrient- Require in large amounts.
  2. Micronutrient- Require in a Small amount.

 

Essential MacronutrientEssential Micronutrient
- carbon - Hydrogen - Oxygen - Nitrogen - Phosphorus - Potassium - Sulfur - Magnesium - Calcium- Iron - Molybdenum - Boron - Chlorine - Copper - Zinc - Nickel - Manganese

Question 25

UPPSC BEO 2020• General Studies

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about haemoglobiin?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is red coloured

  2. BOption (b)

    It is the carrier of oxygen from lungs to the cells

  3. COption (c)

    It is slightly acidic

  4. DOption (d)

    It carries carbon dioxide away from the tissues to the lungs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It is slightly acidic

Why this answer is correct

It is slightly acidic is not correct.

  • Haemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells.
  • It gives blood its red colour.
  • The pH of haemoglobin ranges from 7.1 - 7.4. Hence, haemoglobin is slightly basic in nature.
  • It is the carrier of oxygen from the lungs to the cells.
  • It carries carbon dioxide away from the tissues to the lungs.

Additional Information

  • The iron compound found in Haemoglobin is Haematin.
  • Anaemia is caused due to deficiency in haemoglobin.

Question 26

UPPSC BEO 2020• General Studies

Measurement of glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) in the blood is useful for the management of ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Anaemia

  2. BOption (b)

    Hemophilia

  3. COption (c)

    Diabetes mellitus

  4. DOption (d)

    High blood pressure

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Diabetes mellitus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Diabetes mellitus.

  • Measurement of glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) in the blood is useful for the management of Diabetes mellitus.
  • Glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) was initially identified as “unusual” haemoglobin in patients.

Key Points 

  • Haemoglobin is the substance inside red blood cells that carries oxygen to the cells of the body. Glucose molecules in the blood normally become stuck to haemoglobin molecules.
  • This means the haemoglobin has become glycosylated. As a person's blood sugar becomes higher, more of the person's haemoglobin becomes glycosylated. The glucose remains attached to the haemoglobin for the life of the red blood cell, or about 2 to 3 months.
  • The glycosylated haemoglobin test is an important blood test to diagnose diabetes.

Question 27

UPPSC BEO 2020• General Studies

Which of the following duties has/have been prescribed by the Indian Constitution as Fundamental Duties?

  1. To defend the country.
  2. To pay income tax.
  3. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
  4. To safeguard the public property.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 3, and 4.

  • To pay income tax is not a Fundamental Duties. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • There are 11 Fundamental Duties in our Constitution.
  • The Fundamental Duties were added in 1976, upon recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  • It was constituted by Indira Gandhi just after the declaration of national emergency.
  • It was added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
  • The original 10 duties were then increased to 11 by the 86th Amendment in 2002.

Key Points

  • Fundamental Duties:
  1. To oblige with the Indian Constitution and respect the National Anthem and Flag.
  2. To cherish and follow the noble ideas that inspired the national struggle for freedom.
  3. To protect the integrity, sovereignty, and unity of India.
  4. To defend the country and perform national services if and when the country requires. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  5. To promote the spirit of harmony and brotherhood amongst all the people of India and renounce any practices that are derogatory to women.
  6. To cherish and preserve the rich national heritage of our composite culture. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  7. To protect and improve the natural environment including lakes, wildlife, rivers, forests, etc.
  8. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry.
  9. To safeguard all public property. Hence statement 4 is correct.
  10. To strive towards excellence in all genres of individual and collective activities.
  11. To provide opportunities for education to children between 6-14 years of age, and duty as parents to ensure that such opportunities are being awarded to their child.

Question 28

UPPSC BEO 2020• General Studies

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in India is jointly accountable before Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Reason (R): Members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to become Ministers in Union Government.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both  (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) is false but (R) is true

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) is false but (R) is true.

  • Article 75 states that The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People i.e Lok Sabha. Hence Assertion (A) is wrong.
  • It is true that the Members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to become Ministers in Union Government.
  • Article 75 of the Indian Constitution:
  • ​The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
  • The Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
  • The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
  • Before a Minister enters upon his office, the President shall administer to him the oaths of office and of secrecy according to the forms set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.
  • Members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to become Ministers in Union Government. Hence Assertion (R) is correct.
  • Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of either House of Parliament shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister.
  • The salaries and allowances of Ministers shall be such as Parliament may from time to time by law determine according to Second Schedule.

Question 29

UPPSC BEO 2020• General Studies

Arrange the following Committees on Panchayati Raj in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

  1. Rao Committee
  2. L. M. Singhvi Committee
  3. B. R. Mehta Committee
  4. Ashok Mehta Committee
  1. AOption (a)

    2, 3, 1, 4

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 3, 4, 2

  3. COption (c)

    3, 4, 1, 2

  4. DOption (d)

    4, 3, 2, 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3, 4, 1, 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3, 4, 1, 2.

  • Balwant Rai Mehta Committee - 1957
  • Ashok Mehta Committee -1977
  • G V K Rao Committee -1985
  • L M Singhvi Committee -1986

Additional Information

  • Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957): The committee submitted its report in November 1957, in which the term ‘democratic decentralization‘ first appears. The important recommendations are:
  • Transfer of resources and power to these bodies to be ensured.
  • District Collector to be the chairman of Zila Parishad.
  • ​Establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system – gram panchayat at village level (direct election), Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Zila Parishad at the district level (indirect election).
  • Rajasthan (1959) adopted the system first, followed by Andhra Pradesh in the same year.
  • Ashok Mehta Committee (1977): The committee was constituted by the Janata government of the time to study Panchayati Raj institutions. ​The important recommendations are:
  • Constitutional recognition to be given to Panchayati Raj institutions.
  • A minister for Panchayati Raj to be appointed by the state council of ministers.
  • Zila Parishad to be made responsible for planning at the state level.
  • Compulsory powers of taxation to be given to these institutions.
  • Political parties should participate at all levels in the elections.
  • Three-tier system to be replaced by a two-tier system.
  • **G V K Rao Committee (1985): **​The important recommendations of the G V K Rao Committee are:
  • Regular elections to be held.
  • Post of DDC (District Development Commissioner) to be created acting as the chief executive officer of the Zila Parishad.
  • ​Zila Parishad to be given prime importance and all developmental programs at that level to be handed to it.
  • L M Singhvi Commitee (1986): The committee was constituted by the Rajiv Gandhi government on ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj institutions for Democracy and Development. ​​The important recommendations are:
  • Nyaya Panchayats to be established for clusters of villages.
  • Constitutional recognition for Panchayati Raj institutions.

Question 30

UPPSC BEO 2020• General Studies

Which Part of the Constitution of India describes the financial relations between centre and States?

  1. AOption (a)

    Part X

  2. BOption (b)

    Part XI

  3. COption (c)

    Part XII

  4. DOption (d)

    Part XIII

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Part XII

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Part XII.

  • Article 268 to 293 in Part XII deals with the financial relations between Centre and States.
  • The constitution of India has divided the legislative, executive, and financial powers between the centre and the states.
  • It gives the constitution a federal character whereas the judiciary is integrated into a hierarchical structure.

Key Points

  • The center-state relations are divided into three parts, which are mentioned below:
  • Legislative Relations (Article 245 - 255)
  • Administrative Relations (Article 256 - 263)
  • Financial Relations (Article 268 - 293)

Additional Information

  • Financial Relations (Article 268-293): The Constitution has provided the union government and the state governments with independent sources of revenue
  • The parliament has exclusive power to levy taxes on the subjects mentioned in the Union List.
  • The state legislatures have exclusive power to levy taxes on the subjects mentioned in the State List.
  • Both the parliament and the state legislature are empowered to levy taxes on the subjects mentioned in the Concurrent List.
  • The parliament has exclusive power to levy taxes on matters related to the residuary subjects.