Search Previous Year Questions

The correct answer is Siddipet. 

Key Points

• Based on climatic parameters i.e. Rainfall, Soils, and cropping pattern, etc., the State is divided into 3 Agro-climatic zones.
• The agricultural planning for each zone is supported with the research and recommendations of Regional Agricultural Research Stations of PJTSAU setup within each zone.

The correct answer is A, B & C only.

Key Points

• The NITI Aayog  (National Institution for Transforming India) which was formed on January 01, 2015, is a policy think tank of the Government of India.
• The institution was established with the aim to achieve sustainable development goals keeping the spirit of cooperative federalism intact.
• NITI Aayog uses the bottom-up approach. Its objectives include a "15-year road map", "7-year vision, strategy, and action plan",
• NITI Aayog was established in 2015, by the NDA government, it replaced the earlier Planning Commission. Hence the statement A is correct.
• The Prime Minister as its Chairman comprises Chief Ministers of all States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories (UTs).
• Objectives of NITI Aayog
• To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities, sectors and strategies with the active involvement of States. Hence the statement B is correct.
• To foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States on a continuous basis, recognizing that strong States make a strong nation.
• To pay special attention to the sections of our society that may be at risk of not benefiting adequately from economic progress.
• To design strategic and long term policy and programme frameworks and initiatives, and monitor their progress and their efficacy. The lessons learnt through monitoring and feedback will be used for making innovative improvements, including necessary mid-course corrections.
• To create a knowledge, innovation and entrepreneurial support system through a collaborative community of national and international experts, practitioners and other partners. Hence the statement C is correct.
• To maintain a state-of-the-art Resource Centre, be a repository of research on good governance and best practices in sustainable and equitable development as well as help their dissemination to stakeholders.
• To actively monitor and evaluate the implementation of programmes and initiatives, including the identification of the needed resources so as to strengthen the probability of success and scope of delivery.
• Functions of NITI Aayog
• Design Policy & Programme Framework
• Foster Cooperative Federalism
• Monitoring & Evaluation
• Think Tank and Knowledge & Innovation Hub

Additional Information

• Composition: (as of Feb 2021)
• ​Chairperson: Shri Narendra Modi, Hon'ble Prime Minister
• Vice-Chairperson: Dr Rajiv Kumar Hence the statement D is not correct.
• Full-Time Members: Shri V.K. Saraswat, Prof. Ramesh Chand, Dr.

V. K. Paul

• CEO: Shri Amitabh Kant
• Ex-officio Members: Shri Raj Nath Singh (Minister of Defence) Shri Amit Shah (Minister of Home Affairs) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman (Minister of Finance and Minister of Corporate Affairs) Shri Narendra Singh Tomar (Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare; Minister of Rural Development; Minister of Panchayati Raj
• Special Invitees​

Important Points

• As of 2022:
• Chairman - Narendra Modi
• Vice-Chairman -  Suman Bery
• CEO - Parameswaran Iyer

The correct answer is ​B & C only.

Key Points

• Kishori Shakti Yojana (KSY)
• It seeks to empower adolescent girls, so as to enable them to take charge of their lives. It is viewed as a holistic initiative for the development of adolescent girls in the age group of 11 - 18 years.
• The program through its interventions aims at bringing about a difference in the lives of adolescent girls. It seeks to provide them with an opportunity to realize their full potential.
• This scheme is a redesign of the already existing Adolescent Girls (AG) Scheme being implemented as a component under the centrally sponsored Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme.
• The new scheme dramatically extends the coverage of the earlier scheme with significant content enrichment, strengthens the training component, particularly in skill development, aspects aimed at empowerment, and enhanced self-perception.
• It also fosters convergence with other sectoral programs, addressing the interrelated needs of adolescent girls and women.
• Main Objectives of this Scheme:
• The broad objectives of the Scheme are to improve the nutritional, health, and development status of adolescent girls
• Promote awareness of health, hygiene, nutrition, and family care, link them to opportunities for learning life skills, going back to school, help them gain a better understanding of their social environment and take initiatives to become productive members of the society.

The correct answer is A only.

Key Points

• Telangana state has now got a total of 23 national highways after formation of the state.
• The national highways in Telangana will cover about 4,983 square kilometres
• As of 2021-22, Telangana has a total road density of 97.49 km for 100 sq km.

Important Points

• Among the districts, Hyderabad has the highest with a road density of 1332.7 km per 100 sq km.
• Medchal Malkajgiri and Rangareddy are the districts with the second and third highest road densities at 386 km per 100 square km and 157.6 per 100 square km respectively
• NH 44 is the longest highway in India. It starts from Srinagar in the north and ends in Kanyakumari in the south.
• NH 44 is 3,745 km long and covers the North-South Corridor of NHDP.
• NH 118 along with NH 548 are the shortest national highway in India.
• NH 3 (Leh-Manali Highway) is the world’s second highest-altitude motor highway that connects Shimla in Himachal Pradesh to Leh in Ladakh.

Additional Information

National Highways

• The National highways in India are a network of trunk roads that are owned by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
• It is constructed and managed by the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI), the National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation (NHIDCL), and the public works departments (PWD) of state governments.
• Indian national highways connect every major city of India from north to south to east to west.
• India has 151,019 km (93,839 miles) of National Highways as of March 2021.
• Under the new numbering system, North-South highways are even-numbered, and East-West highways are odd-numbered.
• India has the second-largest road network in the world,
• There are over 200 national highways and their cumulative length adds up to 101,011 km.
• The main highway is of a 2-digit number and all the highways that are numbered in three digits are technically branches to the main highway.
• NH 118 connects the towns Asanbani and Jamshedpur in the state of Jharkhand, running for a distance of only about 5 km.
• The NH 548 traverses the state of Maharashtra for about 5 km in length.
• India has Golden Quadrilateral (GQ).
• GQ is a national highway network that connects the major industrial, agricultural, and cultural centers of India. It forms a quadrilateral connecting the four major metro cities of India, viz., Delhi (North), Kolkata (East), Mumbai (West), and Chennai (South).
• Colors in National Highways:
• Yellow and white color is for national highways.
• Green and white for state highways
• Black and white for city highways

Telangana

• Foundation Day: 2^nd June 2014 (carved out from Andhra Pradesh on this date and became the 29^th state of the Republic of India).
• Capital: Hyderabad.
• Chief Minister: K. Chandrashekar Rao. (Feb 2023)
• Governor: Tamilisai Soundararajan. (Feb 2023)
• State Animal: Jinka Deer.
• State Bird: Indian Roller.
• State Tree: Jammi.
• State Flower: Tangedu.
• Hyderabad and Secunderabad are known as the 'Twin Cities of Telangana'.
• Ramgundam is known as the 'Energy City of India'.
• Indian Air Force Academy and National Police Academy are in Hyderabad.
• Telangana is the first Indian state to start Gender education at Degree Level.​

The correct answer is I, II and III.

Key Points

• Though the major part of the Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950, the provisions relating to Citizenship, Elections, Provisional Parliament, and temporary and transitional provision came into force with immediate effect from November 26, 1949.
• The provision of Fundamental Rights and other remaining provisions came into force on January 26, 1950.
• Important facts regarding the Constitution of India
• The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up under the Cabinet Mission Plan, in 1946.
• On December 11, 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected by the Assembly as its permanent Chairman.
• The Draft of the Constitution was prepared by a Drafting Committee consisting of 7 members, under the Chairmanship of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
• It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 26^th November 1949 and became effective on 26^th January 1950.
• The 389 member assembly (reduced to 299 after the partition of India) took almost three years to draft the constitution holding eleven sessions over 165 days.
• The Constitution replaced the Government of India Act 1935 Dominion of Indiaas the country’s fundamental governing document and the  became the Republic of India.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Rights
• Right to equality (Articles 14–18)
• Right to freedom (Articles 19–22)
• Right against exploitation (Articles 23–24)
• Right to freedom of religion (Articles 25–28)
• Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29–30)
• Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)
• The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44^th Amendment Act, 1978.

The correct answer is A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India was framed by a Constitution Assembly set up under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946.
• The Cabinet Mission came to India to discuss the transfer of power from the British Government to the Indian leadership with a view to preserving the peace and democracy of India.
• The constituent assembly was set up on 6^th December 1946.
• The first official meeting of the constituent assembly was held on  9^th December 1946.
• Sachidanand Sinha was appointed as the temporary chairman during its first meeting.
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent president of the constituent assembly on 11^th December 1946.
• The Constituent Assembly also appointed H C Mukherjee as its Vice president.
• The Constitutional Advisor to the constituent assembly was B. N Rao.

Important Points

• Important Committees of the Constituent Assembly-
• Drafting Committee – B. R. Ambedkar
• Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
• Provincial Constitution Committee – Vallabhbhai Patel
• Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Vallabhbhai Patel
• National Flag and HOC Committee – Rajendra Prasad
• States Committee (Committee for negotiating with states) - Jawaharlal Nehru
• Committee for the function of the Constitution Assembly - G V Mavlankar
• Language Committee - Moturi Satyanarayana

The correct answer is Freedom of press.

Key Points

• Freedom of the press is implicit under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution, which provides for the freedom of speech and expression under Part III (Fundamental Rights).
• Article 19(1) says All citizens shall have the right to:
• to freedom of speech and expression;
• to assemble peaceably and without arms;
• to form associations or unions;
• to move freely throughout the territory of India;
• to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and
• omitted
• to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business

Additional Information

• Fundamental Rights

1. Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
2. Right to Freedom (Article 19-22)
3. Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24)
4. Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25-28)
5. Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29-30)
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)

The correct answer is (b) only.

Key Points

• Articles 36-51 under Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deal with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• They are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland.
• The Sapru Committee in 1945 suggested two categories of individual rights. One being justiciable and the other being non-justiciable rights.
• The justiciable rights, as we know, are Fundamental rights, whereas the non-justiciable ones are the Directive Principles of State Policy.
• There are various definitions to Directive Principles of State which are given below-
• They are an ‘instrument of instructions’ which are enumerated in the Government of India Act, 1935.
• They seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
• DPSPs are ideals that are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
• Indian Constitution has not originally classified DPSPs but on the basis of their content and direction, they are usually classified into three types-
• Socialistic Principles
• Gandhian Principles
• Liberal-Intellectual Principles
• Article 47 of the DPSP deals with Prohibition of the consumption except for medical purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health.
• Article 23 of the Fundamental Rights deals with the Prohibition of Traffic in human beings and forced labour.
• Article 16 of the Fundamental Rights deals with equality of opportunity in matters of public employment and prevents the State from any sort of discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence, or any of them.

The correct answer is (a), (b) and (c).

Key Points

• Quo-Warranto in its literal sense means "by what authority".
• It is used by the court to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office.
• The writ can be used only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character.
• It cannot be used in the case of ministerial office.
• The conditions necessary for the issue of a writ of Quo Warranto are:
• The office must be public and it must be created by a statute or by the constitution itself.
• The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another.
• There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a statute or statutory instrument, in appointing such person to that office.
• Writs are issued under Article 32 and 226 by the Supreme Court and High Court respectively.

Additional Information

• Other writs-
• Certiorari in its literal sense means 'to be certified'.
• Mandamus in its literal meaning is 'we command'.
• Habeas Corpus is a Latin word that literally means 'to have a body of'.
• Prohibition means 'to forbid'.

The correct answer is Supreme Court can hear from any court tribunals as well as from court-martial.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court was established on 26^th January 1950.
• Article 124 of the Indian Constitution defines the Supreme Court of India.
• The Supreme Court of India is the country’s highest judicial court.
• It is the final court of appeal in the country.
• Functions of the Supreme Court-
• It takes up appeals against the verdicts of the High Courts, other courts and tribunals.
• It settles disputes between various government authorities, between state governments, and between the centre and any state government.
• It also hears matters which the President refers to it, in its advisory role.
• The SC can also take up cases suo moto (on its own).
• The law that SC declares is binding on all the courts in India and on the Union as well as the state governments.
• Features of the Supreme Court-
• Its original jurisdiction is confined to federal cases.
• Its appellate jurisdiction covers constitutional, civil, and criminal cases.
• It has a very wide discretion to grant special leave to appeal in any matter against the judgment of any court or tribunal (except military).
• It has advisory jurisdiction.
• It defends the rights of the citizen according to the ‘procedure established by law’.
• Its jurisdiction and powers can be enlarged by Parliament.
• It has the power of judicial superintendence and control over state high courts due to the integrated judicial system.